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VMC/Solutions 1 Paper2Code0JEEAdvanced2013

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JEEAdvanced2013 Paper2AnswerKey
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PHYSICS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 A,B,C,D A,C D C,D A,D A,B B,D A,D B A B A B B C A A C D C

CHEMISTRY
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C,D A,B,D A,C,D A,B B C B B,D A D B A C B A A A D D A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

MATHS
B,C,D A,B C,D A,B,C A,D B,D B,D A,C A C B D B C A D C A B A

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Part1:PHYSICS

Section 1: (One or more options correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE are correct 1. The figure below shows the variation of specific heat capacity (C) of a solid as a function of temperature (T). The temperature is increased continuously from 0 to 500 K at a constant rate. Ignoring any volume change, the following statement(s) is (are) correct to a reasonable approximation.

(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans.(A,B,C,D)

the rate at which heat is absorbed in the range 0 100 K varies linearly with temperature T. heat absorbed in increasing the temperature from 0 100 K is less than the heat required for increasing the temperature from 400 500 K. there is no change in the rate of heat absorption in the range 400 500 K the rate of heat absorption increases in the range 200 300 K.

Q = mCdT = m area under C T graph

dQ dT = mC dt dt
if C increases rate of heat absorption increases. ( as
dT is constant) dt

2.

The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5 a0, where a0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is
3h . It is given that h is Planck constant and R is Rydberg constant. The possible 2 9 16 R 9 5R 4 3R

wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is /are

(A)
9 32 R
1

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans.(A,C)

1 1 = RZ 2 2 2 n1 n2 L= 3h n1 = 3 2

n2 32 9 a = a0 1 4.5a0 = a0 . Z = =2 z z 4.5

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1 1 = R( Z )2 2 2 n2 3
1 n2 = 2 , = 9 5R

n2 = 1, =

9 32 R

3.

Using the expression 2d sin = , one calculates the values of d by measuring the corresponding angles

in the range 0 to 90o . The wavelength is exactly known and the error in is constant for all values

of . As increases from 0o ,
(A) the absolute error in d remains constant (C) the fractional error in d remains constant Ans.(D) 2d sin =
d = d =

(B) (D)

the absolute error in d increases the fractional error in d decreases

2 sin

( is exactly known)

cos ec

.....(1)

d = ( cos ec cot ) 2
2
cos ec cot ( )

d =

...(2)
( is constant )

Equation 2/1 both d and

d
d

= ( cot )

d
d

are decreasing with .

4.

Two non-conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 carrying uniform volume charge densities + and ,

respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap as shown in the figure. At all points in the overlapping region,

(A) (B) (C) (D) Ans. (C,D)

the electrostatic field is zero the electrostatic potential is constant the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude the electrostatic field has same direction r r r O' P OP E = 3 0 3 0 r r r r O' O (Q O' O + OP = O' P ) = 3 0

So, E is constant in magnitude as well as direction.

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5.

A Steady current I flows along an infinitely long hollow cylindrical conductor of radius R. This cylinder is placed coaxilly inside an infinite solenoid of radius 2R. The solenoid has n turns per unit length and carries a steady current I. Consider a point P at a distance r from the common axis. The correct statement(s) is (are) (A) In the region 0 < r < R, the magnetic field is non-zero (B) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is along the common axis. (C) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is tangential to the circle of radius r, centered on the axis. (D) In the region r > 2R, the magnetic field is non-zero. Ans. (A,D)

6.

Two vehicles, each moving with speed u on the same horizontal straight road, are approaching each other. Wind blows the road with velocity w. One of these vehicles blows a whistle of frequency f1. An observer in the other vehicle hearts the frequency of the whistle to be f2. The speed of sound in still air is V. The correct statement(s) is (are) (A) If the wind blows from the observer to the source, f2 > f1. (B) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f2 > f1 (C) If the wind blows from observer to the source, f2 < f1 (D) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f2 < f1

Ans.(A,B) If the wind blows from source to observer

f2 = ( v + w ) ( u ) v+ w+u f 2 > f1 f1 = ( v + w ) ( +u ) v+ wu ( v w ) ( u ) vw+u f1 = f1 f 2 > f1 ( v w ) ( +u ) v wu

If the wind blows from observer to source

f2 =

7.

Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is projected from the midpoint of the line joining centres, perpendicular to the line. The gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is 4 The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is 2 The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two bodies is The energy of the mass m remains constant. In order to escape to infinity T. E = 0
1 GMm mu 2 = 2 L
2

GM L GM L

2GM L

Ans. (B,D)

u=2

GM L

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8.

A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying on a frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts moving horizontally from its equilibrium position at time t = 0 with an initial velocity u0. when the speed of the particle is 0.5 u0, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this collision, (A) the speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u0
(B) (C) (D)

the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first time is t = the time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is t = 4 3
m k

m k

the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second time is t =

5 3

m k

Ans. (A,D)
x = A sin t v = (A) cos t u0 = u 0 cos t 2

cos t = 1 / 2 t=

t = / 3

K t = /3 m

m 3 K m 2 m = 3 K 3 K

(time taken to reach wall from mean position)

time of passing equilibrium for first time = 2

time of maximum compression =

2 m 2 m 7 m + = 3 K 4 K 6 K 2 m m 5 m + = 3 K K 3 K

time of passing equilibrium for second time =

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VidyamandirClasses Section 2: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight questions related to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Question 9-10 A small block of mass 1 kg is released from rest at the top of a rough track. The track is a circular arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling and a frictional force acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous velocity. The work done in overcoming the friction up to the point Q, as shown in the figure below, is 150 J. (Take the

acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m s 2 ).

9.

The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is.

(A)
5 ms 1

(B)

10 ms 1

(C)

10 3 ms 1

(D)

20 ms 1

Ans. (B)
Loss of P.E.=gain of K.E + Wagainst f

R 1 = mv 2 + 150 2 2 40 1 1 10 = 1 v 2 + 150 2 2 mg

v = 10 m / s

10. Ans. (A)

The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts on the block at the point Q is (A) 7.5 N (B) 8.6 N (C) 11.5 N
At Q N mg cos 60 = N 1 10 N = 5+
0

(D)

22.5 N

mv R

1 1 10 = 2 40

5 = 7.5 N 2

Paragraph for Question 11-12 A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600 kW at 4000 V, which is to be transported to a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can be transported either directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by using a combination of step-up and step-down transformers at two ends. The drawback of the direct transmission is the large energy dissipation. In the method using transformers, the dissipation is much smaller. In this method, a step-up transformer is used at the plant side so that the current is reduced to a smaller value. At the consumers end, a step-down transformer is used to supply power to the consumers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to

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assume that the power cable is purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power factor unity. All the currents and voltages mentioned are rms values.
11.

If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance 0.4 km 1 is used, the power dissipation (in %)

during transmission is.

(A) Ans.(B)

20

(B)

30

(C)

40

(D)

50

P = Vi (production)

600 10 = I 4000 I = 150 amp Power dissipation = I R = 150 (0.4 20) = 150 8 = 180 kW Percentage = 180 100 = 30% 600
2 2 2

12.

In the method using the transformers, assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1 : 10. If the power to the consumers has to be supplied at 200 V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to that in the secondary in the step-down transformer is. (A) 200 : 1 (B) 150 : 1 (C) 100 : 1 (D) 50 : 1
At step up

Ans.(A)
Vp Vs Np Ns = Np Ns Vp Vs = 1 Vs = 40000 V 10

At Step down Vs = 200 V = = 40000 = 200 :1 200

Paragraph for Question 13-14 A point charge Q is moving in a circular orbit of radius R in the x-y plane with an angular velocity . This can be

considered as equivalent to a loop carrying a steady current

Q . A uniform magnetic field along the positive z2

axis is now switched on, which increases at a constant rate from 0 to B in one second. Assume that the radius of the orbit remains constant. The application of the magnetic field induces an emf in the orbit. The induced emf is defined as the work done by an induced electric field in moving a unit positive charge around a closed loop. It is known that, for an orbiting charge, the magnetic dipole moment is proportional to the angular momentum with a proportionally constant .
13.

The magnitude of the induced electric field in the orbit at any instant of time during the time interval of the magnetic field change is.
(A)
BR 4

(B)

BR 2

(C)

BR

(D)

2BR

Ans.(B) E.2 R =

d dt
d dt

E.2 R = R 2 E.2 R = R 2

0
1

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E=

R 2

14.

The change in the magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbit, at the end of the time interval of the magnetic field change is.
(A)
BQR 2

(B)

BQR 2 2

(C)

BQR 2 2

(D)

BQR 2

Ans.(B)

M = L = .( t ) = .(QER1) R = .(Q. .R)

2

2 Since angular momentum increases in downward direction (-ve z) Q R 2 Hence, M = . 2

Paragraph for Question 15-16

= .

Q R 2

The mass of a nucleus

A Z X

is less than the sum of the masses of (A Z) number of neutrons and Z number of

protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding mass difference is known as the binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy nucleus of mass M can break into two light nuclei of masses m1 and m2 only if (m1 + m2) < M. Also two light nuclei of masses m3 and m4 can undergo complete fusion and form a heavy nucleus of mass M only if (m3 + m4) > M. The masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below:
15.

The correct statement is.

(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 The nucleus 3 Li can emit an alpha particle 210 84 Po

The nucleus The nuclei

can emit a proton

82 34 Se

Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion

70 30 Zn

and

can undergo complete fusion

Ans.(C)
2 He +1 H is not feasible as 4.002603+2.014102=6.016705u i.e. total mass of product is more than 6.015123 u ie the mass of reactant. Similarly reaction mention in option (B) and (D) are not feasible. On this basis, the only feasible reaction is that deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion. 6 4 3 Li 2

16.

the kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus
(A)

210 84 Po

at rest undergoes alpha decay, is

(D)

5319

(B)

5422

(C)

5707

5818

Ans.(A)
210 206 84 Po 82

Pb + 4 2 He

m = 209.982876 (205.974455 + 4.002603) = 0.005818 Total energy released = 0.005818 x 932 MeV=E

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k + k Po = E (i)

p = p Po (from conservation of momentum) 2m k = 2m Po k Po (ii) m k = m Po k Po

From (i) and (ii) m po 206 K = E= xE = 5319 KeV m po + m 210

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VidyamandirClasses Section 3: (Matching list Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17.

One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken along two cyclic processes E F G E and E F H E as shown in the PV diagram. The processes involved are purely isochoric, isobaric, isothermal of adiabatic.

List -I (P) (Q) (R) (S)

Code: (A) (B) (C) (D) Ans.(A) WGE P Q 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 3 = P0 (V0 VG ) R 2 1 2 2 S 1 2 4 4
GE GH FH F G

List -II (1) (2) (3) (4) 160 P0V0 ln2 36 P0V0 24 P0V0 31 P0V0

For FG, PF VF = PGVG VG = 32V0

WGE = P0 (V0 32V0 ) = 31P0V0 WGH = P0 ( 8V0 32V0 ) = 24 P0V0 for F to H

PV r = const ( 32 P0 )(V 0 ) = P0 (VH ) V H V0 WFH =

5/ 3

= 32 = 25

VH = 23 = 8 VH = 8V0 V0

f f nR( TF TH ) = ( PF VF PH VH ) 2 2 =
3 ( 32 P0V0 P0 8V0 ) = 36 P0V0 2

V WFH = PV ln 2 V1

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32V0 = 32 P0V0 ln V0 = 160 P0V0 ln( 2 )

P 4
18.

Q 3 R 2

S 1

Match List-I of the nuclear processes with List-II containing parent nucleus and one of the end products of each process and then the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (P) (Q) (R) (S)

Code: (A) (B) (C) (D) Ans.(C)
P : Alpha Decay:

List -II (1) (2) (3) (4)

15 15 9 O 7 238 92 U

Alpha decay

N + .....

+ decay
Fission Proton emission

234 90 Th + .....

185 184 83 Bi 82 239 140 94 Pu 57

Pb + ..... La + .....

P 4 1 2 4

Q 2 3 1 3

R 1 2 4 2

S 3 4 3 1

Q : Decay : R : Fission :

238 234 4 92 u 90 Th + 2 15 15 0 8 O 7 N + +1e

239 94 Pu

94 La + 37 X
185 184 1

140

99

S :Pr oton Emission : 83 Bi 82 Pb +1 p P 2, Q 1, R 4, S3

19.

A right angled prism of refractive index 1 is placed in a rectangular block of refractive index 2 , which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index 3 , as shown in the figure. A ray of light 'e' enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the relationships between 1 , 2 and 3 , it takes one of the four possible paths 'ef', 'eg', 'eh' or 'ei'.

Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

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[P] [Q] [R] [S] Codes : P (A) (C) Q R S P (B) (D) Q R S ListI
e f

1. 2. 3. 4.

ListII

1 > 2 2

eg eh ei

2 > 1 and 2 > 3 1 = 2

2 < 1 < 2 2 and 2 > 3

2 4

3 1

1 2

4 3

1 2

2 3

4 4

3 1

Ans.(D) e f 2 > 1 and 2 > 3

e g 1 = 2 e h 2 < 1 < e i C < 45 sin
0 1 2 2 2

and 2 > 3

0 < 45

1 > 2 2 P 2, Q 3, R 4, S 1

20.

Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
ListI [P] [Q] [R] [S] Codes : P (A) (C) Q R S P (B) (D) Q R S 1. 2. 3. 4. ListII
ML2T 1 ML1T 1
MLT 3 K 1 ML2T 3 K 1

Boltzmann constant Coefficient of viscosity Planck constant Thermal conductivity

3 4

1 2

2 1

4 3

3 4

2 1

1 2

4 3

Ans.(C)
P : Boltzmann cons tan t = M1L2 T 2 K 1

Q : coefficient of vis cos ity = ML1T 1 R : Planck cons tan t = ML2 T 1 S : Thermal conductivity = MLT 3 K 1 P 4, Q 2, R 1, S 3

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Part2:CHEMISTRY

Section 1: (One or more options correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct 21.

The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of (A) tin from SnO2 (B) iron from Fe2O3
(C)

aluminium from Al2 O3

(D)

magnesium from MgCO3 .CaCO3

Ans.(C,D)Strong metals like Na, Mg, Al are extracted by electrolytic reduction method but not by carbon reduction.

22.

The thermal dissociation equilibrium of CaCO3 ( s ) is studied under different conditions.

CaCO3 ( s ) CaO( s ) + CO2 ( g )

For this equilibrium, the correct statement (s) is (are) (A) H is dependent on T (B) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3
(C) (D) Ans.(A,B,D)

K is dependent on the pressure of CO2 at a given T

H is independent of the catalyst, if any H is dependent on T (A) (B) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3 (D) A catalyst does not changes H

23.

The correct statement(s) about O3 is (are)

(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O bond lengths are equal

Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic.

O3 is diamagnetic in nature. O3 has a bent structure.

Ans.(A,C,D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

In ozone, bond lengths are equal because of resonance. Thermal decomposition of O3 is exothermic. Ozone is diamagnetic in nature. Structure of ozone is bent.

24.

In the nuclear transmutation

9 4 Be +

X 8 4 Be + Y
( ,n)
9 4 Be

( X ,Y ) is(are)

(A) Ans.(A,B)

(B)
+
0 0 1 8 4 Be + 0 n

( p,D)

(C)

(n,D)

(D)

( , p)

( )

(n)

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9 4 Be 1 + 1 H 8 4 Be + 2 1H

(p )

(D)

25.

The major product(s) of the following reaction is(are)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans.(B)

26.

After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compounds(s) in the reaction mixtures is(are)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Reaction I: P and Reaction II: P Reaction I: U, acetone and Reaction II: Q, acetone Reaction I: T, U, acetone and Reaction II: P Reaction I: R, acetone and Reaction II: S, acetone
2 CH3 C CH3

Ans.(C) Reaction1:

Br (1mol) NaOH

1/3rd of acetone reacts with 1 mole of Br2, then products are [Bromoform reaction]
O || CH3 C O Na + , CHBr3 and remaining acetone

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O O || || Br2 CH3 C CH3 CH3 C CH 2 Br
CH3 COOH

Reaction2:

27.

The K sp of Ag 2 CrO4 is 1.1 1012 at 298 K. The solubility (in mol/L) of Ag 2 CrO4 in a 0.1 M AgNO3 solution is
(A) (C)
1.1 1011
1.1 1010

(B) (D)
+ 2 Ag (aq) + CrO 2 4 (aq)

1.1 1012

1.1109

Ans.(B) Ag 2 CrO 4 (s)

2 K sp = [Ag + ]2 [CrO 4 ]

1.1 1012 = (0.1) 2 (s)

s = 1.1 1010

28.

In the following reaction, the product(s) formed is (are)

(A) Ans.(BD)

P (major)

(B)

Q (minor)

(C)

R (minor)

(D)

S (major)

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Section 2: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight questions related to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Questions 29 and 30

An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute HCl, gave a precipitate (P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve in hot water. The filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H2S in a dilute mineral acid medium. However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H2S in an ammoniacal medium. The precipitate R gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with H 2 O2 in an aqueous NaOH medium.
29.

The precipitate P contains

(A) (C)
Pb 2+ Ag +

(B) (D)

2+ Hg 2

Hg 2+

Ans.(A) Its clear that P contains Pb+2 as PbCl2 does not dissolve in cold water but in hot water it dissolves.

30.

The coloured solution S contains (A) Fe( SO4 )3

(C)
ZnSO4
H O / NaOH

(B) (D)

CuSO4 Na2CrO4

Ans.(D) R is Cr(OH)3
2 2 Cr(OH)3 Na 2 CrO 4 (Yellow solution)

(Try to reject other options)

Paragraph for Questions 31 and 32 P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid C4H4O4. Both decolorize Br2/H2O. On heating, P forms the cyclic anhydride.

Upon treatment with dilute alkaline KMnO4, P as well as Q could produce one or more than one from S, T and U.

31.

Compounds formed from P and Q are, respectively (A) (B) (C) (D) Optically active S and optically active pair (T, U) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T, U) Optically active pair (T, U) and optically active S Optically inactive pair (T, U) and optically inactive S

Ans.(B) P must be maleic acid (Q it forms anhydride)

Q must be fumaric acid.

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P(cis) + dil. KMnO 4 Meso Q(Trans) + dil. KMnO4 Racemic

32.

(S) (T + U)

In the following reaction sequences V and W are, respectively

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Ans.(A)

Paragraph for questions 33 and 34

A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back to K as shown in the figure

33.

The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are (A) (B) (C) (D) Heating, cooling, heating, cooling Cooling, heating, cooling, heating Heating, cooling, cooling, heating Cooling, heating, heating, cooling PV = nRT From K to L, heating occurs From L to M, cooling occurs From M to N, cooling occurs From N to K, heating occurs

Ans.(C) Using ideal gas equation

34.

The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of states is (A) (B) (C) (D) K to L and L to M L to M and N to K L to M and M to N M to N and N to k

Ans.(B) Isochoric processes are those in which volume remain constant. So isochoric processes are L to M and N to K.

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Paragraph for Questions 35 and 36

The reactions of Cl2 gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water give sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q, respectively. The Cl2 gas reacts with SO2 gas, in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phosphorus, T.
35. P and Q, respectively, are the sodium slats of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Ans.(A)

hypochlorus and chloric acids hypochlorus and chlorus acids chloric and perchloric acids chloric and hypochlorus acids
NaOCl +
Salt of hypochlorous acid

NaOH + Cl2

NaClO3 Salt of Chloric acid

36.

R, S and T, respectively, are

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SO2Cl2, PCl5 and H3PO3 SO2Cl2, PCl3 and H3PO3 SOCl2, PCl3 and H3PO2 SOCl2, PCl5 and H3PO4

Ans.(A) SO 2 + Cl2 SO 2 Cl2

5SO 2 Cl2 + 2P 2 PCl5 + 5O 2 PCl5 + H 2 O H3 PO 4 + 5HCl

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VidyamandirClasses Section 3: (Matching list Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
37.

An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution of Y as shown in List I. The variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I P.
(C 2 H 5 ) 3 N + CH 3COOH X Y KI(0.1M) + AgNO 3 (0.01M) X Y (CH 3COOH) + KOH X Y

List II 1. Conductivity decreases and then increases

Q.

2. Conductivity decreases and then does not change much

R. S.

3. Conductivity increases and then does not changes much 4. Conductivity does not change much and then increases

NaOH + HI X Y

Codes P Q R S (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2

Ans.(A) When Et3N solution is added to CH3COOH, ' ' of CH3COOH will increase, so though H+ ions ions will be

consumed by Et3N but overall no. of ions in the solution will increase and hence conductivity increases initially.
+ + + Ag (aq) + NO3(aq) AgI(s) + K (aq) + NO3(aq) KI (aq)

Number of ions remain the same so, conductivity does not change much. After all Ag+ ions have been precipitated out, then the conductivity will increase.
+ 3 + K (aq) + OH H 2 O(l) + K (aq) + CH3COO(aq) (aq) CH COOH (aq)

Number of ions remains the same, but number of OH ions decreases and hence conductivity decreases.
+ H + + I H 2 O(l) + Na (aq) + I(aq)
NaOH

Number of ions remains the same, but number of H + decreases and hence conductivity decreases.
38.

The standard reduction potential data at 25oC is given below. E (Fe

0 3+

, Fe

2+

) = +0.77 V;

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E (Fe
0 0 2+

, Fe) = 0.44 V , Cu) = +0.34 V;

E (Cu
0

2+ +

E (Cu , Cu) = +0.52 V

0 + E O 2 (g) + 4H + 4e 2H 2 O = +1.23V; 0 E O 2 (g) + 2H 2 O + 4e 4OH = +0.40 V

E (Cr E (Cr
0

3+ 2+
0

, Cr) = 0.74 V; , Cr) = 0.91V

Match E of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II ad select the correct answer using the code Given below the lists: List I P.
Q.

List II , Fe)
4H + 4OH )
+
+

E (Fe
0

3+

1. -0.18 V 2. -0.4 V 3. -0.04 V 4. -0.83 V

E (4H 2 O

R. S.

E (Cu E (Cr
0

2+

+ Cu 2Cu )
2+

3+

, Cr

Codes P Q R S (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2

Fe +2 Ans.(D) Fe+3 + e Fe+2 + 2e Fe ___________________ Fe+3 + 3e Fe E = 0.77 1 + 2 ( 0.44 ) 3 = 0.11 3 E = +0.77 E = 0.44 E = ? = 0.04 V

So,
39.

P 3 and hence Answer is (D).

The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List I show missing reagent or condition (?) which are provided in List II. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I P. Q R S
PbO 2 + H 2SO 4 PbSO 4 + O 2 + other product Na 2S 2 O 3 + H 2 O NaHSO 4 + other product N 2 H 4 N 2 + Other product XeF2 Xe + Other product
?
? ?

List II 1. NO 2. I2 3. Warm 4. Cl2

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Codes P Q R S (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
Ans.(D) [P] [Q] [R] 40.

Its disproportionation reaction, so just heating will do.

2 2 I2 does reaction as S2 O3 S4 O6 2 So Cl2 is required for S2 O3 HSO 4

N 2 H 4 + 2 I2 N 2 + 4HI

[S]

XeF2 + NO Xe

Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Codes P Q R S (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 4 1

Ans.(A)

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Part3:MATHS

Section 1: (One or more options correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE or MORE are correct
i Let be a complex cube root of unity with 1 and P = pij be a n n matrix with pij =

41.

+ j

Then P 2 0 , when n =
(A) Ans.

57

(B)

55

(C)

58

(D)

56

42.

The function f ( x ) = 2 x + x + 2 x + 2 2 x has a local minimum or a local maximum at x =

(A)
2

(B)

2 3

(C)

(D)

2 3

Ans.

43.

Let

w=

3 +i 2

and

P = wn : n = 1, 2 ,3, . . . .

Further

1 H1 = z C : Re z > 2

and

1 H 2 = z C : Re z < , where C is the set of all complex numbers. If z1 P H1 , z2 P H 2 and O 2

represents the origin, then z1 Oz2 =

(A)

(B)

(C)

2 3

(D)

5 6

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Ans.

44.

If 3x = 4 x 1 , then x =
(A)
2 log3 2 2 log3 2 1

(B)

2 2 log 2 3

(C)

1 1 log 4 3

(D)

2 log 2 3 2 log 2 3 1

Ans.

45.

Two lines L1 : x = 5,
(A)

y 3

z 2

and L2 : x = , 2

y 1

z 2

are coplanar. Then can take value(s) : 3

(D)

(B)

(C)

Ans.

46.

In a triangle PQR, P is the largest angle and cos P =

1 3

. Further the incircle of the triangle touches the sides PQ,

QR and RP at N, L and M respectively, such that the lengths of PN, QL and RM are consecutive even integers. Then possible length(s) of the side(s) of the triangle is(are) :
(A)

16

(B)

18

(C)

24

(D)

22

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Ans.

47.

For a R (the set of all real numbers), a 1 ,

lim

(1
( n + 1)
a 1

+ 2a + . . . + n a

( na + 1) + ( na + 2 ) + . . . + ( na + n )

1 60

Then a =
(A) Ans.

(B)

(C)

15 2

(D)

17 2

48.

Circle(s) touching x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and having an intercept of length 2 7 on y-axis is(are) :
(A) (C)
x2 + y 2 6 x + 8 y + 9 = 0 x2 + y 2 6 x 8 y + 9 = 0

(B) (D)

x2 + y 2 6 x + 7 y + 9 = 0 x2 + y 2 6 x 7 y + 9 = 0

Ans.

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Section 2: (Paragraph Type)

This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight questions related to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Questions 49 - 50

Let f :

[0, 1]

R (the set of all real numbers) be a function. Suppose the function f is twice differentiable,

f ( 0 ) = f (1) = 0 and satisfies f ( x ) 2 f ( x ) + f ( x ) e x , x [ 0 , 1] .

49.

Which of the following is true for 0 < x < 1 ?

(A)
0 < f ( x) <

(B)

1 2

< f ( x) <

1 2

(C)

1 4

< f ( x) < 1

(D)

< f ( x ) < 0

Ans.

50.

If the function e x f ( x ) assumes its minimum in the interval [0, 1] at x =

(A) (C)
f ( x) < f ( x) ,
1 4

1 4

, which of the following is true ?

1 4

<x<

3 4 1 4

(B) (D)

f ( x) > f ( x) , 0 < x < f ( x) < f ( x) ,

3 4

f ( x) < f ( x) , 0 < x <

< x <1

Ans.

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Paragraph for Questions 51 - 52

Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y 2 = 4ax . The tangents to the parabola at P and Q meet at a point lying on the line
y = 2 x + a, a > 0 .

51. Ans.

Length of chord PQ is :
(A)

7a

(B)

5a

(C)

2a

(D)

3a

52.

If chord PQ subtends an angle at the vertex of y 2 = 4ax , then tan =

(A)
2 3 7

(B)

2
3

(C)

2 5

(D)

2
3

Ans.

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Paragraph for Questions 53 - 54

Let

S = S1 S2 S3 , where S1 = { z C : z < 4} ,

S2 = z C : Im
20 3

z 1 + 3i > 0 and S3 = { z C : Re z > 0} . 1 3i

16 3 32 3

53.

Area of S =
(A)
10 3

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans.

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54.

zS

min 1 3i z =

(A) Ans.

2 3 2

(B)

2+ 3 2

(C)

3 3 2

(D)

3+ 3 2

Paragraph for Questions 55 - 56

A box B1 contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. Another box B2 contains 2 white balls, 3 red balls and 4 black balls. A third box B3 contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5 black balls.
55.

If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes B1, B2 and B3, the probability that all 3 drawn balls are of the same colour is :
(A)
82 648 90 648 558 648 566 648

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans.

56.

If 2 balls are drawn (without replacement) from a randomly selected box and one of the balls is white and the other ball is red, the probability that these 2 balls are drawn from box B2 is :
(A)
116 181 126 181 65 181 55 181

(B)

(C)

(D)

Ans.

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Section 3: (Matching list Type)

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
(P) ListI
ur u r u r Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a , b and c is 2. Then the ur u r u r u r volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors 2 a b , 3 b c and u r ur c a is

ListII

) (

1.

100

(Q)

ur u r u r Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a , b and c is 5. Then the ur u r u r u r volume of the parallelepiped determined by vectors 3 a + b , 3 b + c and u r ur 2 c + a is

) (

2.

30

(R)

ur u r Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors a and b is 20. Then ur u r the area of the triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors 2a + 3b and ur u r a b is

3.

24

( (

(S)

ur u r Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by vectors a and b is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by vectors ur u r ur a + b and a is

4.

60

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Codes : P (A) (B) (C) (D) Q R S

4 2 3 1

2 3 4 4

3 1 1 3

1 4 2 2

Ans.

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58.

and the planes P1 : 7 x + y + 2 z = 3 , 1 2 1 1 1 2 P2 : 3 x + 5 y 6 z = 4 . Let ax + by + cz = d be the equation of the plane passing through the point of intersection of Consider the line, L1 : lines L1 and L2, and perpendicular to planes P1 and P2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
[P] [Q] [R] [S] Codes : (A) (C) P 3 3 Q 2 2 R 4 1 S 1 4 (B) (D) P 1 2 Q 3 4 R 4 1 S 2 3 ListI a= b= c= d= 1. 2. 3. 4. ListII 13 3 1 2

x 1

z +3

, L2 =

x4

y +3

z +3

Ans.

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59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
ListI
cos tan1 y + y sin tan 1 y 1 2 y cot sin 1 y + tan sin 1 y

ListII

(P)

) )

2 + y4

12

takes value

1.

1 5 2 3

(Q

If cos x + cos y + cos z = 0 = sin x + sin y + sin z then possible value of cos

x y 2

is

2.

(R)

If cos x cos 2 x + sin x sin 2 x sec x = cos sin 2 x sec x + cos + x cos 2 x then 4 4

3.

1 2

possible value of sec x is

(S)
sin 1 1 x 2 If cot 1 = sin tan x 6 , x 0 , then possible value of x is

))

4.

Codes : P (A) (C) Ans. Q R S P (B) (D) Q R S

4 3

3 4

1 2

2 1

4 3

3 4

2 1

1 2

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60.

A line L : y = mx + 3 meets y-axis at E(0, 3) and the arc of the parabola y 2 = 16 x, 0 y 6 at the point
F ( x0 , y0 ) . The tangent to the parabola at F ( x0 , y0 ) intersects the y-axis at G ( 0 , y1 ) . The slope m of the line

L is chosen such that the area of the triangle EFG has a local maximum. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
[P] [Q] [R] [S] Codes : (A) (C) Ans. P 4 1 Q 1 3 R 2 2 S 3 4 (B) (D) P 3 1 Q 4 3 R 1 4 S 2 2 ListI m= Maximum area of EFG is y0 = y1 = 1. 2. 3. 4. ListII 1/ 2 4 2 1

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