Solutions To MCAT TPR Practice Test 1 23690

Online Diagnostic 1
Explanations for Physical Sciences, Verbal Reasoning, and Biological Sciences Questions
Section 1: Physical Sciences

Page 2
Section 2: Verbal Reasoning

Page 33
Section 5: Biological Sciences

Page 55
SECTION 1: Physical Sciences
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Passage I (15)
Two forces of equal strength F pulling (or pushing) in opposite directions along an axis of symmetry of a solid cause the solid to be in tension (or compression), and the ratio of F to the solids cross-sectional area A (perpendicular to the direction of the forces) is called stress. A tensile stress causes the solid to lengthen, while a compressive stress causes it to shorten. In either case, the ratio of the magnitude of the change in length, =L, to the original length, L0, of the solid is called the strain. Simply put, stress causes strain. Human bone is subject to a variety of stresses during a typical lifetime. Under normal stress conditions, the strain in bone is very small, and the bone will return to its original shape after the stress is removed. However, if the strain exceeds the yield point as shown in Figure 1, the bone behaves plastically, and the strain no longer returns to zero when the stress is removed. Nevertheless, a bone can undergo considerable strain beyond the yield point before fracturing. Figure 1 compares stress to strain in typical human bone under tensile stress. Within the elastic region, the ratio of stress to strain is a constant known as Youngs modulus:
The area under the curve in Figure 1 represents the elastic energy density, that is, the energy per unit volume of bone necessary to create the corresponding strain. The energy required per volume of bone to create a fracture would be equal to the area under the entire curve.
Figure 1 Stress vs. strain in typical human bone Cartilage is nearly as strong as bone in resisting compression, but it does not resist tension or shear as well. Its flexibility makes it ideal connective tissue for joints and bone endings.
Question 1
ID: 1051627
A cyclist collides with a tree, and the collision creates an intense compressive stress on the cyclists left humerus (upper arm bone), causing a fracture. Which of the following changes in the initial conditions most likely could have prevented the fracture? A) A decrease in his velocity by a factor of two The cyclists kinetic energy just before the impact will be used to cause damage to the tree and to the cyclist. Decreasing this kinetic energy will result in a less violent collision. Because KE = (1/2)mv2, a decrease in the cyclists velocity would have the greatest effect (since v is squared) in lowering his KE. B) C) D) Question 2 A decrease in his mass by a factor of two An increase in his mass by a factor of two A decrease in the cross-sectional area of his humerus by a factor of two ID: 1051628
If the graph in Figure 1 were redrawn for cartilage undergoing tensile stress, then the angle would be: A) B) C) greater, because cartilage has a smaller Youngs modulus than does bone. greater, because cartilage has a larger Youngs modulus than does bone. smaller, because cartilage has a smaller Youngs modulus than does bone. The passage states that cartilage does not withstand tension as well as bone. Therefore, the Youngs modulus of cartilage must be lower than that of bone, eliminating choices B and D. Since stress = E strain, a lower value of E corresponds to a lower stress for the same strain, so the graph of stress vs. strain in the elastic region would be less steep; that is, the angle would be smaller. D) Question 3 smaller, because cartilage has a larger Youngs modulus than does bone. ID: 1051629
An increase in the cross-sectional area of a typical human bone would most likely: A) B) C) decrease the Youngs modulus for that bone, because the stress would be decreased. increase the Youngs modulus for that bone, because the strain would be decreased. not affect the Youngs modulus for that bone, but the strain for any given stress would be decreased. The value of Youngs modulus is determined by the nature of the substance; changing the objects crosssectional area would have no effect on the materials Youngs modulus. This eliminates choices A and B. However, since stress equals force per area, a greater cross-sectional area would result in a lower stress for the same force, and a lower stress would yield a lower strain. D) not affect the Youngs modulus for that bone, but the strain for any given stress would be increased.
Question 4
ID: 1051630
Pagets disease is characterized by massive new bone formation resulting in softening of the bone. A patient with this disease may exhibit bone deformities such as bowing of the tibia or humerus. Compared to normal bone, a sample of bone from an individual with Pagets disease would most likely have: A) a smaller Youngs modulus and a lower yield point. Pagets disease weakens the bone and thus decreases its Youngs modulus. This eliminates choices C and D. The bowing of the tibia and humerus implies that the bone has gone past the yield point, implying that this disease also lowers the yield point of the patients bones. B) C) D) Question 5 a smaller Youngs modulus and a higher yield point. a larger Youngs modulus and a lower yield point. the same Youngs modulus and a lower yield point. ID: 1051631
A human tibia with a cross-sectional area of 2 cm 2 undergoes a 1% change in length when compressed by a force of 20,000 N. What is the approximate elastic energy density within the bone while compressed if the bone has not reached its yield point? A) B) C) 5 103 J/m3 1 104 J/m3 5 105 J/m3 From Figure 1, the elastic energy density is equal to the area under the stress vs. strain graph. If the yield point has not been reached, then the region under the graph has the shape of a right triangle, whose area is (1/2) base height = (1/2) strain stress. In this case, the strain is 1% = 102, and the stress is F = 2 104 N divided by A = 2 cm2 = 2 104m2, which equals 108 N/m2. Thus, the elastic energy density is (1/2)(102)(108 N/m2) = 5 105 J/m3. D) 1 106 J/m3
Passage II (69)
Chemical indicators, used in the determination of pH, are either synthetic or naturally-occurring organic compounds of intermediate molecular weight. Indicators operate by changing color depending upon the solution tested. Chemically, indicators act as weak acids or weak bases in aqueous solution, thus reacting in acidbase equilibria. For example, weak acid indicator HX reacts with water as shown below: HX(aq) H+(aq) + X(aq) Reaction 1 For an indicator to be suitable, it must have different colors for its undissociated and its dissociated state in order to distinguish between acidic and basic media. For example, in a medium with a high [H+], the equilibrium will shift to the left, favoring the reactants. In this case, the color of the solution will match that of the undissociated acid form of the indicator. Similarly, in a strongly basic solution, the color of the solution will match that of the dissociated form of the indicator. However, the color change associated with acidic and basic solutions is relative; that is, the pH at which the color change takes place depends upon the acid/base strength of the indicator itself. It follows that indicators have an acid ionization constant:
However, the human eye requires an acidic concentration ten times greater than the basic concentration to perceive the pure color of the indicators acidic reading. This is also true for basic concentrations. Therefore, for the indicators to show the undissociated (acidic) form, the hydrogen ion concentration must be [H+] = 10Ka, and for the indicators to show the dissociated (basic) form, the hydrogen ion concentration must be [H+] = Ka/10. The associated pH functions would be:
Thus, the range of pH for indicators can be determined.
Table 1 pH Ranges for Various Indicators

Question 6 ID: 1051604
Methyl orange is an indicator that is red in its undissociated form and yellow in its dissociated form. If the Ka for methyl orange is 1.6 104, which of the following gives the best pH range for its undissociated and dissociated forms? A) B) 1.4 to 3.4 2.8 to 4.8 The passage states that the pH range for an indicator is given by pKa 1 < pH < pKa + 1. Since the Ka of methyl orange is 1.6 104, its pKa = log Ka = log(1.6 104) = 4. Thus, the pH range is given approximately by the inequalities 3 < pH < 5, so choice B is best. C) D) 4.0 to 6.0 6.2 to 8.2
Question 7
ID: 1051605
Which one of the following graphs best depicts the titration curve for the addition of a strong base to a strong acid? A)
B)
C)
Since a strong acid is being titrated, the pH would be low at the outset and increase as base is added; this eliminates choices A and B. Titration curves are characterized by a sharp change in pH at the equivalence point, and for a strong acid strong base titration, this change is not only sharp but also large. Graph C is best. D)
Question 8
ID: 1051606
What is the pOH of an aqueous solution whose hydrogen ion concentration is measured to be 10 5 M? A) B) C) D) 3 5 7 9 If [H+] = 105 M, then the pH is 5, so the pOH is 14 5 = 9.
Question 9
ID: 1051607
Formic acid, HCOOH (Ka = 1.8 104), dissociates in water according to Reaction 1. What is the hydrogen ion concentration in a 0.05 M aqueous solution of HCOOH? A) B) C) 9.0 106 M 3.6 104 M 3.0 103 M We set up the following table for the equilibrium HCOOH HCOO + H+, with x denoting [H+]:
Thus, assuming that x << 0.05 (which we will see is true),
Ka = D) 6.0 102 M
= 1.8 10-4
x2 = 9 10-6
x = 3 10-3

Passage III (10-15)
Ion flow in neurons can be characterized as an electrical circuit for both the resting neuron (Figure 1) and the active neuron (Figure 2). In Figure 1, the axon membrane can be treated as a capacitor, slow leakage channels as a 25 M resistor, and the Na+/K+ pump as a voltage generator. The voltage across the membrane is 70 mV from the exterior to the interior of the cell, and in a resting axon, there is no net transfer of charge across the axon membrane. Figure 2 includes the additional Na+ influx (a 4 k are ignored. resistor) of an action potential. Other ion fluxes
Figure 1 Resting neuron
Figure 2 Active neuron
Question 10
ID: 1051598
According to the figures, decreasing which of the following would create the greatest increase in charge stored per unit voltage on an axon membrane in its rest state? A) B) C) D) Leakage channel resistance Na+ channel resistance Area of the membrane surfaces Thickness of the membrane Charge stored per unit voltage, Q/V, is the definition of capacitance, C. The equation for the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is C = 0A/d, where is the dielectric constant, 0 is a universal constant (the permittivity of free space), A is the area of each plate, and d is the distance between the plates. Of the choices given, only D, decreasing the thickness of the membrane (that is, decreasing d), would increase the capacitance, C.
Question 11
ID: 1051599
During an axons rest state, a net positive charge travels across the leakage channels and across the Na+/K+ pump: A) B) at equal rates and in the same direction. at equal rates but in opposite directions. Since there is no net transfer of charge across the membrane in the axons rest state, the answer must be B. Any movement of positive charge by the battery (the Na+/K+ pump) must be cancelled by an equal, but opposite, movement of positive charge through the leakage channels. C) D) Question 12 at different rates but in the same direction. at different rates and in opposite directions. ID: 1051600
Ouabain irreversibly inhibits the Na+/K+ pump. The effect of this on the equivalent circuit model for the resting axon would be to cause: A) B) increased potential difference across the resistors and the capacitor. decreased potential difference across the resistors and the capacitor. If the source of potential difference (the Na+/K+ pump) is prevented from operating, then the common potential difference across the resistors and the capacitor (which are in parallel) would decrease. C) D) Question 13 decreased potential difference across the capacitor and increased potential difference across the resistors. decreased potential difference across the resistors and increased potential difference across the capacitor. ID: 1051601
If the active neuron in Figure 2 is clamped at a constant voltage and the total current through the Na+ channels plus the leakage channels is 2.5 A, what is the voltage drop across the membrane? A) B) 1 mV 10 mV In Figure 2, there are two parallel resistors: one of 25 million ohms and one of only 4 thousand. Since 25 million is so much greater than 4 thousand, the equivalent resistance for this parallel combination will be so close to 4 thousand ohms that the difference is negligible. Taking Req = 4000 W gives V = IR = (2.5 106 A)(4 103 W) = 10 103 V = 10 mV. C) D) 62.5 mV 62.5 V
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Question 14
ID: 1051602
Across the membrane of an axon in its rest state: A) the potential is higher on the outside of the cell than the inside, and electric field lines run from the outside to the inside. The passage states that the voltage across the membrane is 70 mV from the exterior to the interior of the cell. That is, there is a 70 mV drop in electric potential in going from the exterior to the interior; thus, the potential is higher on the exterior of the cell. This eliminates choices C and D. Since the potential is higher on the exterior than in the interior, the electric field lines must point from the outside to the inside (choice A). B) C) D) Question 15 the potential is higher on the outside of the cell than the inside, and electric field lines run from the inside to the outside. the potential is lower on the outside of the cell than the inside, and electric field lines run from the outside to the inside. the potential is lower on the outside of the cell than the inside, and electric field lines run from the inside to the outside. ID: 1051603
The change in Q, the magnitude of charge on each surface of the axon membrane that is depicted in the graph above, could be produced by which of the following? A) B) C) A decrease in the resistance of the Na+ channels A steady decrease in the voltage across the axon membrane Inactivity of the Na+/K+ pump The graph shows how the charge decreases as a capacitor discharges, which occurs when the voltage between the plates is no longer maintained. If the Na+/K+ pump (the voltage source) stopped working, the voltage between the sides of the membrane would no longer be maintained, so C is the best choice. B is wrong since it says a steady decrease in the voltage; if V decreased steadily, then, since Q V, Q would also decrease steadily and its graph would be a line. D) An increase in the resistance of the leakage channels
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The questions below are not based on any passage and are not related to each other. Question 16 ID: 1051632
Which one of the following molecules will NOT have a net dipole moment? A) B) NH3 NH4+ There are only two types of molecules that do not have a dipole moment: (1) molecules in which the individual bond dipoles cancel, and (2) ions. The ammonium ion, NH4+, actually falls into both categories. The other three choices belong to neither of these categories. C) D) CH3OH CH3CH2OH
Question 17
ID: 1051634
What force F is necessary to raise the mass m?
A) B)
mg/4 mg/2 (We assume massless, frictionless pulleys.) The total upward force on the lower, smaller pulley must be at least equal to mg to raise the block. Since this upward force is due to two tension forces, a total force of mg upward can be achieved by having the tension on each side of this lower pulley be mg/2. But the tension in the string is the same as F, so Fmin = mg/2.
C) D)
mg 2mg
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Question 18
ID: 1051635
If the absolute pressure of a gas is increased from 3 atm to 4 atm at constant volume, then the absolute temperature of the gas will increase by: A) B) 25%. 33%. Assuming the validity of the Ideal-Gas law, PV = nRT, an increase in pressure by a factor of 4/3 at constant volume will result in an increase in temperature by the same factor (since P is proportional to T if V and n are constant). Multiplying the temperature by 4/3 = 133% implies an increase by 33%. C) D) 67%. 75%.
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Question 19
ID: 1051637
Which one of the following best represents the phase diagram of water? A)
The characteristic that distinguishes the phase diagram for water from the phase diagram for virtually all other substances is that the solidliquid boundary line in the phase diagram for water has a negative, rather than a positive slope. This is best illustrated by the diagram in choice A. B)
C)
D)
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Passage IV (20-25)
The vapor pressure of a liquid is a result of that liquids molecules breaking free from its surface. The vapor pressure of a solution of two volatile solvents can be described by the following modified form of Raoults law: Ptotal = XAPA and XB PB where Ptotal is the vapor pressure of the solution, PA and PB are the vapor pressures of pure solvent A and B respectively, and XA and XB are the mole fractions of the respective solvents in solution. Solutions of chemically-similar solvents tend to obey this law and are called ideal solutions. For non-ideal solutions, deviations in Raoults law can be predicted by the heat of solution. When the new bonds which form between the interacting solvents are stronger than those formed by the pure solvents, a negative heat of solution results; when the new bonds are weaker, a positive heat of solution results.
Figure 1 Raoults law at varying heats of solution
Table 1 Vapor pressures of several chemicals
Question 20
ID: 1051569
Which of the following are examples of colligative properties? I. Vapor pressure II. Electrical conductivity III. Osmotic pressure A) B) I and II only I and III only There are four properties that depend on the concentration of a nonvolatile solute: (1) vapor pressure, (2) boiling point, (3) melting point, and (4) osmotic pressure. Thus, only Items I and III are correct. C) D) II and III only I, II, and III
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Question 21
ID: 1051570
Acetone and water form hydrogen bonds in solution to create a large negative heat of solution. Which of the following will always be true about the vapor pressure of this solution at 308 K? A) B) The vapor pressure will be lower than the vapor pressure of pure water. The vapor pressure will be lower than the vapor pressure of pure acetone. The question states that due to the formation of hydrogen bonds, the change in enthalpy of the reaction is negative. This situation is depicted in the third graph in Figure 1. We will consider the point representing PA to be the vapor pressure of pure acetone and the point representing PB to be the vapor pressure of pure water, because from Table 1 acetone has a higher vapor pressure than water. The graph clearly shows that the vapor pressure of a solution of acetone and water, Ptotal, is always lower than PA , but there are points on the Ptotal curve that are higher than PB, so the answer must be B. C) D) Question 22 The vapor pressure will be lower than the vapor pressure of both pure water and pure acetone. The vapor pressure will be higher than the vapor pressure of both pure water and pure acetone. ID: 1051571
A solution of chloroform and acetone has a vapor pressure of 270 torr at 35 C. The heat of solution of this mixture is: A) B) C) D) positive, because no strong bonds are formed between the solvents. zero, because it is an ideal solution. negative, because no strong bonds are formed between the solvents. negative, because strong bonds are formed between the solvents. Since at 25 C = 308 K the vapor pressure of pure chloroform is 290 torr and that of pure acetone is 350 torr (see Table 1), the vapor pressure of the resulting solution, 270 torr, is lower than the individual vapor pressures. From the graphs in Figure 1, this situation can happen only if Hsoln < 0. This conclusion eliminates choices A and B. The passage states that a negative heat of solution is the result of strong bonds forming between the solvents, so the answer must be D.
Question 23
ID: 1051572
Which of the following would be considered the most ideal solution? A) Ethanol in propanol As stated in the first paragraph of the passage, chemically-similar solvents are necessary for a solution to be termed ideal. The only choice given in which both molecules have the same functional group is A: ethanol and propanol are both alcohols. B) C) D) Water in benzene Chloroform in acetone Water in acetone
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Question 24
ID: 1051573
Which one of the following most likely has the lowest boiling point? A) B) Water Acetone Boiling point temperature depends on intermolecular forces: the stronger the forces, the higher the boiling point. Among the choices, acetone is the only molecule that cannot participate in intermolecular hydrogen bonding, so its boiling point should be the lowest. (This is also reflected in the high vapor pressure of acetone.) C) D) Question 25 Methanol Propanol ID: 1051574
If the vapor pressure of a solution is higher than predicted by Raoults law, then the temperature of the solvents when put into solution will: A) B) C) increase due to the energy absorbed by the breaking of bonds. increase due to the energy released by the formation of bonds. decrease due to the energy absorbed by the breaking of bonds. Since Ptotal is higher than predicted by Raoults Law, we must consider the second graph in Figure 1, which illustrates the case where Hsoln > 0. Since the mixture is an endothermic reaction, the result will be a decrease in the temperature of the solution. D) decrease due to the energy released by the formation of bonds.
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Passage V (26-30)
A galvanic (or voltaic) cell makes use of a spontaneous oxidationreduction reaction to generate electricity. The electromotive force generated by the cell is found by adding the oxidation and reduction potentials for the two half-reactions that make up the complete reaction: Ecell = Eoxidation + Ereduction Some standard reduction potentials are given in Table 1. Table 1 Standard Reduction Potentials
The electromotive force for a cell reaction is also a measure of the spontaneity of the reaction; the emf, E, is related to the free-energy change, G, by the equation G = nFE where n is the number of electrons transferred in the reaction and F is the electrical charge on a mole of electrons (F = 96,500 C/mol). A galvanic cell is operated by separating the oxidation and reduction halves of the oxidationreduction reaction, and forcing the electrons exchanged in the reaction to pass through a wire, where they can be made to do electrical work. A zinccopper cell makes use of the following reaction to generate electricity: Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Reaction 1 while a zincsilver cell uses this reaction: Zn(s) + 2 Ag+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s)
Reaction 2
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Question 26
ID: 1051615
Of the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent, based on Table 1? A) B) C) Ag(s) Fe2+(aq) Cu2+(aq) An oxidizing agent is a species that is reduced in a redox reaction, so the strongest oxidizing agent among the given choices must be the species that is the most easily reduced. Choices A and D can be eliminated because neutral metals tend to be oxidized, not reduced, and there is no information in the table concerning the reduction of Fe 2+ (choice B). The reduction of Cu2+, however, is spontaneous (because E > 0), so this is the best answer. D) Ni(s)
Question 27
ID: 1051616
If a reaction is known to occur spontaneously, what can be said about the values of the free energy change and the electromotive force for the reaction? A) B) C) D) G is positive, and E is positive. G is positive, and E is negative. G is negative, and E is negative. G is negative, and E is positive. The value of G is negative for a spontaneous reaction (eliminating choices A and B), and the equation G = nFE shows that the sign of E is always opposite that of G. Thus, G < 0 implies that E > 0.
Question 28
ID: 1051617
What is the free energy change associated with Reaction 2 if 1 mole of zinc reacts to completion with silver in aqueous solution? A) B) C) D) 7,720 J 146,680 J 154,400 J 301,080 J Ag(s), whose E = +0.80 V, to the half-reaction By adding the half-reaction Ag+(aq) + e Zn(s) Zn2+(aq) + 2e, whose E = +0.76 V (note the reversal in sign from Table 1), we conclude that the value of E for Reaction 2 is 0.80 + 0.76 = +1.56 V. Furthermore, the stoichiometry of Reaction 2 implies that for every mole of Zn(s) that reacts, there will be 2 moles of electrons transferred. Thus, G = nFE = (2)(96,500)(1.56) 300,000 J.
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Question 29
ID: 1051618
In Reaction 1, zinc acts as: A) a reducing agent. In Reaction 1, Zn is losing two electrons to become Zn2+. That is, Zn is oxidized, so it acts as the reducing agent. (Note: Zinc is certainly not accepting an electron pair or donating a proton, so it is not acting as either a Lewis acid or a BrnstedLowry acid.) B) C) D) Question 30 an oxidizing agent. a Lewis acid. a BrnstedLowry acid. ID: 1051619
A voltmeter is used to make a rough measurement of the voltage across the electrodes of a galvanic cell. If the voltmeter reads approximately 1 V, which one of the following oxidationreduction reactions could be taking place? A) Ni(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) Ni2+(aq) + 2 Fe2+(aq) We use the table to compute E for each of the reactions given and choose the one closest to 1 V. By adding the half-reaction Ni(s) Ni2+(aq) + 2e, whose E = +0.25 V (note the reversal in sign from 3+ Table 1), to the half-reaction Fe (aq) + e Fe2+(aq), whose E = +0.77 V, we conclude that the value of E for the reaction in choice A is 0.25 + 0.77 = +1.02 V 1 V, so choice A is best. (The values of E for the reactions in B, C, and D are significantly different from 1 V.) B) C) D) Zn(s) + Ni2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Ni(s) 2 Na(s) + F2(g) 2 Na+(aq) + 2 F (aq) Cu(s) + 2 Fe3+(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2 Fe2+(aq)
A converging glass lens forms a real image of a red object at a distance equal to twice its focal length. If a blue object is placed adjacent to the red object, will its image form closer to the lens or farther from the lens than the image of the red object? A) Farther, because blue light is refracted more due to its shorter wavelength B) Closer, because blue light is refracted more due to its shorter wavelength Choices C and D can be eliminated immediately since blue light has a shorter wavelength than red light. The refractive index of a transparent medium increases with increasing frequency of the transmitted light. Thus, the refractive index of the lens for blue light would be slightly higher than for red light. This would imply that blue light experiences more refraction than red light. Since the lens is a converging one (because diverging lenses cannot form real images), the blue light would be bent more sharply toward the axis than the red light, so the image of the blue object would be formed closer to the lens. C) D) Farther, because blue light is refracted less due to its longer wavelength Closer, because blue light is refracted less due to its longer wavelength
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Question 32
ID: 1051640
The half-life of caffeine in the human body is 4 hours. If a student ingests a caffeine pill, and 24 hours later his bcc (blood caffeine content) is measured at 5 mg, what must have been the caffeine content of the pill? A) B) C) 80 mg 160 mg 320 mg A time period of 24 hours represents 24/4 = 6 half-lives, which implies that the caffeine level has dropped by a factor of 64 = 26. The caffeine content of the pill must therefore have been 64(5 mg) = 320 mg. D) Question 33 640 mg ID: 1051636
As an ideal fluid flowing in a narrow pipe passes from a region of cross-sectional diameter d to a region of cross-sectional diameter d/2, the velocity of the fluid will: A) B) C) D) decrease by a factor of 4. decrease by a factor of 2. increase by a factor of 2. increase by a factor of 4. If the diameter of the flow tube decreases by a factor of 2, the cross-sectional area decreases by a factor of 22 = 4. Since the Continuity Equation implies that flow speed is inversely proportional to the crosssectional area of the flow tube, the flow speed will increase by a factor of 4.
Question 34
ID: 1051644
A multi-component aqueous solution was prepared containing AgI, AgCN, AgBr, and AgCl. Dropwise addition of concentrated AgNO3 would cause which of these compounds to precipitate first? A) AgI The AgNO3 will dissolve as it is added to each AgX solution, giving Ag+ and NO3 ions in solution. The concentration of Ag+ increases until the ion product, [Ag+ ][X], is equal to the Ksp for AgX, at which point AgX begins to precipitate. Thus, the compound that would precipitate first is the one with the lowest Ksp. Silver iodide, AgI, has the lowest Ksp value in the table. B) C) D) AgCN AgBr AgCl
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Passage VI (35-40)
Lasers work by focusing light energy onto a small area. They derive their energy from electrons at excited atomic energy levels. At the center of a laser the electrons in the atoms of a crystal are excited by photons of a particular frequency which corresponds to the difference in atomic energy levels as follows: E = hf where E is the energy of the photon, h is Plancks constant, and f is the frequency of the photon. This process is called absorption. The probability of absorption is proportional to the intensity of light at the corresponding frequency. Once excited, there are two ways in which an electron may return to the lower energy level and emit its extra energy: spontaneous emission or induced (stimulated) emission. In the latter process, a passing photon of the proper energy E (equal to the difference between the two energy states) induces an excited atom to emit a photon and drop to the lower energy level. Of course, this would happen eventually simply by spontaneous emission, but there are two differences: (1) Stimulated emission causes this transition to happen sooner, and, more importantly for the operation of the laser, (2) the two photons that emerge (the inducing and the induced) have exactly the same energy, move in exactly the same direction, and the associated electromagnetic waves are exactly in phase. Light has been amplified by the stimulated emission of radiation, creating a laser.
Figure 1An industrial laser Figure 1 shows an industrial laser. The Xenon flashlamp stimulates the electrons in the crystal to a higher energy level. As the electrons return to a lower energy level, the light which they produce is directed into the front and rear mirrors. When reflected back, this light induces more electrons, emitting still more energy. A small amount of light is allowed to pass through the front mirror in a very narrow, concentrated beam, and this light does the work performed by the laser.
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Question 35
ID: 1051587
The Q-switch momentarily interrupts the inducing light creating a build-up of energy within the crystal. This does not increase the overall energy of the laser, but concentrates it into shorter time periods or pulses. A longer interruption with the Q-switch most likely would increase the: A) B) total amount of work done by the laser. power of each laser pulse. Since the overall energy of the laser does not change, neither will the frequency, wavelength, nor work done by the laser. This leaves choice B: Concentrating the energy into a shorter time period increases the power of each pulse (since power equals energy delivered per unit time, by definition). C) D) Question 36 wavelength of the laser light. frequency of the laser light. ID: 1051588
The passage describes the simplest interpretation of the basic properties of a laser, but some modifications are necessary to build a workable laser. Which of the following, if true, are possible problems with the simple model described in the passage? I. It is difficult to keep a collection of atoms in their excited state long enough to be stimulated to emit the induced photon. Atomic energy levels are quantized. Atoms that happen to be in their ground state will undergo absorption, thereby removing photons from the beam as it builds up. I only III only I and III only The laser acquires its intense energy by induced emission, so if Statement I were true (and it is), then too many atoms could emit energy by spontaneous emission, thereby decreasing the efficiency of the laser. If Statement III were true (and it is), this would also represent a mechanism by which the lasers power would be compromised. But Statement II, although true, does not represent a problem; laser light is designed to be virtually monochromatic. D) II and III only
II. III. A) B) C)
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Question 37
ID: 1051589
A CO2 laser produces a beam of laser light with a wavelength of 10.6 m. Compared to the excited electrons in the laser shown in Figure 1, the excited electrons in the CO2 laser most likely have: A) B) C) D) more total energy. less total energy. a greater energy difference between their normal state and their excited state. a smaller energy difference between their normal state and their excited state. The wavelength of the CO2 laser is 10 times greater than the wavelength of the laser shown in Figure 1. Therefore, the frequency and the energy of the CO2 laser are 10 times lower. Since the laser light is the energy released by transitions of electrons dropping to a lower energy level, less emitted energy implies a smaller difference between the energy levels.
Question 38
ID: 1051590
Which of the following best describes the light produced by the laser in Figure 1? A) B) C) D) Ultraviolet Violet Red Infrared The wavelength of the laser depicted in Figure 1 is 1.06 m = 1060 nm, which is greater than 700 nm, the wavelength of red light. Thus, the laser produces infrared radiation.
Question 39
ID: 1051591
The reason for reflecting the light back into the laser is most likely: A) B) C) to increase spontaneous emission. to decrease absorption. to increase induced emission. The last paragraph of the passage states that when reflected back [by the mirror], this light induces more electrons, emitting still more energy. Thus, the reason for reflecting the light back into the laser is to increase induced emission. D) to decrease induced emission.
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Question 40
ID: 1051592
If the front mirror in Figure 1, which is made of glass of refractive index 3/2, were repositioned so that the laser beam strikes at an angle of 60 to its surface, what would be the angle of reflection? A) B) sin1(1/3) 30 If the laser beam strikes the mirror at an angle of 60, the angle that the beam makes with the normal to the mirror is 30. This is the angle of incidence, and, by the Law of Reflection, it is also the angle of reflection. The refractive index of the mirror is irrelevant. C) D) sin1(1/31/2) 60
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Passage VII (41-46)

A simple pendulum consists of a point mass suspended from a massless arm in a uniform gravitational field. When the pendulum is displaced from its vertical rest position, it is subjected to a gravitational restoring force equal to mg sin . A simple pendulum can be approximated by hanging a heavy bob from a thin stick of negligible mass.
Figure 1 A simple pendulum In the absence of friction and for small values of ., the motion of the pendulum will be nearly simple harmonic. The frequency of oscillation for a simple pendulum is given by the equation
where L is the length of the pendulum arm and g is the acceleration due to gravity. A student sets up an experiment to measure g by measuring the motion of several simple pendulums. Each pendulum was set in motion (with a very small amplitude of oscillation), and the number of cycles of oscillation, n, were counted over a 1-minute interval. The results are presented in Table 1.
Table 1 Experimental Results for Various Simple Pendulums (n = number of cycles counted by the student in 1 minute)
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Question 41
ID: 1051620
What is the frequency of oscillation measured by the student in Trial 2? A) B) 0.48 Hz 0.80 Hz In Trial 2, the student counted 48 cycles in one minute. This corresponds to a frequency of (48 cycles/min) (1 min/60 sec) = 0.8 cycles/sec = 0.8 Hz. C) D) Question 42 1.25 Hz 1.96 Hz ID: 1051621
A 10% error in the measurement of which of the following quantities would result in the1 greatest error in the measurement of g? A) B) C) D) Mass of the pendulum bob Length of the pendulum arm Amplitude of the motion Number of cycles per minute Solving the equation given in the passage for g yields g = 42 f 2L. Assuming simple harmonic motion, then, the value of g depends only on the frequency of the oscillations and the length of the pendulum (eliminating choices A and C). Since g depends on the square of f, but only on the first power of L, the calculated value of g is more sensitive to an error in f than in L.
Question 43
ID: 1051622
Which one of the following is the expression used to calculate the value of g from the quantities in Table 1? A) B) Solving the equation given in the passage for g yields g = 4 2f 2L. Since n is the number of cycles per minute, the frequency f (in cycles per second) is given by the equation f = n/60. Substituting n/60 for f in the equation for g yields g = 42(n/60)2L = 2n2L/900.
C) D) 4 2n2L
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Question 44
ID: 1051623
A pendulum whose amplitude of oscillation is small will behave like a Hookes Law spring with a restoring force proportional to displacement, F = kx. If sin can be approximated by x/L, which one of the following expressions will be equal to the force constant, k, for the pendulum? A) B) C) D) (g/L)1/2 (mg/L)1/2 g/L mg/L The passage states that the restoring force for a pendulum is given by mg sin . Approximating sin by x/L gives the restoring force as (mg/L)x, so the force constant for the pendulum is mg/L.
Question 45
ID: 1051625
If a pendulum consisting of a 1 kg mass attached to a rigid massless arm is to be held horizontally by an upward force F applied as shown below, what is the magnitude of F?
A) B) C)
2N 3N 20 N The counterclockwise torque exerted by the force F must equal the clockwise torque due to the gravitational force acting on the mass m. Thus, r1F = r2(mg), which gives (0.3 m)F = (0.6 m) (1 kg)(10 N/kg), so F = 20 N.
D)
30 N
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Question 46
ID: 1051626
Which one of the following graphs best represents the frequency of oscillation, f, of a simple pendulum as a function of T, the period of oscillation? A)
Frequency, f, is the reciprocal of the period, T. Thus, the graph in D is eliminated, since f must decrease as T increases. The graph of an inverse proportion, like f = 1/T, is (one branch of) a hyperbola, as illustrated by the graph in A. B)
C)
D)
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Which of the following describes the molecular geometry of a carbon dioxide molecule? A) Linear VSEPR theory predicts (and experiments have verified) that the carbon dioxide molecule, O=C=O, is linear since the central carbon atom contains no lone-pair electrons and the two regions of high electron density (the two double bonds) are most stable on opposite sides of the central atom. B) C) D) Question 48 Trigonal planar Tetrahedral Octahedral ID: 1051646
Which of the following intermolecular attractions will exhibit the greatest strength? A) B) C) D) London dispersion forces Induced dipole interactions Instantaneous dipole interactions Hydrogen bonds Choices A, B, and C are identical, so they can all be eliminated. The answer must be D. The various intermolecular forces, in order of decreasing strength, are the following: Hydrogen bonding > Dipole Dipole interactions > Dipole Induced dipole interactions > Induced dipoleInduced dipole interactions (London forces).
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Question 49
ID: 1051641
Two blocks are suspended from the ends of a massless meter stick as shown below:
How far from the center of the stick must the rope be attached in order to maintain rotational equilibrium?
A) B) C) D)
10 cm 20 cm 25 cm 30 cm Intuitively, the rope must be closer to the heavier block to balance the stick. Since the block on the left is 4 times heavier, the rope must be attached at a point which is 4 times closer to the left-hand block than to the right-hand block to balance the torques due to the weights of the blocks. So, letting x denote the distance from the 4 kg block to the ropes suspension point, the distance from the 1 kg block to the suspension point is 4x. Thus, x + 4x = 100 cm, which implies x = 20 cm. The rope is therefore suspended at a point which is 50 20 = 30 cm from the center of the stick.
Question 50
ID: 1051645
Two wheels, A and B, are connected by a belt. If the radius of B is three times the radius of A, and B is spinning at G rpm, how fast is A spinning?
A) B) C)
G/3 rpm G rpm 3G rpm Since Wheel B has 3 times the radius of Wheel A, it also has 3 times the circumference. Therefore, when Wheel B rotates once, Wheel A rotates 3 times, so the rotational speed of Wheel A is 3 times greater than the rotational speed of Wheel B. So, if Wheel B is rotating at G rpm, then Wheel A is rotating at 3G rpm.
D)
9G rpm
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Question 51
ID: 1085529
Ammonia can be reacted with oxygen to produce nitric oxide in the Ostwald process: 4 NH3(g) + 5 O2(g) 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(g)
If 8 moles of NH3 are reacted with 10 moles of oxygen, and the reaction runs to completion with a total pressure in the vessel of 12 atm, what is the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor? A) B) C) D) 3.6 atm 4.8 atm 6.0 atm 7.2 atm The stoichiometry of the Ostwald process indicates 8 moles of NH3 would completely react with 10 moles of O2 to form the products: 8 moles of NO and 12 moles of H2O. The mole fraction of H2O in the product mixture is 12/(8 + 12) = 0.6, so the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor would be 0.6(12 atm) = 7.2 atm.
Question 52
ID: 1085532
Water absorbs CO2 when exposed to the atmosphere: H2O(l) + CO2(g) H2CO3(aq) H+(aq) + HCO3(aq)
If a 2-liter sample of water has been exposed to the environment, which of the following best describes the character of the aqueous solution? A) B) Strongly acidic Weakly acidic The reaction between H2O and CO2 produces carbonic acid, H2CO3, which is not one of the strong acids. The resulting solution will therefore be weakly acidic. C) D) Weakly basic Strongly basic
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SECTION 2: Verbal Reasoning
VERBAL REASONING
Passage I (15)
The importance of audience as a concept in rhetoric is especially conspicuous in rhetorics where it is absent and nowhere more apparent than in deleterious forms of writing instruction ... which proceed without reference to actual readers. During the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, the rise of the popular press, along with efforts to secure mass literacy in British and American schools, fostered a decline of oratory along with a concomitant rise of writing as the primary mode of rhetoric in (these) societies. A major effect of this shift was an abstraction of audience. This abstraction was partly due to differences between spoken and written language: compared to orators, who can never escape the concrete fact of their ever-present listeners, writers must often be reminded of their readers. Far more important, however, were programs of mass literacy ... as they developed in nineteenth-century American schools. These programs intensified this abstraction by stylizing and reifying the writers audience. As Ward wrote in 1759, young writers were regularly urged to speak agre[e]ably to the common usage of the tongue and admonished to drop mean and sordid usages: Polite and elegant speakers distinguish themselves by their discourse, as persons of figure do by their garb; one being the dress of the mind, as the other is of the body. One may charitably argue that this ... emphasis came about partly because of the need to standardize composition curricula in the interest of mass literacy. That is, to teach large numbers of children to write, teachers created manageable lesson plans and adopted streamlined textbooksprototypical developmental curriculawhich in effect treated writing as a series of discrete forms to master rather than situations ... of influence to manage. Education on a large scale was only part of the problem, however. Far more important were meritocratic pressures of upward social mobility that stereotyped the audience and purpose of writing in particular waysways moved less by argument, reason, and elocution and more by style and certain desired perlocutionary effects associated with the polish and trappings of social class. Writing was openly presented to students as a kind of proper talkan important outward sign of a presumed inner grace: educated man. The end result of these developments, R. Young notes, has been a rhetoric characterized by emphasis on the composed product rather than the composing process; the analysis of discourse into words, sentences, and paragraphs, the classification of discourse into description, narration, exposition, and argument; the strong concern with usage (syntax, spelling, punctuation) and with style (economy, clarity, emphasis); the preoccupation with informal essay and the research paper, and so on. Indeed, writing in the absence of a rhetorical context is not really discourse; it is the bloodless, academic exercise of essaymaking, dummy runs, and pedagogical artifacts such as the five-paragraph themein short, a degeneration of rhetoric. Essential to rhetoric, then, is a notion of audience as person or persons whom the speaker or writer hopes to influence. Even if the writers audience is necessarily more ... diffuse and remote than the speakers always-present listener, the writer nonetheless has a sense of whom he or she hopes to influencethe piece is for certain individuals more than others and the readers will in fact be that group sharing a common interest in the writers argument.
Question 1
ID: 1048077
A writer argues against treating children as miniature adults by citing research findings, presenting case histories showing the deleterious effects of the practice, and concluding with alternative approaches to interaction with children. Which of the following statements would best apply to the writer? A) B) C) D) These programs intensified this abstraction by stylizing and reifying the writers audience. [T]eachers created...prototypical developmental curricula...which in effect treated writing as a series of discrete forms to master rather than situations...of influence to manage. Indeed, writing in the absence of a rhetorical context is not really discourse; it is the bloodless, academic exercise of essay-making... Essential to rhetoric, then, is a notion of audience as person or persons whom the speaker or writer hopes to influence. A. The information in the question stem describes writing intended to persuade a targeted audience, just the opposite of stylization or reification of the audience. Furthermore, there is nothing to suggest that this writers work fits any aspect of the description of stylized as presented in the passage. B. The writer cited is clearly attempting to persuade his or her audience. This is inconsistent with the words rather then situationsof influence to manage in this answer choice. C. The writer referred to in the question stem does write within a rhetorical context (attempting to influence readers of the truth of an argument). D. The writer referred to in the question stem uses persuasive rhetoric (research findings, case histories, and alternative approaches) to influence his or her readers.
Question 2
ID: 1048078
With the phrase stylizing and reifying the writers audience, the author most likely means to indicate: A) B) C) D) teaching writing for an actual, specific audience rather than for abstract, unknown readers. emphasizing writing for a scholarly audience rather than for the general population. instructing students to write words meant to be read silently rather than to be spoken aloud by an orator. teaching writing appropriate for a broad, generic audience rather than for a targeted, defined population. A. In this paragraph, the author discusses several reasons for the abstraction of the audience, meaning writing without a concrete image of the writers audience. The final paragraph clarifies this concept of audience even further. Therefore, the shift to abstraction indicated by the quoted phrase indicates a move away from writing for a specific audience, not towards it. B. Writing for a scholarly or academic audience is never mentioned in the passage. Furthermore, the first paragraph discusses a shift to writing for a more general, not a more specific audience. C. Note the transitional phrase Far more important, however. This tells us that the author is moving from his discussion of the difference between the spoken and written word to a different cause of abstraction of the audience. D. The authors purpose in the first paragraph is to discuss several causes for the increasing abstraction of the audience, that is, writing without a specific intended audience in mind (the equivalent of an audience for a speech). The author argues that one cause of this abstraction was literacy programs that taught how to write words that would be acceptable to everyone, that is, a broad or generic audience. See also in which the author continues the discussion of the standardizing effect of the schools.
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Question 3
ID: 1048079
A guide to academic writing identifies the intended reader as a hypothetical professor. What bearing would this have on the authors argument? A) It would challenge the idea that academic discourse proceeds without reference to an actual reader. A. Since a hypothetical professor is identified as the intended reader of the academic guide, the existence of this reference contradicts the authors argument. B. On the contrary, identifying the hypothetical professor as the intended reader emphasizes the importance of a rhetorical context; this answer choice does not support the question stem. C. The author does not make this claim; this answer choice is false in itself. D. The question stem does not allude to meritocratic pressures, nor does it give any indication about the style, reason, or argument of the guide; this answer choice does not support the question stem. B) C) D) Question 4 It would support the claim that academic writing instruction has de-emphasized the importance of rhetoric. It would weaken the claim that modern curricula are emphasizing oral forms of discourse. It would support the claim that meritocratic pressures have stressed style more than reason and argument. ID: 1048080
The author blames all of the following for contributing to the abstraction of audience in rhetoric EXCEPT: A) B) C) the rise of the popular press in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. meritocratic pressures of upward social mobility. the changing attitudes of eighteenth and nineteenth century orators. A. Since this is an EXCEPT question, the correct answer will be the one that is not found in the passage. B. See paragraph 2. C. This is a trap based on the passages mention of eighteenth and nineteenth century oratory; the Passage does not discuss the orators themselves. D. See paragraphs 1 and 2. D) increased access to primary education.
Question 5
ID: 1048082
From the passage it can be inferred that an essential skill for individuals seeking upward mobility is: A) B) the ability to captivate an audience. proper writing and speaking style. A. The passage indicates that the goal of an author is to write with a sense of addressing an audience, not necessarily of captivating an audience. B. Both proper writing and speaking could create an outward appearance of social class and education. C. Upward mobility is related to style, not creativity. D. Upward mobility is related to style, not skill in rhetoric. In fact, the author argues that upward mobility is one factor in the degeneration of rhetoric. C) D) creativity. rhetorical acumen.
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Passage II (6-11)
The vigilance task has been regarded as providing the fundamental paradigm for defining sustained attention as a behavioral category, and various attempts have been made to specify its essential characteristics. But such attempts run the risk of being overly restrictive in the criteria they impose and of narrowing down unduly the range of phenomena to be explained by a theory of sustained attention. It seems preferable, therefore, to adopt a fairly flexible approach to the problem of task definition and to examine instead the wide variety of tasks used by different researchers investigating vigilance and monitoring behavior in the hope that the great majority can be encompassed within a task classification system. Different theories advocated by different experimenters appear, at least in part, to depend on the type of task they have employed. For instance, investigators who have used stimulating tasks have tended to favor theories concerned with the division of attention, while those who have used unstimulating tasks have tended to favor theories based on the concept of arousal. It is clearly important to determine at what level of generality different theories of vigilance can be applied, and this objective could be more easily achieved if a taxonomic framework were available within which the characteristics of different tasks could be listed, with particular emphasis upon those most obviously associated with changes in performance. While there has been comparatively little progress in the development of a taxonomy of vigilance tasks, Broadbent attempted to distinguish between tasks that did and did not yield a decrement in terms of the type of task employed. Moreover, a taxonomy of continuous work tasks has been proposed by Bergum. His taxonomy was based on arousal theory and differentiated tasks in terms of their total stimulation value. Bergum applied his classification scheme to a wide range of continuous-performance tasks, including those involved in production line, assembly, and other monotonous work. As such, it is of limited value for the purposes of a taxonomic analysis of monitoring situations, since the task dimensions are too broad. Furthermore, no independent measure of the rather imprecisely defined stimulation value dimension was provided. Nevertheless, Bergums analysis is important for providing one of the first attempts at task classification for monitoring and other prolonged tasks, and his analysis does allow some measure of predictive capacity across classification categories. The concept of stimulation value, and the proposal of an optimal level for efficient performance, are related to similar conceptualizations such as the inverted-U relation, the YerkesDodson Law, and Poultons concept of optimum perceptual load. However, Bergums taxonomy raises the question of theoretical bias in the construction of task taxonomies. If a task classification system is to be used to evaluate different theoretical approaches to the explanation of performance changes, theoretical neutrality in the formulation of such a system must be a cardinal requirement. Thus the task characteristics included in the task classification system proposed here are those that seem to be the most crucial in producing performance changes, irrespective of their relative importance for particular theories of vigilance.
Question 6
ID: 1048083
The authors of this passage would most likely agree with the statement that: A) in defining the tasks to be considered under a behavioral theory, one must make the task dimensions as inclusive as possible. B) a broad task-classification system is needed to determine which behavioral theories apply to a given task. A. The authors argue against restrictive criteria in defining tasks. B. The authors state that a flexible, or broad, classification system is needed. C. Although the authors concede that Bergums study is important, it is of limited value. D. Flexibility is preferable in task definition. C) D) Bergums analysis of different tasks should be adopted as the core of a new taxonomy of arousal states. flexibility in a taxonomic scheme leads to a looseness of behavior definition that is inappropriate.
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Question 7
ID: 1048084
According to the passage, a researcher promoting a theory based on the concept of arousal most likely employed in her investigations: A) B) C) poorly defined tasks. abruptly changing tasks. unstimulating tasks. See paragraph 1. D) Question 8 stimulating tasks. ID: 1048085
The authors make all of the following claims about Bergums classification of continuous work tasks EXCEPT that Bergums taxonomy: A) distinguished tasks based on relative stimulation value. A. See paragraph 2. Bergums taxonomy distinguished tasks based on total, not relative, stimulation value. B. See paragraph 3. C. See paragraph 3. D. See paragraph 3. B) C) D) Question 9 permitted predictive capacity across classification categories. was of limited usefulness due to broadly assigned task dimensions. did not provide a measure of stimulation value. ID: 1048086
An article in a behavioral psychology journal makes the claim that all systems of taxonomic classification are fundamentally based on one or more theoretical foundations. This article most challenges which of the authors claims as indicated in the passage? A) A task classification system can be found in which the determination of the effect of a task on performance is not dependent on the use of any particular theoretical construct. A. If the journal articles claim that all taxonomic classification is based on one or more theories is valid, then all task classification systems are inherently biased. This is inconsistent with the authors argument that theoretical neutrality is a necessity. Finally, the author states that a theoretically neutral system is one in which task characteristics are not determined or defined by a particular theoretical approach. B. Theoretical bias of taxonomic systems is not directly relevant to the authors discussion of arousal and unstimulating tasks. C. The variety of tasks that can be included in a taxonomic system, and the problem with basing a taxonomy on a particular theory or theories are two separate issues in the passage. D. The author does not argue for theoretical flexibility [only for flexibility in defining and including different tasks]; this is a claim not made in the passage. Furthermore, the article would be consistent, not inconsistent with a call for theoretical flexibility. B) C) D) Unstimulating tasks tend to favor theories of arousal. Overly restrictive criteria can limit the applicability of a theory to different phenomena. Flexibility in theoretical approach is necessary in order to encompass a wide variety of tasks.
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Question 10
ID: 1048087
The passage suggests that characterizing the vigilance task is best handled by: A) B) C) adopting a more restrictive definition of the vigilance task. broadening the definition of the vigilance task to include noncontinuous tasks. studying the various tasks employed by researchers in their analyses. A. The authors make the opposite argument. B. If Bergums analysis is of limited value because the dimensions are too broad (i.e., his categories are vague and poorly defined), then inclusion of noncontinuous tasks would be of less value because the dimensions would be broader. C. The authors argue that examining the great variety of tasks used by different researchers will help characterize the vigilance task and formulate a task classification system. D. The authors argue that it is necessary to examine the wide variety of tasks, not to consolidate them into one. D) Question 11 consolidating task types used by researchers into one type to promote consistency. ID: 1048088
It can be inferred from the passage that the authors believe which of the following? A) B) Broadbent has failed in his attempt to distinguish between different tasks in terms of their negative impact on performance. It is possible to successfully determine which characteristics of a task actually produce a change in performance. A. The authors give no indication that Broadbent failed in his attempt. B. The authors believe that the characteristics included in their proposal (which is referred to but not described in the passage) are those that produce performance changes. C. The authors do not believe that Bergum was entirely successful. D. The passage does not give sufficient information to determine the content of Poultons concept. C) D) Bergum has constructed the first successful taxonomy of tasks and measures of their impact on performance. Poulton has delineated the optimum level of stimulation needed for peak performance.
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Passage III (1217)

A slip occurs when someone performs an action that is not intended; slips do not occur randomly. They often result from conflict among several possible actions or thoughts, by intermixing the components of a single action sequence, or by performing an appropriate act in some inappropriate way. It is my belief that errors can be interpreted by a suitable understanding of how people come to their intentions, and how that intent then becomes translated into action. Freud knew this, and from his analyses of errors, he made important contributions to our understanding of the mind. Freuds contributions have been severely undervalued by contemporary scientists, possibly as a reaction to his apparent overinterpretation of slips. Freuds contributions can be reinterpreted. I believe Freud confused two different aspects of cognitive machinery: mechanism and knowledge. Freud believed that slips resulted from competition among underlying mechanisms, often working in parallel with one another, almost always beneath the consciousness of the owner. The resulting notions were of mental operations controlled by a quasihierarchical control structure, with parallel activation of thoughts and memories, with conscious access to only a limited amount of this activity. The ideas are sophisticated even for todays theorists who only recently have introduced the differences between conscious and subconscious processing into their models of cognitive functioning (we still do not know how a layered system of independently operating computational units might work). Freud also was concerned with the particular knowledge contents of the memories and beliefs of his patients. I believe that it is this aspect of Freud that is most controversial, for like most of my colleagues, I believe he went far beyond reasonable bounds in attributing vast influence from hypothesized belief structures. Slips are indeed compelling sources of data. To Freud, the interpretation of some was clear, for the meaning in them is unmistakable, even to the dullest intelligence, and strong enough to impress even the most critical judgment (Freud, 1924). The examination of any large collection of slips reveals that they are not random occurrences; they can be categorized; they fall into patterns. Moreover, if one attempts to determine what possible mechanism could lead to such patterns of errors, the result requires autonomous, subconscious processing, with intentions, past habits, thoughts, and memories all playing some role in corrupting the intended behavior Consider the following slip. I was the discussant on a paper by a distinguished psychologist. I had no advance notice about the contents of the paper and so was forced to prepare remarks as the paper was presented and to continue planning the latter part of my remarks even as I started to say the first part[The psychologists] interpretations are well-known, and quite controversial, at least within this audience. I deliberately wished to downplay the controversy and to emphasize the positive contributions of the talk to the issues of the conference. At one point, however, I said, this tells us nothing of the reputation (pause) representation of the information. Freud would have nodded wisely and stated that my slip revealed my underlying concern about the reputation of the speaker (and another of my colleagues afterward presented such an interpretation to me). That may very well be so, but note that the slip itself didnt occur at a random time: The hidden intent must have been sitting around waiting for just the right opportunity to reveal itself, a situation where the syntax and phonological components would match properly. The words reputation and representation share a common ending, a common beginning, and a common part of speech. These different aspects of a slip point out an important point: Most slips have multiple causes. Freudian forces may indeed operate, but they do so in conjunction with other underlying forces, so that the resulting slip is multipli-determined, consistent with a number of constraints and explanations.
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Question 12
ID: 1048102
The author would most likely agree that Freud: A) B) C) D) overlooked the contributions that memory and belief make in producing a slip. would accept the notion that syntax and phonology influence the occurrence of a slip. made important contributions to our understanding of the mind by discovering that slips may have multiple determinants. overstated the role of belief structures in generating slips. A. Freud was concerned with these elements. B. The author indicates that Freud focused too exclusively on memories and beliefs as causes of slips, without taking into account the role played by other factors such as syntax and phonology . The end of the last paragraph tells us that these linguistic elements are nonFreudian forces , from which we can infer that Freud would be unlikely to accept their causal role in slips. C. This is the authors contention, which goes beyond Freuds contributions to our understanding of slips. D. The author believes that Freud went far beyond reasonable bounds in overstating the role of belief structures.
Question 13
ID: 1048103
The author provides the personal example in the fourth paragraph in order to: A) B) argue against a Freudian interpretation of his slip. demonstrate the mechanisms at work in the corruption of his intended communication. A. See lines 6266. The author concedes that Freud would have been able to give a partial explanation of the slip. B. See lines 4448. The author introduces the ideas his example will illustrate in the concluding sentence of paragraph 3; paragraph 5 explains the mechanism at work. C. This statement would apply to Freuds explanation (lines 1724), an explanation which the author criticizes. D. See lines 6970. This statement is true, but this is not the intended point of the example. C) D) Question 14 illustrate the way in which knowledge content determines slips. provide an example of a slip driven largely by syntax and phonological components. ID: 1048104
The passage claims each of the following about the nature of slips EXCEPT that they: A) often have sexual meanings. A. This is a trap based on common knowledge that Freuds theories are often related to sex; this is not stated in the passage. B. See paragraph 4. C. Both the author of the passage and Freud believe that the causes of slips were identifiable. D. See paragraph 1. B) C) D) fall into categories. have identifiable causes. result from conflicting thoughts.
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Question 15
ID: 1048105
Suppose that a scientist had been amassing cases of slips in a study of public speakers. From information given in the passage, the scientist might have collected all of the following EXCEPT: A) B) C) right instead of left. inevitable instead of unenviable. foreseeable instead of implicit. A. This is an example of conflict between several possible thoughts. B. This is an example of a slip in which the grammar and pronunciation (syntax and phonology) match. C. There is no apparent relationship between these two words that corresponds to any of the categories listed in the passage. According to the author, slips are not random, and so this would not be considered a slip, based on the information in the passage. D. This is an example of conflict between several possible thoughts. D) Question 16 right instead of wrong. ID: 1048106
Which of the following best captures the meaning of the phrase Freudian forces as it is used in the passage? A) B) C) D) Wholly unconscious mental operations Interactions among and conflicts between psychological and linguistic components The parallel and independent functioning of the id, ego, and superego Beliefs, memories, and intentions A. This choice is too extreme. According to the author, Freud believed the mental operations at work in slips were almost always, not always, unconscious. B. This is the authors explanation of slips, not Freuds (see the last paragraph). C. Be careful not to use outside knowledge. While the passage refers to parallel and independent forces, it never mentions the id, ego or superego. D. In the first two paragraphs, the author describes how Freud posited that slips are caused by beliefs, memories, and intentions. These are the Freudian forces referred to in the last paragraph.
Question 17
ID: 1048107
The following slip is observed in a speech regarding the various health risks of smoking. Intending to say, Smoking is a major cause of emphysema, the speaker instead says, Heart disease is a major cause of emphysema. This slip would cast the most doubt on which of the authors claims? A) Slips are constrained by such factors as syntax and phonological components. A. If slips were always limited by syntax (grammar) and phonological components (pronunciation), then this sentence would not constitute a slip; the factor at work is apparently neither of these, but semantics (meaning). B. Memories and beliefs could link these two terms in the speakers mind. C. The slip is an example of an appropriate action performed in an inappropriate way. D. The two terms could be linked subconsciously in the speakers mind. B) C) D) Slips are determined by the forces of memories and beliefs. Slips often result from performing an appropriate action in an inappropriate way. Slips result from competition among subconscious mechanisms.
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Passage IV (18-21)
In marketing terms, detergents are probably one of the most successful of modern technological innovations. In a scant twenty-five years, this new invention has captured more than two-thirds of the laundry market from one of mans oldest, best-established, and most useful inventions: soap. This technological displacement is typical of many that have occurred since World War II: the replacement of a natural organic product by an unnatural synthetic one. In each case the economic good of the new technology has been offset by its negative environmental impact. Soap is produced by reacting a natural product, fat, with alkali. A typical fat used in soap-making is palm oil. This oil is produced by the palm tree, using water and carbon dioxide as raw materials, and sunlight to provide the necessary energy. These are all freely available, renewable resources. No environmental impact results from the synthesis of the palm oil molecule. Of course, with inadequate husbandry a palm plantation can deplete the soil, and when the oil is extracted from the coconut, fuel is used and the resultant burning contributes to air pollution. The manufacture of soap from oil and alkali also consumes fuel and produces wastes. Once used and sent down the drain, soap is broken down by the bacteria of decayfor the natural fat is readily attacked by the bacterial enzymes. In most places, this bacterial action takes place within the confines of a sewage treatment plant. What is then emitted to surface waters is only carbon dioxide and water, since fat contains only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. Hence there is little or no impact on the aquatic ecosystem due to the biological oxygen demand (which accompanies bacterial degradation of organic wastes) arising from soap wastes. Nor is the product of soap degradation, carbon dioxide, usually an important ecological intrusion since it is already in plentiful supply from other environmental sources. In its production and use, soap has a relatively light impact on the environment. In comparison with soap, the production of detergents is likely to exert a more intense environmental impact. Detergents are synthesized from organic raw materials originally present in petroleum along with a number of other substances. To obtain the raw materials, the petroleum is subjected to distillation and other energy-consuming processesand the burned fuel pollutes the air. Then the purified raw materials are used in a series of chemical reactions, involving chlorine and high temperatures, finally yielding the active cleaning agent. This is then mixed with a variety of additives, designed to soften hard water, bleach stains, brighten wash (this additive strongly reflects light and dazzles the eye to achieve a simulated whiteness), and otherwise gladden the heart of the advertising copy writer. Suitably boxed, this is the detergent. The total energy used to produce the active agent aloneand therefore the resultant air pollutionis probably three times that needed to produce oil for soap manufacture. And to produce the needed chlorine, mercury is usedand released to the environment as a pollutant. In substituting man-made chemical processes for natural ones, detergent manufacture inevitably produces a greater environmental stress than does the manufacture of soap. Once used, detergents become serious sources of additional pollution. Here the contrast with soap is striking. Soap has been used for thousands of years, everywhere in the world, in a wide variety of ecological, economic, and cultural settingswithout any record, to my knowledge, of pollution problems. In contrast, in only twenty-five years, detergents have established a notoriously bad environmental record wherever they have been used.
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Question 18
ID: 1050300
It has been determined that synthetic products are not broken down by bacterial enzymes. What is the relevance of this finding to the passage? A) B) C) It weakens the authors claim that detergents are more harmful to the environment than soaps. It weakens the authors claim that soap is broken down by the bacteria of decay. It supports the authors claim that detergents become serious sources of pollution once they are used. A. If synthetic products are not broken down, this finding would strengthen the authors claim. B. This finding is not related to soap, since soap is a natural product and the question asks about synthetic products. C. If synthetic products (i.e., detergents) are not broken down by bacterial enzymes, then they become serious sources of pollution; in contrast, paragraph 3 describes the process by which soap is broken down by the natural process of decay. D. This finding is not related to the replacement of organic products by synthetic ones, but to the process of decay. D) It supports the authors claim that since World War II natural organic products have been replaced by unnatural synthetic ones. ID: 1050301
Question 19
The author offers no supporting evidence for the claim that: A) soaps have been used for thousands of years, everywhere in the world. A. This claim is not supported in the passage by evidence. B. This claim is supported by numerical data. C. This claim is supported by the example of mercury. D. This claim is supported by the example of palm oil. B) C) D) most consumers choose detergents over soaps. detergents produce dangerous pollutants. soap has little impact on the ecosystem.
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Question 20
ID: 1050303
The passage states that consumers purchase more laundry detergent than laundry soap (paragraph 1). If the author were to conclude that this is due to consumers belief that detergents are more effective than soaps, this conclusion would be most strongly challenged by a study showing that: A) B) when given free samples of cleansing agents, people selected detergents over soaps. today organic soaps are sold largely in upscale markets and are more expensive than detergents. A. The study would support this conclusion, not challenge it. B. If soap is significantly more expensive, it is possible that consumers purchase more detergent because it is cheaper, not because they believe it to be more effective. Therefore, this would weaken the conclusion described in the question. C. This finding is not inconsistent with the conclusion described in the question stem. If people buy more detergent because of advertising, it may be because that advertising has led them to believe that detergent is more effective than soap. D. The study does not address the effectiveness of soap or detergent. C) D) when the advertising budgets for detergents were increased by 50%, sales doubled. consumers are indifferent to whether or not cleansing agents are biodegradable.
Question 21
ID: 1050306
Which of the following does the passage state in support of the claim that the process of producing detergent involves more negative environmental impact than the production of soap? I. II. III. Detergents have a bad environmental record wherever they have been used. Mercury is released into the environment during detergent production. There is no need for an artificial substitute for a product as effective as soap. A) B) I only II only Item I: False. Although the passage states this is true, it is not given in support of the claim outlined in the question stem. Item II: True. The fact that mercury is released into the environment during detergent production directly precedes and is given in support of the claim outlined in the question stem. Item III: False. Although the passage states this is true, it is not given in support of the claim outlined in the question stem. C) D) I and II only I, II, and III
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Passage V (22-28)
The word logic, observed Russell in 1914, is never used in the same sense by two different philosophers. His own view of logic, also, was to change dramatically more than once. Such [an admission] is almost routine in manuals of logic, the authors even congratulating one another that they are not likely to run out of problems. This alarming state of affairs in a discipline well over two thousand years old creates the impression that either the subject is one of fearsome complexity, or that its practitioners are quite inadequate to their chosen task. The profusion of alternative and even deviant logics presently on offer to the public hardly inspires confidence. Indeed, a strong case could be made that logic is currently the most illogical discipline in the modern university, having by now been equated with virtually everythingfrom empirical fact to metaphysical fantasybut only very rarely with the logical nature and function of language, with which alone it is concerned. True, there has always been a persistent belief that logic has to do with rational argument and valid inference, but this is too restrictive a view and often involves misconception of the nature of logical inference. True, also, there have recently been brave attempts to examine the logic of ordinary language, but being ungrounded in any systematic theory of language such attempts have remained fragmentary and tentative, enmeshed in the minutiae of colloquial speech. However, the most ancient and persistent misconception of logic is due to its confusion with mathematical reasoning and the type of deductive argument which occurs in mathematics. Both mathematical reasoning and scientific theory are indeed logical uses of language for highly specialized purposes. Logic, however, permeates the whole of language, being inseparable from the normative function operative in language from the start and present at every stage of its development and use. Logic concerns the difference between linguistic sense and nonsense. The unhappy history of logic, the countless polemics even as to what it is, and the notorious bickerings of logicians down the ages have always convinced most people that this is a subject best left alone. Not, it must be said, without a certain sense of relief. The prime utility of the study of logic is to prevent people from talking nonsense and, worse still, from acting on it. And if the logicians cannot agree on what logic is about, this seems to leave otherseconomists, politicians, journalists, academics, and indeed everybody elsefree to talk whatever nonsense they please. To tamper with so convenient a belief must surely be a hazardous undertaking. If logic ever became prevalent among humankind it would prove lethal to many orthodoxies and ideologies that, in an ever-changing world, can sustain their increasingly irrelevant myths and dogmas only by subterfuge and contradiction. The subject, however, cannot be shirked. Nonsense may often be harmless, but when converted into conflicting ideologies, harnessed to political power, and armed with modern weaponry, it can bring about irreparable harm. Paradoxically, it is only in the field of empirical science and technology, which have now created the possibility of human self-destruction, that logical methods are doggedly adhered to. In the humanities, which should be concerned to ameliorate this doom-laden state of affairs, we find only acrimonious dissension and theoretical chaos. We see here the dangers inherent in a situation where mans technical intelligence has outstripped his moral intelligence or even his awareness of common self-interestin survival.
Question 22
ID: 1048108
The central concern of the passage is: A) B) C) to make a case for the marginal importance of logic. to describe the dangers of logic when converted into conflicting ideologies. to define the usefulness and limitations of the study of logic. A. The passage argues the opposite. B. It is nonsense that is dangerous, not logic. C. This is the overall theme of the passage. D. This is mentioned in paragraph 3, but it is not the main topic of the passage. D) to show how illogical the humanities are in comparison to mathematics.
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Question 23
ID: 1048109
According to the passage, the widespread use of logic could destroy many orthodoxies. How is this claim supported in the passage? A) B) C) By analysis of the impact of logic on mathematical reasoning and scientific theory By reference to a study that is outlined in the passage By the explanation that logic prevents nonsensical actions and ideas A. No such analysis is given in the passage. B. No such study is outlined in the passage. C. Since orthodoxies rely on nonsensical myths and dogmas, widespread use of logic would destroy these beliefs. D. These examples do not illustrate how the use of logic could destroy orthodoxies. D) Question 24 By the examples of politicians, economists, and academics ID: 1048110
A sociological study of television-watching habits of males and females is discovered to have been strongly biased by the investigator. This discovery would: A) weaken the authors claim that empirical science and technology strictly follow logical methods. A. A strong bias in an empirical research study shows that the investigation did not follow logical methods. B. The author indicates with this statement that logic relates to all uses of language, including nonmathematical ones. This does not mean that all language is rational or unbiased. C. The question stem does not refer to any particular orthodoxy. D. The author does not make this claim in the passage. Rather, the passage states that the empirical sciences are doggedly logical. To say that the use of logic in a destructive way is paradoxically illogical would be to put words and ideas in the authors mouth, that is, to go beyond the content and scope of the passage. B) C) D) Question 25 weaken the authors claim that logic permeates all language. support the authors claim that logic would prove lethal to many orthodoxies. support the authors claim that empirical science is paradoxically illogical. ID: 1048111
The author believes that the brave attempts to examine the logic of ordinary language: A) B) C) D) have adequately characterized complicated speech, by appeal to logical inference. have failed to produce strong results because of struggles with conversational speech. will bring about greater appreciation for the linguistic basis of logic. are not grounded in a systematic linguistic theory. A. These attempts remained underdeveloped and inadequate. B. The statement implies that problems with conversational speech caused failed attempts; on the contrary, it was the attempt to examine conversational speech that failed. C. The passage gives no indication that these attempts will have positive results. D. See paragraph 2.
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Question 26
ID: 1048112
Based on information in the passage, the author would most likely agree with which of the following opinions? A) B) Logic in the humanities should be more like logic in empirical science and technology. Logic plays a role in all levels of language, including those connected with morality. A. Logic remains the same in any field to which it is applied; this is a trap based on the authors assertion that logic is used in science but not in the humanities. B. The author would agree that logic plays a role in all parts and all uses of language. C. The passage indicates the opposite. D. See paragraph 1. Although philosophers may not yet accurately define logic in the same way, the author does not go so far as to argue that they never will. C) D) Question 27 The history of logic encompasses numerous illustrations of the positive uses of logic. Philosophers will never define logic in the same way. ID: 1048113
Which of the following would the author most likely accept as an adequate definition of the word logic? A) B) Rational argument and valid inference Evolution and application of normative language used to separate truth from untruth A. The author rejects this definition as overly restrictive. B. The author argues that the study of logic concerns the logical nature and function of language. This involves how language has evolved and is used (normatively) to separate sense from nonsense, and to keep people from acting nonsensically. C. The author claims that equating logic with mathematical reasoning is a misperception. Empirical science does use logical methods, but logic is not (or should not be) limited to scientific fields. D. The author argues that the way in which people describe or make sense of the world to themselves and others is not always logical. Logic as described by the passage does not necessarily reconcile contradictions, but cuts through them to uncover the truth. C) D) Question 28 Mathematical reasoning and empirical scientific methods The way in which individuals make sense of the world by reconciling apparent contradictions in their experiences ID: 1048114
The author states that the problems in logic suggest that it is either one of fearsome complexity, or that its practitioners are quite inadequate to their chosen task. The rest of the passage: A) B) C) supports the first option with examples of the complexity and comprehensiveness of logic. criticizes practitioners like economists and journalists who are shirking their duty. acknowledges the complexity of logic and calls on practitioners to improve the discipline. A. The author rejects this definition as overly restrictive. B. The author argues that the study of logic concerns the logical nature and function of language. This involves how language has evolved and is used (normatively) to separate sense from nonsense, and to keep people from acting nonsensically. C. The author claims that equating logic with mathematical reasoning is a misperception (lines 2730). Empirical science does use logical methods, but logic is not (or should not be) limited to scientific fields. D. The author argues that the way in which people describe or make sense of the world to themselves and others is not always logical. Logic as described by the passage does not necessarily reconcile contradictions, but cuts through them to uncover the truth. D) rejects both options.
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Passage VI (29-35)
Since the early years of this century, surgeons have wanted to operate on narrowed (stenotic) heart valves. Obviously, total replacement of a badly diseased valvecutting out the old and stitching in the newwas the ideal operation, but this, like intracardiac repair, had to wait for Gibbons heartlung machine (1963). From time to time, a surgeon made a stab (literally) at widening a stenotic valve. In 1925 Henry Souttar made an incision in the left atrial appendage of a 19-year-old girl with mitral stenosis and enlarged the mitral orifice with his finger. The patient recovered, but Souttar never performed the operation again. Many years later, as Sir Henry, he stated his reasons in two letters he wrote to two American surgeons: At the time, it was an article of faith with Physicians that the valves were of no importance and that the only thing that mattered was the condition of the cardiac muscle. In that atmosphere I was naturally unable to obtain another case, in spite of this one complete success. It was a pity but easy to understand.Although my patient made an uninterrupted recovery, the Physicians declared that it was all nonsense and in fact, that the operation was unjustifiable. In fact it is of no use to be ahead of ones time!It was a pity, but progress in science requires repeated challenges to authority. (Sometimes authority seems merely to be synonymous with author, any author, right or wrong.) By 1928, ten patients with mitral stenosis, one with pulmonary stenosis, and one with aortic stenosis had been subjected to operations to enlarge the opening of these valves. The operations included dilatation by the surgeons finger, slitting open the leaflets of a stenotic valve, or removing a segment of it. Nine of the patients died without ever leaving the hospital, and a tenth died four and a half months later. But valvular disease was too important a problem to set aside; almost two million Americans have mild to severe rheumatic valvular disease. The first bright, new idea came from Dr. Charles Hufnagel, at Georgetown University, who was interested in seeing what a surgeon could do about a leaky aortic valve, one that permits much of the blood pumped into the aorta by each beat of the left ventricle to leak back into the empty ventricle during diastole, thereby greatly increasing the size and work of the left ventricle. Because he had been working with plastic tubes to replace diseased segments of the aorta, he thought of building a plastic valve to put into the aorta, a valve that would stop backflow, even though the leaky valve remained in place. He designed and built a wide variety of valves (many in his basement at home) and gained experience inserting them in the aortas of numerous experimental animals. Finally, he decided to try it in a patient. Such a plastic valve would not work if the aortic valve was stenotic (but had to remain in place) but should work optimally if the valve was leaky and if he could place the plastic valve as close as possible to the natural but diseased valve. Technical difficulties prevented him from placing it where he wanted tothat is, at the very beginning of the aorta near the left ventricle. At this point he might have given up. But he settled for reducing backflow instead of eliminating it; he put his valve in the thoracic aorta, where it could do no more than prevent regurgitation of blood from the lower half of the body. His first operation was in 1952and it was as successful as he had hoped. Hufnagel gave the cardiac surgeon the concept of going beyond attempts at repair and instead removing diseased valves and replacing them with artificial valves.
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Question 29
ID: 1048115
As used in the passage, the term an article of faith most probably means: A) B) a small hope. an unquestioned belief. A. If physicians had a small hope that the valves were not important, then we can infer their fundamental belief to be that the valves were important; according to paragraph 2, this was not the case. B. Since the physicians belief that valves were not important was strong and unexamined, the physicians did not attribute the patients recovery to Souttars operation; they considered the operation to be nonsense. Furthermore, we would not see the gradual acceptance of the importance of valves and heart valve surgery described in the rest of the passage. C. The passage suggests the opposite: If the physicians belief were well-supported, then Souttar would most likely not have performed the operation on the valve, because evidence would have led him in another direction. D. The author indicates in the third, fourth and fifth paragraphs that the belief that valves were of no importance was in fact misguided. However, this is not the meaning of article of faith in the context of the sentence and of the paragraph in which it is found. C) D) Question 30 a well-supported belief. a misguided belief. ID: 1048116
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the authors depiction of the significance to cardiac surgery of Hufnagels work? A) B) C) Hufnagel performed several operations to repair leaky valves in 1953, with mixed but largely successful results. Today, surgeons commonly use plastic tubing and techniques similar to those employed by Hufnagel to repair damaged sections of a variety of major blood vessels in other areas of the body. Until the mid-1950s, there was no discussion in major medical journals regarding the possible viability of valve replacement surgery. A. The passage already indicates that Hufnagel performed additional surgeries [as this was His first operation]. The fact that he had mixed result does not give additional evidence for his significance. In the context of the main idea of the passage (see in particular the first two sentences and the last sentence which frame the passage), Hufnagels main significance lay in suggesting the idea of valve replacement instead of valve repair. B. Hufnagels plastic tubes are mentioned only in the context of describing how he came upon the idea of valve repair, which then inspired other surgeons to consider the possibility of valve replacement. Also, the question asks specifically about significance for cardiac surgery, not surgery in general. C. The author claims that Hufnagel gave the cardiac surgeon the concept of not only repairing but replacing damaged valves. If there was no public (published) discussion of this idea before 1952, it supports the claim that his work was in fact the genesis of the eventual development of the ideal operation." D. This statement supports the authors depiction of Souttars experience, but has no direct relevance to Hufnagels significance. D) Souttar was widely criticized in the professional journals of his day for unnecessarily putting a patients life at risk.
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Question 31
ID: 1048117
The author uses the second paragraph of the passage in order to: A) illustrate the atmosphere surrounding early attempts at stenotic valve repair. A. The concluding sentences of paragraph 1 introduce the idea that what follows will contain Souttars reasons for never performing the valve operation again; paragraph 2 illustrates Souttars view of the conservative atmosphere of the medical profession at the time. B. The author does not use this paragraph for these reasons, although Souttar did at the time he wrote it. C. Early heart surgeons focused on the cardiac muscle, not the valves; this answer choice is false in itself. D. The authors tone in this passage is neutral. He is describing, not justifying, one experimental procedure. Also, the author does not generalize from this example to experimental procedures in science as a whole. B) C) D) Question 32 criticize the medical profession for its reliance on authorities and its resistance to new ideas. demonstrate the myopic focus of early heart surgeons on the cardiac valves. justify the use of experimental procedures in the advancement of science. ID: 1048118
One can infer that a physician in 1925 would attribute the success of the procedure performed by Sir Henry Souttar to: A) B) C) Souttars surgical acumen. the relative simplicity of reopening a stenotic valve. the healthy condition of the patients cardiac muscle. C. See lines 1519. Souttar states that physicians of his time believed that the cardiac muscle was the only important element in repairing stenosis. D) Question 33 the fact that the procedure was performed on the mitral valve and not the aortic valve. ID: 1048119
The passage suggests that a diseased valve was supplemented most effectively with an artificial valve if: A) B) C) the cardiac muscle is strong. it is in the thoracic artery. it is leaky but not stenotic. See paragraph 4. D) it has mitral, rather than pulmonary or aortic, stenosis.
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Question 34
ID: 1048120
The purpose of this passage is to: A) B) C) D) illustrate the repeated challenges to authority required for science to advance. praise the pioneering heart surgeons who developed new life-saving techniques. criticize the medical establishments resistance to change. demonstrate the evolution of surgical techniques to treat valvular disease. A. The passage illustrates only one challenge to authority and does not include examples of advancement in other areas of science. B. The passage has a descriptive tone, not an admiring one. C. The passage has a primarily descriptive tone, not a negative or critical one. D. The passage illustrates the chronology of advancements in valvular surgery; the first and last lines of the passage suggest that the passage was written for this purpose.
Question 35
ID: 1048121
Which of the following statements from the passage is LEAST consistent with Souttars explanation of his failure to perform additional valve operations? A) Ten patients with mitral stenosis received operations in 1928. A. This challenges Souttars explanation, because he indicates that physicians in 1925 considered his method nonsense and unjustifiable; the conservative climate of the medical field would have had to change in three years for his explanation to be accurate. B. This answer choice is not related to Souttars explanation. C. The recovery of the patient and Souttars failure to perform another operation are separate and unrelated events. D. This answer choice is not related to Souttars explanation. B) C) D) Successful cardiac surgery was performed before the invention of the heartlung machine. Souttars patient recovered after her operation in 1925. Hufnagel successfully introduced a radically new procedure into the field of cardiac surgery.
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Passage VII (36-40)

Historical plant geography is essentially the science of area applied to plants. Its first task is to establish the distribution of plant taxa (e.g., species, genera, and families) in geographically defined areas, and its second is to interpret the origins and present status of these areas. The term geographical range is applied to the entire region of distribution or occurrence of any taxonomic unit whatever its rank. The term may be limited geographically and may be used to refer to the occurrence of a particular taxonomic entity (taxon; pl. taxa) within a local district, county, country, or continent, or to its entire region of distribution at the world scale. As long as these reference points of scale are clear, the concept of area may be justifiably restricted. When mapped, no two plant areas are exactly the same in size, shape, topography or geographical territory embraced. The word topography is used here in the sense of Wulff and refers to the local character of a plants distribution within its area as a whole. For example, although the water crowfoot (Ranunculus aquatilis) is found throughout the lowland parts of Great Britain and Ireland, within that general area it is confined to ponds, ditches and streams. It has a localized topography within its basic distribution. A crucial stage in all plant geographical work is the identification of recurrent patterns within the great diversity that exists. The assumption that the same form may be produced by the same process, although always a dangerous hypothesis, is fundamental to much research in plant geography. Plant geographers have, in consequence, devised a number of ways of classifying plant areas. Very few areas are in any sense truly continuous, except at the most local level. At the world scale, the prize for the most continuous distribution must go to the grass family, the Gramineae (Poaceae), which reaches the very borders of Antarctica and occupies the furthest land masses of the Northern Hemisphere. Moreover, it is a dominant element in many vegetation formations throughout the world, and in nearly all formations it is well-represented or at least present. Other cosmopolitan families ranking close to the Gramineae in their ubiquity are the Compositae (Asteraceae), the Caryophyllaceae, and the Cyperaceae, with the genus Carex as its key temperate representative and the genus Cyperus found mainly in the tropics. Some authors have argued that plant geographers should concentrate their attention on the main portions of a plant area, the parts which they term the compact area. Others, such as Cain and Hulten, rightly reject this suggestion and point out that it is more often the outlying stations of a distributionthe radiations or relictsthat provide the clues by which we may interpret the history of the area. Perhaps, however, it is always wisest to take into account the total distribution pattern and the full topography of a distribution if a true understanding is to be achieved. A further, though necessary, division of areas is into natural and artificial areas. Plant geography is in the main concerned with natural areas and distributions that are the products of natural dispersal mechanisms and agencies of dispersal, excluding man. Artificial areas arise where man has a significant role in their formation, whether deliberate or unconscious. Natural areas become artificial when the actions of man markedly reduce or extend the area or create a new type of distribution by changing, for example, a formerly continuous distribution into a broken or disjunct distribution. In some instances the hand of man is easy to detect; in others, his contribution remains obscure. The problem of distinguishing the natural from the artificial has proved increasingly troublesome in recent years, especially with the rapid growth of biological interchange between countries. In the preface of his latest edition of The Geography of the Flowering Plants, Good concludes, perhaps a little pessimistically, that the point has now been reached which makes it seem doubtful whether, in the future, any considerable proportion of new geographical records can be accepted simply at their face value.
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Question 36
ID: 1048129
Which of the following examples of plant distribution exhibits localized topography? A) A species of white birch found in the northern Rocky Mountains, clustered on south-facing peaks A. The fact that the white birch is found clustered on south-facing peaks illustrates a local distribution within the general area of the northern Rocky Mountains. This is the only answer choice that gives specific topographical information. B) C) D) Question 37 Gray maples present in northern New York State, Vermont, New Hampshire, and southern Maine A West Indian palm tree found exclusively on the island of Hispaniola A species of pine indigenous to the northern peninsula of Michigan and southern North Dakota ID: 1048131
Which of the following statements can be attributed to the author? A) B) Plant geographers should concentrate their attention on the compact area. It is always wisest to take into account the total distribution pattern of a distribution. A. The author of the passage attributes this statement to [s]ome authors, and then goes on to disagree with it. B. This is the authors view, given after two opposing views are mentioned. C. The author indicates the opposite. D. The author uses the term to refer to the distribution of a plant inside its area as a whole. C) D) Question 38 Distinguishing natural areas from artificial areas is not helpful. Topography refers to the pattern of a plants distribution outside its localized area. ID: 1048134
From the context of the passage, the radiations or relicts most likely refers to: A) B) C) D) the area where two plant areas overlap. the most endangered portion of a plant area. the most concentrated portion of a plant area. plants from either the earliest or latest stages of evolution. A. These terms refer to outlying regions of a single plant area, not to overlapping zones. B. The passage does not suggest that the edges of an area are at greater risk of disturbance. C. The passage indicates just the opposite the radiations or relicts are contrasted with the compact area at the core. D. If the radiations and relicts tell the history of the area, they most likely include plants left behind as the population moved in (relicts) and/or pioneer plants who are the first to move out (radiations) as the plant distribution changes over time.
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Question 39
ID: 1048135
An ecologist makes the argument that Homo sapiens is as much a part of nature as any other species. How is this relevant to the passage? A) B) It would support the claim that plant geographers should map mans geography. It would challenge the claim that plant geographers should distinguish between natural areas and artificial areas. A. This claim is not made in the passage. B. See paragraph 6. If humans are part of the same natural world as the plant species, then plant geographers have no reason to distinguish artificial areas, or those areas where man has a significant role in their formation. C. The passage indicates that there are some, if few, continuous areas; this answer choice is false in itself. D. The question stem gives no indication of how humans have altered nature. C) D) Question 40 It would challenge the claim that no areas are continuous. It would support the claim that man has significantly altered the plant geography of the world. ID: 1048136
The author is concerned that it will become increasingly difficult to distinguish natural areas from artificial areas because: A) B) natural disasters occur more frequently and have altered the environment at a more rapid pace. human beings have altered the environment in both subtle and obvious ways, to the point that plant geographers cannot easily identify human influence. A. The passage does not discuss natural disasters. B. This is the main topic of paragraph 6. C. Although the author makes this assertion, the change from continuous to disjunct distribution is not the reason that it will become increasingly difficult to distinguish types of areas. D. The passage does not indicate the existence of these boundaries now or at any time in the past. C) D) due to the influence of human beings, the distribution of plants within natural areas has changed from continuous to disjunct. natural areas are no longer limited to remote regions and artificial areas are no longer limited to urban areas.
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SECTION 5: Biological Sciences
BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
Passage I (1-6)
Sickle-cell anemia is a genetically transmitted autosomal recessive disease in which normally biconcave erythrocytes become deformed and take on a sickled configuration. Diseased red blood cells are more likely to become trapped in blood vessels, leading to organ damage, and are also more likely to be hemolyzed, leading to anemia. The sickle-cell gene is carried by as much as 40% of the population in certain regions of Africa. Until recently, most homozygous individuals carrying the sickle-cell allele died before reaching adulthood. Sickle-cell anemia results from a substitution to valine from glutamic acid at position 6 of the chain of hemoglobin. Normal hemoglobin (HbA) can be distinguished from sickle-cell hemoglobin (HbS) by testing electrophoretic mobility. The isoelectric point of HbS is higher than that of HbA in both the oxygenated and deoxygenated forms. The precise amino acid differences between HbA and HbS were determined with a new technique. Because it would be easier to detect a single amino acid difference in a 20- rather than a 200-residue peptide, each molecule was divided into smaller peptide units. Trypsin was used as the digesting enzyme because it cleaves proteins selectively at the carboxyl side of lysine and arginine residues. Next the residues were analyzed two-dimensionally by electrophoresis and thin layer chromatography (Figure 1). The resulting pattern constituted a fingerprint of the two molecules. Analysis of the prints showed that they differed in the elution of only one polypeptide. These two peptides were sequenced and determined to be identical except at position 6, where HbS contained valine in place of HbAs glutamic acid (see Figure 2).
Figure 1 Results of electrophoresis and thin layer chromatography on HbA and HbS
Figure 2 Sequences of a tryptic peptide of HbA and HbS
Question 1
ID: 1047933
In which organ are sickled red blood cells most likely to be hemolyzed? A) Spleen One of the key functions of the spleen is to remove old or deformed red blood cells from circulation. The capillaries of the spleen are much smaller than the diameter of a red blood cell, helping to induce lysis of fragile or old cells. If the spleen is removed, more damaged cells remain in circulation. B) C) D) Question 2 Thymus Lymph nodes Kidneys ID: 1047934
The observation that the sickle-cell gene exists in a larger percentage of the population than one would expect given the virulence of the disease can best be explained by the fact that: A) B) C) homozygous recessives have the most fitness. homozygous dominants have the most fitness. heterozygotes have greater fitness than homozygous dominants. It is stated that until recently the disease was lethal before adulthood. There would be strong selection pressure against homozygotes. Over time, this would tend to reduce the allele frequency in the population. For the allele to be carried by 40% of the population, there must be a selection pressure in favor of the sickle-cell allele in the heterozygote (C is correct). In fact, heterozygotes tend to contract malaria less frequently than people homozygous for the wild-type allele, explaining why the sickle-cell allele is most prevalent in regions with the highest incidence of malaria. Choice A cannot be correct since the homozygous recessives fail to reach adulthood and must have virtually zero fitness. B is incorrect, because if the homozygous dominant had the highest fitness, the sickle-cell allele would be reduced to a rare allele. D is true but incorrect, since this explains the selection pressure against the sickling allele, not why it remains prevalent. D) Question 3 all homozygous recessives fail to reach reproductive maturity. ID: 1047935
Which of the following best explains why the isoelectric point of HbS is higher than that of HbA? A) B) The side chain of glutamic acid is less acidic than that of valine. Glutamic acid is isoelectric at a lower pH than is valine. The isoelectric point is the solution pH at which an amphoteric molecule (a molecule that can act either as an acid or a base) has a net electric charge of zero. Choice A is eliminated since it is a false statement; glutamic acid is more acidic, not less acidic than valine. C is also a false statement: Glutamate would require more acidic pH to neutralize its charge. D is a true statement but is not the correct choice. The fact that glutamate has a net charge of zero at its isoelectric point would be true of any molecule since this is the definition of isoelectric point. The best answer is B. The negative charge of glutamic acid would require a more acidic pH to neutralize, making the isoelectric point of HbA (with glutamic acid) lower than that of HbS (with valine). C) D) Valine is isoelectric at a lower pH than is glutamic acid. Glutamic acid has a net charge of 0 at its isoelectric point.
56
Question 4
ID: 1047936
The polypeptide +NH3AspLysLeuValArgGluValLysCOO is digested by trypsin. The products will be: A) B)

+ +
NH3AspCOO, +NH3LysLeuValCOO, NH3ArgGluValLysCOO NH3AspLysCOO, NH3LeuValArgCOO, NH3GluValLysCOO
+ + +
Trypsin and other serine proteases hydrolyze the peptide bond to the right (toward the COOH-terminus) of basic amino acid residues including lysine and arginine. The two sites of hydrolysis are between Lys and Leu and between Arg and Glu to make three fragments as shown in choice B. C)
+ + +
NH3AspLysCOO, NH3LeuValArgCOO, NH3GluValCOO, Lys
D)
+ + +
NH3AspCOO, NH3LysLeuValCOO, NH3ArgGluValLys
Question 5
ID: 1047937
A female heterozygous for sickle-cell anemia marries a normal homozygous male. What is the probability that their first son is a normal homozygote? A) B) C) 1/8 1/4 1/2 The disease is autosomal, so whether the child is male or female is irrelevant to the sickling trait. The child has a 50% chance of getting a normal allele from the mother and a 100% chance of getting a normal allele from the father, so the overall probability is 50%, or 1/2. D) 3/4
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Question 6
ID: 1047938
A mixture of aspartate and phenylalanine is separated into its component molecules by thin layer chromatography on a silica plate eluted by benzene.
Which of the following best explains why the separation occurs? A) B) C) D) Aspartate will move farther with the mobile phase, because it has a polar side chain. Aspartate will move farther with the mobile phase, because it has a nonpolar side chain. Phenylalanine will move farther with the mobile phase, because it has a polar side chain. Phenylalanine will move farther with the mobile phase, because it has a nonpolar side chain. The side chain on aspartate is CH2COO, which is very polar, while the side chain on phenylalanine is CH2Ph, which is nonpolar. Since like dissolves like, and the mobile phase is nonpolar, the molecule which is less polar (phenylalanine, in this case) will move farther with the mobile phase.
58
Passage II (7-13)
Aldosterone, a steroid hormone, is a member of the mineralocorticoid family. It acts upon cells of the proximal and distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron. Specifically, aldosterone binds to an intracellular protein receptor, inducing an allosteric change which enables this protein to bind DNA and promote the transcription of the Na+/K+ ATPase gene. Na+/K+ ATPase functions in the nephron to reabsorb Na+ and secrete K+, which leads to more H2O reabsorption and thus higher blood pressure. Aldosterone is part of a larger blood pressure regulatory cascade known as the renin-angiotensin system. Renin is an enzyme produced by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney. Its secretion is regulated in part by a specialized region of the nephron known as the macula densa. Renin secretion is increased in response to low Na+ or Cl in the distal tubule of the nephron, as well as low blood pressure. Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the blood. Angiotensin I is converted by an enzyme in the pulmonary vascular endothelium to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes arteriolar constriction, resulting in increased arterial pressure. In addition, it acts on the adrenal cortex, resulting in increased secretion of aldosterone (Figure 1).
Figure 1 The reninangiotensin system
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Question 7
ID: 1047962
Aldosterones mechanism of action on its target cell is most similar to that of which of the following hormones? A) Testosterone Two general classes of hormones are those that are small hydrophobic molecules like steroid hormones and those that are peptides. The steroid hormones, which include aldosterone and testosterone, diffuse through the plasma membrane to bind to a receptor which enters the nucleus to regulate transcription of a specific set of genes (A is correct). Peptide hormones, such as glucagon, insulin, and ACTH, cannot diffuse into the cell since they are large and hydrophilic, so they bind to cell-surface receptors to transduce a signal into cells (B, C, and D are wrong). B) C) D) Question 8 Glucagon Insulin ACTH ID: 1047963
The removal of the adrenal glands will result in a reduction of all of the following EXCEPT: A) B) C) D) K+ secretion in the nephron. Na+ reabsorption in the nephron. water reabsorption in the nephron. renin secretion by juxtaglomerular cells. The hormones secreted by the adrenal glands include epinephrine from the medulla, and cortisol, aldosterone, and low levels of sex steroids from the adrenal cortex. As stated in the passage, aldosterone increases potassium secretion and also increases sodium reabsorption (A and B are true and eliminated). The increased Na+ reabsorption leads to increased water reabsorption, thereby increasing the blood volume (C is true and eliminated). The loss of aldosterone would cause water and sodium loss, decreased blood volume and decreased blood pressure. In response to decreased blood pressure, renin secretion would increase, not decrease (D is false and the correct answer choice).
Question 9
ID: 1047964
All of the following will result in increased renin secretion EXCEPT: A) B) C) low blood pressure. low distal tubule [Na+]. high levels of aldosterone. Low blood pressure is one factor that directly affects renin secretion (A is true and eliminated). The passage also states that low sodium in the distal tubule increases renin secretion (B is true and eliminated). High levels of aldosterone will increase Na+ and water reabsorption, blood volume, and arterial pressure, reducing renin secretion (C is false and the correct answer choice). A lack of angiotensinogen will result in a lack of angiotensin I and II, decreasing blood pressure and increasing renin secretion, even if there is no angiotensinogen for renin to act upon (D is true and eliminated). D) a lack of angiotensinogen.
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Question 10
ID: 1047965
Many enzymes are secreted in an inactive form. This form is known as a: A) B) C) D) noncompetitive inhibitor. denatured protein. coenzyme. zymogen. It is true that many enzymes are secreted in a form which is initially inactive and which must be activated after secretion, often by proteolysis. The inactive secreted form of such an enzyme is termed a zymogen.
Question 11
ID: 1047966
Activated aldosterone receptor most directly regulates activity of which of the following enzymes? A) B) DNA polymerase RNA polymerase II Aldosterone binds to aldosterone receptors to regulate transcription of a specific set of genes. The enzyme that synthesizes mRNA is RNA polymerase II, so it is this enzyme that would be most directly affected by activated aldosterone receptor. DNA polymerase is used in replication, not transcription (A is wrong), and while aldosterone may ultimately affect the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase and renin, these would be indirect effects (eliminating C and D). C) D) Question 12 Na+/K+ ATPase Renin ID: 1047967
A large dose of aldosterone is administered intravenously. The effect of this on the reninangiotensinaldosterone system is to: A) B) C) D) increase the circulating level of angiotensin II. decrease Na+ reabsorption in the nephron. increase aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. decrease renin secretion by the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Aldosterone will increase water and sodium reabsorption (B is incorrect), increasing blood pressure. The increased blood pressure will decrease angiotensin production (A is incorrect). The increased blood pressure and decreased angiotensin II will decrease aldosterone production by the adrenal cortex (C is incorrect). The increased blood pressure will reduce renin secretion however, since renin is no longer required to increase blood pressure (D is correct).
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Question 13
ID: 1047968
A drug is discovered that reduces smooth muscle contraction by inhibiting the muscles response to acetylcholine. This is likely to: A) B) reduce the transcription of Na+/K+ ATPase. reduce the hypertensive effect of angiotensin II. In the absence of acetylcholine signaling, the overall tone of smooth muscle in artery walls will be reduced, reducing blood pressure (B is correct). Transcription is not related to smooth muscle contraction (A is wrong), and the drug acts on smooth muscle, not cardiac muscle (C is wrong). If the smooth muscle in blood vessels fails to contract, then blood vessels would dilate. This would increase, not decrease, renal blood flow (D is wrong). C) D) increase the strength of cardiac muscle contractions. decrease renal blood flow.
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Passage III (14-18)

One of the most serious environmental issues of the post- industrial era is the protection of the drinking water supply. Some doomsday experts estimate that by the year 2025, clean water will cost as much per gallon as fossil fuels. In order to protect the remaining aquifers, chemists have begun to devise methods to synthesize organic chemicals using water as a solvent, or using no solvent at all. A quarter of a century ago, it was found that DielsAlder reactions proceed more rapidly in water than in organic solvents, because the hydrophobicity of the reactants causes them to combine more readily. DielsAlder reactions are a very important class of reactions because they are one of the few reactions that create cyclic molecules. The reactants consist of a diene and a dienophile, which react to form two carboncarbon bonds. The reaction rate is not normally affected by the addition of a catalyst or by irradiation. A scientist proposed two mechanisms for the following reaction:
Mechanism A:
Pairs of electrons are redistributed to form new bonds. This occurs in a single step with no intermediates, in a [4 + 2] cycloaddition reaction. Mechanism B:
Single electrons are redistributed to new bonds in a two-step process that involves a diradical intermediate. Since the same two products always formed, regardless of temperature or solvent used, the scientist concluded that the reaction proceeded according to Mechanism B.
63
Question 14
ID: 1047946
Was the scientist justified in his conclusion? A) B) C) Yes, because the formation of two products implies a common transition state. Yes, because the rate of reaction is independent of a catalyst. No, because either reaction could form two products. Either mechanism could make cyclobutanes:
D) Question 15
No, because the formation of two carbon radicals in a single molecule is impossible. ID: 1047947
How many chiral centers does Product B contain? A) B) C) 0 1 2 There are two carbons which have four different groups:
D) Question 16
3 ID: 1047948
If the reaction proceeds according to Mechanism B, all of the following are properties of the mechanism EXCEPT: A) B) C) D) resonance. -bond formation. free-radical formation. thermal rehybridization of orbitals. We are looking for the false or irrelevant statement. Choice A is a true statement, because an allylic radical is formed in the proposed intermediate step. Recall that allylic radicals (radicals next to double bonds) experience resonance (so choice A is eliminated). Choice B is also true, because two new carboncarbon single bonds are formed, and single bonds are bonds (choice B is eliminated). Choice C is true as well, because there are clearly radicals present in the structure given in the passage (note that the terms free radical and radical are synonymous), so C is eliminated. Therefore, the answer must be choice D.
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Question 17
ID: 1047949
Assuming that the rate-determining step for Mechanism B is the formation of a free-radical intermediate, the order of reactivity for exothermic reaction is expected to be: A) B) 1 > 2 > 3 > methyl. 3 > 2 > 1 > methyl. The question tells us that the rate-determining step depends on the formation of a radical intermediate. Therefore, the reaction with the greatest rate is the one with the most easily formed radical intermediate. As with carbocations, more substituted radicals are more easily formed. Therefore, the order of reactivity is expected to be 3 > 2 > 1 > methyl. C) D) Question 18 methyl > 1 > 2 > 3. methyl > 3 > 2 > 1. ID: 1047950
The function of the cyano group of the dienophile can be characterized as: A) electron-withdrawing, through the inductive effect to create a partial-positive carbon. CN is a strongly electronegative group by the inductive effect. B) C) D) electron-withdrawing, which stabilizes the free-radical intermediate. electron-donating, which enriches the double bond for electrophilic attack. electron-donating, which stabilizes the free-radical intermediate.
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Passage IV (19-24)
ZollingerEllison syndrome is caused by a tumor of the gastrin-producing cells. Because gastrin stimulates the parietal cells, this disease is characterized by both duodenal and gastric ulcers. Gastrin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of forms with either 34, 17, or 14 amino acid residues, with G17 being the most influential on the parietal cell. In addition to its effect on the parietal cells, gastrin also induces peristalsis. Gastrin secretion is promoted by an increase in stomach contents, parasympathetic activity, and gastrin-releasing peptide. Gastrin secretion is inhibited by increased acid secretion. HCl is secreted by the parietal cells through the mechanism outlined in Figure 1. H+ is extruded into the gastric lumen by an H+/K+ ATPase. Bicarbonate is transported via a protein channel into the interstitium in exchange for Cl with both ions moving down a concentration gradient. Also, Cl and K+ are extruded into the lumen.
Figure 1 Mechanism of HCl secretion Gastrin acts upon the parietal cells in a manner similar to acetylcholine through increased levels of calcium ions in the cell. Calcium ions stimulate calcium-dependent protein kinase activity. In addition, histamine causes parietal-cell acid secretion but by a slightly different mechanism, increasing cAMP production. See Figure 2.
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Figure 2 Parietal cell acid secretion induced by various substances ZollingerEllison syndrome is most effectively treated by antihistamines such as cimetidine, anticholinergic drugs such as pirenzepine, and omeprazole, which blocks the H+/K+ ATPase.
Question 19
ID: 1047956
The fundamental difference between the 34-, 17-, and 14-amino acid forms of gastrin can be attributed to: A) primary structure. These are very small polypeptides. Since they are single polypeptides, they cannot have quaternary structure, which requires interactions between different polypeptides chains. Tertiary structure and secondary structure are unlikely with such short polypeptides. Primary structure is simply the linear amino acid sequence, which certainly will be different since the peptides have different numbers of amino acids. B) C) D) secondary structure. tertiary structure. quaternary structure.
67
Question 20
ID: 1047957
Gastrin secretion is inhibited by low pH in the stomach. This is an example of: A) B) competitive inhibition. negative feedback. Gastrin stimulates acid production, and its release is inhibited by stomach acid. This is a negative-feedback loop designed to maintain acid within a certain pH range (B is correct). Competitive inhibition does not apply in this case, because there is no enzyme to be inhibited (A is wrong). Since gastrin is not excreted into the stomach lumen (its a hormone), it will not be degraded by stomach acid (C is wrong). A hormone cannot be secreted in an exocrine manner (D is wrong). C) D) Question 21 acid hydrolysis of proteins. exocrine secretion of a hormone. ID: 1047958
If pirenzepine is administered to a ZollingerEllison syndrome patient, which of the following will occur? A) B) C) Luminal secretion of H+ will decrease, because high intracellular Ca2+ will inhibit protein kinases. Luminal H+ secretion will increase, because low intracellular cAMP will increase protein kinase activity. Luminal H+ secretion will decrease, because low intracellular Ca2+ will lead to lowered protein kinase activity. If acetylcholine is blocked, calcium levels will be low, protein kinase activity low, and H+ secretion low (C is correct). A is wrong since calcium will be low. B and D are wrong since H+ secretion will decrease, not increase. D) Question 22 Luminal H+ secretion will increase, because intracellular pH will rise. ID: 1047959
The HCO3 / Cl exchange is an example of: A) B) C) D) exocytosis. active transport. simple diffusion. facilitated diffusion. Facilitated diffusion involves movement of molecules down a gradient with the involvement of a protein. The passage states that both bicarbonate and chloride ions are moving down a gradient, making this a case of facilitated transport (D is correct). Exocytosis does not generally involve ion transport and does not utilize membrane channels (A is wrong). Active transport involves moving ions or other molecules against a gradient (B is wrong). Simple diffusion is the movement of molecules down a gradient without a protein involved (C is wrong).
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Question 23
ID: 1047960
According to the scheme depicted in Figure 1, if the carbon dioxide concentration increases within the cell: A) B) more Cl will be secreted into the interstitium. more HCO3 will be secreted into the interstitium. In Figure 1, chloride moves inward from the interstitium (A is wrong). The more CO2, the more bicarbonate which is formed and transported into the interstitium in exchange for chloride (B is correct). If more bicarbonate is produced and excreted into the interstitium, more chloride will enter the cell and be secreted into the lumen (C is wrong). The more CO2 in the cell, the more H+ will be produced and driven into the lumen (D is wrong). C) D) less Cl will be excreted into the lumen. less H+ will be excreted into the lumen.
Question 24
ID: 1047961
Gastric acid secretion most directly affects the activity of: A) pepsin. Out of these enzymes, only pepsin is present in the stomach and active in acidic conditions, so pepsin will be most directly affected by gastric acid secretion. B) C) D) trypsin. amylase. chymotrypsin.
Which one of the following compounds would be most soluble in ethanol? A) B) Methane, CH4 Formic acid, HCOOH Formic acid can hydrogen bond with ethanol, and it is of similar size. C) D) Stearic acid, CH3(CH2)16COOH 1-Chlorooctodecane, CH2Cl(CH2)16CH3
69
Question 26
ID: 1047986
Fluoroquinolones are a new class of antibiotics that are extremely effective against a wide range of bacteria. It has been determined that fluoroquinolones enter cells along with water via a passive transport mechanism. After exposing both bacterial and human cells to high concentrations of fluoroquinolones, a researcher discovered that, in the bacterial cells only, the DNA was nicked and supercoiling had been disrupted. Of the following, the most likely explanation for this is that fluoroquinolones: A) B) C) are unable to diffuse into human cells. interfere with DNA polymerase, which is not present in human cells. interfere with DNA gyrase, which is not present in human cells. Since fluoroquinolones diffuse into cells with water, they are able to enter all cells, eukaryote and prokaryote alike (they diffuse through special water channel proteins called porins), so A is wrong. Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes utilize DNA polymerase and helicase (B and D are wrong). However, only prokaryotes use DNA gyrase to supercoil their DNA; eukaryotes wind DNA around histones through the action of other topoisomerases (choice C is correct). D) Question 27 interfere with DNA helicase, which is not present in human cells. ID: 1047988
A tall plant with curly leaves (TT/CC) was crossed with a dwarf plant with straight leaves (tt/cc). Two of the resulting F1s were crossed with each other and produced F2s as follows: 34 tall plants with curly leaves, 4 dwarf plants with straight leaves, 11 tall plants with straight leaves, and 12 dwarf plants with curly leaves. Based on these results, are the genes for plant height and leaf shape linked? A) B) No, since recombination occurred. No, since the phenotype ratio is close to the expected ratio for this cross. The cross between the parental plants produced an F1 generation that all have the genotype Tt/Cc (double heterozygotes). These plants were then crossed to produce the F2 generation. The expected unlinked phenotype ratio from a cross between two double heterozygotes is 9:3:3:1, with 9/16 of the offspring double-dominant, 3/16 dominant/recessive, 3/16 recessive/dominant, and 1/16 double-recessive. Based on the numbers given in the question, the actual ratio (34:11:12:4) is very close to this, so these genes are not linked (choice B is correct). Recombination can occur between linked genes; it just happens less frequently (A is eliminated). The recombination frequency (RF, the number of recombinants divided by the total number of offspring) does not have to be 50% for the genes to be unlinked; in the unlinked 9:3:3:1 ratio, the RF is only 37.5% (C is wrong). Based on the total number of F2s produced (34 + 4 + 11 + 12 = 61), the expected number of recombinants was (37.5%)(61) = (3/8)(61) 23, and 11 + 12 = 23 were produced (choice D is wrong). C) D) Yes, since the recombination frequency is less than 50%. Yes, since there are considerably fewer recombinant plants than expected.
70
Passage V (28-33)
Markers, which are useful in histochemical bioassays, are proteins, lipids, or carbohydrates that are specific to certain cells or cellular organelles. The mannose-6-phosphate receptor is a good marker for the pathway that delivers lysosomal enzymes to lysosomal precursors known as endolysosomes. Enzymes destined for the lumen of a lysosome are covalently modified with mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) in the cisGolgi. Proteins with M6P attached bind to the M6P receptor. The M6P/M6P-receptor complex directs the transport of a vesicle from the Golgi apparatus to an endolysosome. In many lysosomal-storage diseases, one or more enzymes are not routed to lysosomes. In inclusion cell disease (I-cell disease), a defect in the phosphorylation of mannose results in the secretion from the cell of all enzymes intended for the lysosome. A healthy cell, however, will normally secrete only 10% of the enzymes intended for the lysosome.
Question 28
ID: 1047974
A likely symptom of I-cell disease would be: A) B) C) the destruction of Golgi apparatuses in affected cells. the loss of mitochondria from affected cells. the accumulation of undigested substrates in the lysosomes of affected cells. In I-cell disease, enzymes that are to be transported to the lysosome are secreted from the cell instead. The normal function of these enzymes, primarily acid hydrolases, is to hydrolyze material which is delivered to the lysosome such as old organelles and material which has entered the cell through endocytosis. This material will accumulate in the lysosome since it is not digested and it has no other destination (C is correct). The misdirected acid hydrolases will not cause any other damage to the cell since they are secreted and are not active except under the acidic conditions of the lysosome (A and B and incorrect). The lysosomal enzymes will be secreted but not hydrolyzed (D is wrong). D) the hydrolysis of lysosomal enzymes.
71
Question 29
ID: 1047975
A fluorescent compound is developed that binds selectively to proteins modified with M6P. Micro-injection of the compound into the cells of a normal subject should show fluorescence in: I. II. III. A) B) Golgi apparatuses. endoplasmic reticula. lysosomes. III only I and III only The passage states that M6P modification of proteins occurs in the cis-Golgi (I is true). From there, proteins with this tag are transported to the lysosome (III is true). Vesicle traffic carries material outward from the ER to the Golgi, and then to other targets, not backward from the Golgi to the ER, so II is false. C) D) Question 30 II and III only I, II, and III ID: 1047976
The enzymes of the lysosome require an acidic environment to be activated. This requirement for activity probably serves to: A) B) C) D) activate proteins in the nucleus. denature the enzymes of the lysosomes. neutralize basic proteins. protect the organelles of the cytosol. If the lysosomal proteases, nucleases, and other degradative enzymes were active at neutral pH such as is found in the cytosol, then these enzymes would begin hydrolyzing everything they encountered as soon as they were translated in the ER. This would be very destructive, so the enzyme activity is compartmentalized in the lysosome by restricting the pH range the enzyme requires for activity (D is correct). The enzymes are inactive in the nucleus or anywhere else that lacks an acidic pH (A is wrong). The enzymes are activated, not denatured in the lysosome (B is wrong). Acidic pH will make basic proteins more charged (C is false).
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Question 31
ID: 1047977
It has been discovered that kidney cells from a patient with I-cell disease can survive if placed in medium with normal kidney cells. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this rescue of a lethally diseased cell? A) B) C) D) Enzymes in the medium can catalyze extracellular reactions that usually occur intracellularly. Genes for the normal enzyme are incorporated into the I-cell genome. M6P from the healthy cell gets converted to M6P receptor in the I cell. M6P receptors on the I-cell surface can direct enzymes in the medium to the lysosomes. The process of elimination works well for this question, partly because the correct answer is a bit convoluted in its reasoning. Choice A cannot be correct: Although the diseased cells will secrete enzymes into the media, the substrates will still be present within the cell in the lysosomes, so the defect will not be corrected this way. Choice B is extremely unlikely: There is no known mechanism for eukaryotic cells to exchange genetic information in this way. Choice C is not possible: M6P (mannose-6-phosphate) is a carbohydrate, so it cannot be converted into the M6P receptor, which is a protein. This leaves Choice D. The only defect in the diseased cells is the inability to tag proteins with M6P. There is no reason to believe that they lack the receptor for M6P or the ability to transport proteins to the lysosome. For the substrates in lysosomes of diseased cells to be hydrolyzed, enzyme must somehow be imported into the lysosome, and the only source of the correctly-tagged enzymes would be the 10% lost from the healthy cells into the media. Thus, some M6P receptor must reside on the surface of the diseased cells, bind the M6P tagged proteins lost from healthy cells, and import the proteins into the lysosomes of the diseased cells (D is correct).
Question 32
ID: 1047978
All of the following statements regarding the synthesis and packaging of lysosomal enzymes are true EXCEPT: A) B) the lysosomal enzymes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. in healthy cells all secreted enzymes pass through the endolysosome. All enzymes bound to the ER, Golgi, lysosome, peroxisome, or the plasma membrane (or to be secreted) are synthesized in association with the rough ER (A is true and eliminated). Secreted proteins normally go from the Golgi to secretory vesicles which go directly to the plasma membrane, not to any other organelles (B is false and the correct answer choice). C is true, as stated in the passage, and is eliminated. D is true and eliminated: Mannose phosphorylation is defective in I-cell disease. C) D) Question 33 the M6P is attached to the peptide in the cis-Golgi. I-cell disease results from a phosphorylation defect. ID: 1047979
A protein is discovered that allosterically inhibits the M6P receptor. Presence of this protein would most likely be associated with: A) increased cAMP within the lysosome. B) low levels of hydrolytic enzymes within the lysosome. A block to the M6P receptor would have the same effect as I-cell disease, with a failure of lysosomal enzymes to reach the lysosome (B is correct, and C is wrong). There is no reason to believe that there is any involvement of cAMP (A is incorrect). There is no reason to believe that proteins normally targeted elsewhere would be targeted to the lysosome (D is incorrect). C) D) a higher rate of digestion of phagocytosed matter. an increase in basophilic proteins within the lysosome membrane.
73
What is the major product of the reaction above?
A)
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions, methyl is an ortho,para-director.
B)
C) D) No reaction occurs.
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Question 35 ID: 1047993
Although they are often drawn in straight-chain form, naturally occurring sugars are found in cyclic form.
The mechanism of cyclization shown above is which of the following? A) Nucleophilic addition The C-5 hydroxyl acts as a nucleophile and adds to the carbonyl electrophile. B) C) D) Electrophilic addition Nucleophilic substitution Electrophilic substitution
Question 36
ID: 1047990
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine, preventing this reaction from occurring. The resulting excess phenyl-alanine is converted to phenylpyruvate, a phenylketone. Left untreated, PKU can lead to mental retardation. PKU is rare, occurring in approximately 1 in 10,000 births. What is the approximate percentage of parents who are heterozygous for the abnormal enzyme gene? A) B) C) D) 0.25% 0.5% 1% 2% Remember the equation for genotype frequency: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. If the disease is caused by a recessive allele (q), and if 1 out of 10,000 births is affected, then q2 = 1/10,000, so q = 1/100 = 0.01. Since q = 0.01, we have p = 0.99, because p + q = 1. The number of heterozygotes is then 2pq = 2(0.99)(0.01) 2(1)(0.01) = 0.02 = 2%.
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Question 37
ID: 1047994
During spermatogenesis, spermatids: A) B) C) D) are frozen in meiosis II until after fertilization. have already undergone meiotic recombination. have four copies of the genome per cell. have no nucleus.
Passage VI (38-42)
Peptidomimetic compounds are a class of molecules that have the same side chains and general shapes of peptides without the peptide backbone. It is hoped that they will be useful as anti-cancer drugs, as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) inhibitors, and as regulators of immune responses. The use of peptidomimetic compounds for anti-cancer drugs has revolved around the ras protein. Mutated forms of this protein are found in 30% of human cancers, and 95% of pancreatic cancers. Normally, the ras protein operates in the signal pathway that allows a cell to grow in response to external factors. In cancer, the mutated ras protein causes the pathway to get stuck in the on position. In order to activate the pathway, the ras protein must be made more lipophilic by enzymatic attachment of a 15-carbon segment. This post-translational modification allows ras protein to associate with the plasma membrane and with receptors for growth factors. The oncogenic research focuses on creating a peptidomimetic molecule that will bind tightly to this enzyme in the tumor cells. The goal of research is to build a compound that mimics the turns, sheets, and helices of the protein.
Figure 1 Peptide model
Figure 2 Peptide mimic

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Question 38
ID: 1047928
Which of the following best characterizes the relationship between ras and cancer? A) B) C) A mutation in the ras gene which truncates ras after codon 4 will cause cancer. Mutation of ras is necessary to induce cancer. Some cancers are probably induced by mutations in genes other than ras. The ras protein is not absent in cancers, but mutated to a form which is active at all times. Truncation after the fourth codon or deletion of the gene would effectively eliminate the protein, which is not the case in cancer (A and D are incorrect). Although a ras mutation is found in many cancers, it is not found in all cancers, so it cannot be necessary to induce cancer (B is wrong). The cancers in which ras does not appear are likely to involve defects in other genes induced by mutation (C is the best answer). D) Question 39 Deletion of the ras gene may cause cancer in some tissues. ID: 1047929
The peptidomimetic drug targetted against mutated ras in cancer will: A) B) C) D) alter the plasma membrane. increase DNA replication as well as treat cancer. bind to ras to block its interaction with growth factor receptors. prevent ras interaction with the plasma membrane. The peptidomimetic drug inhibits an enzyme that modifies ras protein with a 15-carbon chain. This hydrophobic chain anchors ras protein in the plasma membrane and allows it to associate with growth factor receptors that stimulate cell growth. The drug does not associate with the membrane itself, it merely prevents ras from being enzymatically modified and therefore from associating with the membrane (D is correct, and A is wrong). The drug will block ras signaling and block proliferation (B is wrong). The drug mimics ras, but does not itself interact with ras (C is wrong).
Question 40
ID: 1047930
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action by which the described peptidomimetic drug targets cancer? A) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme Competitive inhibitors generally resemble a substrate and occupy the active site to prevent substrate from binding. The peptidomimetic resembles ras protein, a substrate of the enzyme that modifies ras (A is correct). Noncompetitive inhibitors do not resemble substrate and bind to a separate site, but this does not appear to be true in this case (B is incorrect). The peptide resembles substrate, not product (C is wrong). There is no indication of covalent modification of the enzyme (D is wrong). B) C) D) Noncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme Negative-feedback regulation of a pathway Covalent inactivation of an enzyme
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Question 41
ID: 1047931
The helix of the ras protein maintains secondary structure integrity primarily through: A) B) C) D) peptide bonds. covalent bonds. disulfide bonds. hydrogen bonds. The alpha helix is a form of secondary protein structure, with hydrogen bonding between groups along the peptidebond backbone (D is correct). All secondary structure involves hydrogen bonding with nearneighbors in the primary sequence. Peptide bonds are required to hold the polypeptide together, but this constitutes primary and not secondary structure (A is wrong). Disulfide and other covalent bonds are a part of tertiary structure (B and C are wrong).
Question 42
ID: 1047932
The peptide mimic is found to be more easily transported across cell membranes than the peptide model. A possible explanation is that the mimic: A) is more lipophilic than the model. The most likely method for the model or its mimic to enter cells would be to diffuse across the membrane. This would not work well for a peptide, since it is relatively large and charged. The mimic may be slightly more lipophilic than the model, however, and able to diffuse across the membrane more readily (A is correct, and B is wrong). There is no information indicating a transport system which transports the peptide into cells, and it is not likely that one exists for a peptide derived from ras (C is wrong). The binding of the mimic to the enzyme is its mechanism of action but does not relate to movement of molecules into the cell (D is wrong). B) C) D) is more lipophobic than the model. is more generic and thus able to attach to less- specific transport receptors than the model can. binds more tightly to the enzyme which modifies ras.
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Passage VII (43-46)

Glycolysis is the series of reactions by which glucose is converted to pyruvate. The process starts with the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. Glucose-6-phosphate is then isomerized to fructose-6phosphate, which is subsequently phosphorylated to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate:
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is then cleaved to two 3-carbon molecules, dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde- 3-phosphate. The former is then isomerized to the latter, and both are converted by the following pathway to pyruvate:
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Question 43
ID: 1047952
The conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenol-pyruvate is best characterized as: A) B) C) D) a reduction. an oxidation. an alkylation. an elimination. Since an alkene is formed, the conversion is as an elimination.
Question 44
ID: 1047953
Which of the following represents the ring form of fructose-6-phosphate?
A)
B) The structures in choices C and D cannot be correct since they dont have a phosphate group. Cyclization of fructose-6-phosphate occurs when one of the OH groups swings around and attacks the carbonyl, forming a hemiacetal. Looking at the structure given in the passage, only choice B can be formed this way: when the C-5 OH attacks the carbonyl, forming a five-membered ring. Choice A is an impossible structure since it would require the carbonyl to move positions from C-2 to C-1.
C)
>
D)
>
Question 45
ID: 1047954
Fructose-6-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate are best characterized as: A) B) C) D) epimers. enantiomers. stereoisomers. structural isomers. Structural isomers have the same molecular formula, but different connectivities. Choices A, B, and C can be eliminated since they all imply identical atom connectivity.
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Question 46
ID: 1047955
The 1H NMR spectrum of pyruvate would contain one resonance composed of a: A) singlet. Proton spinspin splitting occurs when nonequivalent Hs are bonded to neighboring atoms. Since this molecule has only one kind of equivalent H, it will not experience any splitting, so its 1H NMR spectrum presents only one singlet (choice A). B) C) D) doublet. triplet. quadruplet.
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disease.
Based on the pedigree above, what is the genotype of Individual 1? A) XHXh If the disease is X-linked recessive, then a male could not carry the disease without expressing it. The hemophilia allele must have been passed to Female 5, who got it from Individual 1. Individual 1 cannot be homozygous recessive or she would have the disease, so she must be heterozygous. B) C) D) X HX H Xh Xh X HY
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Question 48
ID: 1047981
The diaphragm plays an important role in respiration. During inspiration, the diaphragm: A) B) C) D) relaxes, causing alveolar pressure to drop below atmospheric pressure. contracts, causing alveolar pressure to rise above atmospheric pressure. relaxes, causing alveolar pressure to rise above atmospheric pressure. contracts, causing alveolar pressure to drop below atmospheric pressure. Inspiration is the drawing of air into the lungs. The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inspiration, expanding the chest cavity; the lungs (which are stuck to the inside wall of the chest cavity) expand as well. The expansion of the lungs decreases the pressure in the alveoli, causing air to move into the lungs from the exterior.
Question 49
ID: 1047984
Tryptophan, an essential amino acid found in banana, turkey, and milk proteins, can induce sleep in some people. Warm milk causes greater sleepiness than cold milk because heating the milk: A) B) C) reduces the solubility of tryptophan in the milk. causes hydrolysis of lactose, releasing tryptophan. releases free tryptophan from proteins, causing more rapid intestinal absorption. Choice A does cannot be correct: If heating the milk reduced tryptophan solubility, this would decrease, not increase the sleep-inducing properties of milk. Choice B is wrong: Lactose is a disaccharide, not a protein, and its hydrolysis cannot release an amino acid. Choice D cannot be correct: Amino acids, like most nutrients, are absorbed in the small intestine mostly, not the stomach. The best answer is C. Although heating the milk does not create more tryptophan, it might help to hydrolyze some of the milk proteins and release tryptophan so it can be absorbed more rapidly after ingestion and cause greater sleepiness. D) Question 50 increases the rate of absorption of tryptophan by the stomach. ID: 1047985
Which portion of the central nervous system confers balance by coordinating activity of various motor units? A) B) Cerebrum Cerebellum Coordination of motor skills is one of the primary functions of the cerebellum. The cerebrum controls skeletal muscle contraction, but the cerebellum coordinates it. C) D) Medulla Hippocampus
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Question 51
ID: 1047987
Some vitamins are essential to humans because they act as precursors of: A) B) C) D) auxins. glucose. enzymes. coenzymes. Auxins are plant hormones not found in humans (A is wrong). Glucose is not made from vitamins (B is wrong). Enzymes are proteins made from amino acids (C is wrong). Many coenzymes (which are not themselves amino acids and so cannot be made into enzymes) are required for enzyme activity and are derived from water-soluble vitamins, such as thiamine, biotin, folate, and niacin (D is correct).
Question 52
ID: 1085533
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid contained in cell membranes. The structure of arachidonic acid is:
> In which component of the cell membrane would arachidonic acid most likely be found? A) B) C) Cholesterol Triglycerides Phospholipids Cholesterol is an abundant component of animal cell membranes, but it is a steroid, not derived from fatty acids such as arachidonate (A is wrong). Triglycerides could contain a fatty acid like arachidonate, but they are not membrane components (B is wrong). Peptidoglycans are not found in eukaryotes, only bacteria, and do not consist of fatty acids (D is wrong). Phospholipids is the correct answer. Phospholipids are abundant components of the plasma membrane and contain esters of many different fatty acids (C is correct). D) Peptidoglycan layer
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Online Diagnostic 1

Section 1: Physical Sciences

Section 2: Verbal Reasoning

Section 5: Biological Sciences

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Thus, the range of pH for indicators can be determined.

SECTION 1: Physical Sciences

Table 1 pH Ranges for Various Indicators

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Thus, assuming that x << 0.05 (which we will see is true),

SECTION 1: Physical Sciences

Figure 1 Resting neuron

Figure 2 Active neuron

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What force F is necessary to raise the mass m?

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Figure 1 Raoults law at varying heats of solution

Table 1 Vapor pressures of several chemicals

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Passage VII (41-46)

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SECTION 2: Verbal Reasoning

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Passage III (1217)

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