MANYACAT

Cat Sample Paper

Please read the INSTRUCTIONS carefully before attempting the test

1. This test is based on pattern of previous years CAT papers.

2. There are three sections in all.

3. The total time allotted is 2 hours exactly. Please note your start time and end time on

the answer sheet. Do not take more than 2 hours, or you will get a wrong assessment.

4. Please fill all the details, as asked on top of the answers sheet.

5. Please try to maximize your attempt overall, but you need to do well in all sections.

6. There is 1 mark for every right answer and 0.25 negative for every wrong one.

7. Please do all scratch work on question paper only, no extra sheets to be used. Put all

your answers on the answer sheet.

8. Relax. You are competing against yourself.

CAT Sample Paper 1

MANYACAT
 Section I

1. If G (x) = No. of digits in x, x being a whole number, then which of the following is true?
(Given 2 = 100.3010, 6 = 100.7781)
1. G (279) < G (349) 2. G (279) = G (349) 3. G (279) ≥ G (349) 4. G (279) > G (466)

1
2. In the square ABCD, if CE = AC, Then what is measure of ∠AEB?
3
A B

D C
1. 60° 2. 30° 3. 90° 4. None of these

Directions for (Q. 3 – 4): These questions are based on the following:
A
When radioactive element X emits alpha (α) particles, the atomic number of the emitting element (z)
Z
decreases by 2 and atomic mass number (A) decrease by 4. When a β particle is emitted the atomic mass
number is not changed but atomic number increased by 1.

⎛ 231 ⎞ ⎛ 211 ⎞
3. When the element, Thorium ⎜⎜ Th ⎟⎟ converts by radioactive emission to Polonium ⎜⎜ Po ⎟⎟ ,
⎝ 90 ⎠ ⎝ 84 ⎠
how many α and β particles are emitted in the process?
1. 3, 2 2. 5, 4 3. 5, 6 4. 7, 5

⎛ 235 ⎞
4. Uranium ⎜⎜ U ⎟⎟ is converted into lead (Pb) by the emission of seven alpha and four beta
⎝ 92 ⎠
particles. Find the atomic mass number and atomic number of lead.
1. 211, 84 2. 218, 76 3. 207, 82 4. 226, 88

5. John and David went motoring through the desert of Sahara. On the first day John spent half the
water he had. Similarly David also spent half the water he had. On the second day, John spent
1/3 of water that was left with him. On the third day, John and David discovered that they might
have lost the way and might be stranded in the desert for several days. As such, on third day
John spent only ¼of the remaining water, on fourth day, only 1/5 of what remained and so on.
David on the other hand spent each day ½of water remained at the end of previous day.
If their initial supplies of water were equal and they spent ten days in the desert, at the end water
left with John was how many times of what was left with David?
1024 3072 11244
1. 2. 3. 4. None of these
11 98 720

CAT Sample Paper 2

MANYACAT
6. Chinese Scientists of 2090 A.D, to keep up with the fame of building the Great Wall of China,
worked on a project to make a rope long enough to go around the moon (a perfect sphere.)
When the astronauts finally laid the rope along the moon’s equator, they realized that it was a
meter too long. The two ends of the rope were, however, joined together, since one meter extra
was considered insignificant in comparison to the rest of the length of the rope.
If the rope was stiff enough to maintain a uniform distance from the surface all round the
equator, how far would it be from the moon’s surface?
1. Approx 10 mm 2. Approx 15 cm
3. Approx 10 m 4. Data insufficient

7. Sarees were being sold in a wholesale store under two categories “Premium” and “Discount”.
Sarees in the Premium category ranged from Rs.3100 to Rs.5000, while the prices in the Discount
category ranged from Rs.800 to Rs.3000. No two different designs were sold for the same price
and the price for each design, in rupees, was a multiple of 100. The Managing Director of a
company wanted to purchase the maximum number of sarees for lady employees of the
company for the total amount of Rs.56, 000, making sure that he purchased from each category.
Find the number of sarees purchased from the Premium category, if all the sarees purchased
were of different designs.
1. 8 2. 12 3. 4 4. None of these

Directions for Q. 8 – 9: These are based on the functions defined below

Q (x, y) = Quotient when x is divided by y
R (x, y) = Remainder when x is divided by y
(x − 1)
SQ (x, y) =
(y − 1)

8. SQ (50, 26) =?
R (5, 10)
1. 2.
1
{R(2, 3) + SQ(17, 26)}
2 2
8
3. R (5, 10) 4. R (5, 10) + Q (5, 10)
3

9. SQ (x, y) is same as?

1. R(x, y) − 1 2. y + Q (x, y) + R (x, y)
R(x, 1) − 1
3. 4. {(x – 1)/ (y – 1)}1/2
R(y, 1) − 1

10. A cistern can be filled by two pipes in 8 min and 12 min respectively. Both pipes are opened
together for a certain time but, due to some defects, only 5/6th of full quantity of water flows
through the former and only 3/4th through the latter. The defects however, are suddenly rectified
and the cistern is filled in 2 min from that moment. How long was it before the defect was
rectified?
1. 1 min 2. 1.5 min 3. 2.5 min 4. 3.5 min

11. A piece of paper in the shape of a triangle with sides 10 cm, 24 cm and 26 cm is cut into two
pieces of equal area by a single straight cut. What is the (approximate) maximum possible sum of
the perimeters of the two pieces in cm?
1. 74 2. 86 3. 91 4. 109

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MANYACAT
12. In how many ways can 652 be expressed as a sum of squares of two natural numbers?
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5

13. Anil had borrowed a certain amount at a certain rate of simple interest. At present, the total
amount he owes is 150% of the principal he had borrowed. After one year the total amount will
increase by 13 1/3% compared to the present value. If he doesn't repay the amount, after how
many years will it be double the principal?
1. 3.75 2. 5 3. 3 4. 2.5

14. A certain tank in the shape of an inverted cone is being filled with water at a constant rate. It
takes 16 min to bring the water level to 40% of the total height. How much time, in minutes does
it take to fill the complete tank?
1. 250 2. 300 3. 330 4. 360

15. The diameter of a hollow cone is equal to the diameter of a spherical ball. If the ball is placed at
the base of the cone, what portion of the ball will be outside the cone?
1. 50 % 2. Less than 50% 3. More than 50% 4. 100%

16. Refer to diagram below in which are shown 3 circles each of radius 15 cm and centres at A, B and
C; further DE = 5 cm, FG = 6 cm, HI = 8 cm. What is the perimeter of the triangle ABC?

I H C
A
D G

E F
B

1. 93 cm 2. 75 cm 3. 87 cm 4. 71 cm

17. In a game of chess, A and B fight hard and after 64 moves only the two kings remain on Board. In
how many good ways can the two kings be placed on the board (you know, of course, that a king
can attack only the adjacent square and in a ‘good’ move they cannot attack each other)?
1. 3612 2. 576 3. 3458 4. 2576

18. The menu at the local café at Jhumritalaiya reads as under:

Item Price (Rs.)
Pakode & chai ac
Parathe bc
Sweet Dish, Pakode & Chai bd
Pakode, Chai & Parathe ca
Parathe, Sweet Dish, Pakode & Chai db
In the price list, each of the entry in the right hand column stands for a two digit number and
each of the different letter stands for a different digit. What is the price of the sweet dish?
1. Rs. 6 2. Rs. 11 3. Rs. 41 4. Rs. 22

19. The last digit of the square of a number is 6. What must be true about its second last digit?
1. It is an even number 2. It is an odd number

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 3. It is a prime number 4. It is any natural number

20.
a b c
If p = q = r and
p
=
q ⎛ 1 1⎞
, ⎜ + ⎟b = ?
q r ⎝a c⎠
1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. None of these

Directions for questions 21 and 22: These questions are based on the following data.
In the game of "Free Cells", three participants Bibo, Joe and Paes start playing with amounts in the ratio
3:4:6. They bet as follows: if Bibo wins a game, he gets an amount equal to what he has at that moment
from each of the other two. If Joe wins, he gets an amount equal to one-fourth of what he has at that
moment from each of the other two. If Paes wins, he gets an amount equal to one-fifth of what he has at
that moment from each of the other two. In a series of four games, the order of winners is Joe, Peas, Bibo
and Joe respectively. At the end of the fourth game, Paes loses Rs.20.

21. After the third game, what is the ratio of the amounts with Bibo and Paes?
1. 2:1 2. 1:3 3. 1:2 4. 3:1

22. Who among Bibo, Joe and Paes did not make a loss on his/their investment?
1. only Bibo 2. only Joe 3. Joe and Paes 4. Bibo and Joe

23. A boy walks a certain distance at a certain speed. If he had walked ½ kmph faster than his usual
speed then he would have taken one hour less than his usual time. If he had walked 1 kmph
slower than his usual speed, he would have taken three hours longer than his usual time. Find
the distance covered by the boy and his original rate of walking.
1. 36 km, 4km/hr 2. 28 km, 4 km/hr 3. 36 km, 5 km/hr 4. 22 km, 5 km/hr

24. The sum of the first three terms of a GP is 7 and sum of their squares is 21. The 4th, 5th and 6th terms
of this series are
1 1 1
(A) 8, 16, 32 (B) , , (C) 4, 2, 1
2 4 8
1. either A or C 2. only B 3. either A or B 4. only A

25. A man invests in 4% stock at 96. He then sells the stock and invests the same amount as before in
7% stock at 135. What is the percentage increase or decrease on the return?
1. 24 4/9% increase 2. 6% decrease 3. 6 5/7 % increase 4. 7% decrease

26. Find the sum of the numbers less than 391 and that are relatively prime to 391.
1. 54,740 2. 137, 632 3. 68, 816 4. 152,881

27. Two trains, a passenger train and a goods train, are running in the same direction on parallel
railway tracks. The passenger train takes three times as long to pass the goods train as when they
are going opposite directions.
If the trains run at uniform speeds with goods train running at a maximum speed of 25 km/h,
what is the speed of passenger train (p) in km/h?
1. p = 50 2. p ≤ 50 ( p > 0) 3.0 ≤ p ≤ 50 4. 25 ≤ p ≤ 50
28. If n is an integer, how many values of n will given an integral value of
(24n2 +11n + 8) /n?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 8 4. None of these
29. A young girl had an old family photograph in which 7 of her uncles and aunts were standing in a
line side by side. In the photograph from left to right were Mrs and Mr John, Mr and Mrs
William. Mrs and Mr Herbert and Mr. Ken. To while away her time, the young girl started
counting the family members from left to right to left to right etc.: 1- Mrs John, 2 - Mr John, 3 - Mr

CAT Sample Paper 5

MANYACAT
 William, 4 - Mrs William, 5 - Mrs Herbert, 6 - Mr Herbert, 7 - Ken. 8 - Mr Herbert. 9 - Mrs Herbert,
10 - Mrs William, 11 - Mr William, 12 - Mr John, 13 Mrs John, 14 - Mr. John and so on. The young
girl counted up to 997, the girl ended on the photograph of which person?
1. Mr John 2. Mrs John 3. Mr William 4.Mrs Wiliam

30. A group of soldiers was put on a job. On second day, the lieutenant realizing the urgency of the
work put in 6 more soldiers. Due to further pressure, work force had to be increased by 6 each
subsequent day and the job ultimately was completed in as many days as the number of soldiers
in the group at the start of the work. Had there been no addition in workforce, it would have
taken 3 times as many days for completing the job. How many soldiers in all worked in this job?
1.3 2.15 3. 21 4. 45

31. A grain merchant does not think much of ethical practice; his only aim is to earn as much profit
as possible. Which of the following would serve his purpose best?
I. Fixing selling price one-eighth above the cost price.
II. Mix stones (available for free) 12.5% by weight and fixing selling price at cost price
III. Use a 8.75 kg weight for 10 kg weight and selling at cost price
IV. Selling 15/16 only, by cheating, of the weight kept on balance and fixing the selling
price 6.25% above cost price.
1. I 2. I and II 3. IV 4. III

Directions for Qs.32 - 34: A motorboat race is held in Bogasha river in Kenya over 3 stretches. The
maximum speed allowed in the stretch P is 80 km/hr and the maximum speeds allowed in stretches Q
and R are 65 km/hr and 30km/hr respectively. The minimum speeds allowed over the 3 stretches are 50
km/hr, 40 km/hr and 15 km/hr respectively. Each of the stretches is 4 km in length and speed over a
stretch is assumed constant. Current record for the race is 12 min. 30 sec.

32. Abdul completes the first stretch at minimum speed but is able to maintain the same speed in the
second stretch also. If he takes 60% more time than the current record, then speed of Abdul over
stretch R is approximately:
1. 23 km/hr 2. 17 km/hr 3. 28.8 km/hr 4. None of these

33. Andrew covers stretch P at minimum speed but complete the next stretch at maximum
permissible speed. What should be Andrews’ speed in the stretch R if he now aims at breaking
the current record?
1. 30 km/hr 2. Indeterminate
3. Greater than 60 km/hr 4. None of these

34. Jennifer completes the race at an average speed 30 km/hr. if her average speed over stretches P
and Q is 300% more than her speed over stretch R, what is her speed over stretch R?
1. 24 km/hr 2. 30 km/hr 3. 18km/hr 4. 15 km/hr

CAT Sample Paper 6

MANYACAT
Directions for questions 35 and 36: These questions are based on the following data.
Mr. Raymen, the marketing head of a small textile unit had four sales executives working for him. They
were assigned the collection of a certain amount from the customers in the cities they were operating
from. Each of them visited exactly 4 cities out of 10 cities and collected Rs. 10,000, Rs.16,000, Rs.8000 and
Rs.12,000 respectively. No city was visited more than thrice and all the cities were visited by at least one
of the four sales executives. Each executive collected a certain minimum amount from each of the cities he
visited. The amount collected from any city by any of the sales executives was a multiple of Rs.1000.

35. What is the maximum amount, in thousands of rupees, which could have been collected from
any one city if no city was visited thrice?
1. 29 2. 22 3. 36 4. None of these

36. What is the minimum total amount, in thousands, collected from the cities visited exactly
twice if exactly one city was visited thrice?
1. 12 2. 6 3. 0 4. 8

37. Each ruby weighs 3 ounces and each emerald weighs 4 ounce. Each emerald is worth 5 lac dollars
and each ruby is worth 4 lakh dollars. Alice finds herself in a room full of rubies and emeralds
but unfortunately can carry only 15 lb (1 lb = 16 ounces) of them in a bagful. What should she
collect to get the maximum wealth?
1. A bagful of emerald 2. 56 rubies and 18 emeralds
3. A bagful of rubies 4. 40 rubes and 30 emeralds

38. If a1 = 1 and a1 + a2 +.... + an = n2 an for all natural numbers n > 1, find a10
1 1
1. 2. 55 3. 4. 110
55 110
Directions For Questions 39 to 41: These questions are based on the following data.
Anil has 3 race horses - A, B and C. If A wins a race, Anil makes 15% of the money he has before the race.
If B wins, he makes 25%. If C wins, he makes 10% and if any of his horses lose, he loses 5% of the money
he has before the race. In each race he enters only 2 horses. On a certain day there are 4 races. B wins race
1 and race 3. A wins race 2 and C wins race 4. He ends up with Rs.16632.

39. How much money did Anil start with?

1. Rs. 12,000 2. Rs. 10,000 3. Rs.11500 4. Rs.8000

40. How much money did Anil make by the time the 3rd race started?
1. Rs.2000 2. Rs.3280 3. Rs.2640 4. Rs.3200

41. In which race did Anil make the maximum amount?

1. race 1 2. race 2 3. race 3 4. race 4

42. The Ganges was flowing at 4 km/hr. A man who could row at 3 km/hr in still water had to cross
it in the least possible time. The distance covered by the man is how many times the width of the
river?
2 4 1 1
1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 1
3 5 3 2

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MANYACAT
43. What is the sum of the expression:
1 1 1 1
+ + + ...... + ?
11.12.13 12.13.14 13.14.15 18.19.20
11 31 1 11
1. 2. 3. 4.
45 12540 45 4031

44. What is the ratio of the radius of the in-circle and that of the circum circle of a right-angled
triangle with sides 15 cm, 8 cm and 17 cm?
1. 6: 17 2. 1: 2 3. 3:2 4. 1: 4

45. O is the centre of the circle. C is the mid point of arc AQB. If ∠APC = 21° then ∠AOP =?
A

O C
Q

P
B
1. 42° 2. 80° 3. 84° 4. Data insufficient

1 1
46. If g = + , which of the following is true?
log π log π
2 4.5
1. 0 < g < 1 2. 1 < g < 2 3. 2 < g < 4 4. g > 4

47. Let a, c ∈{1, 2, 3, 4} and b ∈{4, 5, 6, 7}. The number of equations of the form ax2 +bx+ c = 0, where
a, b, c are distinct having real roots, is
1. 18 2. 17 3. 34 4. 36

Direction for Qs. 48 – 49: f (x) and g (x) are defined by the graphs shown below:
y
y

-6 -3
x x

-3

-3
-9
f(x) g(x)

Each of the following questions has a graph of function h(x) with the answer choices expressing h(x) in
terms of a relationship of f(x) or/and g(x). Choose the alternative that could represent the relationship
appropriately.

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MANYACAT
 y
48.

-9
h (x)

1. 3 f (x) + 3 g (x) = h(x) 2. – 3 f (x) + 3 g (x) = h(x)

3. 1.5 f (x) + 1.5 g (x) = h(x) 4.None of these
y
49.

x
-6

-6

1. 2 f (x) + g (x) = h(x) 2. f (x) + 2g (x) = h(x)

3 g (x)
3. f (x) + = h(x) 4. None of these
2 2

50. A, B and C can do a work in 18, 24 and 36 days respectively. The contract for the work is Rs.
10,380. A and B start the work and they do it for 6 days. Then A quits and the remaining work is
done by B and C. The maximum amount received by an individual among A, B, C is (in Rs.)
1. 3360 2. 2400 3. 4620 4. 5190

CAT Sample Paper 9

MANYACAT
 Section II

Directions (Q. 51-55): Below is given a short argument to read, followed by one or more numbered
statements for your convenience. Every argument is split into more than one constituent part. To avoid
confusion please note that parts of the argument are closed with both-sided brackets, i.e. (), and the
numbered statements that follow the argument are closed with one-sided brackets, i.e.). Your task is to
identify what role the statement plays in the argument.

After each statement indicate:

Premise: If it is the premise of the argument.

Conclusions: If it is the conclusion of the argument.

Intermediate: If it is an intermediate conclusion.

Assumed: If it is an assumed premise.

51. (1). Random testing of workers for drug use is a bad idea. For one thing, (2) the test (urine
samples) breathalysers etc are extremely intrusive. For (3) another thing, such testing is
unnecessary. (4) if drugs are affecting an employee's performance, the employer can discipline or
fire him for poor performance. (5) If drug use is not affecting his performance, then it is none of
the employer's business
1) Drug tests are unnecessary.
2) Drug tests art extremely intrusive
Identify the role statement 2) plays in the argument.
1. Premise 2. Conclusion 3. Intermediate 4. Assumed

52. (1). You should not ask a friend to keep a secret from his or her spouse, because (2) marriage is a
more intimate relationship than friendship, and you (3) shouldn’t ask someone to compromise a
more intimate relationship for the sake of a less intimate one.
1) Marriage is a more intimate relationship.
2) You shouldn’t ask some one compromise a more intimate relationship for the sake of a less
intimate one.
Identify the role statement 1) plays in the argument.
1. Premise 2. Conclusion 3. Intermediate 4. Assumed

53. (1) Rock music is not a significant cause of teenage crime. (2) In the last ten years, tough arrests
have decreased; while (3) teenagers have bought more rock music than ever before.
1) In the last ten years, tough arrests have decreased.
2) In the last ten years, teenagers have bought more rock music than ever before.
Identity the role statement 2) plays in the argument.
1. Premise 2. Conclusion 3. Intermediate 4. Assumed

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MANYACAT
54. (1) Despite its large Democratic majority, the House of Representatives is becoming less
democratic because. (2) it is becoming more difficult for a challenger to beat an incumbent. (3) In
1986, 98 of the Representative seeking re-election beat their opponents, (4) who could not
overcome the advantage of incumbent: (5) free media coverage, (6) free use of the mails, (7) and
many others.
Identify the role statement (2) plays in the argument.
1. Premise 2. Conclusion 3. Intermediate 4. Assumed

55. (1) The positive terminal of battery attracts electrons with the same strength as the negative
terminal repels them with. Therefore, (2) free electrons being moving simultaneously, and (3) at
the same speed, in all parts of the circuit.
1) The positive terminal of battery attracts electrons.
2) The negative terminal of a battery repels electrons with the same strength as the positive
terminal attracts them with.
Identity the role statement 1) plays in the argument.
1. Premise 2. Conclusion 3. Intermediate 4. Assumed

Directions (Q. 56 - 59): In the questions that follow, an argument is presented that makes its case by
putting forth an analogy. After that a portion of the argument (italicised) is presented again. You have to
state exactly what role the italicised portions plays in the logic of the original argument. Choose your
answer from the given choices.

56. My father’s cars have been economical and reliable because they were Chryslers. Thus, this new
model from Chrysler should also be economical and reliable.
My father's cars were Chrysler and have been economical and reliable
1) One or both of the items being compared
2) A relevant similarity between, the two items being compared
3) A consequence of the similarity between the two items
4) The example used to form the generalisation.

57. Old people are like old cars in that the cost of maintaining them is greater than their value. Thus,
like old cars are junked, so old people should be put to death. Whenever the cost of the maintaining
something is greater than its value, it should be junked.
1) One or both of the items being compared
2) A consequence of the similarity between the two items.
3) The example used to form the generalisation
4) A generalisation based upon the example

58. Old people are like old cars in that the cost of maintaining them is greater than the value. Thus
like old cars are junked; so old people should be put to death.
Old cars are vehicles that cost more to maintain than they are worth and they are junked.
1) One or both of the items being compared.
2) A relevant similarity between the two items being compared
3) A consequence of the similarity between the two items.
4) An example used to form the generalisation.

59. The Federal Government is like a household in that both should exercise fiscal responsibility.
Thus just as a household should balance its budget, so should the Federal Government.
The Federal Government should balance its budget.
1) A relevant similarity between the two items being compared.
2) A consequent e of the similarity between the two items.
3) The example used to form the generalisation.
4) The conclusions of the argument.

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60. For some women the cost of giving birth can be an unexpectedly large burden. The average
normal birth now costs $ 3,200 and a birth with complications can cost thousand of dollars more
of women in the primary childbearing age range of eighteen to twenty - four, who account for
about 40% of all birth in this country annually. More than 25 percent have no healthcare
insurance to pay maternity costs.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
1) Each year, about 75 percent of all births in this country are to women who have healthcare
coverage of maternity costs.
2) Each year, about 60 percent of all births in this country are to women who are younger than
eighteen or older than twenty- four.
3) For an average birth, health care insurance pays 75 percent of S 3200.
4) In this country about 75 percent of women who do not have healthcare coverage of
maternity cost are younger than eighteen or older than twenty-four.

Directions (Q.61 - 65): Sometimes we conclude about the general characteristics of a phenomenon by
studying or analyzing a particular phenomenon. (For example, samplers ask 5000 voters and conclude
which party will win)
Below we are giving such inductive arguments. The generalisation is given first followed by a particular
statement. You have to find out whether the numbered particular statement confirms, disconfirms, or is
irrelevant to the generalisation.
Read each of the questions below and answer accordingly.

61. Generalisation: China’s economy is expanding rapidly.

1) Last year’s 20% of urban economy is expanding rapidly.
2) Rural industrial output in China grew 37% in 1987.
What type of support does statement 2) provided for this generalisation?
1. Confirms 2. Disconfirms 3. Irrelevant 4. None of these

62. Generalisation: Broadcasting firms make large profits.

1) Profit of broadcasting firm last year were up 82% over the previous year.
2) Over the last five years, profits of broadcasting firms averaged 205 of revenues, as against 85
for all companies.
What type of support does statement 1) provide for this generalisation?
1. Confirms 2. Disconfirms 3. Irrelevant 4. None of these

63. Generalisation: Dark objects get hotter in the sunlight than light objects do.
1) My dark blazer is always hotter in the sun than my tan blazer, even though they are made of
the same material.
2) Snow is white.
What type of support does statement 1) provide for this generalisation?
1. Confirms 2. Disconfirms 3. Irrelevant 4. None of these

64. Generalisation: During the Enlightenment, Freethinkers in catholic France become atheists, while
free thinkers in protestant England become Deists.
1) French Enlightenment thinker Voltaire was an atheist.
2) Champagne was invested by a French monk
What type of support does statement 2) provided for this generalisation?
1.Confirms 2. Disconfirms 3. Irrelevant 4. Either 2 or 3

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MANYACAT
65. Generalisation: Caesarean sections are becoming a more popular method of birth
1) About 30% of births now are by Caesarean sections, up from 15% ten years ago.
2) With a Caesarean sections, a woman can plan on giving birth at a specific time.
What type of support does statement 2) provide for this generalisation?
1. Confirms 2. Disconfirms 3. Irrelevant 4. Either 1 or 2

Directions (Q. 66 - 69): Answer the questions based on the following information.
A, B C, D, E are five persons; each person speaks the truth to only two of the other persons and lies to the other
two persons. If A speaks the truth to one of (B, C) and one of (D, E); B speaks the truth to one of (C, D) and one
of (A, E); C speaks the truth to one of (A,B) and one of (D,E).
If one person speaks the truth to another person, then this person also speaks the truth to the first person (that
is , between a pair of persons, they either speak the truth to each other or lie to each other).

66. If A speaks the truth to B, then E must speak the truth to

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. Cannot be determined

67. If A speaks the truth to C, then both the persons to whom a given person speaks the truth can be
uniquely identified if the given person is
1. A 2. D 3. E 4. None of these

68. If A speaks the truth to D, then E must speak the truth to

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. Cannot be determined

69. If A speaks the truth to E, then D must speak the truth to

1. B 2. C 3. E 4. Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 70 - 71): In these questions, you will be given short explanations to read. Your task is to
identify the type of mistakes committed. The fallacies or mistakes are of four types which are given in
choices.

70. Many primates travel in groups because they are social animals.
1.lacks logical strength 2. is incomplete
3. is not informative 4. lacks simplicity

71. He had a heart attack. It was probably because his cholesterol level was too high.
1. lacks logical strength 2. is incomplete
3. is not informative 4. lacks simplicity

72. Woman: Did I do something wrong?

Man: No, I just got up on the wrong side of the bed this morning.
What does the man mean?

1. The woman is wrong. 2. He is in a bad mood.

3. His side hurts. 4. His bed is in poor condition.

73. Our words are meaningless and cannot be distinguished from their opposite, as can be proved by
an example. People think that they know the difference between the meanings of “bald” and
“having hair”. Suppose an average person twenty-one years of age has N hairs on his head. We
say that person is not bald but has hair. Suppose we kept on, with one hair less each time. The
result would be the same. But what would be the difference between someone who had one hair
and someone who had none? We call them both bald. Nowhere can we make distinctions
between “bald” and “having hair”.
Which of the following statements best counters the argument above?

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MANYACAT
 1. The words “bald” can be translated into other languages.
2. A word can have more than one meaning.
3. A word such as “cat” can be applied to several animals that differ in some respects.
4. Words can lack precision without being meaningless.

74. At Midwest University, there is no collusion between the athletics office and the admissions
office. Athletes must be accepted for admission to the University on the basic of their academic
records before they can be offered financial assistance on the basis of athletic ability. The
University that hopes to avoid the kind of recruiting violations that have been a problem at other
universities
It can be inferred from the passage above that.
1. The admission policy described above is unique to Midwest University.
2. Some university offers financial assistance to athlete who would not be admitted to the
university on the basis of their academic records.
3. Most student athletes in universities are admitted solely on the basis of athletic ability.
4. Admissions officers do not modify academic admissions requirements for any student
except student’s athletes.

75. Literary historians today have conventional analysis of the development of English Renaissance
drama. They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement Elizabethan playwright was a
historical anomaly, a short of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek Dramatic form applied to
contemporary English subject matters. Instead most student of the theatre now view Elizabethan
drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the passage above?
1. England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period.
2. Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen
as part of a historical continuum.
3. Historian’s views of the antecedents of the English Renaissance drama have changed
considerably.
4. Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matters, its source of term and
methods is classical Greek drama.

Directions (Q.76 - 85): Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question
using the following instructions.
Choose 1 If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other statement alone.
Choose 2 If the question can be answered by using any one of the statements alone.
Choose 3 If the question can be answered by using both of the statements together, but cannot be
answered using either statement alone.
Choose 4 If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

76. Of three numbers a, b and c which is the largest.

A. c = a + b/2
B. a, b and c are in arithmetic progression.
77. A small storage tank X is spherical in shape. What is the thickness of its wall?
A. Storage volume of tank X is known.
B. When another small storage tank Y, which has as much storage capacity as tank X, is
immersed in a large tank filled with water, 24.6 litres of water overflows from the large tank.

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MANYACAT
78. For any two real number, a ⊕ b
= 1 it both a and b are positive or both a and b are negative.
= 2 if one of the two numbers a and b is positive and the other is negative.
What is (5 ⊕ 0) ⊕ (-5 ⊕ 3)?
A. a ⊕ b is zero if b is zero
B. a ⊕ b is zero if a is zero

79. W hat will be the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon?
A. The number of diagonals in the polygon is a perfect square, single-digit number and multiple
of 3,
B. The difference between the number of diagonals of the polygon and that of side is 3.

80. What is the number of institutes in Hyderabad that have an annual income of over Rs. 5, 00,000
and own a laser printer?
A. 30% of the institute in Hyderabad have an annual income of over Rs. 5, 00,000.
B. 25% of the institute in Hyderabad which have an annual income of over Rs. 5, 00,000 own a
laser printer.

81. What is the speed of train ‘X’ in km/h?

A. Length of train ‘X’ is twice that of train ‘Y’ and speed of Y is 100 m/s.
B. Train ‘X’ passes train ‘Y’ in 10 second Length of train ‘X’ is 100 meters.

82. Sudha was born on the day when her country was celebrating its 25th Independence Day. On
which day was Sudha born?
A. Today is 1st January 2001.
B. Sudha’s country will celebrate Golden Jubilee of its Independence on the day after tomorrow.

83. It is given that AB is the diameter on which a semi-circle is drawn, AC and BD are two chords
which intersect each at points P. What is the value of AC × AP?
A. Length of diameter is known.
C. Product of BD and BP is known.

84. One side of a triangle ABC is 5 cm long. Is the largest angle in triangle ABC greater then 90°?
A. Triangle ABC is a right angled triangle.
B. Two sides of the triangle ABC are 3cm and 4cm long.

85. At what price per kg will a grocer sell his sugar? It is given that the grocer has mixed two types of
sugar.
A. Prices of each type or sugar and ratio of the quantities of both types of sugar that have been
mixed are known.
B. Ratio of the price of each type of sugar and the quantity or each type of sugar is known.

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MANYACAT
Directions (Q.86 - 90): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions.

Exports and imports of agricultural commodities (Billions of rupees)

Exports Imports
Year Total Feeds Foods Oil seeds Cotton Tobacco Animal Total Crops Animals Coffee Cocoa
grains and and fruits and and beans and
products Product vegetable products products
1990 39.5 7 4.8 2.8 2.8 1.4 6.7 22.9 4.9 5.6 1.9 1.1
1991 39.4 5.7 4.2 2.5 2.5 1.4 7.1 22.9 4.8 5.5 1.9 1.1
1992 43.2 5.7 5.4 7.2 2 1.7 8 24.8 4.9 5.7 1.7 1.1
1993 42.9 5 5.6 7.3 1.5 1.3 8 25.1 5 5.9 1.5 1
1994 46.3 4.7 5.3 7.2 2.7 1.3 9.2 27 5.4 5.8 2.5 1
1995 56.3 8.2 6.7 9 3.7 1.4 11 30.3 5.9 6 3.3 1.1
1996 60.4 9.4 7.4 10.8 2.7 1.4 11.2 33.5 6.9 6.1 2.8 1.4
1997 57.2 6 5.2 12.1 2.7 1.6 11.4 36.2 7.2 6.5 3.9 1.5
1998 51.8 5 5 9.5 2.5 1.5 10.6 36.9 7.9 6.9 3.4 1.7
1999 48.5 5.5 4.7 8.2 1 1.3 10.4 37.7 8.9 7.3 2.9 1.5

86. Which of the following is correct?

I. The trade surplus of agriculture commodities shows as drop of more than 50.5 from 1995 to
1999.
II. Food grains exports touched a maximum in 1996.
1. I only 2. II only
3. I and II 4. I is not certain but II is definitely true.

87. If the export price of cotton in 1995 and 1996 was Rs.500 and Rs.600 per quintal respectively, the
volume of exported cotton fell in 1996 by what percent?
1. 52% 2.14% 3. 26% 4. 39%

88. Which of the following definitely follows from the tables?

1. The trade surplus is hit over the long term and one reason is the rising cost of imported
crops, fruits & vegetables.
2. Domestic requirement of food grains has gradually increased leading to a drop in export.
3. The competitive nations exporting tobacco are producing increasingly better quality of tobacco.
4. The country produces less coffee than it needs.

89. On how many occasions did the exports of tobacco fall compared to the preceding year?
1. zero 2. one 3. two 4. three

90. Export of feeds in 1993 was what percent of import of coffee in 1998?
1. 1. 4 2. 68 3. 147 4. 0.68

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MANYACAT
Directions (Q. 91 - 95): The following diagram shows the structure of UK financial and business services
(as present of GDP) for four different years.

Hiring equipment Other Buisness Services Legal and accounting

Financial Insurance Real Estate

10

8
Precent of GDP

0
1970 1980 1990 1994 estimate
91. In 1988 GDP was $ 432 trillion, which grew at 5% for the next two years. What was the volume of
the trade for real estate services in 1990?
1. 39trln 2. 52trin 3. 478trln 4. 26trln

92. In 1990, the spending on “legal and accounting” head was approximately $ 2500bn. What was the
expenditure on “financial heads”?
1. $ 1574bn 2. $7950bn 3. $ 5500bn 4. $6875bn

93. In which year was spending on services of hiring equipment negligible?

1.1970 2. 1980 3. 1990 4. 1994

94. After real state the biggest chunk of GDP was spent in 1990 on
1. hiring equipment 2. legal and accounting
3. financial 4. None of these

95. Which of the following sector’s shares in the GDP, as per the financial services structure of UK,
shows a countries rising trends?
1. other business services 2. financial
3. legal and accounting 4. real estate

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MANYACAT
Directions (Q.96 - 100): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions based on consumer
complaints Received by the civil Aeronautics Board.

Category 1980 (percent) 1981 (percent)

Flight Problem 20.0 22.1
Baggage 18.3 21.8
Customer Services 13.1 11.3
Over sale of seat 10.5 11.8
Refund Problems 10.1 8.1
Fares 6.4 6.0
Reservation and ticketing 5.8 5.6
Tours 3.3 2.3
Smoking 3.2 2.3
Advertising 1.2 1.1
Credit 1.0 0.8
Special Passengers 0.9 0.9
Others 6.2 5.3
Total number of complaints 22,988 13,278

96. Approximately how many complaints concerning credit were received by the Civil Aeronautic
Board in 1980?
1. 133 2. 220 3.230 4. 1330

97. By approximately what percent did the total number of complaints decrease from the 1980 to
1981?
1.40% 2.60% 3.75% 4. 100%

98. If the categories, except “others” are ranked by percent of complaints from greatest to least, for
how many of the categories would the rank change from 1980 to 1981?
1. Three 2. Four 3. Six 4. Seven

99. If the circle graphs below (drawn to scale) represent total consumer complaints for the 1980,
which graph shows a shaded sector that corresponds to flight problems and refund problems
combined?

1. 2.

3. 4.

100. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the table?
I. In 1980 and 1981, complaints about flight problems, baggage, and customer service together
account for more than 50 percent of all consumer complaints received by the Civil
Aeronautics Board.
II. The number of special passenger complaints was unchanged from 1980 to 1981?
III. From the 1980 to 1981 the number or flight problem complaints increased by more than 2
percent.
1. I only 2. II only 3. I and II only 4. I and III only

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MANYACAT
 Section III

Directions (Q 101 - 135): Read the passages that follow and answer the question that follows each of them
with respect to your understanding of the passage.

PASSAGE 1

Over 1, 26, 000 bank employees have busted the myth, assiduously preserved and propagated by trade
unions and their sympathies, that Indians treasure job security above all else. Given the option of taking
voluntary retirement, thousands of officers and clerical staff happily chose to grab the money and strike
out on their own. Indeed, public sector banks are now struggling to cope with this massive out flux of
skilled professionals. In the long run though, they are undoubtedly better off like this. Public banks have
long been labour-intensive inefficient organizations. However, they are now moving actively to reduce
manpower and upgrade technology, which should improve their efficiency. What about the employees
who opted for VRS? According to some estimates, they are now flushed with Rs. l5000crore. Details are
not yet available on how the money is being spent, but a survey of the retired people indicates a high
aversion to risk. The bulk of the windfall gains seems to be headed right back into bank vaults in the form
of fixed deposits. The other favoured investments are low-risk bonds and office schemes. Several in
retirees are re-training, with an eye for jobs in the sunrise sectors like medical transcription and
insurance. But very few people are willing to set their own business. That’s understandable. They would
be reluctant to take chances with their lifelong savings. But it’s also symptomatic of a larger trend - the
wiling of the all too brief entrepreneurial bloom along with the bursting of the dotcom bubble.

The banks may be gloating today at the money pouring in, but it will turn into a huge liability unless they
can lend it out to someone else, which does not seem to be happening. With business confidences running
low, few corporates are in the mood to take on debt, despite plummeting interest rates. This is clearly bad
news for economic growth. Additional job creation depends on fresh projects being constantly set up. So
why don’t the banks actively drum up business themselves through, say, a massive micro credit
disbursement exercise? They will not do so because it's almost impossible for them to recover debts that
go bad. Insolvent companies are forcibly kept open, locking up labour and capital that could be profitable
if deployed elsewhere. A way out may be offered by the recommendations of the advisory group on
bankrupt laws, constituted by the Reserve Bank of India. The group has called for the repeal of the Sick
Industrial Company (special provisions) Act and abolition of the Board for Industrial and Financial
Reconstruction. It has also suggested that a default, Rs l lakh should immediately invite bankruptcy
proceeding and dedicated benches lies should be established at every high court to deal with bankruptcy
issues. Enforcing these suggestions would certainly be a step forward, although care should be taken that
the new rules are not applied only to small debtors while affluences go scot-free, secure in the knowledge
that no harm would befall them. Economic commentators like to point out that there are many sick
industries in India but not many sick industrialists. Unless that is remedied, the financial sector and by
extension, the economy can never aspire to have a sound health.

101. The myth of the Indian mindset treasuring jobs security above all else has been busted. The
author reaches this conclusion by making which of the following assumptions?
I. 1, 26, 000 is a sufficiently large number to universalise the conclusion.
II. Banking sector can be said to be representative of the entire Indian jobs market.
1. 1 only 2. II only 3. I and II 4. Neither I nor II

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MANYACAT
102. The said conclusion can be attacked if somebody pointed out that
1. The actual number of employees getting VRS was only 1, 24, 000.
2. The percentage of people getting VRS who were below 50 years was very low.
3. Banking sector was dying sector anyway.
4. People left their jobs because of a fear retrenchment

103. Huge inflows of money pouring in for a bank is essentially

1. an asset 2. a liability 3. a transaction 4. a withdrawal

104. Banks need to lend the huge inflows to somebody else. Why?
I. Idle money does not grow.
II. Bank have promised interest, le growth, to their depositors.
III. It is imperative for additional jobs creation.
1. II only 2. I and III 3. I and II 4. All I, II and III

105. One reasons why banks wont indulge in lending out micro-credit to business is that
1. business have traditionally defaulted on repayments
2. interest chargeable on this count is low
3. laws don’t offer sufficient protection against defaults
4. additional jobs creation is not guaranteed

106. The author seems to suggest that the present system of debt recovery in India unduly favours
1. Small-sized companies
2. Big-sized companies
3. Both small-and big-sized companies
4. None of these
107. The author’s advocacy of the repeal of BIFR could be attacked on the grounds that
1. It will also entail- frequent job destruction
2. It will stop hank from lending to traditional business.
3. It will in the significant administrative hassles in implementation
4. It will benefit the MNC’s ultimately.

PASSAGE II

The 15-year-old Consumer Protection Act, responsible for consumer awareness in the country, is now
facing certain changes that can alter its continuing impact and operation. We all are consumers – as the
buyer of recipient of any product and services. If there is any defect or deficiency in the product
purchased, or a service sought for which payment has been made, the consumer is entitled to a share of
appropriate compensation. The product may range from the purchase of a screw to a motorcar and the
service may range from dry cleaning of a saree to travelling in an aeroplane or construction of a house.

Under this Act various “consumer courts” have been set up in all districts of the country and an effective
setup has been established at the state and national level for dealing with the biggest demands of
compensation and for appeals. Consumer courts in the districts are turned into District Forums. There are
now 555 District Forums operating, with at least one forum in each district. In Delhi, an enviable nine
District Forums have been established to deal with the large number of cases emanating instance from its
population. At the state level these consumer courts are known as State Commissions while a National
Commission which has jurisdiction all over the country for entertaining original cases of high value and
also for dealing with appeals turning up against the orders of State Commissions.

Monetary limits of awardable compensation have been prescribed in the Act. Originally, the limit was Rs
11 lakh for disposal of cases by District Forums, Rs 5 to Rs 10 lakh for the State Commissions, and above
Rs 10 lakh for the National Commission. Within five years of operation of these courts the limits were

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MANYACAT
modified to Rs 5 lakh for District Forums and above Rs 5 to 20 lakh for State Commissions and above Rs
20 lakh for the National commission.

It is worthwhile to note how these consumer courts have provided redress to consumers. Figures of the
cases disposed of by them and pending before them are revealing. District Forums have collectively so far
decided about 11.5 lakh cases; they have about 2.5 lakh cases and present pungency before them is about
75,000, National Commission has decided about 12, 000 cases and pungency at this level including
appeals and original complaints, is about 9, 500.

By and large, the work performed by these consumer courts has been satisfactory. There have been
suggestions and demands for effecting further improvements. These remain under consideration.

A major proposed amendment is to devise limits of compensation award and thereby, and to revise the
jurisdiction of these courts. Districts Forums can presently deal with cases involving compensation
payment up to Rs5 lakh and limit for State Commissions is more than Rs 5 lakhs. This limit of amount in
case of District forums has been increased to Rs 20 lakh and of State Commissions to Rs 1crore. National
Commission will deal only with appeals arising from the decisions of State Commissions. The raising of
the limit from Rs 20 lakh to 1crore in case of State Commissions is said to be justified on the grounds that
aggrieved consumers now would not have to travel to Delhi for filing their complaints.

Another important change to have been proposed is enabling the National Commission as well as State
Commissions to have benches which will operate at other selected places, respectively, for meeting
requirements of consumers rather than the consumers having to come to Delhi or go to State
headquarters with their complaints. Certain amendments in the Act prescribe that half the number of
people in the concerned ministry should be of a “judicial background”; and that they should have at least
ten years' experience as President of district level court or tribunal.

Similarly, members of State Commission, which till now were only three, including the president who is
a retired judge of a High Court, will now be any number which is determined by the ministry, excepting
that at least half of them, as in the case of National Commission, will be persons of “judicial background”
meaning that at they have at least ten years’ experience as district judge. Benches of State Commission
will be set up by the president with “one or two members” as the President may deem fit. Here again it
appears odd that a bench of the level of the State Commission can operate at the designated place with
only one or two members, of level of District judge experience, to decide cases involving compensation
up to Rs 1crore, which is prescribed to be the jurisdiction of State Commission. Both these provisions
appear to be strange in the existing context.

While there may be certain doubts relating to provisions for constituting benches of National
Commission and State Commissions, the proposed amendments of Consumer Act include certain very
welcome and desirable provisions. One clause states that in each of the consumer court, at the respective
levels, cases will be decided within 90 days. This will obviate atrocious delay that is being often caused, if
present. Another provision states that if an appeal is filed against any decision, the appellant will have to
first deposit half the amount of award compensation. Consumer courts are also proposed to be given
powers to effect attachment and auction of property of a person who defaults in complying with the
decision of payment of compensation. Power of a collector will also be exercisable by these courts for
recovering any dues as arrears and revenue. Punishment of imprisonment, as by judicial magistrate for
default in compensation payment, will likewise be exercisable by these courts. A party will be allowed to
engage legal practitioner only if the complainant has engaged one. Where necessary, consumer court will
have the authority to try a case summarily.

These various provisions in the proposed amendments can obviously have far-reaching and healthy
effect in expeditious redressal of grievances of consumers.

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MANYACAT
108. At present, the time taken for disposal of a case in consumer court is
1. Not too long 2. Too short
3. Too long 4. Can’t say

109. The raising of limits (as proposed in the amendment) is justified on the grounds that it will
1. be commensurate with inflation
2. invite due attention of local authorities
3. not bother the national level commission with a petty case
4. enable the applicants to settle their grievances without having to travel to far-off places

110. The consumer protection laws at present have within their ambits manufactured products
services
1. I only 2. II only 3. I and II 4. Either I or II

111. The ratio of decided cases to dependencies is worst in the case of

1. District consumer forum 2. State commissions
3. National commission 4. Data inadequate

112. As per the author, the instance of Delhi of having nine District forums is
1. welcome because it will deal effectively with large number of cases.
2. welcome because Delhi is the capital of our country.
3. not welcome because it is not wise to invest in nine courts where one can do.
4. not welcome because it creates problems of jurisdiction.

113. Which of the following prospects is not faced by a party (in the new scheme of things) that has
been found 'guilty ' by consumer court?
1. paying compensation
2. imprisonment
3. attachment of property
4. debarring from electoral rights

114. Which of the following provisions does not appear as proposed

1. raising of monetary limits for compensation
2. bond for future behaviour
3. deciding a time- frame in which to try a case
4. summary proceedings.

PASSAGE III

Some years ago, Glen Hoddle, the then-coach of the English football team, found himself in the eye of a
media storm. The irritant was Hoddle's gratuitous assertion in an interview that congenital disability was
a function of an individual's karma in a previous life. The implication was that the disabled had to learn
to embrace, even cherish, thru suffering as a merited rather than attribute it to an arbitrary genetic
predisposition.

In the righteous uproar that followed, Hoddle was pillared for holding views which were not just
“weird” and “anachronistic”, but also violated such sacred canons of liberal faith as equality and human
dignity. Hoddle's protest that the interview contained his personal beliefs did not cut much ice owing to
his eminently public status as the national coach. Faced with an unprecedented media witch-hunt, the
Football Association had no option but to ask for Hoddle's head. The intriguing question whether
Hoddle’s spin on the human condition had a legitimate basis in eastern spirituality - a phrase frequently
invoked by his critics - falls outside the purview of what follows.

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MANYACAT
From the standpoint of this article, Hoddle's fall from grace has a different meaning: It is a cautionary tale
par excellence in the context of the curricular 'reforms' underway in our schools. Under the zealous
direction of the learned professor, it is being strenuously asserted that value for it to be efficacious must
be at the heart of pedagogic intervention in schools. Further, that this value education, for it be
efficacious, must be based on the bedrock of religion. This theme is at the very heart of the learned
professor's document of vision, otherwise known as the National Curriculum Framework pro school
Education.

Apart from stressing the role of religion as a generator of “essential” values, the document states that
religious education should not be an isolated part of school curriculum. It must be integrated with other
areas of academic concerns rather arcanely described as “scholastic” and co-scholastic areas. Since the
document is woefully short on explanatory detail, one may only surmise that religion-based value
education will hence forth be integrated with or probably given primacy over the teaching of natural and
human sciences and the values inherent there in.

An old- fashioned secularist may well agonise, with good reason too, about the normal justification of an
avowedly secular at promoting religious education with such fervour, the document, unfortunately, does
not. The sole possible defence based on precedent that the independent Indian state has for long
supported religious education through institutional funding, is strictly speaking, based the point. State
funding for religious institutions through institutional funding is emphatically not the same thing as the
proposal of religious education- “not education about religion”, as the document very helpfully clarifies-
in state-run schools. For obvious reasons, however, it is not the intention here to kill an interesting debate
by taking a purist track.

The first question is: in a society that is as religiously diverse as ours - where nomenclature Hindu
religion is itself a short hand for widely heterogeneous beliefs and practices - which faith would
constitute the bedrock of value education? The answer may seem obvious in the light of the professor's
well-known predilections in the matter, but it dues not tell the full story, not in this instance. In the
specific context of value education at least, the curriculum is agnostic about the claims of any particular
religions.

To escape the pluralistic conundrum this poses, the document, rather ironically, resurrects an old secular
ghost that has resisted burial for the better part of 75 years and continues to haunt us when questions
about religion are raised in our public life. In simple terms, is the belief indeed an article of faith- that
there is a common essence that is shared by all religions?

From believers such as Gandhi to sceptics such as Nehru, not to mention their less literate intellectual and
political heirs across the spectrum, this well-meaning assertion has been made so frequently and
assiduously that its truth is now taken for granted. The document, not surprisingly, reiterates it as a
banality: “The essence of every religion is common, only, practices differ.” The implication is clear; this
putative essence will inform the value education framework.

The problem is that this hoary thesis, despite its impeccable nature, has arisen more from the political and
spiritual compulsions of those who propound it and less from an open- ended comparative appraisal of
different faiths. Its veracity can be demonstrated only by subtracting from each religion what is
distinctive, even valuable, about it plainly, unless the concept of religion is reduced to an empty
minimalism and even emptier theology, no two religions may be regarded as a like.

It is of course a sociological truism that all religions address a universal human need. But the substantive
manner in which they do so varies very significantly indeed. Each major religion of the world is
underpinned by a distinctive theology, a highly specific history and a quite unique conception of a
desirable socio-political order. In the fundamental suite few religions can be reconciled except at the
minimalist level of a belief in a supernatural power, some conception of an afterlife, and so on.

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MANYACAT
What commonalities might then constitute the foundation of the proposal moral revolution: surely, it is
difficult to ground an entire educational curriculum on such randomly chosen ‘universal’ religious values
as love and peace, honesty and truthfulness. But such is the logic of the curriculum’s reduction
absurdum. Even assuming that possibility of isolating such an essence exists, what moral force will it
carry in the absence if any specific theology that supports it as in the case of individual religions?

Finally, to recall the poignancy of Hoddle's predicament, how shallow resolve the moral quandaries
which must inevitably arise when religion-inspired values come into conflict in the public domain with
those other values which a society upholds, say, constitutionally? Or when the values of scientific
inquiry-of questioning and criticism- urn counter to the unassailable truth-claims of religion? Will the
spirit of science be thru allowed to transcend religious dogma? Or will religious values be cast, by diktat,
as being beyond the pale of critical reason?

It is morally incumbent on the learned professor that these and other questions are allowed to Iv
religiously debated the troubled legacy of our secular education is hastily and irrevocably jettisoned.

115. Which of the following definitely follows from the passage?

1. disabilities are essentially genetic
2. Hoddle's assertions are not based on a sound religious dogma.
3. disabled people should not lament their trouble.
4. not everybody buys the karma theory.

116. Hoddle’s head having to roll, implies that personal beliefs of public figures
1. are essentially public beliefs.
2. should not be stated in public.
3. Have due repercussions if stated in public.
4. do not have any justification.

117. The National Curriculum Framework for School Education

I is a controversial document.
II should be taken with a lot of caution.
III seeks to cut away religion from schools’ curriculum.
1. I only 2 II only 3. II and III 4. I and II

118. As per the passage,

I. Fundamentally, all religions have the same theology.
II. There is more to religion than mere morality.
1. I only 2. II only 3. I and II 4. Neither I nor II

119. The belief that all religions have a common essence

I has been propounded by many intellectuals.
II may not have a sound basis of truth.
1. I only 2. II only 3. I and II 4. Neither I nor II

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120. The “document of vision” as mentioned in the passage,
I asserts that religion is the basis for essential values.
II asserts that religion should be taught in schools albeit in an isolated manner.
1. I only 2. II only 3. I and II 4. None of these

PASSAGE IV

The last I visited China was in 1986 in the early days of liberalisation. Now, thanks to a business
assignment, I can see for myself the dramatic changes of the last decade

As my flight touched down, I saw the same old buildings, great monoliths that I have come to associate
with Beijing. It was a different story once we entered the airport terminal. It was modern, large and
spanking clean, in parts like Singapore’s Changi Airport. In 20 minutes I had cleared immigration and
customs. Definitely more business - friendly than Indian airport on the expressway into the city (speed
limit 110 kmph) cars whizzed past while there was barely any sigh of the once ubiquitous bicycle.

The first hurdle came at the hotel. Or so I thought. The in-house services directory said I could not
connect to the Internet from my hotel room. However, the friendly service representative at the plush
business centre downstairs arranged for me to access the Net from my room and give me a local number
to dial. This was a facility I was to have at every hotel I stayed in China. The connections were
consistently fast indicating large bandwidth availability, a great boon to the business traveller.

Outside, a happy surprise was the brand new subway, cheap and sparkling clean. The passengers, all
local Chinese, looked well fed and clothed. There were amazing changes on the culinary front as well. On
my last trip I could only eat in restaurants earmarked for tourists. Not any more, with a range of very
upscale Chinese, American and Italian restaurants to choose from. I found an Indian eating joint within
two blocks of the hotel, not to mention three McDonald’s, one Pizza Hut, one KFC and two Starbucks and
several more downscale but seemingly very clean Chinese restaurants.

Could Beijing be an exception? The showcase city that attracted the west. I got my answer soon. My
consulting assignment was with a large manufacturer of cell phones in Hangzhou a city of about 1.7
million in southeast China. I flew in the state-owned Air China. The aviation scene in China is similar to
that of India, with 8 to 10 airlines, soon to consolidate into three major airlines. The other two airlines
besides Air China are 100 percent privately owned. The quality of service on Air China is comparable to
that of Indian Airlines. However, the flight departed and arrived exactly on time.

Hangzhou is impressive, its airport once again exceptionally clean and well organised. For a city of its
size, Hangzhou has excellent infrastructure: large fleet of electric buses supplement the 5,000 taxis, all
with radio communications and digital meters There are over and under passes everywhere. There were
several hundred large new buildings and a newly built athletics stadium in the city.

The company I am consulting with used to be 100 percent state-owned. The state has divested a majority of
the shares, which now trade at the Shanghai stock market in two forms-one tot domestic investors and the
other exclusively for foreigners. But unlike India, the facilities at the manufacturing site of this $1.5-billion
company just took my breath away. I have been to advanced electronic manufacturing in the US and
Singapore but I was unprepared for the scale and sophistication of the operation here. Their competitors
apparently have better facilities.

Just when I thought nothing could go wrong, I came upon a hurdle, language of course. For all their
efforts to go global, the Chinese grasp of the English language is very poor. The business cad of one of the
executives described him as "Execution Vice-President”, while the sign on the toilet of a train I took said,
"No Occupying While Stabling”. My translator Edward, a smart youth with a degree in English language,
was the only person I could communicate with directly.

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At the meeting, an elaborate affair, the atmosphere was very Indian with heavy-duty protocol and
speech- making to boot. Scenes I remember from my last trip. Some things never change, I suppose.
This time, though, everyone carried a cell phone. People placed their cell phones on the conference table
as soon as they came in (much like folks did in the American Wild West with their guns!). While I found
this somewhat disconcerting, I did like their cell phone etiquette. They turned down the ring volume, and
spoke very softly. Incidentally there will be over 100 million cell phones in China by the end of 2001
(compared to around 4 million in India).

I get the sense that the Chinese are very closely studying the successes of Indian software industry and
have every intention of surprising India in this field. While much has been written about the growth of
their hardware exports, their achievements in garnering export business in software has largely been
ignored. China is hard at work neutralizing India's key competitive advantage of a US Fortune 100
company to move their offshore software development from China to India, but they are disinclined
because of the high quality of work, lower cost and superior infrastructure in China.

Edward and I went sightseeing on the last day. We visited an absolutely stunning Buddha temple from
the 4th century founded by an Indian monk and target for demolition during the Cultural evolution.
Former premier Chou En-Lai intervened to save it.

Edward was eloquent on a range of topics from the economics to unification of China and Taiwan. The
latter; lie was certain, would be resolved: because the people of Taiwan now see difference between
China and Taiwan in economic, business conditions, personal freedom and living standards. Indeed
many Taiwanese businessmen are migrating to China. Unbelievable, a business associate from Taiwan
expressed similar views.

Old China shows up every now and then. The food in the cafeteria at the cell phone company was
indifferently served and unappetizing. The Chinese paranoia about security can suddenly throw you off
balance, at the Forbidden City. The guard said a firm no to even my copy of China Daily. The Chinese are
not savvy about Western concerns like pollution. Beijing itself seems swathed in a brown blanket.

But for every rewind to the past, there’s fast forward to the future. China will pull out all stops for
business. As Edward succinctly summed up: “You can get away with anything here as long as you have
money and do not bother the government with protests and demonstration”.

121. What is not mentioned as a characteristic of the old Chinese regime?

1. Little concern for environment
2. Overdoing the security
3. Poor hospitality standards at restaurants, etc
4. Disregard for others

122. Which of the following is common between Indian and Chinese meeting:
I. Adherence to protocol
II. Heavy dose of speeches
1. 1 only 2.II only 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

123. Fast internet connections indicate a

1. dotcom revolution 2. Leap in IT enabled services
3. Progress of economy 4. Large bandwidth

124. The author’s good impression about Hangzhou were created by the
I. Cleaner airport
II. Excellent commuting infrastructure
III. Wireless advanced communications in taxis

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 1. I and 2. II only 3. I only 4. All I, II and III

125. The author found a change in Beijing mainly in terms of

I. A new expressway
II. New, big buildings
l. I only 2. II only 3. Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II

126. Chinese optimism on the inevitability of unification with Taiwan is based upon a
1. Progressively reducing international interest in the matter
2. Conducive atmosphere for sharing option
3. New round of dialogues
4. Similarity in both economies today

127. India’s comparative advantage in the field of software exports vis-à-vis China lies in
1. the vast number of Indians living in the US
2. her comfortable state with English language
3. her natural links with the US
4. an availability of cheap labour

128. The multinational presence in Beijing is most visible in the form of

1. Clean airport 2. foreign brand restaurants 3. Clean roadways 4. Radio-equipped taxis

129. The author's opinion about the punctuality of Indian Airlines flights is
1. probably not very high 2. similar to that of Chinas 3. not mentioned 4. very low

130. The author probably thought that the display of cell phones by the Chinese was a tendency to or
indicator of
1.flaunting attitude 2.intimidating 3.snobbery 4. affluence

131. Inter national companies find China a better destination than India because of
I. higher quality
II. better infrastructure
1. I on 2. II only 3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

132. Which of the following statements best sums up the passage?

1. China has decided to put the soul of its communist agenda on the backburner for the sake of
development.
2. China is serious about an economic revolution, already visible in its successful efforts
3. China has changed a lot in the way it way it runs its economy.
4. The author was very impressed with China during his visit

PASSAGE V

Last November, I organized a seminar about terrorism in aviation. In order to drive home the potential
hazards to the students, we visited a large eastern U.S airport with the intention of acting like a terrorist
group looking for targets of opportunity. What we discovered was at times fascinating and at other times
frightening.

In general, US airports have two areas where the visitors have access: a public area with little active security
measures and a more secure area in the airport for waiting and boarding. The less secure areas usually
contain ticket counters, baggage claim, gift shops, restaurants, and other airport services. Getting into the
gate areas involves going through a screening process that includes x- ray inspection of carry-on items and
walking through metal detectors. Other security measures include limiting curbside parking at the terminal,

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securing unattended language, and requiring that all passengers be identified by the airlines by use of
picture identification. In the academic exercise, the group made several notable security observations.

Most of the trash bins in the terminal areas were set within larger concrete containers. An explosive set
within one of these containers would likely be directed upward. However, in several cases there were metal
and fibreglass containers, sometimes adjacent to the concrete ones; also located around the terminal.

During visit, there were numerous announcements about how unattended baggage would be collected by
the airport authority. At one point, our party observed an unattended umbrella propped against a wall near
one of the screening areas. The umbrella was plain in view and in close proximity to constant foot traffic. It
was over 45 minutes before an airport staff member removed the umbrella. Most areas of the terminal were
designed such that it was difficult to leave a bag unattended in heavily travelled areas of the terminal
without it being seen.

Our group specifically observed custodial staff going about their duties to see they were security-
conscious. We were impressed with their thoroughness. The custodial staff visually checked many
hidden places such as bathroom trash containers, bathrooms stalls, and areas behind furniture or
machinery. At one point, different members of our group sat or stood in areas directly behind the staff at
one security checkpoint to observe the x-ray monitor and general security procedures. Two females from
our group were able to observe for as long as they wanted and were not approached by a security staff. A
male member of our group, who is also a police captain, was told to move along soon after he arrived.

Three of the party checked in for flights on two different airlines at a time. All passengers were supposed to
be identified with picture identification. I was never asked for mine, another person used an ID with a name
that did not match that on her ticket, and the third was asked for ID, but did not open up an oddly shaped
package after being asked by an agent about its contents. In general, we were quite impressed with the level
of security. The most worrisome aspects of what we saw were that the effectiveness of active and passive
security measures varied greatly, and that a group of people unschooled in the ways of terrorism could very
quickly discover numerous opportunities for committing mayhem without being detected.

133. Choose the meaning closest to “curbside” in the text.

1. on the side walk 2. behind the terminal
3. in front of the terminal 4. next to the sidewalk

134. Choose the meaning closet to “unschooled” in the text.

1. export 2. inexpert 3. stupid 4. intelligent

135. Which statement is correct?

1. Ticket counters are more secure than boarding areas.
2. Boarding areas are securer than ticket counters.
3. Boarding areas are less than ticket counters.
4. Boarding areas are more than ticket counters.

136. A. This is demonstrated in multiple instances of the employees who

are frequently willing to work beyond the call of duty to improve the company.
B. But more important than the financial benefits is the mindset that the business ownership
provides.
C. In addition to receiving generous compensation packages, Southwest employees are also
privy to top-notch profit sharing package that includes stock ownership; together the
now own approximately 11 percent of the company.
D. As part of owner of Southwest, its employees are more willing to pitch in and do what
ever necessary to keep the business operating and profitable.
1. CBDA 2. ABDC 3. ACDB 4. CADB

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137. A. These element of setting contribute powerfully to Hitchcock’s message about
psychological abnormality as a cause of crime.
B. One of the most remarkable setting in film history, the parlour is filled with stuffed birds
that anticipate both Marions death and Mrs. Bates’s taxidermic condition.
C. Predators with cruel eyes and frightening beaks, the birds also stand for Norman who
will soon be peering at Marion in shower and murdering her.
D. A key transitional scene occurs in the parlour in the Bates Motel, where Norman gives
Marion her last supper.
1. DBCA 2. DABC 3. ABCD 4. DBAC

138. A. For a while my mind kept conducting involuntary thought experiments, or feeling
experiments.
B. I would imagine each of my sons finding themselves, as their distant cousin had, in such
a violent force field, and I would imagine the moment when they sensed the magnitude
of the undifferentiated hatred that was raged against them.
C. The first time I did this teetered backwards on my feet, and there was palpable rush of
whoosh, as if I had approached the entranced of wind tunnel.
D. And this tunnel a mere vent or flap, leading to the room occupied by Lucy’s parents and
siblings.
E. Again at several memories from them, I experienced an apprehension of defeat, of
obliterating defeat.
1. CDEAB 2. ABECD 3.AEBCD 4. ABCDE
139. A. Three weeks after my father died I journeyed alone to Warsaw, where Alexandra met
me at the airport, the lady from the publishers, and by Jeff, the man from the British
Council.
B. One the way into the city only weight of traffic seemed to be making a secret contribution
to the smog-enhanced sunset.
C. There was a press conference in a basement bar – and a good fracas involving the
official’s interpreter and Alexandra, who kept reinterpreting him.
D. One journalist commiserated with my bereavement and I found myself freely discussing
my father for the first time outside the family huddle.
E. With that it dawned upon me that this was surely the inner-death moment for him.
1. CDABE 2. ABCDE 3. ADCBE 4. CDBAE

Directions for questions140 to 145: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence or the entire
sentence is highlighted. Beneath each sentences, four different ways of phrasing the highlighted part are indicated.
Choose the best alternative from among the four.

140. No new devices, inventions, products, or goods of any nature whatsoever that is not already in
the market, shall be produced, invented manufactured or sold after the date of this directive.
1. That is not already in the market. 2. Not now in the market.
3. That is not already in the market. 4. that is not yet marketed

141. Then they were out again, on a rocky grade and with shocking suddenness, the mountains were
before them, it seemed to look like the city had flung them straight in a granite wall, and a thin
ledge had caught them in time.
1. It seemed to like the city flung them straight in a granite wall,
2. It seemed to look like the city had flung them straight by granite wall,
3. as if the city had flung them into a granite wall,
4. as if the city had flung them straight at a granite wall,

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142. In 1945, a film called ‘Czar Putin’ was released which was a fictionalisation of life of a Russian
monarch who refuses to marry.
1. A fictionalisation of life of a Russian monarch who refuses to marry.
2. A fictional account of life of a Russian monarch who refuses to marry.
3. A fictional account on the life of a Russian monarch who refuses to marry.
4. A fictionalisation account of life of a Russian monarch who refuses to marry.

143. He was leaning forward a little farther; she saw a slight tightening in the fingers of his hand.
1. leaning forward a little farther. 2. leaning forward farther.
3. leaning forward a little further. 4. leaning farther a front.

144. You will cut all active connection with us, so that your activities did not reflect, at our
reputations.
1. so that your activities did not reflects at our reputations.
2. so that your activities did not affect our reputations.
3. so that your activities will not reflects upon our reputations.
4. so that your activities have no effects on our reputations.

145. According to the established procedures, cases of these kinds were not tried by a jury.
1. cases of the kind were not tried by a jury.
2. cases of these kinds were not tried by a jury.
3. cases of this kinds were not tried by a jury.
4. cases of this kind were not tried by a jury.

DIRECTIONS for questions 146 to 150: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word from
the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author's overall
style and meaning when you choose the answers.

The mastodon was munching away at the edge of a lake near Ohio before he died. Humans apparently
butchered him and stored the meat and bones in the lake, now a chilly bog. There they lay until 1989
when a golf course construction crew found the collection of bones. Further investigation produced an
(146) of unexpected results. Most amazing was the discovery of bacteria in the mastodon's gut when
microbiologists (147) the bacteria they began to grow. They had (148) in the oxygen-free bog for 11,600
years, according to carbon dating of bones.

146. 1. irony 2. array 3. iota 4. aeon

147. 1. cultured 2. nurtured 3. injected 4. investigated

148. 1. subsisted 2. multiplied 3. survived 4. thrived

According to Kautilya, the ruler should use any means to attain his goal and his action required no moral
sanction. Though the kings were allowed a free (149) the, citizens were subject to a rigid set of rules. This
double standard has been cited as an excuse for the (150) of Arthashastra, though the cause of its ultimate
neglect was the formation of a totally different society to which these methods no longer applied.

149. 1. reign 2. rein 3. relativism 4. reinforcement

150. 1. obscurantism 2. observation 3. oblivion 4. obsolescence

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