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GATE

LIFE SCIENCES (XL)


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A comprehensive study guide for GATE
SOLVED PAPERS
CONTENTS
Introduction
Question Paper Pattern
Design of Questions
Marking Scheme
Syllabus
Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014
o Answer Key 2014
o Solved Question Paper 2013
o Answer Key 2013
o Solved Question Paper 2012
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.
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Question Paper Pattern
In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
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Design of Questions
The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her
knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
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Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks
and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B
(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each
(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)
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In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section
contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-
total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15
questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)
and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,
instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning
and data interpretation.
Syllabus for Life Sciences (XL)
Section H: Chemistry (Compulsory)
Atomic structure and periodicity: Plancks quantum theory, wave particle duality,
uncertainty principle, quantum mechanical model of hydrogen atom; electronic
configuration of atoms; periodic table and periodic properties; ionization energy,
election affinity, electronegativity, atomic size.
Structure and bonding: Ionic and covalent bonding, M.O. and V.B. approaches for
diatomic molecules, VSEPR theory and shape of molecules, hybridisation, resonance,
dipole moment, structure parameters such as bond length, bond angle and bond
energy, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals interactions. Ionic solids, ionic radii, lattice
energy (Born-Haber Cycle).
s.p. and d Block Elements: Oxides, halides and hydrides of alkali and alkaline earth
metals, B, Al, Si, N, P, and S, general characteristics of 3d elements, coordination
complexes: valence bond and crystal field theory, color, geometry and magnetic
properties.
Chemical Equilibria: Colligative properties of solutions, ionic equilibria in solution,
solubility product, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts, pH, buffer and their
applications in chemical analysis, equilibrium constants (K
c
, K
p
and K
x
) for
homogeneous reactions,
Electrochemistry: Conductance, Kohlrausch law, Half Cell potentials, emf, Nernst
equation, galvanic cells, thermodynamic aspects and their applications.
Reaction Kinetics: Rate constant, order of reaction, molecularity, activation energy,
zero, first and second order kinetics, catalysis and elementary enzyme reactions.
Thermodynamics: First law, reversible and irreversible processes, internal energy,
enthalpy, Kirchoffs equation, heat of reaction, Hess law, heat of formation, Second law,
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entropy, free energy, and work function. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, Clausius-
Clapeyron equation, free energy change and equilibrium constant, Troutons rule, Third
law of thermodynamics.
Basis of Organic Reactions Mechanism: Elementary treatment of SN1, SN2, E1 and E2
reactions, Hoffmann and Saytzeff rules, Addition reactions, Markonikoff rule and
Kharash effect, Diels-Alder reaction, aromatic electrophilic substitution, orientation
effect as exemplified by various functional groups. Identification of functional groups
by chemical tests
Structure-Reactivity Correlations: Acids and bases, electronic and steric effects,
optical and geometrical isomerism, tautomerism, conformers, concept of aromaticity
Section I: Biochemistry
Organization of life.Importance of water. Cell structure and organelles. Structure and
function of biomolecules: Amino acids, Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins and Nucleic
acids. Biochemical separation techniques and characterization: ion exchange, size
exclusion and affinity chromatography, electrophoresis, UV-visible, fluorescence and
Mass spectrometry. Protein structure, folding and function: Myoglobin, Hemoglobin,
Lysozyme, Ribonuclease A, Carboxypeptidase and Chymotrypsin. Enzyme kinetics
including its regulation and inhibition, Vitamins and Coenzymes. Metabolism and
bioenergetics. Generation and utilization of ATP.
Metabolic pathways and their regulation: glycolysis, TCA cycle, pentose phosphate
pathway, oxidative phosphorylation, gluconeogenesis, glycogen and fatty acid
metabolism. Metabolism of Nitrogen containing compounds: nitrogen fixation, amino
acids and nucleotides. Photosynthesis: the Calvin cycle.
Biological membranes. Transport across membranes. Signal transduction; hormones
and neurotransmitters.
DNA replication, transcription and translation. Biochemical regulation of gene
expression. Recombinant DNA technology and applications: PCR, site directed
mutagenesis and DNA-microarray.
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Immune system. Active and passive immunity. Complement system. Antibody
structure, function and diversity. Cells of the immune system: T, B and macrophages. T
and B cell activation. Major histocompatibilty complex. T cell receptor. Immunological
techniques: Immunodiffusion, immunoelectrophoresis, RIA and ELISA.
Section J: Botany
Plant Systematics: Systems of classification (non-phylogenetic vs. phylogenetic
outline), plant groups, molecular systematics.
Plant Anatomy: Plant cell structure, organization, organelles, cytoskeleton, cell wall
and membranes; anatomy of root, stem and leaves, meristems, vascular system, their
ontogeny, structure and functions, secondary growth in plants and stellar organization.
Morphogenesis & Development: Cell cycle, cell division, life cycle of an angiosperm,
pollination, fertilization, embryogenesis, seed formation, seed storage proteins, seed
dormancy and germination.
Concept of cellular totipotency, clonal propagation; organogenesis and somatic
embryogenesis, artificial seed, somaclonal variation, secondary metabolism in plant cell
culture, embryo culture, in vitro fertilization.
Physiology and Biochemistry: Plant water relations, transport of minerals and solutes,
stress physiology, stomatal physiology, signal transduction, N
2
metabolism,
photosynthesis, photorespiration; respiration, Flowering: photoperiodism and
vernalization, biochemical mechanisms involved in flowering; molecular mechanism of
senencensce and aging, biosynthesis, mechanism of action and physiological effects of
plant growth regulators, structure and function of biomolecules, (proteins,
carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acid), enzyme kinetics.
Genetics: Principles of Mendelian inheritance, linkage, recombination, genetic
mapping; extrachromosomal inheritance; prokaryotic and eukaryotic genome
organization, regulation of gene expression, gene mutation and repair, chromosomal
aberrations (numerical and structural), transposons.
Plant Breeding and Genetic Modification: Principles, methods selection,
hybridization, heterosis; male sterility, genetic maps and molecular markers,
sporophytic and gametophytic self incompability, haploidy, triploidy, somatic cell
hybridization, marker-assisted selection, gene transfer methods viz. direct and vector-
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mediated, plastid transformation, transgenic plants and their application in agriculture,
molecular pharming, plantibodies.
Economic Botany: A general account of economically and medicinally important
plants- cereals, pulses, plants yielding fibers, timber, sugar, beverages, oils, rubber,
pigments, dyes, gums, drugs and narcotics. Economic importance of algae, fungi, lichen
and bacteria.
Plant Pathology: Nature and classification of plant diseases, diseases of important
crops caused by fungi, bacteria and viruses, and their control measures, mechanism(s)
of pathogenesis and resistance, molecular detection of pathogens; plant-microbe
beneficial interactions.
Ecology and Environment: Ecosystems types, dynamics, degradation, ecological
succession; food chains and energy flow; vegetation types of the world, pollution and
global warming, speciation and extinction, conservation strategies, cryopreservation,
phytoremediation.
Section K: Microbiology
Historical Perspective: Discovery of microbial world; Landmark discoveries relevant to
the field of microbiology; Controversy over spontaneous generation; Role of
microorganisms in transformation of organic matter and in the causation of diseases.
Methods in Microbiology: Pure culture techniques; Theory and practice of
sterilization; Principles of microbial nutrition; Enrichment culture techniques for
isolation of microorganisms; Light-, phase contrast- and electron-microscopy.
Microbial Taxonomy and Diversity: Bacteria, Archea and their broad classification;
Eukaryotic microbes: Yeasts, molds and protozoa; Viruses and their classification;
Molecular approaches to microbial taxonomy.
Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: Structure and Function: Prokaryotic Cells: cell
walls, cell membranes, mechanisms of solute transport across membranes, Flagella and
Pili, Capsules, Cell inclusions like endospores and gas vesicles; Eukaryotic cell
organelles: Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
Microbial Growth: Definition of growth; Growth curve; Mathematical expression of
exponential growth phase; Measurement of growth and growth yields; Synchronous
growth; Continuous culture; Effect of environmental factors on growth.
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Control of Micro-organisms: Effect of physical and chemical agents; Evaluation of
effectiveness of antimicrobial agents.
Microbial Metabolism: Energetics: redox reactions and electron carriers; An overview
of metabolism; Glycolysis; Pentose-phosphate pathway; Entner-Doudoroff pathway;
Glyoxalate pathway; The citric acid cycle; Fermentation; Aerobic and anaerobic
respiration; Chemolithotrophy; Photosynthesis; Calvin cycle; Biosynthetic pathway for
fatty acids synthesis; Common regulatory mechanisms in synthesis of amino acids;
Regulation of major metabolic pathways.
Microbial Diseases and Host Pathogen Interaction: Normal microbiota; Classification
of infectious diseases; Reservoirs of infection; Nosocomial infection; Emerging
infectious diseases; Mechanism of microbial pathogenicity; Nonspecific defense of host;
Antigens and antibodies; Humoral and cell mediated immunity; Vaccines; Immune
deficiency; Human diseases caused by viruses, bacteria, and pathogenic fungi.
Chemotherapy/Antibiotics: General characteristics of antimicrobial drugs; Antibiotics:
Classification, mode of action and resistance; Antifungal and antiviral drugs.
Microbial Genetics: Types of mutation; UV and chemical mutagens; Selection of
mutants; Ames test for mutagenesis; Bacterial genetic system: transformation,
conjugation, transduction, recombination, plasmids, transposons; DNA repair;
Regulation of gene expression: repression and induction; Operon model; Bacterial
genome with special reference to E.coli; Phage and its life cycle; RNA phages; RNA
viruses; Retroviruses; Basic concept of microbial genomics.
Microbial Ecology: Microbial interactions; Carbon, sulphur and nitrogen cycles; Soil
microorganisms associated with vascular plants.
Section L: Zoology
Animal world:Animal diversity, distribution, systematics and classification of animals,
phylogenetic relationships.
Evolution: Origin and history of life on earth, theories of evolution, natural selection,
adaptation, speciation.
Genetics: Principles of inheritance, molecular basis of heredity, mutations, cytoplasmic
inheritance, linkage and mapping of genes.
Biochemistry and Molecular Biology: Nucleic acids, proteins, lipids and
carbohydrates; replication, transcription and translation; regulation of gene expression,
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organization of genome, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, enzyme catalysis, hormones and their
actions, vitamins.
Cell Biology: Structure of cell, cellular organelles and their structure and function, cell
cycle, cell division, chromosomes and chromatin structure. Eukaryotic gene
organization and expression (Basic principles of signal transduction).
Animal Anatomy and Physiology: Comparative physiology, the respiratory system,
circulatory system, digestive system, the nervous system, the excretory system, the
endocrine system, the reproductive system, the skeletal system, osmoregulation.
Parasitology and Immunology: Nature of parasite, host-parasite relation, protozoan
and helminthic parasites, the immune response, cellular and humoral immune
response, evolution of the immune system.
Development Biology: Embryonic development, cellular differentiation,
organogenesis, metamorphosis, genetic basis of development, stem cells.
Ecology: The ecosystem, habitats, the food chain, population dynamics, species
diversity, zoogerography, biogeochemical cycles, conservation biology.
Animal Behaviour: Types of behaviours, courtship, mating and territoriality, instinct,
learning and memory, social behaviour across the animal taxa, communication,
pheromones, evolution of animal behaviour.
Section M: Food Technology
Food Chemistry and Nutrition: Carbohydrates: Structure and functional properties of
mono- oligo-polysaccharides including starch, cellulose, pectic substances and dietary
fibre; Proteins: Classification and structure of proteins in food; Lipids: Classification and
structure of lipids, Rancidity of fats, Polymerization and polymorphism; Pigments:
Carotenoids, chlorophylls, anthocyanins, tannins and myoglobin; Food flavours:
Terpenes, esters, ketones and quinones; Enzymes: Specificity, Kinetics and inhibition,
Coenzymes, Enzymatic and non-enzymatic browning; Nutrition: Balanced diet,
Essential amino acids and fatty acids, PER, Water soluble and fat soluble vitamins, Role
of minerals in nutrition, Antinutrients, Nutrition deficiency diseases.
Food Microbiology: Characteristics of microorganisms: Morphology, structure and
detection of bacteria, yeast and mold in food, Spores and vegetative cells; Microbial
growth in food: Intrinsic and extrinsic factors, Growth and death kinetics, serial dilution
method for quantification; Food spoilage: Contributing factors, Spoilage bacteria,
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Microbial spoilage of milk and milk products, meat and meat products; Foodborne
disease: Toxins produced by Staphylococcus, Clostridium and Aspergillus; Bacterial
pathogens: Salmonella, Bacillus, Listeria, Escherichia coli, Shigella, Campylobacter;
Fermented food: Buttermilk, yoghurt, cheese, sausage, alcoholic beverage, vinegar,
sauerkraut and soya sauce.
Food Products Technology: Processing principles: Canning, chilling, freezing,
dehydration, control of water activity, CA and MA storage, fermentation, hurdle
technology, addition of preservatives and food additives, Food packaging, cleaning in
place and food laws.; Grain products processing: Milling of rice, wheat, and maize,
parboiling of paddy, production of bread, biscuits, extruded products and breakfast
cereals, Solvent extraction, refining and hydrogenation of oil; Fruits, vegetables and
plantation products processing: Extraction, clarification concentration and packaging
of fruit juice, Production of jam, jelly, marmalade, squash, candies, and pickles, pectin
from fruit waste, tea, coffee, chocolate and essential oils from spices; Milk and milk
products processing: Pasteurized and sterilized milk, cream, butter, ghee, ice-cream,
cheese and milk powder; Animal products processing: Drying and canning of fish, post
mortem changes, tenderization and freezing of meat, egg powder.
Food Engineering: Mass and energy balance; Momentum transfer: Flow rate and
pressure drop relationships for Newtonian fluids flowing through pipe, Characteristics
of non-Newtonian fluids generalized viscosity coefficient and Reynolds number, Flow
of compressible fluid, Flow measurement, Pumps and compressors; Heat transfer: Heat
transfer by conduction, convection, radiation, boiling and condensation, Unsteady
state heat transfer in simple geometry, NTU- effectiveness relationship of co-current
and counter current double pipe heat exchanger; Mass transfer: Molecular diffusion
and Ficks Law, Steady state mass transfer, Convective mass transfer, Permeability of
films and laminates; Mechanical operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations
involved in size reduction of solids, high pressure homogenization, filtration,
centrifugation, settling, sieving, flow through porous bed, agitation of liquid, solid-solid
mixing, and single screw extrusion; Thermal operations: Energy requirement and rate
of operations involved in process time evaluation in batch and continuous sterilization,
evaporation of liquid foods, hot air drying of solids, spray and freeze-drying, freezing
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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and crystallization; Mass transfer operations: Properties of air-water vapor mixture;
Humidification and dehumidification operations.
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Life Sciences XL
2012 - 14
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This paper consists of 7sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany),
K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology).
Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory.
Attempt any 2 sections out of the 5 optional Sections I through M.
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in the compulsory General Aptitude (GA) section.
Questions 1 to 5 of this section carry 1 mark each, and questions 6 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions
1 to 5 of this section carry 1 mark each and questions 6 to 15 carry 2 marks each.
Each of the optional sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. In these
sections, questions 1 to 10 are of 1 mark, while questions 11 to 20 are of 2 marks.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also find at the start of the
examination that all the computer hardware allotted to me is in proper working condition.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2014 Solved Paper
Life Science - XL
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

A person suffering from Alzheimers disease short-term memory loss.
(A) experienced (B) has experienced
(C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.
(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

As a woman, I have no country.
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Womens solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4 In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?
(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years


Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.


Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.
(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.
(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.
(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

General Aptitude - GA GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From BIG DATA Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

The main point of the paragraph is:
(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1


Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is
1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?
(A) 1
(B) 2 (C) 3
(D) 2

Q.10 10% of the population in a town is HIV
+
. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
kit correctly identifies HIV
+
individuals 95% of the time, and HIV

individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Item 1
11%
Item 2
20%
Item 3
19% Item 4
22%
Item 5
12%
Item 6
16%
Exports
Item 1
12%
Item 2
20%
Item 3
23%
Item 4
6%
Item 5
20%
Item 6
19%
Revenues
General Aptitude - GA GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
H : CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY)
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Hybridizations of nitrogen in NO
2
+
, NO
3

, NH
4
+
respectively are
(A) sp, sp
2
and sp
3
(B) sp, sp
3
and sp
2

(C) sp
2
, sp and sp
3
(D) sp
3
, sp
2
and sp

Q.2 Potassium metal crystallizes in the body-centered cubic structure. The number of atoms per unit
cell is equal to
(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four

Q.3 Assuming ideal condition, the solution that has the highest freezing point is
(A) 0.002 M aqueous solution of copper nitrate
(B) 0.001 M aqueous solution of potassium dichromate
(C) 0.001 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(D) 0.002 M aqueous solution of magnesium chloride

Q.4 The major product formed in the following reaction is

OH
Br
2
CS
2
, < 5
o
C


(A)

OH
Br

(B)

OH
Br
(C)

OH
Br
Br
Br

(D)

OH
Br
Br


Q.5 The acid that undergoes decarboxylation most readily upon heating is

(A)
Ph
O
COOH
(B)
Ph
O
OH
(C)

Ph
O
CH
2
COOH

(D)

Ph
OH
CH
2
COOH




GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Q. 6 Q. 15 carry two marks each.
Q.6 A ball of mass 330 g is moving with a constant speed, and its associated de Broglie wavelength is
1 10
33
m. The speed of the ball is _________ m s
1
. (h = 6.6 10
34
J s)

Q.7 Diphosphonic acid (H
4
P
2
O
5
) has no P P bond. This acid is
(A) tetrabasic (B) tribasic (C) dibasic (D) monobasic

Q.8 The magnetic moment of an octahedral Co(II) complex is approximately 4.0
B
(atomic number of
Co is 27). The CFSE for this complex, in
o
units, is _______ .

Q.9 The complex ion [Cr(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(atomic number of Cr is 24) exhibits
(A) slightly distorted octahedral geometry
(B) tetragonally elongated octahedral geometry
(C) tetragonally compressed octahedral geometry
(D) perfect octahedral geometry

Q.10 Assuming ideal behavior, the density of fluorine gas at 20 C and 0.3 atm is ____ g L
1
.
(Molecular weight of F
2
= 38 g mol
1
, R = 0.082 L atm mol
1
K
1
)

Q.11 For a first order reaction, the time required for 50% completion is 20 minutes. The time required for
99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ minutes.

Q.12 At 298 K, the bond dissociation energies of CH, CC and C=C are 415, 344 and 615 kJ mol
1
,
respectively. The enthalpy of atomization of carbon is 717 kJ mol
1
and that of hydrogen is
218 kJ mol
1
. The heat of formation of naphthalene at 298 K is ______ kJ mol
1
.








GATE 2014
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Life Sciences - XL
GATE 2014 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) XL-H
Q.13 The Fisher projection that represents (2R,3S)-2,3-dihydroxybutanoic acid is
(A)

CH
3
COOH
HO H
HO H

(B)

CH
3
COOH
HO H
H OH

(C)

CH
3
COOH
H OH
H OH

(D)

CH
3
COOH
H OH
HO H


Q.14 A hydrocarbon that undergoes ozonolysis (reaction with ozone followed by reduction with Me
2
S)
to form formaldehyde and glyoxal is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)


Q.15 The order of acidity of the following acids is

OMe
COOH
Me
COOH
NO
2
COOH
H
COOH
(1) (2)
(3)
(4)


(A) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

(B) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2

(C) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1

(D) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1



END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
I : BIOCHEMISTRY
Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 During an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the equilibrium constant
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains unchanged
(D) can increase or decrease, depending on the enzyme

Q.2 A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange
chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify
the correct order of elution.
(A) Arginine, Histidine, Phenylalanine
(B) Phenylalanine, Histidine, Arginine
(C) Histidine, Phenylalanine, Arginine
(D) Arginine, Phenylalanine, Histidine


Q.3 Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine
residue in a protein?
(A) Trypsin (B) Proteinase K
(C) Thrombin (D) Chymotrypsin

Q.4 The receptor for epinephrine is a
(A) Tyrosine kinase receptor (B) Serine-threonine kinase receptor
(C) G-protein-coupled receptor (D) Ligand activated transcription factor

Q.5 Choose the option with two reducing sugars.
(A) Lactose and Maltose (B) Trehalose and Sucrose
(C) Maltose and Trehalose (D) Lactose and Sucrose

Q.6 The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by
(A) MALDI-TOF MS (B) isoelectric focusing
(C) SDS-PAGE (D) equilibrium dialysis

Q.7 Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1?
(A) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (B) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
(C) Glucose 6-phosphate (D) Citrate

Q.8 For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the
value of Km. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of Vmax.


Q.9 Consider the following biochemical reaction:

Fructose 6-phosphate + ATP Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP

The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'eq) for the above reaction is 254.
The standard free energy change (G') for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______
kJ/mol.
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Q.10 Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein.



How many transmembrane -helices are present in the protein?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0
and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients ()
of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below.

220 (M
-1
cm
-1
) 280 (M
-1
cm
-1
)
Compound X 1000 200
Compound Y 800 400

The concentration of Y in the solution is___________ mM.

Q.12 A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing
conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 10
18
molecules of the oligomeric
protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute
this protein.

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

40 20 60 80 100 120 140
First amino acid in the window
H
y
d
r
o
p
a
t
h
y
i
n
d
e
x

(
k
J
/
m
o
l
)
-180
-120
-60
0
60
120
180
1
75 kDa
50 kDa
25 kDa
2
1 : Reducing condition
2 : Non-reducing condition
GATE 2014
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Life Sciences - XL
Q.13 The concentration of Mg
2+
ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane
potential of the cell is 60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg
2+
ions
across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 C is __________ kJ/mol.

Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ/V mol

Q.14 Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II

Group I Group II

P) J chain 1) VDJ recombinase complex
Q) Serpin 2) Component of MHC class I
R) 2-microglobulin 3) B cell co-receptor complex
S) Artemis 4) C1 complement inhibitor
5) Component of MHC class II
6) Multimerization of IgA and IgM

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-6, Q-5, R-2, S-3
(C) P-6, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-6



Q.15 The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used
in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The Km value of an uninhibited reaction is
2 10
-5
M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed Km value is _____ 10
-5
M.







Q.16 One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na2HPO4 (Mol. wt. 142) and 71
grams of NaH2PO4 (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pK
a
for the dissociation of H2PO4

into HPO4
2
and
H
+
is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be _____________.




Control


(
M
-
1
s
)
1
V
[I] = K
i
(M
-1
)
1
[S]
GATE 2014
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Q.17 Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein:



The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from
the given data is ___________ kDa.

Q.18 A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from
cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in
a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon
III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes
2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a
radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations,
which one of the following statements is FALSE ?
(A) Northern blotting with a probe specific to Exon III will show two bands.
(B) The gene codes for two mRNA splice variants.
(C) If the forward primer were specific to Exon II, two bands will be observed.
(D) The Exon II is 1.5 kb in size.

Q.19 Using the Sangers dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding
gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below
shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence.



Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments?
(A) Subject 2 has two allelic variants.
(B) Subject 1 has the sequence 5- TAGTCGGA -3.
(C) Subject 2 has the sequence 5- AGGCTAGAT -3.
(D) Subject 1 has a single nucleotide deletion in the gene.
m/z
I
n
t
e
n
s
i
t
y
3626
2901
2417.67
2072.42
1813.50
A T G C
Subject 1 Subject 2
A T G C
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
Q.20 A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease
sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and
PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at
37 C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and -
32
P dNTPs. After one hour,
the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were
visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below.


Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result?
(A)


(B)




(C)

(D)








END OF SECTION I
EcoRI :
PvuII :
G A A T T C
C T T A A G
C A G C T G
G T C G A C
4.0 kb
3.0 kb
2.0 kb
1.5 kb
1.0 kb
0.5 kb
0.3 kb
n
g
p
h
D
N
A

M
a
r
k
e
r
7.0 kb
plasmid
3.0 kb 2.0 kb 0.5 kb 1.5 kb
E
c
o
R
I
E
c
o
R
I
P
v
u
I
I
7.0 kb linear DNA
7.0 kb
plasmid
3.0 kb 2.0 kb 0.5 kb 1.5 kb
E
c
o
R
I
P
v
u
I
I
E
c
o
R
I
7.0 kb linear DNA
GATE 2014
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J : BOTANY
Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as
(A) Endophyte (B) Halophyte (C) Epiphyte (D) Lithophyte


Q.2 An ideal cybrid should have
(A) both nuclear genome and cytoplasmic genome equally from both the parents
(B) nuclear genome from one of the parents and cytoplasmic genome from other parent
(C) nuclear genome predominantly/exclusively from one of the parents and cytoplasmic genome
equally from both the parents
(D) nuclear genome equally from both the parents and cytoplasmic genome predominantly/
exclusively from one of the parents

Q.3 Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to
lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q.

(A) P- Plastid; Q-Vacuoles

(B) P- Plastid; Q-Mitochondria

(C) P- Plastid; Q-Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) P- Mitochondria; Q-Plastid


Q.4 Identify the CORRECT answer

RNA interference (RNAi)
P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing
Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex
(A) P only (B) Q only (C) Both P and Q (D) neither P nor Q



Q.5 Find the odd one out
(A) Petal (B) Sepal (C) Petiole (D) Tepal



Q.6 Plantibody is the
(A) Antibody expressed in transgenic plant

(B) Transgenic plant that expresses antibody

(C) Antibody against plant based antigen

(D) Transgenic plant that expresses antigen

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Q.7 In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with
(A) Phospholipid (B) Galactolipid (C) Neutral lipid (D) Sphingolipid


Q.8 Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II )


Column I Column II
P. Saffron 1. Garcinia sp.
Q. Gamboge 2. Rocella tinctoria
R. Litmus 3. Crocus sativus
S. Turmeric 4. Curcuma sp.

(A) (B) (C) (D)
P-4 P-3 P-2 P-3
Q-2 Q-4 Q-3 Q-1
R-1 R-1 R-2 R-2
S-3 S-2 S-1 S-4

Q.9 The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted
in green revolution. Later this green-revolution gene has been identified to be involved in either
signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of
(A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene




Q.10 In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease
upon the pathogen attack when

(A) The resistance gene (R) is non-functional (B) The avirulence gene (Avr) is non-functional

(C) Both R and Avr are non-functional (D) Both R and Avr are functional







GATE 2014
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Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used
(Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system.

Column I Column II Column III

P. Ubiquitin 1. Chloroplast i. Leaf
Q. Napin 2. Nucleus ii. Seed
R. RbcL 3. Mitochondria
S. RbcS

(A) P-1-i, Q-3-ii, R-2-i, S-3-ii (B) P-3-i, Q-1-i, R-2-ii, S-1-ii

(C) P-2-i, Q-2-ii, R-1-i, S-2-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-3-i, R-2-ii, S-3-ii




Q.12 In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant
upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purple-
flowered. What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered
line?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 2/3





















GATE 2014
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Q.13 Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species:


Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column - I and Column - II.



(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2



Q.14 Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (Column-
II), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes.

Column-I Column-II

P. Trisomic 1. 23
Q. Triploid 2. 45
R. Monosomic 3. 47
S. Monoploid 4. 69

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2


Q.15 Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of
gene and detection/assay system

Reporter gene Source of gene Detection/assay

P. -glucuronidase 1. Aequorea victoria i. Radioactive assay
Q. Green fluorescence protein 2. Photinus pyralis ii. Fluorimetric
R. Luciferase 3. E. coli iii. Fluorescence
S. Chloramphenicol acetyl transferase iv. Luminescence

(A) P-3-i, Q-1-ii, R-2-iii, S-3-iv (B) P-3-ii, Q-1-iii, R-2-iv, S-3-i

(C) P-2-ii, Q-1-iii, R-3-iv, S-1-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-2-iii, R-3-i, S-3-iv

G H I J KL M N
G H I K L J M N
G J K L H I M N
Column-I
P.
Q.
R.
S.
G H I J K L K L M N
G H J K L M N
1. Tandem duplication
2. Deletion
3. Pericentric inversion
4. Non-reciprocal translocation
Column-II
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Q.16 Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis.

P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO
2
compared to dissolved O
2

Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation

R. Enhancing the ratio of CO
2
to O
2
in air equilibrated solution

S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis


(A) P & Q (B) R & S (C) P & R (D) P & S





Q.17 Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.

P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease
activity.

Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O
2
and releases electrons required by
photosystem I (PSI).

R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C
2
) pathway involves a
cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.

S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist.

(A) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-F (B) P-T, Q-T, R-T, S-F

(C) P-T, Q-F, R-F, S-T (D) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-T








GATE 2014
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Q.18 Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the
corresponding plant species (Column II).









Column I Column II
1. Umbel i. Pedicularis sp
2. Raceme ii. Smilacina sp.
3. Compound determinate iii. Epilobium sp.
4. Spike iv. Pelargonium sp.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

P-2-i P-3-ii P-1-iii P-1-iv
Q-3-iv Q-2-iii Q-3-ii Q-4-i
R-4-ii R-4-i R-4-iv R-2-iii
S-1-iii S- 1-iv S-2-i S-3-ii


Q.19 Find the right combination for P, Q, R and S with respect to gametophyte development in flowering
plants.


(A) P-Meiosis, Q -Generative cell , R- Pollen Tube, S- 2 Sperm Cells

(B) P- Meiosis, Q- Pollen Tube, R- Generative Cell, S- 2 Sperm Cells

(C) P-Mitosis, Q- Generative Cell, R- Pollen Tube, S- 2 sperm Cells

(D) P- Growth, Q- 2 Sperm Cells, R- Pollen Tube, S- Generative Cell





v
P Q R S
Microsporocyte 4 Microspores
Growth Vegetative
Cell
R
Q
S
Mitosis
Mitosis
P
GATE 2014
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Q.20 Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II)

Column I Column II
P. The process of occupation of a particular area by different plant
communities from their birth to maturity
1. Formation
Q. A major ecological unit of vegetation 2. Consociation
R. A smaller unit of plant association 3. Faciation
S. A subdivision of plant association which is related to minor
differences in temperature and moisture relations
4. Plant succession


(A) (B) (C) (D)

P-1 P-3 P-4 P-2
Q-3 Q-2 Q-1 Q-4
R-4 R-1 R-2 R-3
S-2 S-4 S-3 S-1












END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
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XL-K 1/3
K: MICROBIOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Most viral capsids have
(A) 08 faces (B) 12 faces (C) 16 faces (D) 20 faces

Q.2 Intergenic suppression involves mutation in
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) tRNA (D) cDNA

Q.3 Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand?
(A) Leghemoglobin (B) Carbonic anhydrase
(C) Nitrogenase (D) NADPH oxidase

Q.5 Rheumatic fever is an example of
(A) autoimmune disease (B) type IV hypersensitive reaction
(C) immunodeficiency disease (D) neurodegenerative disorder

Q.6 Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by
using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class?
(A) Hydrolase (B) Transferase
(C) Lyase (D) Oxido-reductase

Q.7 Which one of the following is NOT involved in horizontal gene transfer?
(A) Conjugation (B) Transformation
(C) Transduction (D) Mutation

Q.8 The principle of immunization was first explained by
(A) Edward Jenner (B) Elie Metchnikoff
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Robert Koch

Q.9 Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of
(A) NAG-NAM (B) lipopolysaccharide (C) teichoic acid (D) lipoprotein A

Q.10 Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins?
(A) SEM (B) TEM (C) AFM (D) Confocal microscopy

Q.4 A bacterial culture (5 10
8
cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the
doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is
_______________.

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Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11

Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II.
Group I
(P) Vancomycin
(Q) Rifampin
(R) Puromycin
(S) Ciprofloxacin
Group II
(i) Folate metabolism
(ii) DNA synthesis
(iii) Protein synthesis
(iv) RNA synthesis
(v) Cell wall synthesis

(A) P-v, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii
(C) P-iv, Q-i, R-iii, S-ii (D) P-v, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv

Q.12 Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves.

(P) Bacteria
(Q) Extracellular virus
(R) Intracellular virus


(A) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii (B) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii
(C) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i (D) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii

Q.13 The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the
polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA?

(A) 297 (B) 298 (C) 299 (D) 897

Q.14 Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II.

Group I Group II
(P) Blood agar media (i) Coliforms
(Q) Minimal media (ii) Protease producers
(R) Skimmed milk agar media (iii) Hemolytic microbes
(S) Bile salt media (iv) Lipase producers
(v) Autotrophs
(A) P-iii, Q-v, R-ii, S-i (B) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-iv
(C) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv (D) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-v

Q.15 During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 110
4
cells/ml
and 110
9
cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h
-1
) of the culture is _____________.
Q.16 The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be
250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________.

Cell/virus
Number
(Time)
(i) (ii) (iii)
Cell/virus
number
Time
GATE 2014
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Q.17 Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III.

Group I Group II Group III
(P) Salmonella typhi (i) helical (1) non-motile
(Q) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) rod (2) amphitrichous
(R) Aquaspirillum serpens (iii) curved rod (3) peritrichous
(S) Vibrio cholerae (iv) ovoid (4) polar

(A) P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-i-2, S-iii-4
(B) P-iii-1, Q-iv-2, R-ii-4, S-i-3
(C) P-i-2, Q-ii-4, R-iii-2, S-iv-3
(D) P-ii-2, Q-iii-1, R-i-3, S-iv-4

Q.18 Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these
microorganisms are the most lethal?



(A) 1 & 3 only (B) 1 & 2 only (C) 3 & 4 only (D) 2 & 3 only

Q.19 Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II.

Group I Group II
(P) Ampicillin (i) 70 % alcohol treatment
(Q) 1% glucose in phosphate buffer (ii) Autoclaving at 15 psi for 15 min
(R) Plastic syringe (iii) Autoclaving at 10 psi for 20 min
(S) Luria broth (iv) Membrane filtration
(v) -ray irradiation
(A) P-iv, Q-iii, R-v, S-ii (B) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-v
(C) P-i, Q-ii, R-v, S-iii (D) P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-i

Q.20 Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli?

(P) Exhibit much reduced recombination
(Q) Do not survive UV irradiation
(R) Show no effect on doubling time
(S) Exhibit pleiotropy
(A) P, Q & R only (B) P, Q & S only
(C) P, R & S only (D) Q, R & S only

END OF SECTION-K
50
100
75
25
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
1
2
3 4
Number of microorganism
H
o
s
t

d
e
a
t
h

(
%
)
Numberofmicroorganisms
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
L : ZOOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of
endangered and threatened species are known as
(A) endemic sinks (B) critical communities
(C) biodiversity hot spots (D) endemic metapopulations

Q.2 Which ONE of the following animals has Osculum as an excretory structure?
(A) Hydra (B) Sponge (C) Jelly Fish (D) Sea pen

Q.3 During development of which ONE of the following organisms, bilateral meroblastic cleavage is
found?
(A) Mollusc (B) Fish (C) Bird (D) Amphibian

Q.4 The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which
ONE of the following reasons?
(A) It does not undergo structural changes
(B) It is not derived from the ER or Golgi
(C) It does not synthesize proteins
(D) It is not attached to the outer nuclear envelope

Q.5 The end products of glycolysis include ATP,
(A) CO2 and H2O (B) H2O and pyruvate
(C) NADH and pyruvate (D) CO2 and NADH

Q.6 The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to
(A) serve as a ribosome recruitment site
(B) serve as RNA polymerase binding site
(C) provide 3-D structural integrity to a DNA molecule
(D) act as a terminator sequence

Q.7 Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs
in eukaryotic gene expression?
(A) Transcription of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
(B) Binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter
(C) Addition of a poly-A tail to the 3' end and the 5' capping of an mRNA
(D) Translation begins as soon as transcription is initiated

Q.8 In Graves disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules
is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism?
(A) Thyroperoxidase (B) Thyroxine
(C) Thyroid stimulating hormone (D) Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor


Q.9 In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are
(A) gastrointestinal tract and lungs (B) gastrointestinal tract and liver
(C) kidneys and lungs (D) liver and kidneys
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL

Q.10 Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands.
Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones?
(A) Thyroxine (B) Prolactin (C) ACTH (D) ADH

Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the
order of the loci on the chromosome is
(A) X-Y-Z (B) Y-X-Z (C) X-Z-Y (D) Z-Y-X

Q.12 A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged
male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a
white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature
winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2
generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes?
(A) 20.11 (B) 31.52 (C) 49.10 (D) 34.12

Q.13 A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for
expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently
labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein?
(A) It bleaches less compared to fluorescent probes.
(B) It allows imaging at higher resolution than fluorescent probes.
(C) It provides more precise location of the protein than fluorescent probes.
(D) Its fusion allows tracking the location of the protein in living cells, while staining usually
requires fixation of cells.

Q.14 A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following
would be the most likely outcome?
(A) Lack of class I MHC molecules
(B) Inability to rearrange antigen receptors
(C) Inability to differentiate to mature T cells
(D) Reduction in T-independent number of B cells

Q.15 One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as
pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them?
(A) Increase in cytotoxic T cell population
(B) Risk of developing an autoimmune disease
(C) Reduced innate immune response
(D) Increased levels of IgE

GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
Q.16 Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of
sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10
minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a
function of time.












Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change
in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes?
(A) DB2 (B) DB4 (C) DB3 (D) DB4 and DB5

Q.17 Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA
is fed into TCA cycle?
(A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2
(B) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2
(C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2
(D) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2

Q.18 A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z.
Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these
fragments?




(A) (B) (C) (D)









Q.19 Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the
following methods?
(A) Transferring cell nuclei from the frozen tissue into enucleated unfertilized eggs of a suitable
mammal
(B) Introducing sequenced mammoth genome into donor eggs of a suitable mammal
(C) Transferring mammoth nuclear material into stem cells
(D) Collection of oocytes from ovaries of the frozen mammoth for in vitro fertilization and transfer
of fertilized eggs into animals such as elephants
DB1
DB2
DB3
DB4
DB5
Y X Z
X
Y
Z
Z

X
Y
X

Z
Y
Z
Y
X
10 20 30 40 50 60
Time (minutes)
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL


Q.20 Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will
(A) be more fluid
(B) result in clogged arteries as it can detach from the plasma membrane
(C) be more rigid than the surrounding membrane
(D) have higher rates of lateral movement of proteins into and out of plasma membrane


END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
M : FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following is NOT a source of caffeine?
(A) Coffee (B) Cocoa beans (C) Corn syrup (D) Tea leaves

Q.2 Yoghurt is prepared using a pair of microorganisms. Choose the correct pair from the following:
(A) Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus thermophilus
(B) Lactobacillus lactis, Streptococcus thermophilus
(C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus, Streptococcus lactis
(D) Lactobacillus lactis, Streptococcus lactis

Q.3 Choose the target organism for milk pasteurization from the following:
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Coxiella burnetii
(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Bacillus cereus

Q.4 Hypobaric storage is also known as _______
(A) Modified atmospheric storage
(B) Controlled atmospheric storage
(C) Low pressure storage
(D) Modified aseptic package

Q.5 In a solution of vegetable oil (molecular mass = 292 kg kmol
-1
) and ethanol (molecular mass = 46
kg kmol
-1
), the concentration of vegetable oil in the solution is measured to be 60% (total mass
basis). Therefore, mole fraction of ethanol in the solution is _______.

Q.6 An experiment started with 4 numbers of bacterial cells. After n
th
generation, number of cells
becomes 128. Therefore, value of n is _______.

Q.7 One ton of refrigeration means one of the following options:
(A) Cooling provided by one kg of ice in one hour
(B) Cooling provided by one ton of ice in one hour
(C) Energy extracted to freeze one ton of water in one day
(D) Coefficient of performance is unity

Q.8 Fruit juice is flowing in a circular pipe (inner diameter 2 cm) at a mass flow rate of 2 kg s
-1
and at a
temperature of 25C. The density and viscosity of the juice at 25C are 1045 kg m
-3
and 0.5 Pa s,
respectively. Take = 22/7. The Reynolds number for this flow will be _______.

Q.9 Shear stress (, Pa) and shear rate (, s
-1
) relationship of a pseudoplastic fluid follows the Power law
equation given by, = k
n
= 2.6
0.45
, where n and k are flow behavior index and consistency
index respectively. The apparent viscosity (
a
) of the fluid at a shear rate of 5 s
-1
is _______ Pa s.

Q.10 In a sterilization process, D
121.1
value of the target organism is 0.22 minute. Time required for
99.999% inactivation of the target organism at 121.1C will be _____ minutes.
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
Q. 11 Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 A centrifuge having diameter of 10 cm is rotating at 10000 rpm. Take = 22/7 and g = 9.81 m s
-2
.
The ratio of centrifugal force to gravitational force will be _________.
Q.12 Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

Group I Group II

P. Threonine 1. Fatty acid
Q. Pyridoxine phosphate 2. Sugar
R. Xylose 3. Amino acid
S. Oleic acid 4. Co-enzyme

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.13 Match the items under Group I with items under Group II

Group I Group II

P. Iron 1. Osteoporosis
Q. Calcium 2. Anemia
R. Zinc 3. Goiter
S. Iodine 4. Dwarfism

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.14 In a counter-current double pipe heat-exchanger, milk is cooled from 110 to 40C using chilled
water as coolant. Water enters at 5C and leaves at 60C. Heat flux for the system with overall heat
transfer coefficient of 950 W m
-2
K
-1
will be ______ W m
-2
.

Q.15 Saturated steam at 100C is injected at 0.2 kg s
-1
into air stream flowing at 3 kg s
-1
and 25C. Air
contains 0.012 kg moisture per kg dry air. If the atmospheric pressure is 101.1 kPa, absolute
humidity of air will be _____kg kg
-1
.

Q.16 In an evaporator, milk is concentrated from 9.8% TSS to 52% TSS. Assume the solutes in the milk
are non-volatile. The amount of vapour produced for 100 kg feed will be _______ kg.

Q.17 Water enters a cylindrical tank at a steady uniform rate of 0.1 m
3
s
-1
; simultaneously water is
discharged from the tank through an orifice (area 0.05 m) located at the bottom of the tank. Initial
level of water in the tank from the bottom is 5 m. If the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s
-2
and
coefficient of discharge = 0.30, the final value of the steady-state height of water level from the
bottom of tank is _______ m.


GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
Q.18 Match the following between Group I and Group II in relation to pretreatments.

Group I Group II

P. Ascorbic acid dip 1. Sogginess in fruits
Q. Heat blanching 2. Minimizes fruit oxidation
R. Deaeration 3. Melting of fat in meat
S. Rendering 4. Removal of odours
5. Minimizes destruction of vitamin C

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Q.19 A chocolate mix at 100C is flowing through a 2 cm diameter and 4 m long stainless steel tube at
13.2 kg per minute. The density of the mix is 1750 kg m
-3
and its viscosity at 100C is 2 Pa s. Take
= 22/7. The pressure drop for this flow will be ________ Pa.

Q.20 In a tray dryer, 100 kg of a vegetable material in a suitably reduced form is dried to yield a final
product of 75 kg. The dried sample of 5 g, when kept in an oven at 105C for 24 hours results in
3.56 g of dry matter. The moisture content of the vegetable, before drying, in dry basis
is_______%.




END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
GATE 2014
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Life Sciences - XL
GATE 2014 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 5 A 9 C
2 A 6 A 10 0.48 to 0.49
3 C 7 C
4 25 to 25 8 D
Life Sciences XL (Section H)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 6 1.9 to 2.1 11 190 to 240
2 B 7 C 12 440 to 470
3 C 8 0.8 to 0.8 13 B
4 B 9 D 14 A
5 C 10 0.40 to 0.55 15 D
Life Sciences XL (Section I)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 80 to 80 15 4 to 4
2 B 9 13.6 to 13.8 16 7.2 to 7.3
3 D 10 A 17 14.4 to 14.6
4 C 11 0.82 to 0.84 18 C
5 A 12 B 19 A
6 D 13 13.3 to 13.4 20 B
7 B 14 C
Life Sciences XL (Section J)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 D 15 B
2 C 9 B 16 D
3 A 10 D 17 D
4 C 11 C 18 B
5 C 12 B 19 B
6 A 13 D 20 C
7 C 14 C
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
__________________________________________________________
Life Sciences XL (Section K)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 8 C 15 2.8 to 2.9
2 C 9 A 16 4.2 to 4.4
3 D 10 C 17 A
4 200 to 200 11 A 18 B
5 A 12 C 19 A
6 D 13 B 20 B
7 D 14 A
Life Sciences XL (Section L)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 D 15 D
2 B 9 D 16 A
3 A 10 C 17 B
4 B 11 C 18 B
5 C 12 B 19 A
6 B 13 D 20 C
7 C 14 C
Life Sciences XL (Section M)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 254 to 255 15
0.078 to
0.080
2 A 9 1.05 to 1.08 16 81 to 82
3 B 10 1.0 to 1.2 17 0.55 to 0.58
4 C 11 5590 to 5600 18 B
5 0.80 to 0.82 12 B 19
256000 to
256000
6 5 to 5 13 A 20 87.0 to 87.5
7 C 14
39900 to
40000
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
___________________________________________________________
Paper specific instructions:


1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. The question paper consists of questions of
multiple choice type and numerical answer type. Multiple choice type questions will have four
choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer
is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the
virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. There are Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry), I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K
(Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology).

3. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two optional
Sections I through M.

4. There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA) section, which is compulsory.
Questions Q.1 Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

5. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions
Q.1 - Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6- Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions
include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to
the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the
pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to
the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

6. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions
Q.1 - Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11 - Q.20 carry 2 marks each.

7. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.

8. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

9. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.


Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100





GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 Solved Paper
Life Sciences - XL
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 If 3 X 5 and 8 11 then which of the following options is TRUE?
(A)
3
5

X


8
5


(B)
3
11

X


5
8


(C)
3
11

X


8
5


(D)
3
5

X


8
11


Q.2 The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you.

Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?
(A) is wanting

(B) wants

(C) want

(D) was wanting

Q.3 Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as
(A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.

(B) he worked for humanitarian causes.

(C) he displayed modesty in his interactions.

(D) he was a fine human being.

Q.4 All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.5 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
water: pipe::
(A) cart: road (B) electricity: wire
(C) sea: beach (D) music: instrument
Q. 6 to Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by I = 80 32 t, where t (time)
is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1)

(C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)
GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q.7 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a
randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability
that it was manufactured by M2?
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

Q.8 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011.

Country Number of
Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000

Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in
2011?
(A) USA and Japan

(B) USA and Australia

(C) England and France

(D) Japan and Australia



Q.9 If | 2X + 9| = 3 then the possible value of | X| X
2
would be:
(A) 30 (B) -30 (C) -42 (D) 42


Q.10 All professors are researchers
Some scientists are professors

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
(A) All scientists are researchers

(B) All professors are scientists

(C) Some researchers are scientists

(D) No conclusion follows




GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by


H:CHEMISTRY (Compulsory)

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 N(CH
3
)
3
and N(SiH
3
)
3
are congeners, but around N-atom the former has pyramidal geometry
whereas the latter is nearly planar. The bonding responsible for planarity of N(SiH
3
)
3
is
(A)pp (B) pd (C) dd (D)

Q.2 The type of electronic transition responsible for the yellow colour of K
2
CrO
4
is
(A)metal to ligand charge transfer
(B)ligand to metal charge transfer
(C)intra-ligand charge transfer
(D)d-d transition

Q.3 The given equation
_
J( E)
JI
]
p
= C
p


where E, I and C
p
are the enthalpy, temperature and heat capacity at constant pressure,
respectively, is called
(A) Clausius-Clapeyron equation (B) Hesss law
(C) Kirchhoffs equation (D) Troutons rule

Q. 4 - Q. 5 are questions with numerical answer.

Q.4 The number of 2-center2-electron bonds in anhydrous AlCl
3
is ___________

Q.5 When dissolved in water, the number of H
+
ions released from a molecule of H
3
BO
3
is _________

Q. 6 - Q. 15 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In NaCl crystal, the arrangement and coordination number of the ions are
(A)fcc and 6 (B) fcc and 4 (C) hcp and 6 (D) hcp and 4


Q.7 The solubility product (K
sp
) of Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
is 1.3 10
-32
. In a 0.02 M solution of Ca(NO
3
)
2
, the
solubility of Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
(in units of M) is
(A) 6.5 10
-31
(B)1.6 10
-26
(C) 8.0 10
-16
(D) 4.0 10
-14








GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.8 Identify the CORRECT product in the following reaction:



(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)


Q.9 The major product obtained in the following reaction is




(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)


Q. 10- Q. 11 are questions with numerical answer.

Q.10 Iodine forms an anionic species Q in aqueous solution of iodide(I

). The number of lone pair(s) of


electrons on the central atom of Q is __________


Q.11 The rate of a chemical reaction is tripled when the temperature of the reaction is increased from 298
K to 308 K. The activation energy (in kcal mol
1
K
1
, up to one decimal place) for the reaction
is(Given R = 1.987cal mol
1
K
1
) _____________



GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 12 and 13:

Consider the following S
N
2 reaction of optically pure 1-chloro-3-ethylcyclopentane (X).



Q.12 The structure of Y in the above reaction is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)


Q.13 The absolute configuration of1-chloro-3-ethylcyclopentane (X) shown above is
(A) (1S,3R) (B) (1S,3S) (C) (1R,3R) (D)(1R,3S)

Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 14 and 15:

The molar conductance at infinite dilution of sodium acetate, sodium sulfate and sulfuric acid solutions are
91.0 10
-4
, 259.810
-4
and 859.310
-4
S m
2
mol
1
, respectively.

Q.14 The molar conductance at infinite dilution (in S m
2
mol
1
)of acetic acid is

(A)1028 10
-4
(B) 820.4 10
-4
(C)690.5 10
-4
(D)390.810
-4



Q.15 If the molar conductance of an acetic acid solution is15.2 10
-4
Sm
2
mol
1
,then the percentage (%)
dissociation of acetic acid in the solution will be
(A) 3.89 (B) 2.20 (C) 1.85 (D) 1.48



END OF SECTION - H


GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
I:BIOCHEMISTRY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following statements is TRUE when a cell is kept in a hypotonic
solution?

(A) Water moves out of the cell
(B) Size of the cell remains same
(C) No movement of water takes place
(D) Size of the cell increases


Q.2 Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond
formation?

(A) Histidine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Glycine
(D) Proline


Q.3
The length of an -helix composed of 36 amino acid residues is

(A) 10
(B) 54
(C) 27
(D) 360


Q.4 The order n for a given substrate concentration in an enzyme catalyzed reaction following
Michaelis-Menten kinetics, is

(A) n = 1 (B) n = 0 (C) n is not defined (D) 0 n 1


Q.5 Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognised by chymotrypsin
during peptide bond cleavage?

(A) Phe
(B) Leu
(C) Val
(D) Asp


Q.6 The terminal electron acceptor during mitochondrial respiration is

(A) O
2
(B) FAD
+
(C) NAD
+
(D) ATP


GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by


Q.7 During the biosynthesis of urea in the urea cycle, the two nitrogen atoms are derived from

(A) Two free ammonium groups
(B) Free ammonium group and aspartate
(C) Both nitrogen atoms are derived from arginine
(D) One nitrogen atom is derived from citrulline and one from glutamate.


Q.8 An enzyme has two binding sites for an inhibitor molecule. When the inhibitor binds to the
first site, the dissociation constant of the inhibitor for the second site increases, leading to
negative co-operativity. The Hill coefficient for such an inhibitor is

(A) equal to one (B) greater than one (C) less than one (D) less than zero


Q.9 An oligonucleotide was sequenced by the dideoxy method of Sanger and the following
autoradiogram was obtained


The sequence of the oligonucleotide is

(A) 3-GTCCTGTACA-5
(B) 5-GTCCTGTACA-3
(C) 5-ACATGTCCTG-3
(D) 3-AATTTCCCGG-5


Q.10 In different types of tissue transplantations, the rate of graft rejection in decreasing order is

(A) Isograft > Xenograft > Allograft
(B) Allograft > Isograft > Xenograft
(C) Xenograft > Autograft > Allograft
(D) Xenograft > Allograft > Isograft







GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 You have prepared 1.0 liter of 0.5 M acetate buffer (pH=5.0). The dissociation constant of
acetic acid is 1.710
-5
M. What would be the acetate ion concentration in the buffer?

(A) 0.1M
(B) 0.25 M
(C) 0.315 M
(D) 0.415 M


Q.12 The following figures show the plot of reaction rate versus substrate concentration (mM)
for an enzyme catalyzed reaction in the presence and absence of an inhibitor. Match the
possible reaction types with the plots.

(P) Competitive inhibition (Q) Substrate inhibition
(R) Michaelis-Menten (S) Non-competitive inhibition



(A) P i, Q iii, R ii, S iv
(B) P iii, Q ii, R i, S iv
(C) P iii, Q iv, R i, S ii
(D) P iv, Q ii, R i, S iii



GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.13 Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their permeability coefficients across a
lipid bilayer membrane.
(i) Urea
(ii) Glucose
(iii) H
2
O
(iv) Na
+

(v) Tryptophan

(A) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv) (B) (iii), (v), (ii), (iv), (i)
(C) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (ii)


Q.14 Arrange the following in the increasing order of amount of ATP generated by metabolism
of one molecule of the following compounds.

(i) Anaerobic catabolism of starch with 300 glucose units
(ii) Aerobic catabolism of glucose
(iii) Aerobic catabolism of acetate
(iv) Aerobic catabolism of palmitate
(A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (D) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Q.15 Match the following enzymes with their regulatory mechanism

(a) Phosphofructokinase 1. Product inhibition
(b) Glycogen synthase 2. Control of enzyme synthesis
(c) -galactosidase 3. Allosteric interaction
(d) Lactate dehydrogenase 4. Covalent modification

(A) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4
(B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1
(C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
(D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

Q.16 A researcher wants to clone 3 DNA fragments of sizes 1.1 Mb, 0.097 Mb and 0.045 Mb.
The choice of the vectors for cloning each of the fragments are

(A) Cosmid, bacteriophage bacteriophage P1
(B) Yeast artificial chromosome, bacteriophage P1 cosmid
(C) Bacterial artificial chromosome, bacteriophage , yeast artificial chromosome
(D) Only plasmids




GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.17 Which of the four restriction enzymes given below cut the following DNA sequence?

5-CCGATATCTCGAGGGC-3

(P) BamH1 (3-CCTAG^G-5)
(Q) XhoI (3-GAGCT^C-5)
(R) EcoRI (3-CTTAA^G-5)
(S) EcoRV (3-CTA^TAG-5)

(A) P & Q (B) P, R & S (C) Q & S (D) P & R

Q.18 You have expressed the following protein that has an isoelectric point of 6.0. The best
order of protein purification methodologies to obtain a pure protein is?



(A) Gel filtration chromatography, Anion exchange chromatography at pH=4.0,
Ammonium sulphate precipitation
(B) Cation exchange chromatography at pH=9.0, Ni-affinity chromatography, Gel filtration
chromatography
(C) Anion exchange chromatography at pH=8.0, Ni-affinity chromatography, Gel filtration
chromatography
(D) Ammonium sulphate precipitation, Anion exchange chromatography at pH=4.0, Ni-
affinity chromatography


Q.19 An enzyme of 40 kDa is added to a substrate solution in a molar ratio of 1:3. The
concentration of the enzyme in the mixture is 12 mg/ml. What would be the corresponding
substrate concentration?
(A) 0.4 mM (B) 0.12 mM (C) 0.9 mM (D) 0.3 mM


Q.20 A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4
+
T
cells. In all probability the PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to

(A) Klebsiella family
(B) Mycobacterium family
(C) Retrovirus family
(D) Streptococcus family

END OF SECTION - I

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
J:BOTANY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Bast fibres are present in
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Collenchyma (D) Parenchyma


Q.2 During cellular respiratory process, pyruvate must be oxidized to acetyl CoA and CO
2
before it
enters the citric acid cycle. The corresponding simplified equation is

Pyruvate + NAD
+
+ CoASH Acetyl-S-CoA + NADH + CO
2


This oxidation reaction occurs in mitochondria and is carried out in presence of the enzyme
(A) Pyruvate kinase (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate decarboxylase (D) Pyruvate carboxylase

Q.3 Which one of the following statements having the terms - gene, chromosome and genome is
CORRECT?
(A) The rice gene contains about 50,000 genomes located on 12 different chromosomes
(B) The rice genome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different chromosomes
(C) The rice chromosome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different genomes
(D) The rice genome contains about 50,000 chromosomes located on 12 different genes

Q.4 The aflatoxin found in post-harvested grains is injurious to health due to
(A) Aspergillus (B) Alternaria (C) Fusarium (D) Phytopthora

Q.5 Identify the event that exclusively occurs in meiotic cell division
(A) Chromatid formation (B) Spindle formation
(C) Synapsis (D) Chromosome movement to pole


Q.6 In the symbiotic nitrogen fixation process, Leghemoglobin present in the nodule helps in fixing
nitrogen in presence of the enzyme
(A) Nitrate synthetase (B) Nitrate synthase
(C) Glutathione synthetase (D) Nitrogenase

Q.7 Considering environment and ecosystem, identify the INCORRECT statement
(A) In detrital food chain, it is very difficult to measure the energy flow although the use of
radioactive tracers give some idea about the energy flow
(B) The change in species composition, community structure and function over time is ecological
succession
(C) The slower rise of environmental temperature may be attributed to the increase in pollution in
environment which reflects enough solar energy back to other spacer to slow down global
warming
(D) Photoperiodism has no relation with the environment and ecosystem, rather it is a biological
event taking place in every plant

Q.8 The two enzymes commonly used for isolation of protoplasts from plants are
(A) Cellulase and Lipase (B) Cellulase and Amylase
(C) Pectinase and Cellulase (D) Pectinase and Lipase

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.9 For successful transfer of a foreign gene from the engineered Ti-plasmid to the plant genome, few
cis-acting DNA elements and trans-acting protein factors are very much essential. Select the
CORRECT combination from the following
(A) Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Right border sequence
(B) Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Virulence genes
(C) Hormone biosynthetic genes, Right border sequence, Virulence genes
(D) Left border sequence, Right border sequence, Virulence genes

Q.10 In naturally occurring cytoplasmic male sterility, the molecular determinant is located in
(A) Chloroplast (B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Golgi complex (D) Mitochondria


Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Identify the floral formula with the family and the corresponding plant species

General Floral Formula Family Plant

P. P
0 or 2-3
, A
3

or 3+3,

1 or (3)
G 1. Liliaceae i. Cocos nucifera

Q. P
3+3
, A
3+3

or 3
/ P
3+3
,
(3)
G 2. Cannaceae ii. Musa paradisiaca

R. P
3+3
, A
3+3
,
(3)
G 3. Graminae (Poaceae) iii. Maranta bicolor

S. P
3+3
, A
6 or 5,

(3)
G 4. Palmae (Arecaceae) iv. Canna indica

5. Musaceae v. Allium cepa

6. Marantaceae vi. Oryza sativa

(A)

P-1-iv
Q-2-iii
R-6-i
S-4-ii
(B)

P-2-v
Q-4-vi
R-3-iii
S-5-iv
(C)

P-3-v
Q-6-iii
R-5-i
S-2-ii
(D)

P-3-vi
Q-4-i
R-1-v
S-5-ii

Q.12 A plant of genotype GGHH is crossed with another plant of the genotype gghh. If the F
1
is test
crossed, what percentage (%) of the test cross progeny will have the genotype gghh when the two
genes are - (P) unlinked, (Q) completely linked with no crossing over, (R) 10 m.u. (genetic map
unit) apart, (S) 24 m.u. apart?
(A)

P-25
Q-25
R-25
S-25
(B)

P-25
Q-50
R-45
S-38
(C)

P-50
Q-50
R-90
S-76
(D)

P-25
Q-50
R-10
S-24

+
+
+
+
GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.13 Which two of the following are the CORRECT statements ?

P. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is not essential to produce diploid organisms
Q. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce aneuploid organisms
R. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce hexaploid organisms
S. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce tetraploid organisms
(A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) P,S

Q.14 Identify the correct matching by taking one item from each column

Column -I Column -II Column -III

P. Morphine 1. Cinchona officinalis i. Antineoplastic
Q. Nicotine 2. Hyoscyamus niger ii. Respiratory paralysis
R. Atropine 3. Papaver somniferum iii. Antibacterial
S. Vinblastine 4. Nicotiana tabacum iv. Narcotic analgesic
5. Coffea arabica v. Anticholinergic
6. Catharanthus roseus vi. Antifungal
(A)

P-1-i
Q-2-ii
R-3-iii
S-4-iv
(B)

P-2-iii
Q-3-i
R-1-iv
S-5-v
(C)

P-3-iv
Q-4-ii
R-2-v
S-6-i
(D)

P-4-iii
Q-1-v
R-5-i
S-2-vi

Q.15 Which two of the following are the INCORRECT statements ?

P. All plants fix CO
2
by the action of ribulose biphosphate carboxylase. The reaction occurs in the
bundle sheath of C
4
plants
Q. All plants fix CO
2
by the action of ribulose biphosphate carboxylase. The reaction occurs in the
mesophyll cells of C
4
plants
R. Phosphoenol pyruvate + CO
2
Oxaloacetate + Pi, catalyzed by the enzyme phosphoenol
pyruvate carbxylase occurs in the mesophyll cells of C
4
plants
S. Phosphoenol pyruvate + CO
2
Oxaloacetate + Pi, catalyzed by the enzyme phosphoenol
pyruvate dehydrogenase occurs in the mesophyll cells of C
4
plants
(A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) Q,S (D) P,R


Q.16 Select the CORRECT set comprising only the synthetic analogues of auxin and cytokinin
(A) IAA and Kinetin (B) 2, 4-D and Zeatin (C) IAA and Zeatin (D) 2, 4-D and Kinetin

Q.17 Which two of the following are the INCORRECT statements ?

P. In monocotyledonous stems with closed vascular bundle, secondary growth takes place without
any cambium
Q. In dicotyledonous stems hypodermis is collenchymatous
R. Mobilization of storage reserves takes place during post-germination of embryo
S. Osbornes classification of seed storage proteins is based upon solubility in n-hexane
(A) P,R (B) Q,S (C) Q,R (D) P,S



GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.18 Identify two CORRECT characteristic features of (P) Autogamy and (Q) Allogamy from the
following statements

1. Plant species usually does not depend on external agents
2. Plant species usually depends on external agents
3. Plant species normally produces progeny that are healthier and better adapted in nature
4. Plant species normally produces weaker progeny in several generations
(A)

P-1,3
Q-2,4
(B)

P-2,4
Q-1,3
(C)

P-1,4
Q-2,3
(D)

P-2,3
Q-1,4


Q.19 Identify the correct matching by taking one item from each column

Column-I Column-II

P. Coenzyme 1. Holoenzyme + Apoenzyme
Q. Holoenzyme 2. Non-protein part in an active enzyme
R. Prosthetic group 3. Only the protein part in an active enzyme
S. Apoenzyme 4. Cofactor in an enzymatic reaction
5. Apoenzyme + Prosthetic group
6. Holoenzyme + inorganic phosphate
(A)

P-4
Q-5
R-2
S-3
(B)

P-4
Q-3
R-1
S-2
(C)

P-4
Q-3
R-5
S-6
(D)

P-4
Q-1
R-3
S-5


Q.20 Identify two CORRECT statements from the following which are related to the ion transportation
in the root system of plant

P. The proton pumps and H
+
-pyrophosphatase appear to work in anti-parallel with the vacuolar
ATPase to create a proton gradient across the tonoplast
Q. Calcium is one of the important ion whose concentration is strongly regulated by the
concentration of apoplastic spaces in the millimolar level
R. Solute move through both apoplast and symplast, and xylem parenchyma cells participate in
xylem loading
S. The limitation of Nerst equation for relating the membrane potential to the distribution of ion at
equilibrium is that it cannot distinguish between active and passive transport
(A) P,S (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) Q,S


END OF SECTION - J

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
K:MICROBIOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In 1976, Tonegawas experiment gave clue about gene rearrangement during differentiation of B-
cells. The two different types of cells used in this experiment were
(A) HeLa cells and fibrosarcoma cells
(B) embryonic cells and fibroblasts
(C) adult myeloma cells and HeLa cells
(D) embryonic cells and adult myeloma cells

Q.2 To which one of the following groups, the antibiotics kanamycin, streptomycin and gentamicin
belong
(A) cephalosporins (B) macrolides (C) aminoglycosides (D) quinolones

Q.3 Shine Dalgarnos sequence present in mRNA binds to
(A) 3
i
end of rRNA
(B) 5
i
end of rRNA
(C) 5
i
end of tRNA
(D) 3
i
end of tRNA

Q.4 Which one of the following transport mechanism is NOT employed by prokaryotes?
(A) Passive diffusion (B) Group translocation (C) Endocytosis (D) Active transport

Q.5 The most common indicator organism of faecal pollution in water is
(A) Clostridium botulinum (B) Bacillus subtilis (C) Escherichia coli (D) Clostridium tetani

Q.6 The theoretical maximum number of ATP molecules produced from aerobic oxidation of glucose
by eukaryotic cells is
(A) 38 (B) 24 (C)12 (D) 8

Q.7 Which one of the following DO NOT use water as an electron source during photosynthesis?
(A) Sulfate reducing bacteria
(B) Methanogenic bacteria
(C) Green and purple bacteria
(D) Nitrifying bacteria


Q.8
If the radius of a spherical coccus is 0.8 m, the value of
volume
area surface
in m
-1
will be
(A) 7.45 (B) 4.05 (C) 3.75 (D) 0.85

Q.9 The enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of nitrogen to ammonia is
(A) nitrogenase (B) nitrate reductase (C) nitrite reductase (D)deaminase

Q.10 Chemostat is a continuous culture system in which sterile medium is fed into the culture vessel at
the same rate as the spent medium is removed. If in a chemostat culture, the flow rate is 30 ml h
-1

and volume of the medium inside the vessel is 100 ml, the dilution rate in h
-1
is
(A) 3.33 (B) 1.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.30



GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 In an experiment the structural genes lacZYAof lac operon were found to be constitutively
expressed. The following explanations were given for the constitutive expression

(P) absence of a functional repressor due to mutation in the repressor gene lacI
(Q) mutation in the operator that can no longer bind the repressor
(R) mutation in the lacAgene

Which of the following is CORRECT
(A) Only P (B) Only Q (C) Both P & Q (D) Only R

Q.12 Which one of the following is TRUE about siderophores in bacteria?
(A) Siderophores are secreted only when soluble iron is available in the medium
(B) Siderophores form complex with ferrous ions in the medium
(C) Siderophores are the only route of iron uptake
(D) Siderophores form complex with ferric ions in the medium

Q.13 In a population containing fast and slow growing bacteria, the slow growing bacteria can be
enriched by supplementing the medium with
(A) chloramphenicol (B) penicillin (C) penicillin & chloramphenicol (D) rifampin

Q.14 When the supply of tryptophan is plentiful, the tryptophan operon is repressed because the
(A) repressor protein-corepressor complex is bound at the operator
(B) repressor protein is synthesized in large quantity
(C) repressor-corepressor complex is not formed
(D) repressor becomes inactive and therefore has reduced specificity for the operator

Q.15 Match the scientists in Group I with their contributions in microbiology in Group II

Group I

P. Robert Hooke
Q. Paul Ehrlich
R. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
S. Sergei Winogradsky
Group II

I. Proved that microbes can cause diseases
II. First to observe cells
III. First to observe bacteria
IV. Used the first synthetic chemotherapeutic agent
V. Linked specific bacteria to biogeochemical
transformations

(A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-V
(C) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV (D) P-V, Q-III, R-IV, S-II







GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.16 Match the infectious agents in Group I with the associated diseases in Group II

Group I

P. Bordetellapertusis
Q. Mycobacterium leprae
R. Haemophilusinfluenzae
S. Rubella
Group II

I. Mumps
II. Meningitis
III. Tuberculosis
IV. Whooping cough
V. Hansens disease

(A) P-IV, Q-V, R-II, S-I (B) P-V, Q-III, R-I, S-IV
(C) P-I, Q-III, R-V, S-IV (D) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I

Q.17 Match the microscopes in Group I with their working principles in Group II

Group I

P. Phase contrast
Q. Dark field
R. Bright field
S. Electron microscopy
Group II

I. Light reaches the specimen only from the sides
II. Uses fluorescent dyes
III. Difference in the refractive index of cells from their
surrounding medium
IV. Difference in contrast between specimen and its
surrounding medium
V. Uses electrons instead of photons as energy source

(A ) P-V, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B)P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-V
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I (D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-V

Q.18 In a phenol coefficient test for determining the efficacy of a disinfectant X, the maximum effective
dilution for X and phenol was found to be 1/450 and 1/90, respectively. Calculate the phenol
coefficient for X.
(A) 10.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.2


Q.19 How many electrons are accepted when sulfate acts as the terminal electron acceptor in bacteria
such as Desulfovibrio?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2


Q.20 A bacterial population increases from 10
3
cells to 10
9
cells in 10 h. Calculate the number of
generations per hour.
(A) 20 (B)10 (C)4 (D)2


END OF SECTION - K

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
L:Zoology

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following provides the strongest support for the theory of descent with
modification?
(A) Early embryonic forms of diverse organisms (examples: fishes, birds and mammals) appear
similar
(B) Ability of fishes and whales to swim
(C) Variation in flower colour in a given species
(D) Skin colour variation among individuals in a human population

Q.2 Which one of the following is an example of sympatric speciation?
(A) Origin of new species among wasps that pollinate figs
(B) Emergence of a new species among finches that migrated to an island and thus isolated from
their ancestors
(C) Evolution of birds and bats wings
(D) Speciation of squirrels separated by a wide river

Q.3 The primary difference between glycogen and cellulose is in the
(A)types of constituent monosaccharides
(B)number of monomers per molecule
(C)configuration of the monomers
(D)susceptibility to acid hydrolysis

Q.4 Control mechanisms operate at any of the several steps involved in gene expression. Which one of
the following is the key mode of regulation during the cell cycle?
(A) Transcription
(B) mRNA processing
(C) Activation of protein function resulting from protein-protein interaction
(D) mRNA export

Q.5 Testicular feminization syndrome is a genetic condition wherein an individual with a XY genotype
will have an external female-like phenotype. This is caused by
(A) Functional loss of androgen receptor
(B) Increased production of estrogen and its receptor
(C) Functional loss of Mullerian inhibiting hormone
(D) Functional loss of androgen receptor and Mullerian inhibiting hormone

Q.6 Which one of the following defects do you expect to see if you were able to specifically block
apoptosis in the developing limb bud of a frog embryo?
(A) The digits will remain connected through a web-like extension
(B) The bones will not form, and the limb would look like a paddle
(C) The limb would look normal but would be larger in size
(D) The anterior-posterior polarity of the limb will be lost

Q.7 The formation of antigen-antibody complex helps in disposing antigen through the following
pathways EXCEPT:
(A) Neutralizing the antigen by blocking its activity
(B) By directly hydrolyzing the antigen
(C) By promoting the precipitation of antigen
(D) By activating cell lysis pathway

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
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Q.8 The term ecological succession refers to:
(A) A process wherein newer species populate a region that was devoid of flora and fauna
(B) A transition phase wherein one particular set of species is replaced by another set of species
(C) Changes in the community due to a disturbance in the habitat
(D) All the above

Q.9 Which one of the following options provide example for the term habituation in behavioral
ecology?
(A) A fish transferred to a fish tank startles initially for a hand clap, but not later
(B) Migratory birds from the temperate zone migrating towards the tropical part during the winters
(C) Adult kingfisher birds are more successful in catching fishes than their younger siblings
(D) Female lizard getting used to a new male lizard during the courtship period

Q.10 Among the following cell structure-function pairs, identify the correctly paired one
(A) Microvilli engulfment of foreign bodies (B)Cytoskeleton cell migration
(C) Peroxisomes cellular respiration (D) Nucleolus mRNA transcription

Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Which of the following most accurately states the goal of systematics?
(A) Classification scheme should reflect phylogenetic relationship
(B) All animals should be classified based on the relatedness at the early embryonic stage
(C) All animals should be grouped based on DNA sequence data
(D) Classification of animals should be based on morphological characters

Q.12 Among the following options, choose the one that is probably a cause of rapid diversification of
animal groups during the Cambrian explosion.
(A) Adaptation of organisms to live in the salty environment of ocean
(B) Emergence of coelom
(C) The movement of animals to land
(D) The accumulation of sufficient atmospheric oxygen to support the metabolism of actively
moving animals

Q.13 A newly discovered, recessively-inherited disease-susceptibility trait (DS) is observed only in
cotton plants with white flowers, although the flower colour (R) and DS are independently
inherited. In a breeding programme, one variety that is homozygous for the absence of DS, but
heterozygous for R was mated to another having white flowers but heterozygous for DS. What is
the probability that a given plant among the cross progeny will be susceptible to the disease?
(A) 25 % (B) 12.5 % (C) 75 % (D) 0 %

Q.14 In a new species of moth, the genes for body colour (black, B, is dominant over grey, b), wing size
(normal wing, W, is dominant over vestigial, w) and eye colour (red, R, is dominant over white, r)
are linked. In this species, only one cross-over event has been observed between any two
homologous chromosomes during meiosis. In a cross between BB; ww and bb; WW, 5 % of the
progeny were black with normal wings. In a separate cross between RR; WW and rr; ww, 15 % of
the progeny were red-eyed with vestigial wings. In a third cross between BB; rr and bb; RR, 10 %
of the progeny were black-coloured with red eyes. Which among the following is the correct order
of these three genetic loci?
(A) Body colour Eye colour Wing size (B) Eye colour wing size Body colour
(C) Wing size Body colour Eye colour (D) Eye colour Body colour Wing size

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.15 In vertebrates, the variations in the structure and function of nephrons are directly linked to the
osmoregulatory requirements of the organisms depending on the habitats they live in. From the
options given below, identify the correct combination that truly represents the adaptation seen in
desert mammals:
i. Long loops of Henle
ii. Short loop of Henle
iii. Hyperosmotic urine
iv. Large volume of urine
v. Removal of nitrogen as uric acid
(A) Options i and iii (B) Options ii and iii (C) Options i and iv (D) Options i and v

Q.16 In Drosophila, mutations in homeotic genes result in which one of the following developmental
defects?
(A) The anterior portion of the embryo will not develop
(B) Several segments in the anterior region of the embryo will be lost
(C) Segmentation will be lost, and the embryo will have only one segment
(D) Segment-specific identities will be lost

Q.17 Retroviruses, like the influenza virus, escape the detection of pre-existing antibodies in the host by
generating surface antigen variants. They do so:
(A) By editing the surface antigen post-translationally
(B) Because RNA polymerase of these viruses display high mutation rate during RNA synthesis
(C) Because the surface antigens are attacked by the proteases present in the host cell
(D) Because DNA polymerase of the host mutates the viral genome in the infected cell

Q.18 The relative number of individuals in each age group is an important demographic factor for the
study of future growth trends, and this is normally depicted in the form of an age-structure pyramid.
Based on your understanding on population dynamics, match the following distribution properties
of age structure (Group 1) with the individual forecast given (Group 2):

Group 1
I). Uniform age distribution in the pyramid
II). Distribution skewed towards younger age groups
III). Distribution skewed towards older age groups
IV). Reduction in the number of males in the middle age group

Group 2
i). Emigration in the recent past and the possible increase in the older age groups in the near
future.
ii). Likely to be a stable population
iii). Possible unemployment in the near future
iv). Increased government expenditure on medical needs and social security related issues in the
near future
(A) I iii; II ii; III i; IV iv (B) I ii; II iii; III iv; IV i
(C) I ii; II i; III iii; IV iv (D) I i; II iii; III ii; IV iv

Q.19 Like any other trait, animal behavior also evolves by natural selection. Which one of the following
examples is NOT true with regard to the evolution of behavior by natural selection?
(A) The behavioral trait is determined only by genes
(B) The behavioral trait varies within the population of that species
(C) The reproductive success partly dependent upon the behavioral trait
(D) The behavioral trait is influenced by the genotype


GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q.20 Among the following molecular process-biological effect pairs, identify the mismatched pair.
(A) Histone deacetylation activation of gene expression
(B) Protein phosphorylation signal transduction
(C) DNA methylation sex-specific control of gene expression
(D)Proteolytic cleavage activation of signaling by peptide hormones

END OF SECTION - L

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
M: FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Kawashiorkor disease is caused due to the deficiency of
(A) lysine (B) unsaturated fatty acids
(C) vitamin K (D) protein

Q.2 Which of the following statements is TRUE in case of oxidative rancidity of vegetable oils and
fats?
(A) It is caused by the reaction of saturated fatty acids and oxygen
(B) It involves polymerization of fatty acids
(C) It is caused by the reaction of unsaturated fatty acids with oxygen
(D) It is caused by oxidative enzymes

Q.3 The food borne disease, Q fever is caused by the organism
(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Coxiella burnetti
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Staphylococcus aureus

Q.4 The primary bacterial spoilage of poultry meat at low temperature, with characteristic sliminess at
outer surface, is caused by
(A) Pseudomonas spp. (B) Aspergillus spp.
(C) Bacillus spp. (D) Candida spp.

Q.5 The weight gain (in gram) per gram protein consumed is called
(A) Net Protein Ratio (NPR) (B) Biological Value (BV)
(C) Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) (D) Chemical Score (CS)

Q.6 Which of the following carbohydrates is NOT classified as dietary fibre?
(A) Agar (B) Pectin
(C) Sodium alginate (D) Tapioca starch

Q.7 In the extruder barrel, the compression is achieved by back pressure created by the die and by
(A) increasing pitch and decreasing diameter of the screw
(B) using the tapered barrel with constant pitch
(C) increase in the clearance between barrel surface and screw
(D) opening of the die

Q.8 The brown colour of bread crust during baking is due to Maillard reaction between
(A) aldehyde groups of sugars and amino groups of proteins
(B) aldehyde groups of sugars and vitamins
(C) aldehyde groups of sugars and salt
(D) starch and yeast

Q.9 Blanching influences vegetable tissues in terms of
(A) enzymes production
(B) alteration of cytoplasmic membrane
(C) stabilization of cytoplasmic proteins
(D) stabilization of nuclear proteins


GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.10 When garlic is cut or processed, the crushed garlic odour is due to the formation of
(A) diacetyl (B) diallyl disulfide
(C) ethyl butyrate (D) benzaldehyde

Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Match the toxicants of plant foods in Group I with their main plant source given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Gossypol 1) Khesari Dahl (Lathyrus sativus)
Q) Vicine 2) Cotton seeds
R) Glucosinolates 3) Fava beans
S) BOAA (beta-N- Oxalyl Amino L-Alanine) 4) Rapeseeds
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Q.12 Match the products in Group I with the enzymes used for their preparation given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Aspartame 1) Lipase
Q) Cocoa butter substitute 2) Glucose isomerase
R) High fructose corn syrup 3) Thermolysin
S) Lactose free milk 4) Invertase
5) Beta galactosidase
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5

Q.13 Match the food items in Group I with the type of colloidal dispersion given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Mayonnaise 1) Sol
Q) Tomato ketchup 2) Emulsion
R) Cake 3) Gel
S) Curd 4) Solid foam
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Q.14 [a] Assertion: In the presence of sucrose, the temperature and time for gelatinization of starch
increases.
[r] Reason: Sucrose, due to its hygroscopic nature, competes with starch for water needed for
gelatinization.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Q.15 Thermal death of viable spores of Bacillus subtilis in a food sample follows a first order kinetics
with a specific death rate constant of 0.23 min
-1
at 100C. The time (in minutes) required to kill
99% of spores in the food sample at 100C will be
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 60

Q.16 How much skim milk (in kg) containing 0.1% fat should be added to 500 kg of cream containing
50% fat to produce standardized cream containing 36% fat?
(A) 140 (B) 165 (C) 195 (D) 210

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.17 Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT in relation to muscle proteins ?
(A) Actin and myosin interact to form actomyosin which is responsible for muscle contraction
(B) Collagen contributes to the toughness of muscles due to its abundant presence
(C) Elastin, a constituent of ligaments, is tougher than collagen
(D) Actomyosin is not the main state of actin and myosin in post-mortem muscles

Q.18 A cold storage plant is used for storing 50 tonnes of apples in perforated plastic crates. During the
storage, apples are cooled down from 28C to storage temperature of 2C. (Specific heat of the
apple = 0.874 kCal kg
-1
C
-1
). If the required cooling is attained in 16 hours, the refrigeration plant
capacity (in Tons) is
(A) 19 (B) 24 (C) 29 (D) 32


Q.19 An actively growing culture of Acetobacter aceti is added to the vigorously aerated fermented fruit
juice medium containing 10 g l
-1
ethanol to produce vinegar. After some time, the ethanol
concentration in the medium is 0.8 g l
-1
and acetic acid produced is 8.4 g l
-1
.

What is the conversion
efficiency of the process with respect to theoretical yield?
(A) 30 (B) 50 (C) 70 (D) 90

Q.20 An enzyme catalyzed reaction (following Michaelis-Menten kinetics) exhibits maximum reaction
velocity (V
m
)

of 75 nmol l
-1
min
-1
.

The enzyme at a substrate concentration of 1.0x10
-4
M shows the
initial reaction velocity of 60 nmol l
-1
min
-1
. The K
m
value of the enzyme in molar concentration
(M) is
(A) 2.5 x 10
-5
(B) 5.0 x 10
-5

(C) 2.5 x 10
-4
(D) 5.0 x 10
-4




END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2013 Life Sciences - XL
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2013 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 B 5 B 9 B
2 C 6 C 10 C
3 C 7 C
4 D 8 C
Life Sciences XL (Section H)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 B 6 A 11 19.8 to 20.2
2 B 7 D 12 A
3 C 8 C 13 D
4 8 9 C 14 D
5 1 10 3 15 A
Life Sciences XL (Section I)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 8 C 15 B
2 D 9 B 16 B
3 B 10 D 17 C
4 D 11 C 18 C
5 A 12 B 19 C
6 A 13 C 20 C
7 B 14 D
Life Sciences XL (Section J)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 B 8 C 15 C
2 B 9 D 16 D
3 B 10 D 17 D
4 A 11 D 18 C
5 C 12 B 19 A
6 D 13 A 20 B
7 D 14 C
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
__________________________________________________________
Life Sciences XL (Section K)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 8 C 15 B
2 C 9 A 16 Marks to All
3 A 10 D 17 B
4 C 11 C 18 B
5 C 12 D 19 A
6 A 13 B 20 D
7 C 14 A
Life Sciences XL (Section L)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 8 D 15 A
2 Marks to All 9 A 16 D
3 C 10 B 17 B
4 C 11 A 18 B
5 A 12 D 19 A
6 A 13 D 20 A
7 B 14 Marks to All
Life Sciences XL (Section M)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 8 A 15 B
2 Marks to All 9 B 16 C
3 B 10 B 17 D
4 A 11 A 18 B
5 C 12 B 19 C
6 D 13 Marks to All 20 A
7 B 14 A
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
_________________________________________________________
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.

3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.

4. This Question Booklet contains 28 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

7. This Question Booklet contains Seven sections: GA (General Aptitude), H (Chemistry),
I (Biochemistry), J (Botany), K (Microbiology), L (Zoology) and M (Food Technology).

8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section H (Chemistry) are compulsory. Attempt any two
optional sections I through M. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have chosen
by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write the codes
of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble section codes
corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding sections will
NOT be evaluated.

9. Questions Q.1 Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.1 Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

10. There are 15 questions carrying 25 marks in Section H (Chemistry), which is compulsory. Questions
Q.1Q.5 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.6Q.15 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions
include one pair of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to the
second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair.
If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the
second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

11. Each of the other sections (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions carrying 30 marks. Questions
Q.1Q.10 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.11Q.20 carry 2 marks each.

12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.

13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.


Name


Registration Number XL




GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2012 Solved Paper
Life Sciences - XL
General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)
Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.
Q.1 If (1.001)
1259
= 3.52 and (1.001)
2062
= 7.85, then (1.001)
3321
=
(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.2 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?

I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow

Q.3 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness

Q.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:

Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance

Q.5 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken

Q. 6 - Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.7 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16

Q.8 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

Category Amount (Rs.)
Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is
(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%

Q.9 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.10 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10


Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
H : CHEMISTRY (Compulsory)

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Among the following, the most reactive diene in the Diels-Alder reaction is
(A)





(B)



(C)




(D)




Q.2 The molecule that does NOT absorb the microwave radiation is
(A) CO
2
(B) H
2
O

(C) CO (D) NO


Q.3 The hybridization of atomic orbitals of sulphur in SF
4
is
(A) dsp
2
(B) sp
3
d
2

(C) sp
3
d (D) sp
3


Q.4 The ionic size of Na
+
, F
-
, Mg
2+
and Al
3+
varies as
(A) Al
3+

> Mg
2+
> Na
+

> F
-

(B) F
-

> Na
+

> Mg
2+
> Al
3+

(C) Al
3+

> Mg
2+
> F
-
> Na
+


(D) Na
+

> F
-
> Mg
2+

> Al
3+


Q.5 The non-aromatic compound/ion is
(A)


(B)




(C)




(D)



Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q. 6 - Q. 15 carry two marks each.
Q.6 As predicted by MO theory, the bond order and magnetic nature of NO
+
are
(A) three and paramagnetic (B) two and diamagnetic
(C) two and paramagnetic (D) three and diamagnetic


Q.7 The value of ionic product of water changes with temperature. It is 1 10
14
at 25
o
C and 1 10
13

at 60 C. The CORRECT statement with respect to AH and AS is
(A) AH is negative and AS is negative (B) AH is positive and AS is zero
(C) AH is positive and AS is negative (D) AH is negative and AS is positive


Q.8 10 micrograms of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase (molecular weight = 30,000 g/mole) removes
300 milligrams of carbon dioxide per minute from the cells. The turnover number of the enzyme is
(A) 20 min
1
(B) 2 10
7
min
1

(C) 2 10
10
min
1
(D) 7.2 10
10
min
1



Q.9 The iodide which reacts most slowly with cyanide ion as a nucleophile in a S
N
2
reaction is
(A)

CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
I


(B)




(C)


(D)
(CH
3
)
2
CH-I




Q.10 The value of K
a
of acetic acid is 1.7 10
5
mol/dm
3
. The pH of a buffer solution prepared by
mixing 100 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid with a solution of 100 ml of 0.2 M sodium acetate is
(A) 4.1 (B) 4.5
(C) 5.1 (D) 5.5


Q.11 The value of standard half cell potential of Cu
+2
, Cu couple (E
0
Cu(+2), Cu
) is 0.34 V. A wire of pure
copper is immersed into a solution of copper nitrate. If the measured cell potential against standard
hydrogen electrode at 298 K is 0.24 V, the molar concentration of copper nitrate is
{Assume activity of Cu
+2
= [Cu
+2
]}.
(A) 4.1 10
4
M (B) 2.0 10
2
M
(C) 3.4 10
2
M (D) 1.8 10
1
M
CH
2
I
I
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 12 and 13:

[FeCl
4
]
2
(I), [CoCl
4
]
2
(II) and [NiCl
4
]
2
(III) are paramagnetic tetrahedral complexes.
Q.12 The order of values of crystal field stabilization energy is
(A) I > III > II (B) III > I > II
(C) I > II > III (D) II > III > I


Q.13 The order of values of spin only magnetic moment is
(A) III > II > I (B) III > I > II
(C) II > I > III (D) I > II > III


Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 14 and 15:

Bromine water is decolourised upon reaction with (E)-3-hexene.
Q.14 It is due to
(A) electrophilic addition of bromine to C=C (B) nucleophilic addition of bromine to C=C
(C) electrophilic allylic bromination (D) nucleophilic allylic bromination


Q.15 The structure of the product obtained is
(A)





(B)


(C)





(D)








END OF SECTION - H


Br
Br
Br
Br
Br
Br
Br
Br
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
I : BIOCHEMISTRY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Four proteins (P1, P2, P3 and P4) have 17, 10, 21 and 14 percent hydrophobic amino-acids
respectively. The order of precipitation of these proteins using ammonium sulphate will be
(A) P3, P1, P4, P2 (B) P3, P1, P2, P4 (C) P2, P4, P3, P1 (D) P2, P4, P1, P3

Q.2 Which one of the following pairs of amino-acids in the protein has high propensity to take up the
-helix conformation?
(A) Gly-Asp (B) Pro-His (C) Gly-Pro (D) Ala-Arg

Q.3 Which one of the following closely defines Molten Globule state of a protein?
(A) State with high degree of secondary structure and loss of tertiary structure
(B) State with complete loss of secondary structure
(C) Completely unfolded state
(D) Loss of quaternary structure

Q.4 Which one of the following amino-acids has highest fluorescence quantum yield (u) in aqueous
solution?
(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan (C) Phenylalanine (D) Histidine

Q.5 Which one of the following compounds does NOT block electron transport?
(A) Cyanide (B) Rotenone (C) Oligomycin (D) Antimycin A

Q.6 The pair of amino-acids which does NOT undergo post-translational modification is
(A) Asn-His (B) Tyr-Ser (C) Asn-Ser (D) Ala-Gly

Q.7 Match the hormones in Group I with their metabolic precursor in Group II

Group I Group II

P. 17-| estradiol 1. Arachidonic acid
Q. Thromboxane A2 2. Tyrosine
R. Epinephrine 3. |-carotene
S. Retinoic acid 4. Cholesterol
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Q.8 Upon stimulation of a eukaryotic cell, the intracellular calcium (Ca
2+
) is released from
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Nucleus
(C) Peroxisome (D) Mitochondria

Q.9 Leguminous plants maintain a very low concentration of free oxygen in their root nodules because
(A) the nitrogen fixing bacteria living in the root nodules are anaerobic
(B) of binding of oxygen to leghemoglobin
(C) reductase enzyme of the nitrogenase complex helps in removal of O
2

(D) nitrogenase enzyme of the nitrogenase complex helps in removal of O
2

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.10 The membrane of mature B cells have
(A) both IgG and IgM (B) both IgG and IgD
(C) both IgM and IgE (D) both IgM and IgD

Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 An amino-acid has one proton donating group in the side chain (R). The pK
COOH
, pK
NH2
and pK
R

values for this amino-acid are 2.19, 9.67 and 4.25, respectively. Which one of the following
statements about this amino-acid is CORRECT?
(A) Majority of the molecules will have a net charge of -1 at pH of 7.0
(B) Majority of the molecules will have a net charge of 0 at pH of 4.25
(C) All the molecules will have a deprotonated R group at pH of 3.22
(D) During titration with a strong base, deprotonation will start with the R group

Q.12 Which one of the following bacterial toxins does NOT have ADP-ribosyl transferase activity?
(A) Pertussis toxin (B) Diphtheria toxin
(C) Pseudomonas Exotoxin A (D) S. aureus -toxin

Q.13 The CORRECT pair of amino-acid sequence and the corresponding target organelle is
(A) KDEL - Golgi (B) K-K/R-X-K/R - Lysosome
(C) SKL - Peroxisome (D) NPVY - Endoplasmic reticulum

Q.14 |-oxidation of a 16 carbon fatty acid and a 17 carbon fatty acid leads to formation of
(A) (8 Acetyl CoA) and (8 Acetyl CoA + CO
2
), respectively
(B) (5 Propionyl CoA + 1 CO
2
) and (5 Propionyl CoA +1 Acetyl CoA), respectively
(C) (5 Propionyl CoA + 1 CO
2
) and (5 Propionyl CoA + 2 CO
2
), respectively
(D) (8 Acetyl CoA) and (7 Acetyl CoA + 1 Propionyl CoA), respectively

Q.15 Pick the correctly matched pairs.

P. Immature B cells Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
Q. Activated B cells Class switching
R. Pre B cells Surrogate light chain
S. Mature B cells Recombination activating gene 1
(A) P and R (B) Q and R
(C) Q and S (D) Q and P

Q.16 The actual free energy change of a given biochemical reaction carried out under standard
conditions with 1 M initial concentration of each of the reactants and products will be
(A) equal to zero
(B) equal to standard free energy change for the reaction
(C) less than the standard free energy change for the reaction
(D) greater than the standard free energy change for the reaction


Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.17 Match the enzymes in Group I with their corresponding activity in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Flippase 1. Catalyzes the movement of any phospholipid across the lipid bilayer
down its concentration gradient

Q. Floppase 2. Catalyzes the translocation of amino-phospholipids from the
extracellular to the inner leaflet

R. Lipase 3. Catalyzes the translocation of membrane phospholipids from cytosolic to
the extracellular leaflet

S. Scramblase 4. Degradation of phospholipids from the lipid bilayer including the inner
and outer leaflets
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Q.18 Match the antibiotics in Group I with their mechanism of action in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Tetracyclines 1. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by blocking peptidyl transfer

Q. Chloramphenicol 2. Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by blocking the A-site on the
ribosome
R. Cycloheximide 3. Misreads the genetic code and inhibits initiation of protein
synthesis
S. Streptomycin 4. Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking peptidyl transferase on
80S ribosome
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Q.19 The kinetics of an enzyme in the presence (+I) or absence (-I) of a reversible inhibitor is described
in the following graph.












If concentration of the reversible inhibitor in +I experiment was equal to 3.0 10
3
M, then the
dissociation constant for the enzyme-inhibitor complex is
(A) 1 10
3
M (B) 2 10
3
M (C) 3 10
3
M (D) 4 10
3
M
-4 -3 -2 -1 1 2 3 4
+I
-I
) M 10 (
[S]
1
1 3


0
V
1

(
M

1

m
i
n
)

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

Q.20 The figure below is a schematic of a linear double stranded DNA containing the indicated
restriction sites. The DNA was completely digested with PvuII and EcoRI. The products were
purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture containing dNTP mix, -
32
P
dATP, and Klenow fragment of E. coli DNA polymerase I. The Klenow reaction products were
analyzed by gel electrophoresis and autoradiography. Which of the following products depicts the
expected result?












(A)




(B)



(C)



(D)

















END OF SECTION - I

Pvull EcoRI
2 kb 3 kb 1 kb
EcoRI
Pvull
CAGCTG
GTCGAC
GAATTC
CTTAAG
5 kb
4 kb
3 kb
2 kb
1 kb

5 kb
4 kb
3 kb
2 kb
1 kb

5 kb
4 kb
3 kb
2 kb
1 kb

5 kb
4 kb
3 kb
2 kb
1 kb

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
J : BOTANY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The swollen base of a petiole is known as
(A) Ligule (B) Hastule (C) Pulvinus (D) Stipule

Q.2 An estimate of phylogenetic relationships among the taxa is commonly represented in the form of a
(A) Cladogram (B) Idiogram (C) Phenogram (D) Dendrogram

Q.3 Parenchyma cells associated with sieve tube members are called
(A) Albuminous cells (B) Companion cells (C) Bulliform cells (D) Subsidiary cells

Q.4 Cytoplasmic male sterility via the chloroplast genome can be induced by the expression of Pha A
gene encoding
(A) |-Ketothiolase
(B) Acetoacetyl CoA carboxylase
(C) Acetoacetyl CoA reductase
(D) PHB synthase

Q.5 The number of nucleosomes present in a 30 nm solenoid structure of a chromatin is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

Q.6 Which one of the following performs normal C
3
photosynthesis when water is available, but
switches to crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM) during salt or drought stress?
(A) Mesembryanthemum crystallinum (B) Cynodon dactylon
(C) Eleucine coracana (D) Hordeum vulgare

Q.7 Which one of the following is a free-living photosynthetic nitrogen fixer?
(A) Frankia (B) Clostridium (C) Rhodospirillum (D) Rhizobium

Q.8 Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases act by
(A) destroying ozone in the stratosphere
(B) trapping heat in the earths atmosphere
(C) allowing more visible light to reach the earths surface
(D) reducing the amount of radiant energy which reaches the surface of the earth

Q.9 Which of the following best represents the flow of energy through an ecosystem?
(A) Producers Primary consumers Secondary consumers
(B) Sun Producers Secondary consumers Primary consumers
(C) Sun Producers Primary consumers Secondary consumers
(D) Secondary consumers Primary consumers Producers Sun

Q.10 Which one of the following drugs is obtained from the capsule of Papaver somniferum?
(A) Papain (B) Codeine (C) Digoxin (D) Bromelain

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Which of the following statements are TRUE for plant growth regulators?

P. The release of cellulase and polygalacturonase into the cell wall is promoted by abscissic acid
Q. The early biosynthetic steps of gibberellic acid, up to the formation of ent-kaurene take place
in the plastid
R. The naturally occurring zeatin belongs to the aromatic group of cytokinins
S. Induction of protease inhibitors as a result of wounding and pathogen attack is activated by
jasmonic acid
(A) P, R (B) Q, S (C) Q, R (D) P, Q

Q.12 Which of the following statements are TRUE for the transposable elements?

P. Barbara McClintock discovered the autonomous and non-autonomous transposable elements in
Maize
Q. Variations in flower pigmentation in Antirhinum are due to the presence of transposable
elements Ac and Ds
R. The Ac transposable element is 4563 bp long and has an 11 bp inverted repeats
S. Ds produces the transposase and mobilize the Ac elements
(A) Q, S (B) P, Q (C) P, R (D) R, S

Q.13 Match the recombinant proteins produced through molecular farming with their applications.

Recombinant proteins Applications

P. Hirudine 1. HIV therapy
Q. Trichosanthin 2. Anticoagulant
R. Somatotrophin 3. Growth hormone
S. |-Interferon 4. Hypertension
5. Cystic fibrosis
6. Treatment for hepatitis-B
(A)

P-2
Q-3
R-4
S-1
(B)

P-4
Q-1
R-5
S-2
(C)

P-1
Q-5
R-3
S-2
(D)

P-2
Q-1
R-3
S-6

Q.14 Which of the following statements are CORRECT for somatic cell hybridization?

P. For fusion of protoplast, dimethylsulfoxide (DMSO) is used as a fusogen
Q. The enzyme Cellulase Onozuka used for protoplast isolation is sourced from Trichoderma
viride
R. The first report of somatic hybrid plants resulted from the fusion of protoplasts of Nicotiana
glauca and N. tabacum
S. Viability of isolated protoplasts can be determined by Evans blue staining
(A) P, Q (B) Q, S (C) R, S (D) Q, R

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.15 Which of the following statements are TRUE on transgene approach?

P. T-DNA integration occurs mainly through non-homologous recombination
Q. The Gateway cloning depends on recombination technology as opposed to standard uses of
restriction enzymes and DNA ligase
R. The localization of |-glucuronidase (GUS) activity as a result of expression of GUS reporter
gene can be visualized in a histochemical assay using the X-gal
S. The green fluorescent protein gene (GFP) is isolated from the bacterium Photinus pyralis
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) P, S (D) R, S

Q.16 Identify the free radicals (marked as ?) in sequence from the inter-conversion of reactive oxygen
species as shown below.
O
2
? H
2
O
2
? H
2
O

P.

2
O
-

Q.

OH



R.

2
HO


S.
1
2
O
(A) P, Q (B) R, Q (C) P, R (D) Q, S

Q.17 With respect to adhesion and cohesion of stamens, identify the INCORRECT statements.

P. Adnation of stamens to petals is described as epiphyllous stamens
Q. In Calotropis, stamens and carpels are united to form gynostegium
R. In syngenesious stamens, filaments are united to form a bundle while the anthers are free
S. Synandrous stamens found in Cucurbita represent the union of filaments as well as anthers
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D) Q, R

Q.18 Identify the CORRECT statements in plant secondary metabolism.

P. Tropane alkaloids in Atropa belladonna are synthesized from tyrosine
Q. Antioxidative food ingredient rosmarinic acid is obtained from cell suspension cultures of
Coleus blumei
R. Thiophenes are produced from hairy root cultures of Tagetes patula
S. Cyanidin, the principal anthocyanin responsible for red color in Rosa hybrida is
produced from cinnamaldehyde
(A) P, S (B) R, S (C) P, Q (D) Q, R

Q.19 Which of the following statements are TRUE for respiration?

P. The conversion of one molecule of pyruvate to three molecules of CO
2
generates four
molecules of NADH
Q. Fructose 6-phospate is the principal substrate for glycolysis
R. The oxidation of glucose 6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconate is the first step in the oxidative
pentose phosphate pathway
S. The mitochondrial alternative oxidase provides an alternative pathway for transfer of electrons
from ubiquinone to oxygen utilizing proton pumping complex of the respiratory chain
(A) P, R (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D) Q, S
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
________________________________________________________________
Q.20 Match the name of the disease with the causal organism.

Disease Causal organism

P. Black rot of sugarcane 1. Cercospora personata
Q. Stem rot of jute 2. Macrophomina phaseolina
R. Tikka disease of groundnut 3. Ceratocystis adiposa
S. Crown gall of grapes 4. Synchytrium endobioticum
5. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
6. Colletotrichum corchorum

(A)

P-1
Q-3
R-6
S-5
(B)

P-2
Q-3
R-1
S-5
(C)

P-3
Q-2
R-1
S-5
(D)

P-2
Q-6
R-3
S-4



END OF SECTION - J


Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
K : MICROBIOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which ONE of the following components is NOT an electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration?
(A) Lactate (B) Carbonate (C) Nitrate (D) Sulphate

Q.2 Bergeys Manual of Systematic Bacteriology groups bacteria into species according to their
(A) nutritional requirement
(B) phylogenetic relationships
(C) pathogenic properties
(D) morphology

Q.3 An auxotrophic mutant arises spontaneously in a wild type E.coli culture growing in a rich medium.
Which ONE of the following techniques will ensure the isolation of the auxotrophic mutant?
(A) Replica plating (B) Streaking for single colonies
(C) Pour plating method (D) Direct microscopic observation

Q.4 Which ONE of the following mutants is used to carry out genetic analysis to determine the function
of an essential gene?
(A) Knock out mutant (B) Deletion mutant
(C) Insertion mutant (D) Temperature sensitive mutant

Q.5 An E.coli mutant constitutive for the lac operon was mated with a wild type strain. The merodiploid
thus obtained was inducible by lactose. This observation indicates that the original mutation is
(A) dominant (B) trans-dominant (C) recessive (D) cis-dominant

Q.6 A rich medium is inoculated with a bacterium that divides every 30 minutes. The number of
bacteria at the end of 50 hours is
(A) 2 10
10
(B) 2 10
20
(C) 1 10
50
(D) 1 2
100


Q.7 Which ONE of the following statements about E.coli is NOT true ?
(A) E.coli was the first disease- causing bacterium identified by Robert Koch
(B) E.coli is part of the normal microbiota of humans
(C) Certain E.coli strains can cause bloody diarrohea
(D) E.coli is beneficial to human

Q.8 Antibody coated pathogens are recognized by effector cells through
(A) CD4 receptor (B) F
C
receptor (C) CD8 receptor (D) IFN gamma receptor




Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.9 Match the disease in Group I with their corresponding organism in Group II

Group I Group II

P. African sleeping sickness I. Rubulavirus
Q. Rocky mountain spotted fever II. Trypanosoma brucei
R. Mumps III. Wuchereria bancrofti
S. Filariasis IV. Rickettsia rickettsii
V. Leishmania donovani
(A) P-III, Q-V, R-II, S- I
(B) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S- IV
(C) P-II, Q-IV, R-I, S- III
(D) P-I, Q-V, R-II, S- IV

Q.10 Select the technique most appropriate to demonstrate that lactose induces the synthesis of
|-galactosidase enzyme.
(A) Northern Blot
(B) Western Blot
(C) Quantitative PCR
(D) Southern Blot

Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Frederick Griffith used smooth (S) and rough (R) strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae in his
classical experiment that showed DNA might be the genetic element. Which ONE of the following
observations gave the clue for this discovery?
(A) R strain became S strain when mixed with heat killed S strain
(B) R strain remained R strain when mixed with heat killed S strain
(C) S strain became R strain when mixed with heat killed R strain
(D) R strain became S strain when mixed with live S strain

Q.12 Entry of phage lysogen to lytic phase is triggered by
(A) mutation in the genome
(B) loss of co-operativity in binding of repressor
(C) increase in the repressor concentration
(D) decrease in recA function

Q.13 Match the Phylum in Group I with their characteristic motility appendage listed in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Archaezoa I. Flagella
Q. Amoebozoa II. Fimbriae
R. Ciliophora III. Pseudopods
S. Apicomplexa IV. Cilia
V. Pili
(A) P-V, Q-II, R-IV, S-IV
(B) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(C) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(D) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-V
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.14 Ten bacteria were inoculated into a rich medium. If at the end of ten hours the total number of cells
is 10
4
, then the number of elapsed generations and the generation time respectively is
(A) 10, 120 minutes (B) 10, 60 minutes (C) 20, 30 minutes (D) 40, 15 minutes


Q.15 The first step in the replication of a virus with the reverse transcriptase deals with the synthesis of
(A) complementary strand of RNA
(B) double stranded RNA
(C) complementary strand of DNA
(D) double stranded DNA


Q.16 An E.coli mutant defective for an enzyme is unable to grow on acetate but grows on glycerol as the
sole carbon source. Which ONE of the following enzymes is likely to be defective in this mutant?
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (B) Glyceraldehyde 3-phospahte dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (D) Isocitrate lyase


Q.17 Which one of the following pairs of bacterial species fixes atmospheric Nitrogen?
(A) Clostridia and Rhizobia
(B) Clostridia and Lactobacillus
(C) Rhizobia and Enterococcus
(D) Actinomycetes and Mycoplasma

Q.18 Nalidixic acid inhibits gyrase activity. Resistance to this antibiotic arises mainly due to
(A) nonsense mutation in the gyrase gene (B) deletion mutation in the gyrase gene
(C) missense mutation in the gyrase gene (D) degradation of the gyrase gene product


Q.19 Transformation of normal cyanobacterial cells into heterocysts involves
(A) synthesis of nitrogenase and retention of photosystem I
(B) synthesis of nitrogenase and loss of photosystem I
(C) loss of nitrogenase but retention of photosystem I
(D) loss of both nitrogenase and photosystem I


Q.20 Methane belched (eructation) out by cattle arises from the carbon dioxide produced
(A) during normal respiration
(B) oxidation of food stuff occurring in mitochondria
(C) lactic acid fermentation occurring in muscles
(D) bacterial fermentation occurring in the gut


END OF SECTION - K
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
L : ZOOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.



Q.2 A swimmer is preparing to swim non-stop across the English channel (a distance of 34 kilometers).
Consumption of which of the following category of food/s should the swimmer increase to
accomplish this feat?
(A) Proteins (B) Fats
(C) Proteins and Carbohydrates (D) Carbohydrates



Q.4 Zygotic genes required for the formation of a group of adjacent segment in the developing
Drosophila embryo is called
(A) Maternal gene (B) Pair rule gene (C) Homeotic gene (D) Gap gene

Q.5 A typical receptor senses extracellular stimuli by virtue of its localization on plasma membrane.
The receptor to which of the following ligands is an exception to this rule?
(A) -amino butyric acid (B) Acetylcholine
(C) Estrogen (D) Luteinizing hormone

Q.6 The relationship between genes and enzymes was first suggested by the discovery of
(A) in-born errors of metabolism in human
(B) sexual phenotype in insects
(C) metabolic pathways in fungi
(D) gene regulation in bacteria

Q.7 The blind spot in the retina is blind because of which of the following reasons?
(A) It is the region where the optical nerve leaves the retina.
(B) The opsin is not expressed in this region.
(C) It lies in the shadow of pupil.
(D) It is the junction between rods and cones.

Q.8 Lamprey, a jawless fish, belongs to which one of the following Classes?
(A) Myxini (B) Cephalaspilomorphi
(C) Conodonta (D) Anaspida

Q.9 Chorionic gonadotropin plays an important role in the establishment and maintenance of pregnancy
and is synthesized in the placenta of
(A) Cattle (B) Pigs (C) Mice (D) Human
Q.1 Trees in the equatorial region of earth supply oxygen into the atmosphere that sustains species
living in distant polar regions. This relationship is called as
(A) mutualism (B) symbiosis
(C) commensalism (D) parasitism
Q.3 Some species of beetles and fishes can survive at sub freezing temperature. They accomplish this
by maintaining cellular integrity using one of the following mechanisms.
(A) Expressing anti-freeze proteins
(B) Accumulating fats
(C) Increasing accumulation of complex polyols
(D) Reducing the availability of total water in the body
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.10 Glucose and hexanoic acid, each having six carbon atoms can undergo complete biological
oxidation. In terms of net ATP generation, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) Glucose produces more ATP than hexanoic acid
(B) Only glucose can generate ATP
(C) Both glucose and hexanoic acid produce same amount of ATP
(D) Hexanoic acid produces more ATP than glucose

Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.


Q.13 If all the nucleotides have equal probability of occurrence in a 4 Mbp long DNA sequence, then
how many times will the site of EcoRI, restriction endonuclease occur?
(A) 976 (B) 4
6
(C) 6
4
(D) 1000

Q.14 Seasonally breeding animals and birds measure the day length, i.e. photoperiod and use these
measurements as predictive information to prepare themselves for breeding. Besides melatonin,
which of the following hormones is involved in this biological process?
(A) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (B) Growth hormone
(C) Thyroxine (D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Q.15 Red-Green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. In a population which is in the Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium, the incidence of occurrence of this in males is 1:1000. What will be the
expected incidence of affected homozygous females?
(A) 1 in 1002000 (B) 1 in 2000000 (C) 1 in 1001000 (D) 1 in 1000000

Q.16 Golgi apparatus is also termed as cellular post office, since it packages and transports cellular
proteins across various organelles and outside the cell. In general, the Golgi is perinuclear in
location and is closely associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. A chemical compound,
Monensin inhibits all trafficking from Golgi. If Golgi is visualized by immunofluorescence
microscopy after treatment with this compound, the Golgi will be
(A) absent (B) normal (C) swollen (D) fragmented

Q.11 Match the following evolutionary biologists with their respective theory
I) August Weisman i) Neutral theory of molecular evolution
II) Jean-Baptiste Lamark ii) Handicap principle
III) Amotz Zahavi iii) Germ plasm theory
IV) Motoo Kimura iv) Inheritance of acquired characteristics
(A) I-ii, II-iv, III-i, IV-iii (B) I-iii, II-iv, III-ii, IV-i
(C) I-iii, II-iv, III-i, IV-ii (D) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
Q.12 A female cat with a mutant phenotype was bred with a wild-type male cat. All progeny (4 males
and 4 females) show the mutant phenotype. On the other hand, all progeny (4 males and 4 females)
from the reciprocal cross between a mutant male and a wild-type female show the wild-type
phenotype. Which of the following explain the inheritance pattern of the mutation?
(A) Recessive (B) Linked inheritance
(C) Mitochondrial inheritance (D) Autosomal inheritance
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.17 In an individual, three distinct proteins bind oxygen depending on the location and development
stage. While hemoglobin is the major oxygen binding protein in adults, myoglobin is present in
skeletal muscles and fetal hemoglobin is present in fetal stage only. The following graph shows the
oxygen binding capacity of these proteins. The A, B and C plots represent oxygen binding capacity
of















(A) hemoglobin, fetal hemoglobin and myoglobin, respectively
(B) fetal hemoglobin, hemoglobin and myoglobin, respectively
(C) hemoglobin, myoglobin and fetal hemoglobin, respectively
(D) myoglobin, fetal hemoglobin and hemoglobin, respectively

Q.18 A patient comes with symptoms of autonomic hemolysis. The diagnostic tests reveal that he has
auto-antibodies to red blood cells (RBCs). Which one of the following mechanisms is the cause of
this condition?
(A) Neutrophils release granzymes which lyse RBCs
(B) Complement is activated and membrane attack complex lyse RBCs
(C) Cytotoxic T-cells lyse RBCs
(D) Interleukin-2 binds to the receptor on RBCs

Q.19 The nerve impulse at the neuromuscular junction results in discharge of acetylcholine (Ach) from
its vesicles into the synaptic cleft. Ach gets degraded by acetylcholine esterase and is present in
which one of the following locations?
(A) Post synaptic membrane (B) Both pre and post synaptic clefts
(C) Presynaptic membrane (D) Synaptic cleft

Q.20 Increasing estradiol (E2) hormone from ovarian follicles prior to ovulation has been hypothesized
to play a critical role for induction of pheromones. These pheromones render females sexually
receptive to males to facilitate mating. An investigator performs experiments in sheep in which
females are gonadectomized, then treated with E2 or vehicle alone and allowed to breed. Which
one of the findings listed below will validate the hypothesis that pheromones are induced by E2?
(A) Sexual receptivity is regained only in vehicle treated females.
(B) Sexual receptivity is regained only in E2 treated females
(C) Sexual receptivity was regained irrespective of E2 treatment
(D) Sexual receptivity is not regained by any treatment
END OF SECTION - L
10 20 30 40 50
0.5
1.0
S
a
t
u
r
a
t
i
o
n

O
2
pressure (pO
2
)
A
C
B
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
M : FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Q. 1 Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Among the following fatty acids, which group is known as essential fatty acids?
(A) 9,11-Octadecadienoic and 9,11,13-Octadecatrienoic
(B) 9,12-Octadecadienoic and 9,12,15-Octadecatrienoic
(C) 9-Octadecenoic and 9,11-Octadecadienoic
(D) 9,11-Octadecadienoic and 9-Eicosenoic

Q.2 Cellulose, the structural polysaccharide of plant, is a polymer of
(A) |-D-Glucose
(B) o-D-Glucose
(C) |-D-Galactose
(D) o-D-Galcturonic acid

Q.3 The important role of carotenoids in the human diet is their ability to serve as precursors of
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin K

Q.4 Which one of the following microorganisms is used in the preparation of bread?
(A) Candida utilis (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(C) Saccharomyces cevarum (D) Aspergilus niger

Q.5 Which one of the microorganisms given below is NOT RESPONSIBLE for ropy or stringy
fermentation of milk?
(A) Alcaligenes viscolactis
(B) Enterobacter aerogenes
(C) Streptococcus cremoris
(D) Streptococcus lactis

Q.6 A mild heat treatment of foods that destroys pathogens and extends its shelf life is called
(A) Baking (B) Blanching
(C) Sterilization (D) Pasteurization

Q.7 The most common and least expensive plastic film used for packaging of solid food materials is
(A) Polyethylene (B) Polystyrene
(C) Polypropylene (D) Polyvinylchloride

Q.8 Reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure upon cooling of cooked starch
solution is termed as
(A) Synersis (B) Gelatinization
(C) Retrogradation (D) Denaturation

Q.9 Thermal destruction of microorganisms follows a kinetics of
(A) Zero order (B) First order (C) Second order (D) Fractional order

Q.10 100 kg tomato juice containing 5% Total Solids (w/w) is concentrated to 25% Total Solids (w/w).
The total amount of water removed from tomato juice in kg is
(A) 65 (B) 70 (C) 75 (D) 80
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q. 11 - Q. 20 carry two marks each.
Q.11 Which one of the following is NOT A CORRECT statement?
(A) Meatiness is the taste produced by compounds such as glutamate in products like cheese, soy
sauce.
(B) Astringency is a dry mouth feel in the oral cavity that is most associated with phenolic
compounds.
(C) Saltiness is a taste that is mainly produced by chloride ions.
(D) Sourness is related to acidity and is sensed by hydrogen ion channels in the human tongue.

Q.12 The following plot represents the Lineweaver-Burk equation of an enzymatic reaction both in the
presence and the absence of inhibitor. Here, V is the velocity of reaction and S is the substrate
concentration.

The nature of inhibition shown in the plot is
(A) Non-competitive
(B) Anti-competitive
(C) Competitive
(D) Mixed type

Q.13 Make the correct match of the food constituents in Group I with their nature given in Group II.

Group I Group II
P) Ascorbic Acid 1) Sugar
Q) Phenyl alanine 2) Chelate
R) Dextrose 3) Amino Acid
S) Haemoglobin 4) Antioxidant

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

Q.14 Make the correct match of the fermented food products in Group I with the microorganisms in
Group II.

Group I Group II
P) Yoghurt 1) Lactobacillus acidophilus and Lactobacillus delbrueckii
Q) Cheese 2) Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Lactobacillus plantarum
R) Sauerkraut 3) Lactobacillus delbrueckii and Streptococcus thermophillus
S) Kefir 4) Lactobacillus casei and Streptococcus thermophillus

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
No inhibition
Inhibition
S
1

V

1

Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Q.15 Match the following between organelle or cellular components of a bacterium cell in Group I with
the constituents and functionalities in Group II.

Group I Group II





(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Q.16 Thermal death time (TDT) of Clostridium botulinum at 121C is 2.78 min with a z-value of 10C.
The TDT of the microorganism at 116C (in min) is
(A) 5.270 (B) 8.791 (C) 1.390 (D) 0.712

Q.17 Make the correct match between specific food processing operations in Group I with their
mechanism of action in Group II.

Group I Group II
P) Ball Mill 1) Compression and shear
Q) Roller Mill 2) Pressure bursting
R) Flash Peeling 3) Friction and shear
S) Abrasive Peeling 4) Impact and shear

(A) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.18 650 g of a wet food containing 405 g water is dried in a tray dryer to a final moisture content of
6.8 % (dry basis). It is observed that the drying process occurs under constant rate period and it
takes 8 h. The rate of drying (in kg/h) is
(A) 128.79 (B) 126.35 (C) 77.81 (D) 0.0485

Q.19 Air at 1 atmospheric pressure (101.325 kPa) and 30C with absolute humidity of 0.0218 kg/kg of
dry air is flowing in a drying chamber. The saturated vapor pressure of water (
0
w
p , in kPa) is related
to temperature (T, in C) as given below
0
5217.635
ln 18.6556
273
w
p
T
=
+

The relative humidity of air (in percentage) is

(A) 62.82 (B) 68.22 (C) 86.62 (D) 81.80

Q.20 The total solids content in a milk sample is 18 %. It is desired to produce 1000 kg of sweetened
condensed milk (SCM) having 40 % sugar, 25 % moisture and rest milk solids. What is the Sugar
Ratio (in percentage) in the SCM in terms of sugar and water content in the final product?

(A) 48.19 (B) 61.54 (C) 54.16 (D) 56.14

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
P) Cytoplasmic membrane
Q) Flagellum
R) Cell wall
S) Ribosome
1) Protein synthesis
2) Peptidoglycan
3) Phospholipid bilayer
4) Motility of cell
Life Sciences - XL GATE 2012
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
GATE 2012 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 5 A 9 A
2 B 6 A 10 A
3 B 7 C
4 D 8 D
Life Sciences XL (Section H)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 D 6 D 11 A
2 A 7 Marks to All 12 Marks to All
3 C 8 B 13 D
4 B 9 C 14 A
5 A 10 C 15 C
Life Sciences XL (Section I)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 8 A 15 B
2 D 9 B 16 B
3 A 10 D 17 A
4 B 11 A 18 B
5 C 12 D 19 C
6 D 13 C 20 A
7 C 14 D
Life Sciences XL (Section J)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 B 15 A
2 A 9 C 16 A
3 B 10 B 17 B
4 A 11 B 18 D
5 C 12 C 19 A
6 A 13 D 20 C
7 C 14 Marks to All
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
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Life Sciences XL (Section K)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 8 B 15 C
2 B 9 C 16 D
3 A 10 B 17 A
4 D 11 A 18 C
5 C 12 B 19 A
6 D 13 C 20 D
7 A 14 B
Life Sciences XL (Section L)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 C 8 B 15 D
2 B 9 D 16 C
3 A 10 D 17 D
4 D 11 B 18 B
5 C 12 C 19 A
6 A 13 A 20 B
7 A 14 C
Life Sciences XL (Section M)
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 B 8 C 15 C
2 A 9 B 16 B
3 C 10 D 17 B
4 B 11 C 18 D
5 D 12 C 19 D
6 D 13 A 20 B
7 A 14 C
GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
__________________________________________________________