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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

PACE MEDICAL:

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

1.

PHYSICS The correct statement from the following is (a) Average speed is equal to the magnitude of average velocity (b) Average velocity cannot be zero for moving body (c) The magnitude of average velocity is always less than or equal to the average speed (d) Average velocity is not a vector quantity A particle moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration a, the distance covered by the particle in the nth second (a) does not depend on the initial velocity (b) does not depend on the constant acceleration (c) is given by xn = v 0 + a ( 2n 1)
1 2

2.

(d) is given by xn = v 0 + a ( n 1)

1 2

3.

A particle moving along the x-axis travels first 3m distance with velocity 3m/s and the second 3m distance with velocity 6m/s. The average velocity of the particle is (a) 4 m/s (b) 2 m/s (c) 4.5 m/s (d) 6 m/s A projectile is thrown up an inclined plane of angle with a velocity v0 at an angle with the plane as shown in fig. Then time of flight of the particle is given by 2v 0 sin 2v 0 sin (a) (b) g sin g cos 2v 0 sin ( + ) 2v 0 sin ( + ) (c) (d) g cos g sin The correct statement related to a non uniform circular motion is
r dv (a) tangential acceleration = dt r dv (c) centripital acceleration = dt

4.

v0

5.

(b) tangential acceleration =

r dv dt

6.

(d) acceleration is independent of radius of circle The displacement time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the given figure. The distance time graph of the particle is

(a)

(b)

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(c)

(d)

7.

A projectile crosses two walls of equal height H symmetrically as shown in figure. The time of flight is equal to (a) 8 s (b) 9 s (c) 7 s (d) 10 s If an external force F is applied at angle with the horizontal as shown in the fig. The value of F for which frictional force between block and wall is zero is (a) mg (c)
mg cos
Rough

8.

(b)

mg sin

(d) mg cos

9.

Two blocks m1 and m2 are placed in contact with each other on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction. A horizontal force F is applied on the block m1 as shown in the fig. The minimum value of F required to move the block m1 is (a) m1g (b) m2g (c) (m1 + m2)g (d) (m1 m2)g A block of mass m moving with velocity v0 on a smooth horizontal surface strikes a spring of stiffness k as shown in the figure. The net work done on the block till it comes to rest is
2 (a) mv 0
2 (c) mv 0

m1

m2

10.

2 (b) + mv 0

1 2

(d) zero

11.

The magnitude of the momentum of a particle varying with time is shown in figure. The variation of the force acting on the particle is shown as

(a)

(b)

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(c)

(d)

12.

In the fig. shown a rod of length L and mass M is lying in the X-Y plane passing through the origin as its centre. The moment of inertia of the rod about X-axis is
ML2 cos2 12 ML2 (b) cos 12 ML2 (c) sin 12

(a)

(d)

ML2 sin2 12

13.

A spool is pulled vertically upward by a constant force F as shown in the figure. Which of the following represents correct instantaneous direction of friction at the point of contact?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) Cannot be interpreted

14.

A U-tube in which the cross-sectional area of the limb on the left is one quarter, the limb on the right contains mercury (density 13.6 g/cm3). The level of mercury in the narrow limb is at a distance of 36 cm from the upper end of the tube. What will be the rise in the level of mercury in the right limb if the left limb is filled to the top with water (a) 1.2 cm (b) 2.35 cm (c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.8 cm

Water

Mercury

15.

In the figure shown below, which of the diodes are forward biased?

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(a) 1, 2, 3 (c) 1, 3, 4 16.

(b) 2, 4, 5 (d) 2, 3, 4

The figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density . It shows three points A, B and C lying along the same horizontal line. The correct statement about the pressure at the three points is (a) PA < PC < PB (b) PA = PB = PC (c) PA = 0 (d) nothing can be said

17.

The correct statement of continuity equation is (a) A1 V1 = A2 V2 for steady flow (b) 1A1V1 = 2A2V2 for steady flow (c) 1A1V1 = 2A2V2 for any flow (d) Both a & c In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl ions are arranged in a bcc configuration as shown in the figure. The net electrostatic force exerted by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl ion is (a) (c)
4e 2 4 0 3a 2 1 1 32e 2 4 0 3a 2

18.

(b)

1 16e 2 4 0 3a2

(d) zero

19.

A spring of stiffness constant k is cut into two parts A & B of length lA : lB = 2 : 3. The stiffness constant of spring A is given by (a) (c) k
5k 3

(b)

(d) none

5k 2

20.

A cube of side b and density 0 float on the surface of a liquid of density > 0 as shown in fig. If the cube is slightly pushed downward, and it oscillates simple harmonically, the period of oscillation is b b (a) 2 (b) 2 0 g 0 g

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

b (c) 2 1 + 0 g

(d) 2 1 +

b 0 g

21.

The displacement of a particle is given by x = 3 sin (5 t) + 4 cos (5 t ) The amplitude of particle is (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7 If u represent the instantaneous velocity of the particle and v represents the velocity of disturbance, then correct relation between the two r r r r (a) u v (b) u | | v r r (c) u = v (d) none The correct expression for the intensity of a wave travelling along the taut string is
1 v 2 A2 2 1 2 2 2 (c) v A 2
r

22.

23.

(a)

1 v 2 A2 2 1 (d) v A2 2

(b)

24.

Two vibrating tuning forks produce waves given by y1 = 4sin 500 t, y2 = 2sin 506 t. A person will hear (a) 3 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 9 (b) 3 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 2 (c) 6 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 2 (d) 6 beats / sec with intensity ratio of maxima to minima equal to 9 In the phenomenon of standing waves (a) Two waves moving in opposite direction but of same amplitude are superimposed (b) Two waves moving in opposite direction may be of different amplitudes are superimposed (c) Two waves with different frequencies superimposed (d) None Identify the operation performed by the circuit given below (a) NOT (b) AND (c) OR (d) NAND The effect of temperature on Maxwell speed distribution curve between number of molecules at a particular speed and speed is correctly show by (T1 > T2).

25.

26.

27.

(a)

(b)

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(c)

(d)

28.

The total degree of freedom of a CO2 gas molecule is (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) None The figure shows PV diagram of a thermodynamic cycle. If TA, TB, TC, and TD are respective temperature at A, B, C, D. Then choose correct statement if TA = T0 (a) The maximum temperature during the cycle at c (b) TD = 3 T0 (c) TB = 2 T0 (d) All the above A sphere, a cube and thin circular plate are heated to the same temperature. All are made of the same material and have equal masses. If t1, t2 and t3 are the respective time taken by the sphere, cube and the circular plate in cooling down to a common temperature, then (a) t1 > t2 > t3 (b) t1 < t2 < t3 (c) t2 > t1 > t3 (d) t1 = t2 = t3 A concave lens of focal length forms an image which is n times the size of the object. What is the distance of the object from the lens in term of f and n? (a) u =
n f 1 n

29.

30.

31.

(b) u =

(c) u = nf 32.

(d) none

1 n f n

In a glass slab, the deviation produced (a) is diverging (b) converging (c) zero (d) depends on outside medium Light ray is incident on a prism of angle A = 60 and = 2. Then angle of incidence at which emergent ray grazes the surface is (a) sin1 (c) sin1
3 1 2

33.

(b) sin1 (d) sin1

1 3 2

3 2

2 3
Imax will be Imin

34.

In YDSE, if intensity of two slits S1 and S2 be I0 and 4 I0 respectively, the (a) 4 (c) 9 (b)
5 3

(d) 3
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PACE MEDICAL:

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

35.

When ray of light travelling in air enters into a medium of refractive index (a) its speed decreases by (b) its frequency decreases by (c) its wavelength increases by (d) all the above The radioactivity of a sample is I1 at a time t1 and I2 at a time t2. If the half-life of the sample is 1/2, then the number of nuclei that have disintegrated in the time t2 t1 is proportional to (a) I1 t2 I2t1 (b) I1 I2 (c)
I1 I2

36.

1/2

(d) (I1 I2)1/2

37.

An infinitely long straight wire carries a steady current I. Rod PQ is oriented perpendicularly to it and moves parallel to it with constant velocity v. Then (a) Vp Vq > 0 (b) Vp VQ < 0 (c) Vp VQ = 0 (d) Nothing can be said about the loop

38.

L, C and R respectively represent inductance, capacitance and resistance. Which of the following combinations have the dimensions of frequency? (a) (c)
R L R

(b) (d)

1 RC 1

LC

LC

39.

In the circuit shown in figure. (a) The capacitance between a and b is zero (b) The capacitance between a and c is infinite (c) The capacitance between a and c is (d) None of these
C1C2 C1 + C2

40.

When a capacitor C is charged by a battery of emf E through a resistor R, Then (a) If gets charged to a lesser magnitude of charge as compared to the situation without resistance (b) It stores less amount of electrostatic energy (c) It takes longer time to get completely charged (d) All the above are correct

41.

Charge q is uniformly distributed along the circumference of a semi-circular ring of radius R. The E at O is + (a) (c)
Kq R2 2Kq R2

O + +

(b)

2Kq R2

(d) zero
r

42.

The potential difference between the two points A and B in an electric field E is defined as
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PACE MEDICAL: 8

MAITS-Sample Paper-01
B

(a) VA VB = E. dl
A

u r r u

(b) VB VA = E. dl
A

u r r u

(c) Cannot be defined without specifying the point of zero potential (d) the derivative of electric field 43. The Correct Statement related to the charge on each plate is A E (a) qA = 0
d 2 3 A (b) qB = 0 E 2 d 3 A (c) qC = 0 E 2 d

(d) All the above


r

44.

m in the uniform field A charge q0 undergoes a displacement s = 3i 4 j r N/c E = 3i 4 j

(a) (b) (c) (d) 45.

The work done by electric field is + 25q0 The work done by electric field is 25q0 The work done by external force is + 25 q0 The work done by external force is 25q0

A ray of light penetrates from a denser medium () to a rarer medium air ( = 1) at an angle as shown in the figure. Take critical angle
C = sin1
1 . The correct variation of angle of

deviation with respect to angle of incidence is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

46.

The value of B at O in the adjacent figure is I I (a) 0 0 ( inwards ) (b) 4R 2 R I I (c) 0 + 0 ( outwards ) (d) 4R 2 R

0 I

4R 0I ( inwards ) 4R

0I (outwards ) 2 R

R 0

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

47.

If a sample of hydrogen gas is excited to the third excited state, the number of distinct photons emitted are (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 X rays are produced when a stream of fast moving electron (a) is passed through a tube containing hydrogen gas (b) hits a metal target (c) hits a target of heavy metal (d) is passed through a tube containing air 300 g of water of 25C is added to 100g of ice at 0C. The final temperature of the mixture is [Sice = 0.5 cal/ gmc, SH2O = cal / gm c, Lf = 80 cal / gm] (a) (c) 5C
5 C 3

48.

49.

(b)

(d) 0C

5 C 2

50.

A radioactive substance undergoes and decays simultaneously. The half life for and decay are T and T respectively. The half life T for the substance is given by (a) T + T (b) T T

(c) 51.

TT

(d)

TT T + T

Identify the particle x in the following nuclear reaction?


9 4 Be 4 +2 He 6 C + x. 12

(a) electron (c) neutron 52.


5M k k (c) 2 5M

(b) alpha particle (d) proton


10M k

The time period of the following arrangement is (a) 2 (b) 2

k k

(d) None

M
53. The variation of maximum KE of the electron emitted with frequency f of light is given by KE(max) KE (max)

(a)

(b)

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

KE (max)

KE (max)

(c) 54.

(d)

A coil is falling is vertical plane inside a uniform magnetic field as shown in the fig. The directions of induced current is best shown by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) None of these

55.

When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + t, the moment of inertia of the rod increases from I to I + I. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod is , then, the ratio (a)
t t I is I 2 t t

(b)

(c) t

(d) 2 t

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (a) (b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c) (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d) 56. A: A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the dishes from the table R: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction 57. A: The internal energy of an ideal gas does not change during an isothermal process. R: The decrease in volume of a gas is compensated by a corresponding increase in pressure when its temperature is held constant.
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PACE MEDICAL:

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

58.

A: A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of voltage V. The battery is then disconnected. If the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric, the energy stored in the capacitor will decrease R: The capacitance of a capacitor increases due to the introduction of a dielectric between the plates. A: Standard optical diffraction cannot be used for discriminating between different X-ray wavelength. R: The grating spacing is not of the order of X-ray wavelengths. A: Red light travels faster in glass than green light. R: The refractive index of glass is less for red light than for green light. CHEMISTRY

59.

60.

61.

The energy E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25eV and 50eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. 1 and 2 will be (a) 1 = 2 (b) 21 = 2 (c) 1 = 42 (d) 1 =
1 2 2

62.

The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum which is equal to 1 1018 g cm s1. The uncertainty in velocity of electron (mass of electron is 9 1028g) is (a) 1 109 cm s1 (b) 1 106 cm s1 (c) 1 105 cm s1 (d) 1 1011 cm s1 The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is (a) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg2+ (b) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (c) Li+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (d) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ Which of the following is the largest in size? (a) S2 (b) Se2 2 (c) O (d) Te2 Which of the following two are isostructural? (a) XeF2, IF2 (b) NH3, BF3 (c) CO32, SO32 (d) PCl5, ICl5 The types of hybridization on the five carbon atoms from left to right in the molecules CH3CH = C = CHCH3 are (a) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3 (b) sp3, sp, sp2, sp2, sp3 3 2 2 3 (c) sp , sp , sp, sp , sp (d) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp, sp3 The correct order of C O bonds length among CO, CO32, and CO2 is (a) CO < CO2 < CO32 (b) CO2 < CO32 < CO 2 (c) CO < CO3 < CO2 (d) CO32 < CO2 < CO How many hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) are associated with CuSO4. 5H2O? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
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63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

PACE MEDICAL: 12

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

69.

At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that of a hydrocarbon having molecular formula CnH2n-2. What is the value of n? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 8 The heats of atomization of PH3(g) and P2H4(g) are 954 kJ mol1 and 1485 kJ mol1 respectively. The P P bond enegy in kJ mol1 is (a) 213 (b) 426 (c) 318 (d) 1272 4.48L of an ideal gas at STP requires 12 calories to raise its temperature by 15C at constant volume. The Cp of the gas is (a) 3 cal (b) 4 cal (c) 7 cal (d) 6 cal The molar solubility (in mol L1) of a sparingly soluble salt MX4 is s. The corresponding solubility product is Ksp s is given in terms of Ksp by the relation: (a) s = (256 Ksp)1/5 (b) s = (128 Ksp)1/4 (c) s = (Ksp/128)1/4 (d) s = (Ksp/256)1/5 The equilibrium constants
K p1

70.

71.

72.

73.

and

K p2 for

the

reactions

X 2Y and Z P + Q respectively are in the ratio 1 ; 9. If degree of

dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressure at these equilibria is (a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 36 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1: 3 74. When a strong acid is titrated using a weak base, the pH value at equivalence point is (a) 7 (b) > 7 (c) < 7 (d) = 7 Consider the following gaseous equilibria with equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively.
1 O2 (g) SO3 (g) 2 2SO3(g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)

75.

SO2(g) +

The equilibrium constants are related as


2 (a) 2K1 = K 2
2 (b) K1 =

(c) K 2 2 = 76.

1 K1

(d) K 2 =

1 K2 2
2 K1

For two ionic slids KI and CaO, identify the wrong statement among the following (a) Lattice energy of CaO is much higher than that of KI (b) KI is soluble in benzene (c) CaO has high m.p. (d) KI has high m.p. A solid compound X on heating gives CO2 gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing an excess of CO2 through Y in water, a clear solution Z is obtained. On boiling Z compound X is formed. The compound X is
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77.

PACE MEDICAL:

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(a) CaCO3 (c) K2CO3 78.

(b) Na2CO3 ()d) Ca(HCO3)2

Which among the following is kinetically inert towards water? (a) Na (b) Be (c) Ca (d) K Which of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt (I) KIO3 (II) KI3 (III) I2 (IV) HI (a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV Among the following ions p-d overlap could be present in (a) NO3 (b) PO43 (c) CO32 (d) NO2 When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3, the gas envolved is (a) NO2 (b) O2 (c) N2 (d) N2O Reaction of diborane with ammonia gives initially (a) B2H6 . NH3 (b) Borazole (c) B2H6 . 3NH3 (d) [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4] In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm). (a) 15.45 (b) 16.45 (c) 17.45 (d) 14.45 Identify the compound that exhibits tautomerism (a) 2-Butene (b) Lactic acid (c) 2-Pentanone (d) Phenol Which one of the following is n-butyl phenylvinyl methane?
Me

79.

80.

81.

82.

83.

84.

85.

Ph
Me Me

Me

(a) Ph
Ph

(b)
Me

Me

(c) Me
Me

(d)
Ph Me

86.

When subjected to acid catalysed hydration, the order of reactivity of the alkenes; (CH3)2C = CH2 (I), CH2CH = CH2 (II) and CH2 = CH2 (III) is (a) III > II > I (b) I > III > II (c) I > II > III (d) II > I > III In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is
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87.

PACE MEDICAL: 14

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

CH3
CH3

CH3
H

(a)
H

H H CH3

H H CH3

CH3

CH3 H H

H H CH3

(c)
H

88.

Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinated product upon free radical chlorination? (a) Propane (b) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane (c) 2-Methylpropane (d) N-Butane If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closet packing sequence ABC ABC , the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to (a) Z (b) 2Z (c) Z/2 (d) Z/4 In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occpy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be (a) X3Y4 (b) X4Y3 (c) X2Y3 (d) X2Y A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol1) is isotonic with 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The molar mass of the non volatile solute is (a) 300 g mol1 (b) 350 g mol1 1 (c) 200 g mol (d) 250 g mol1 Highest boiling point is found in (a) 0.1 M NaCl (c) 0.1 M Sucrose (b) 0.1 M BaCl2 (d) 0.1 M KCl

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

Same amount of electric current is passed through solution of AgNO3 and HCl. If 1.08 of silver is obtained in the first case, the amount of hydrogen liberated at S.T.P. in the second case is: (a) 112 cm3 (b) 22400 cm3 (c) 224 cm3 (d) 1.008 g On the basis of the following E values, the strongest oxidizing agent is [Fe(CN)6]4 [FE(CN)6]3 + e E = 0.35V 2+ 3+ Fe FE + e E = 0.77V (a) Fe2+ (b) Fe3+ 3 (c) [Fe(CN)6] (d) [Fe(CN)6]4
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94.

PACE MEDICAL:

MAITS-Sample Paper-01

95.

In an experiment, 0.04 F was passed through 400 mL of a 1 M NaCl solution. Wha would be the pH of the solution after electrolysis? (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 6 The experimental rate law of a reaction: 2A + B Product is rate CA CB1/2. If the concentrations of both A and B are doubled the rate increases by a factor of (a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 2 (d) 4 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately: (a) 45 minutes (b) 60 minutes (c) 40 minutes (d) 50 minutes (log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) The ion that is more effective for coagulation of As2S3 sol is (a) Ba2+ (b) Na+ (c) PO43 (d) SO42 Which of the following is a carbonate ore? (a) Pyrolusite (b) Malachite (c) Diaspore (d) Cassiterite Which of the following ore is best concentrated by the following scheme? (a) magnetite (b) cassiterite (C) galena (d) malachite the oxidation state of phosphorus in cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is (a) +3 (b) +5 (c) 3 (d) +2 Na2S2O3 is reduced by I2 to (a) Na2S (c) NaHSO3 (b) Na2SO4 (d) Na2S4O6

96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

102.

103.

Identify the incorrect statement among the following? (a) Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq) in the presence of air to give Na2SiO3 and H2O (b) Cl2 reacts with excess of NH3 to give N2 and HCl (c) Br2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH solution to form NaBr, NaBrO4 and H2O (d) Ozone reacts with SO2 to give SO3 Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers? (a) [Co(NH3]4Cl2] (b) [Ni(en)(NH3)4]2+ (c) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2]2 (d) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+ Which one of the following has square planar geometry? (a) [FeCl4]2 (b) [NiCl4]2 (c) [FtCl4]2 (d) [CoCl4]2

104.

105. 106.

The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton units) of Cr(CO)6 is (a) 0 (b) 2.84 (c) 4.90 (d) 5.92
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107.

CH3Cl Zn, dust Alkaline Phenol X Y Z . The product Z is Anhyd. AlCl KMnO
3 4

(a) Benzaldehyde 108.

(b) Benzoic acid

(c) Benzene

(d) Toluene

Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for preparation of 1methoxy-4-nitrobenzene?


Br ONa

(A)
NO2

+ CH3ONa

(B)
NO2

+ CH3Br

(a) A (c) Both A and B 109.

(b) B (d) None of these

The compound that undergoes dehydration very easily is (a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (b) ethyl alcohol (c) 3-methyl-2-butanol (d) propyl alcohol The correct order of acidic strength of the following compound I. Phenol II. p=Cresol III. m-Nitrophenol IV. p-Nitrophenol is (a) IV > III > I > II (b) II > IV > I > III (c) I > II > IV > III (d) III > II > I > IV CH3CO2C2H5 on reaction with sodium ethoxide in ethanol gives X, which on heating in the presence of acid gives Y. Compound Y is (a) CH3COCH2COOH (b) CH3COCH3 OC2H5 O (c) H C (d) H2C O 2
OC2H5

110.

111.

112. 113. 114.

The most basic amine among the following is (a) p-toluidine (b) o-nitro aniline (c) p-nitroaniline An example of water soluble vitamin is (a) vitamin D (b) vitamin E (c) vitamin A

(d) 2, 4-dinitroaniline (d) vitamin C

Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories? (a) An enzyme (b) A hormone (c) A co-enzyme (d) An antibiotic The polymer used in orthopaedic devices and in controlled drug release is (A) Orlon (b) PTFE (c) SBR (d) PHBV

115.

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (a) (b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c)
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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

(d)
116.

If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d)
A: One mole of SO2 contains double the number of molecules present in one mole of O2. R: Molecular weight of SO2 is double to that of O2.

117.

A: Carbon-carbon double bond length in 2-butene is more than 1-butene. R:Hyperconjugations increases bond length of carbon-carbon double bond.

CHO
118. A: IUPAC name of CH3

CH

CH2

COOH is 3-formylbutanoic

acid.

R: In terms of priority, COOH is senior to CHO. 119. 120. A: Boiling point of alkanes increases with increase in molecular weight. R: Van der Waals forces increase with increase in molecular weight. A: Melting point of alkyne is more than the corresponding alkane. R: Alkyne has symmetrical (rod like structure) and hence, compact structure.

BIOLOGY 121. Some characteristic of animals are given below (i) Notochord is present in the embryonic as well as adult form (ii) Animals have closed circulatory system (iii) Animals shows bilateral symmetry (iv) Animals are always triploblastic and coelomates. The characteristic that apply to chordates are: (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) (i) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) (iii) and (iv) (d) only (iii) and (iv). The first adult chordates that exhibit all major chordate characteristic are: (a) Tunicates (b) Balanoglossus (c) Lancelets (d) Cyclostomes In this given diagram, if a,b,c, is the Glycine, Alanine and Serine respectively then X, Y, Z must be
COOH H C X (a) NH2 H COOH C NH2 H COOH C NH2

122.

123.

Y
(b)

Z
(c)

(a) H, CH3, C2H5 (c) H, CH3, CH2OH 124.

(b) CH3, C2H5OH, CH2OH (d) H, C2H5, CH2OH.

Which statement about protein is correct? (a) Quaternary structure of protein is determined by the primary amino acid sequence. (b) In proteins only right handed helices are observed in its secondary conformation.
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(c) In protein tertiary structure is the result of the interaction of two or more independent polypeptide chain. (d) Primary structure is altered by the interaction of the polypeptide chain with cofactors required for enzyme activity such as metal ions or vitamins. 125. Characteristic like cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground substance it serve as a support framework for epithelium, and present beneath the skin, are present in (a) Areolar tissue (b) Loose connective tissue (c) Dense irregular connective tissue (d) Both (a) and (b). Removal of pancreas results in (i) Undigertion of carbohydrate (iii) Undigestion of fat (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (c) (iii), (iv) only (ii) (iv) (b) (d) Undigestion of proteins Undigestion of nucleic acid (i), (ii) only (iii) only.

126.

127.

The major function of the large intestine is (a) Nutrient absorption of food (b) Housing parasitic bacteria. (c) Secretion of bile and enzymes (d) Reabsorption of water. Which of the following component of food is completely undigested in buccal cavity of humans? (i) Protein (ii) Lipid (iii) Starch (iv) Nucleic acid. (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) (c) (i), (iv) (d) (iv) only. In a mammalian lungs the rate at which oxygen could be obtained from the air would increase, except? (a) Tidal volume increased. (b) The cells lining the alveoli and capillaries should be thin. (c) Blood hemoglobin contents increased. (d) Ascending to higher altitude. The structural unit of kidney characterized of class Mammalia and involved in formation of Hyper-osomotic urine is: (a) Collecting tubules (b) Loop of Henles (c) Loop of Henles (d) DCT. Which of the following is the major site of tubular secretion for NH3, drugs, and H+? (a) PCT (b) DCT (c) Collecting duct (d) Loop of henles. Total number of bones present in carpals, metacarpals and phallanges in a forelimb is (a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 27 (d) 29. Which of the following correctly explain the layers of retina, if the first layer is located next to vitreous humor? (a) Pigmented cells bipolar cells ganglion cells photoreceptor. (b) Ganglionic cells bipolar cells photoreceptor pigmented cells (c) Photoreceptors pigmented cells ganglionic cells bipolar cells. (d) Photoreceptors bipolar cells ganglionic cells pigmented cells.
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128.

129.

130.

131.

132.

133.

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

134.

Steroid hormones (a) Pass easily through cell membrane to act in the nucleus. (b) It includes testosterone, glucocorticoids and relaxin. (c) Are produced in the gonads only. (d) Stimulates liver cells to convert glucose to glycogen. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function? (i) Epididymis capacitation of spermatozoa. (ii) Fallopian tube catches ova in the stage of primary oocyte. (iii) Seminal vesides produces ca++ rich sugar containing fluid. (iv) Corpus lutem produces progesterone, a major female sex hormone. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) only (c) (ii) only (d) (iv) only. Which of the following effect can be seen, if a young female is taking a drug, which inhibit the release of GnRH from hypothalamus? (a) Earlier onset of menstruation. (b) Follicle development. (c) Increased revel of oestrogen in the blood. (d) Decreased level of lutenizing hormone in the blood. Implantation is followed by (a) Formation of blastocyst (c) Formation of germinal layer IUD prevents (a) Ovulation (c) Fertilization (b) Formation of zona pellucida (d) Both (a) and (c) (b) Implantation (d) All of these.

135.

136.

137.

138.

139.

In which of the following in vivo fertilization is applicable? (a) GIFT (b) IUT (c) ZIFT (d) Both (a) and (b). ________ a flexible rubber, which fits over the cervix and prevents entry of sperm to uterus. (a) IUD (b) Diaphragm (c) Sponge (d) Coil. The observation of placental mice, in north America, are very similar in appearance to marsupial mice in Australia, is an example of (a) Divergent evolution (b) Convergent evolution (c) Homology (d) Analogy. Which of the following was not a part of Darwins explanation of natural selection? (a) Pre-adaptive variations exist within each species. (b) Members of a species compete with each other for food and space. (c) The offspring that are not fit possess traits which are best suited to the environment (d) Individuals adjust their development depending on the environment. All living organisms that we see today were created as such this explanation is based on (a) Theory of biogenesis (b) Theory of special creation
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140.

141.

142.

143.

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(c) Theory of abiogenesis 144.

(d) Theory of panspermia

Which of the following characteristic is not true regarding homo habilis? (a) Brain capacities were between 650 800 CC (b) They hunted with stone weapons (c) Bipedal locomotion (d) Meat eater. A person is feeling of sense of euphorbia, and increased energy level, and even hallucination, after using the drugs (a) Morphine (b) Smack (c) Cocaine (d) Benzodiazepines. The term insertional inactivation is related with (a) Bacterial plasmid vector (b) Retroviruses (c) Ti-plasmid (d) All of these Term disarmed vectors can be used for (a) Ti-plasmid (b) Retroviruses (c) PBR 322 (d) Both (a) and (b) According to Mendel factors are? (a) Stably passed down from one generation to another (b) they are present in pair (c) They segregate independent of each other (d) All the above In flowering plant, production of fruit is not throughout the year because (a) The require specific day length to flower (b) Various physiological factors play important role (c) There is inter-flowering period or recovery phase (d) All the above Match the following A. Male gametophyte B. Female gametophyte C. Megasporangium D. Scutellum (a) A ii, B iv, C I, D iii (c) A ii, B iii, C iv, D I (i) Ovule (ii) Pollen grain (iii) Embryo sac (iv) Cotyledon (b) A ii, B iii, C I, D iv (d) A iii, B ii, C I, D iv

145.

146.

147.

148.

149.

150.

151.

The unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material was provided by Hershey and chase. Which of the following statement is not correct about their experiment? (a) They used Bacteriophages and bacteria as experimental material (b) Their experiment is based upon fact that DNA contains phosphorous and protein contains sulfur (c) They used different enzymes (d) They used centrifugation A translation unit in flanked by start codon and stop codon and also has untranslated region at both 5-end and 3-end. They are required for? (a) Activation of translation unit
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152.

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(b) For efficient translation process (c) For binding of smaller ribosomal sub-unit (d) For binding of larger ribosomal sub-unit 153. Arrange these steps of plant breeding as they carried out (i) Germplasm collection (ii) Hybridisation (iii) Testing and release (iv) Parent selection (v) Selection of superior recombinant (a) I, ii, iv, v, iii (b) I, iv, ii, v, iii (c) I, v, iv, ii, iii (d) I, ii, v, iv, iii Which of the following is not possible through tissue culture? (a) Production of recombinants (b) Production of somatic hybrids (c) Production of disease free plant from diseased plant (d) Propagation of rare hybrids Which of the following is correct for Monoascus purpureus (a) It is source of statin (b) It belongs to kingdom fungi (c) It belongs to kingdom monera (d) Both (a) and (b) is correct Which of the following adaptation is not necessary for success of parasites? (a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (b) High reproductive capacity (c) Well developed digestive system (d) Presence of adhesive organ Which of the following is incorrect about ecological pyramids? (a) In most ecosystem, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright (b) Pyramid of biomass in a sea is also generally inverted (c) Pyramid of number in a tree is inverted (d) Pyramid of energy in a aquatic ecosystem can be inverted or upright or bell shaped In secondary succession, invasion of a species depends upon all except (a) Condition of the soil (b) Availability of water (c) Seed or other propagules present (d) Reproductive potential of species Match the following PGR A. Abscisic acid B. Ethylene C. Gibbrellin D. Cytokinin (a) A iv, B iii, C i, D ii (c) A iii, B iv, C iii, D iv ROLE (Physiological) (i) Bolting (ii) Chloroplast Production (iii) Internode elongation in deepwater rice (iv) Seed development and Maturation (b) A iv, B iii, C ii, D i (d) A iii, B iv, C i, - D - ii

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

Which of the following product of respiratory pathway is withdrawn during synthesis


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of fatty acids? (a) Succinyl CoA (c) PGAL 161.

(b) Pyruvic acid (d) Acetyl CoA

Which of the following is incorrect for C3 plants? (a) They show photo respiration (b) Green house effect will increase their productivity (c) Have high temperature optima (d) CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cell The x-shaped structure which is formed during diplotene of meiosis I is? (a) Bivalent (b) Chiasmata (c) Recombination nodule (d) Tetrad In dicot stem vascular bundles are (a) Large in number, scattered, endarch (b) Arranged in ring, endarch (c) Surrounded by collenchyma (d) without cambium In coconut fibre is obtained from which part of fruit (a) Epicarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Endocarp (d) Cremocarp Which of the following is not a characteristic of Rhodophyceae (a) Floridian starch is reserve food (b) Cell-wall contains polysulphate esters (c) Chlorophyll a and d is present (d) Gametes are motile They are saprophytic, survives on organic matter, producing fruiting bodies during unfavourable condition, spore with cellulosic cell wall and dispersal of spore takes place by air currents (a) Basidomycetes (b) Slime mould (c) Ascomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes What is the similarity between collenchyma and sclerenchyma (a) Both are simple permanent tissue and living (b) Both are simple permanent tissue and dead (c) Both are simple permanent tissue and stores food (d) Both are simple permanent tissue and provide mechanical support Archaebacteria is found in which of the following habitat (a) Marshy area (b) Salty area (c) Hot springs (d) All the above Match the following A. Diatoms B. Dinoflagellate C. Euglenoides D. Slime moulds (a) A iii, B i, C ii, D iv (c) A iii, B ii, C i, D iv (i) cell-wall with stiff cellulose plate (ii) In place of cell wall pellicle (iii) Cell wall with silica (iv) Spore posses true wall (b) A iii, B i, C iv, D ii (d) A iv, B i, C ii, D iii

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168.

169.

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MAITS-Sample Paper-01

170.

Find incorrect options about Bryophytes (a) Have unicellular or multicellular rhizoids (b) Sex organs are multi cellular (c) Embryo stage is not present (d) They can decompose rock Which of the following is not correct about gymnosperm? (a) Endosperm is triploid (b) They are heterosporous (c) Megasporophylls cluster to form the female cone (d) Male gametophyte is highly reduced Match the following A Fumigatory B. Vegetable C. Medicine D. Fodder (a) A i, B iii, C ii, D iv (c) A iv, B ii, C i, D iii (i) Asparagus (ii) Muliathi (iii) Tobacco (iv) Trifolium (b) A iii, B i, C ii, D iv (d) A ii, B iv, C i, D iii

171.

172.

173.

This statement is true for which stage of cell division. It beings with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome (a) Anaphase (b) Anaphase I (c) Anaphase II (d) both (a) and (c) Which of the following family show apomixis? (a) Asteraceae (b) Poaceae (c) Solanaceae (d) Both (a) and (b) ABO system of blood group is an example of (a) co-dominance (b) Multiple alleles (c) Incomplete dominance (d) More than one option is correct

174.

175.

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (a) (b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b) (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c) (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d) 176. 177. A: Second infection of the same pathogen is quickly eliminated. R: Killer T cells becomes hyperactivated, and destroy extracellular pathogens. A: In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional links between its individual cells. R: Cell junctions always help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. A: All the vertebrates are essentially also a chordates. R: In the vertebrates notochord appears first and further it is replaced with vertebral column.
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178.

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179. 180.

A: Hotspots are recognized by high degree of endemism. R: They are threatened by human activity. A: Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous cell-organelle. R: Mitochondria and chloroplast can produce some of their own protein.

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