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TEST-I : REASONING

Max. Marks : 250

  • 1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT, each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

    • (a) (b) One

None

  • (d) (e) More than three

Three

(c) Two

  • 2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fourth and the sixth letters of the word STARVING’ which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed give X as the answers. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.

    • (a) (b) S

T

  • (d) (e) K

I

(c) X

  • 3. CF is related to HK in the same way as MP is related to

    • (a) (b) RT

SU

  • (d) (e) RS

ST

(c) RU

  • 4. In a certain code ‘UNDER’ is written as ‘6152@’ and ‘DEAF’ is written as ‘52#7’ How is ‘FRAUD’ written in that code?

    • (a) (b) @7#65

7@56#

  • (d) (e) None of these

765@#

(c) 7@#65

  • 5. The positions of how many digits will remain the same if the digits in the number 86217945 are rearranged in the ascending order?

    • (a) (b) One

None

  • (d) (e) More than three

Three

(c) Two

  • 6. In a certain code FLOWERS is written as EKNVDQR. How is SUPREME written in that code?

    • (a) (b) RTODQLD

TQDROLD

  • (d) (e) None of these

RTOQDLD

(c) TQDDROL

  • 7. The positions of the first and eigth digits of the number 56487931 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fifth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

    • (a) (b) 8

7

  • (d) (e) 3

1

(c) 9

  • 8. What should come next in the following letter series? ACFHKMPURUW?

    • (a) (b) Y

Z

  • (d) (e) T

V

(c) U

  • 9. Each vowel in the word DROWNED is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and then, the letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the left end in the new arrangment?

    • (a) (b) V

C

  • (d) (e) Q

P

(c) F

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  • 10. If ‘–’ means ‘+’, + means ‘ ', ‘ ' means ‘ ' and ‘ ' and 40 30 – 20 8 + 2 = ?

    • (a) (b) 05

20

  • (d) (e) 15

10

(c) 12

' Means ‘–’ then

Directions (Q. 11-16) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A shopkeeper placed eight models of air conditioners of different companies viz. Godrej L.G. Samsung, Carries, Whirlpool, Haier, Philips and Toshiba, in a row such that Carries is placed third to the left of Whirlpool and to the immediate right of L.G., Philips occupies second place from the right end and is also exactly between Haier and Godrej. Samsung is second to the left of Haier.

  • 11. Which brand is placed to the immediate right of Whirlpool?

    • (a) (b) Samsung

Haier

  • (d) (e) L.G.

Toshiba

(c) Philips

  • 12. Which brand is placed third to the left of Godrej?

    • (a) (b) Philips

Carries

  • (d) (e) L.G.

Whirlpool

(c) Samsung

  • 13. Which brand is fifth to the right of Carrier?

    • (a) (b) L.G.

Godrej

  • (d) (e) Philips

Haier

(c) Samsung

  • 14. Which of the following is definitely true?

    • (a) Whirlpool is placed fifth from the left end

    • (b) Samsung is placed sixth from the right end.

    • (c) Carries is placed exactly between L.G. and Samsung

    • (d) L.G. occupies first position from the right end

    • (e) All are true.

  • 15. Which of the following is the correct position of Haier?

    • (a) Sixth to the right of L.G.

    • (b) Third to the right of Toshiba.

    • (c) Exactly between Godrej and Whirlpool

    • (d) Third to the left of Godrej

    • (e) Data inadequate

  • 16. In which of the following is the first brand placed in between the second and the third brands?

    • (a) Toshiba, Samsung and Whirlpool

    • (b) L.G. Carrier and Toshiba

    • (c) Samsung Whirlpool and Haier

    • (d) Haier, Whiripool and and Philips

    • (e) Carries, Philips and L.G.

  • Directions (Q. 17-20): Each of the questions below consists of a questions and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statments and

    Give answer as :

    • (a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

    • (b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the questions, while the data in statement I along are not sufficient to answer the question.

    • (c) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

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    • (d) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

    • (e) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

      • 17. What does ‘ka’ mean in a code language?

        • I. ‘sa ka na’ means ‘she may work’ in that code language.

    II. ha ka ta’ means ‘work is workship’ in that code language.

    • 18. What is Sonal’s rank from the top in group of 10 students?

      • I. Meenu’s rank is three ranks above Sonal.

    II. Sita is second from the bottom and is three ranks below Sonal.

    • 19. On which day of month is defintely Dheeraj’s birthday?

      • I. Dheeraj’s brother correctly remembers that Dheeraj’s birthday is after 15th but before 19th of the month.

    II. Dheeraj’s friend correctly remembers that Dheeraj’s birthday is after 17th but before 21st of the month.

    • 20. How far is A from the starting point?

      • I. A drives 10km. towards East, then takes a right turn and drives another

        • 10 km. He again drives 15 km. towards left. Finally, he moves 15 km.

    towards left and stops.

    II. A drives 20 km. towards East, then takes a left turn and drives another

    • 20 km. He again drives 10 km. towards right and again drives 25 km.

    towards right. Finally he moves 30 km. towords right and stops.

    Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II III and IV, you have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

    • 21. Statements : All silver are metals. All metals are steel Some steel are stones All stones are stands. Conclusions : I.

    Some stands are metals.

    II. Some stones are silver III.Some stands are steel

    IV. Some stones are steel

    • (a) Only III and IV follow (b)

    Only I follows

    (c) Only II follows

    • (d) Only III follows

    (e) None of these

    • 22. Statements : All chairs are tables. All tables are songs. Some songs are rhything Some rhythms are pillows Conclusions : I.

    Some tables are chairs

    II. All tables are rhythms

    III.All chairs are songs. IV. Some pillows are songs.

    • (a) Only I and III follow (b)

    Only I and IV follow (c) Only I follows

    • (d) Only III follows

    (e) None of these

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    23.

    Statements : Some mobiles are pens.

     
     

    Some pens are covers. Some covers are plates. All plates are papers. Conclusions : I. All moblies are covers. II. Some pens are papers. III.All plates are pens. IV. Some papers are mobiles.

     

    (a)

    Only I follow

     

    (b) Only II follow

     

    (c)

    Only I and IV follow

    (d)

    Only II and IV follow (e) None follow

     
     

    24.

    Statements : All shoes are tables. Some tables are lanes. All caps are lanes Some lanes are row. Conclusions : I. Some tables are rows.

     

    II. Some tables are shoes. III.Some rows are caps. IV. Some lanes are shoes.

     
     

    (a)

    Only I and II follows (b) Only II follows

     

    (c)

    Only III follows

    (d)

    Only either I or IV follows

     

    (e)

    None of these

     

    25.

    Statements : All brands are bottles. All bottles are machines All machines are files. All files are roots.

     
     

    Conclusions : I. Some files are machines. II. Some brands are roots. III.Some machines are roots. IV. All brands are files.

     

    (a)

    None follows

     

    (b)

    Only I follows

     

    (c)

    Only IV follows

    (d)

    All follow

     

    (e)

    Only I and IV follow

     

    Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the numbers of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give (e) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

     

    Letters

     

    P

    Z

    K

    A

    F

    I

    D

    R

    M

    G

    Q

    E

    W

    S

     

    Digit/Symbol

    6

    9

    3

    8

    $

    2

    4

    7

    #

    1

    5

    %

    @

    Conditions:

     

    (i)

    If the second letters is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.

    (ii) If the second as well as last letters is a consonant, each one is to be coded as the code for the letters ‘F’.

    (iii) If the thrid as well as fourth letters is a vowel, then each one is to be coded as ‘

    26.

    SDGPIA

     
     

    (a)

    @81624

     

    (b) @82614

     

    (c) @41628

    (d)

     

    (e) None of these

     

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    • 27. ZIEAKM

     

    (a)

    923#

    (b) 92853#

    (c)

    92 3#

    (d)

    92583#

    (e) None of these

    • 28. WARMFQ

    (a)

    %©7#%$8

    (b) %87#$©

    (c)

    % 7#$

    (d)

    %78©$©

    (e) None of these

    • 29. EDSKIM

    (a)

    5@4#32

    (b) 54@32#

    (c) 5$@3$2

     

    (d)

    (e) None of these

    (a)

    45©1$8

    (b) $584©1

    (c) 8$145©

     

    (d)

    81$54©

    (e) None of these

    Directions (Q. 31-35) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

    4 $ 3 Z Y A 5 6 @ 7 P L E T Q S B 2 8 C 1 MU I X %

     
    • 31. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the tenth from the right end of the above arrangement?

    (a)

    B

    (b) 7

    (c) L

     

    (d)

    E

    (e) None of these

    • 32. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and not immdiately followed by a letter?

    (a)

    None

    (b) One

    (c) Two

     

    (d)

    Three

    (e) More than three

    • 33. If all the symbols and letters from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be fifth from the left end of the above arrangement?

    (a)

    4

    (b) 3

    (c) 5

     

    (d)

    7

    (e) 8

    • 34. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a vowel?

    (a)

    None

    (b) One

    (c) Two

     

    (d)

    Three

    (e) More than three

    • 35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

    (a)

    4ZA

    (b) $Y5

    (c) CU%

     

    (d)

    PTS

    (e) @LT%

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    Directions (Q. 36-40) : In each of the questions below which one of the following answer figures (a - e) should come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued?

    • 36. Problem Figures

    Answer Figures

    (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 37. Problem Figures Answer Figures (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 38.
    (a)
    (b)
    (c)
    (d)
    (e)
    37.
    Problem Figures
    Answer Figures
    (a)
    (b)
    (c)
    (d)
    (e)
    38.
    Problem Figures
    Answer Figures
    (a)
    (b)
    (c)
    (d)
    (e)
    39.
    Problem Figures
    Answer Figures
    (a)
    (b)
    (c)
    (d)
    (e)
    40.
    Problem Figures
    Answer Figures
    (a)
    (b)
    (c)
    (d)
    (e)

    TEST-II : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

    Directions (Q. 41-50) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

    In a villages in the East, there lived an old couple. They did not have any children and never spent an extra paisa on themselves. They never repaired their house or cooked good food. One day, a family moved into the village. It was their son's second birthday and they sent two delicious laddoos to the old couple. The couple ate the laddoos with great relish. For days after they could talk of nothing else. Finally they could talk of nothing it no more. He said to his wife. ‘‘Let's buy the ingredients to make just two laddoos.’’ His wife agreed but said. ‘‘If I make the laddoos at home, the neighbours will know and will want a share. Let's cook in the woods behind our hut. That way no one will ever know.’’

    The next day the old man purchased the ingredients from the market and they set off to the woods. Haveing never prepared food like this before ended up with three laddoos instead of two. The old couple returned home with the sweets dying to eat them. But there was a problem. ‘‘It was my idea and I went to the maket, so I ought to get two,’’ said the old man. But his wife refused to give in so easily and said,’’ Since I prepared the sweets, I ought to have two. ‘‘The sweets, I ought to have two. ‘‘The day wore on and the argrument continued.

    At last, the old man suggested, ‘‘Let us not talk to each other. Whoever breaks the silence first will get one laddoo and the other person two.’’ His

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    wife ageed. House passed, but neither of them spoke and finally they fell asleep with the bowl of sweets between them. That evening one of the neighbours knocked on the door but the couple did not answer for fear of losing the bet. Peering through the window. the man saw the couple lying on the floor with an untocuhed bowl of food. ‘‘They are dead!’’ He shouted and alerted the other villagers. Soon the door was broken down and the house was swarming with villagers. They discussed everying from the funeral to where the couple had hidden their wealth. But the couple lay still.

    Finally, the villagers carried them to the cremation ground. As the flames licked his feet, the old man jumped up screaming ‘‘You win’’ His wife jumped

    up too, happy that she had won. The two then rushed home leaving the

    bewilldered villagers present there behind. But when they got home

    Alas

    .... the door had been left open and they found a stray dog licking the last crumbs

    of the sweets from the bowl!.

    • 41. What caused the old couple’s sudden longing for laddoos?

      • (a) They hadn’t eaten good food for several days

      • (b) They had attended their neighbour’s party and enjoyed the laddoos served

      • (c) They saw the mouth watering laddoos being served to guests at the party

      • (d) They had tasted the laddoos prepared for their neighbour’s son’s birthday

      • (e) They thought that the laddoos would satisfy their hunger for days to come

  • 42. Why did the old couple cook in the woods?

    • (a) It was very convenient gather firewood

    • (b) To avoid the risk of their hut burning down

    • (c) To keep the fact that they were preparing laddoos a secret from their neighbours

    • (d) To hide the fact that they did not know how to prepare laddoos from their neigbours

    • (e) They did not have the ingredients to make enough laddoos for their neigbours as well

  • 43. Which of the following can be said about the the old couple?

    • (a) They did not have any relatives to look after them in their old age

    • (b) They were misers and did not spend even on keeping their house in good condition

    • (c) They were not allowed to eat sweets as they were old

    • (d) They were fond of animals and sometimes shared their food with stary animals

    • (e) They were afraid of the villagers and hid from them

  • 44. Which of the following is/are True in the context of the passage? (A)The old woman had prepared more laddoos than she had intended. (B)The family who had recently moved into the village were fond of the old couple. (C)The villagers were saddened by the death of the old couple and gave them a grand funeral.

    • (a) Only (A)

    (b)

    Only (B) and (C)

    (c) Only (A) and (B)

    • (d) All, (A), (B) and (C)

    (e)

    None of these

    • 45. Why did the neighbour peep into the old couple's house?

      • (a) To learn what they were beings so secretive about

      • (b) To spy on them and dicover where their wealth was hidden

      • (c) To complain as they had cooked in the forest

      • (d) To check up on the old couples as he did everay day

      • (e) Not clearly mentioned in the passage

    • 46. What puzzled the villagers?

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    (a)

    The old couple did not die in the fire

     

    (b)

    The sight of the old couple whom they had presumed dead, alive

    (c)

    The fact that the old couple had wasted good food

    (d)

    The lack of concern the old woman had for her husband

    (e)

    The old couple fed the laddoos to the dog

     
    • 47. Why did the old man scream when surrounded by the villagers?

    (a)

    He was afraid that his wife would get burned

    (b)

    To scare away the villagers who wanted to kill him for his money

    (c)

    His wife refused to allow him to eat more than one laddoo

    (d)

    To indicate to the villagers that he was alive

    (e)

    The fear of being hurt in the fire

     
    • 48. What did the old couple disagree about?

    (a)

    Where they would cook their meal

    (b)

    Which of them was entitled to the first laddoo

    (c)

    Whether to share the extra laddoo with their neighbours

    (d)

    The quantity of laddoos that they had made

    (e)

    None of these

    • 49. What was the villager’s reaction to the old couple’s presumed death’?

    (a)

    They were upset and all came to pay their last respects

    (b)

    They were worried about how to pay for the funeral

    (c)

    They could not decide what to do with the couple’s wealth

    (d)

    They disliked the old couple and demolished their house

    (e)

    They dutifully arranged the couples last rites

    • 50. Why did the old couple initially not reveal that they were alive to the villagers?

    (a)

    To learn the villagers’ ture opinion of them

    (b)

    They did not like the villagers and were mocking them

    (c)

    Neither of them wanted to be the first to speak and lose the bet

    (d)

    To test the honesty of the villagers

     

    (e)

    None of these

    Directions (Q. 51-53) : Which of the following is most similar in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage.

    • 51. SHARE

     

    (a)

    half

    (b) part

    (c) participate

    (d)

    divide

    (e) common

    • 52. BREAKS

    (a)

    interrupts

    (b) separates

    (c) solves

    (d)

    defeates

    (e) escapes

    • 53. PASSED

    (a)

    overtook

    (b) occupied

    (c) unnoticed

    (d)

    elapsed

    (e) succeeded

    Directions (Q. 54-55) : Which is most opposite in meanning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.

    • 54. STILL

     

    (a)

    restless

    (b) noisily

    (c) consicous

    (d)

    calmly

    (e) lifeless

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    • 55. LAST

    (a) new

    (b) begin

    (c) conscious

    (d) calmly

    (e)

    lifeless

    Directions (Q. 56-65) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the answer. If there is no error, mark (e).

    • 56. The main advantage of (a)/ investing such schmes(b)/ is that you will not (c)/ have to pay any taxes (d). No error, mark (e)

    • 57. That customer has (a)/ written a letter (b)/ thanks the manager (c)/ for her timely help (d). No error (e)

    • 58. Our company was recently (a)/ award the contract (b)/ to construct two major (c)/bridges in the state (d). No error (e)

    • 59. According the circular (a)/ that was issued yesterday RBI (b)/ has raised the rate at (c)/ which it lends to banks (d). No error (e)

    • 60. Their company is going to incur (a)/ heavy losses this year because (b)/ of the big discounts they (c)/ offers to customers (d). No error (e)

    • 61. A lare number of policy (a)/ have lapsed because many (b)/ people have not paid (c)/ their instalments on time (d). No erros (e)

    • 62. The Foreign Investments Promotion Board is (a)/ the governments body who (b)/ regulatates investment received (c)/ by India factories from foreign countries (d). No error (e)

    • 63. The final decision can (a)/ be taken only after (b)/ we consider all (c)/ the panel suggestions (d). No error (e)

    • 64. If his aim is to (a)/ buy a house in the (b)/ next three years he (c)/ should start immediate saving, (d). No error (e)

    • 65. Can you exaplain why (a)/ you were late this morning (b)/ when we had to make (c)/ such an important presentation? (d). No error (e)

    Directions (Q. 66-70) : In each question below a sentance with four words printed in bold type is given, These are numbered as (a), (b) (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inapporpriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (e) i.e. All correct as your answer.

    • 66. He found (a)/ the company in 1980 to provide (b)/electricity to people living (c)/ in rural areas. (d)/ All corrct (e)

    • 67. Salaries (a)/ of bank employees (b)/ are likely (c)/ to go above (d)/ by ten per cent. All correct (e)

    • 68. The Chairman has promissed (a)/ to look (b)/ into the matter (c)/ and take necessary (d)/ action. All correct (e)

    • 69. Since (a)/ the interest rate on bank deposits is low (b)/ at present, people prefer (c)/ to deposit their savings (d)/ in post office schemes. All correct (e).

    • 70. Most (a)/ projects are dealyed (b)/ because of absents (c)/ or proper planning (d)./ All correct (e)

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    Directions (Q. 71-80) : In the follwoing passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

    A rich merchant owned a beautiful horse. Now, one of this neighbours was keen to 71 this horse, He offered the merchant gold 72 the merchant refuesed. This angered the neighbour. He 73 to trick the merchant. He disguised himself 74 a beggar and lay down at the 75 of beggar and lay down at the 76 of the road, that the merchant used everyday, at the sad plight of the beggar, he 77 from his horse and gently lifted the beggar 78 his horse. No sooner did the beggar get into the 79 than he galloped away. But hearing the merchant 80 out to him he stopped when he was a safe distance away. ‘‘Please don't tell anyone how you come to possess this horse. Some day an ill man may be lying by the roadside and people who have heard about your trick, may not want to help, ‘‘said the merchant. The merchant’s neighbour was deeply ashamed, rode back and returned the horse to the merchant.

    • 71. (b) buy

    (a)

    sell

    • (d) (e) train

    free

    • 72. (b) so

    (a)

    since

    • (d) (e) but

    otherwise

    • 73. (b) desires

    (a)

    deceived

    • (d) (e) deliberately

    declined

    • 74. (b) being

    (a)

    similar

    • (d) (e) identical

    as

    • 75. (b) middle

    (a)

    side

    • (d) (e) distance

    ending

    • 76. (b) Carefully

    (a)

    Unhappliy

    • (d) (e) Upsetting

    Misery

    • 77. (b) stepped

    (a)

    climbed

    • (d) (e) dismounted

    fell

    • 78. (b) with

    (a)

    onto

    • (d) (e) off

    from

    • 79. (b) saddle

    (a)

    way

    • (d) (e) danger

    horse

    • 80. (b) appeal

    (a)

    beg

    • (d) (e) cried

    call

    (c) steal

    (c) unless

    (c) decided

    (c) alike

    (c) gutter

    (c) Distressed

    (c) jump

    (c) above

    (c) arms

    (c) shouted

    TEST-III : NUMERICAL ABILITY

    Directions (Q.81–85): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

    ?
    ?
    • 81. = (153 46) 18

      • (a) (b) 151321

    149769

    • (d) (e) None of these

    154449

    • 82. (3834 27) (3920 112) = ?

      • (a) (b) 4430

    4210

    • (d) (e) 4970

    4750

    (c) 152881

    (c) 4560

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    • 83. 2.8%of 1220 + 7.4% of 780 = ?

    (a)

    87.72

    (b) 91.88

    (c) 93.42

    (d)

    94.56

    (e) None of these

    • 84. 0.6 2.8 3.5 0.0049 = ?

    (a)

    840

    (b) 900

    (c) 1080

    (d)

    1200

    (e) 1250

    • 85. 30% of

    85. 30% of 15625 + 70% of 3 3375

    15625 + 70% of

    3 3375
    3
    3375

    (a)

    48

    (b) 55

    (c) 64

    (d)

    72

    (e) 75

    Directions (Q.86–90): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

    • 86. (280% of 1525) 16.96 = ?

    (a)

    210

    (b) 220

    (c) 230

    (d)

    240

    (e) 250

    • 87. 668.612 + 119.19 21.86 79.54 = ?

     

    (a)

    3000

    (b) 3100

    (c) 3200

    (d)

    3300

    (e) 3400

    • 88. 612.98 15.05 6.12 = ?

    (a)

    7

    (b) 12

    (c) 15

    (d)

    18

    (e) 20

    3 615
    3 615
    • 89. ?

    (a)

    4.5

    (b) 5.5

    (c) 6.5

    (d)

    7.5

    (e) 8.5

    • 90. (314% of 711) 114 = ?

    (a)

    16

    (b) 20

    (c) 24

    (d)

    28

    (e) 32

    Directions (Q. 91–95): Find out the next number in place of quesion mark (?) in the following number series.

    • 91. 27

    50

    192

    1140

    9104

    ?

    (a)

    90080

    (b) 91020

    (c) 92410

    (d)

    92740

    (e) None of these

    • 92. ?

    16

    49

    345

    3798

    (a)

    56974

    (b) 56812

    (c) 55784

    (d)

    54312

    (e) None of these

    • 93. 5

    47

    417

    3327

    23277

    ?

    (a)

    131642

    (b) 133712

    (c) 135416

    (d)

    139647

    (e) None of these

    • 94. ?

    3

    37

    285

    1749

    8797

    (a)

    34856

    (b) 35062

    (c) 35253

    (d)

    35416

    (e) 35622

    • 95. 1807

    7

    736

    1248

    1591

    ?

    (a)

    1932

    (b) 2008

    (c) 2140

    (d)

    2190

    (e) 2216

    ONLINE TEST

    Directions (Q. 96–100): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equation and give answer

    (a) if x

    > y

    y

    (b) if x

    y

    (c) if x < y

    (d) if

    (e) if x = y or no relaion can be established between x and y

    • 96. 35x 2 53x + 20 = 0

    I.

    II. 56y 2 97y + 42 = 0

     
    • 97. I. x =

    3 4913
    3 4913

    II. 13y + 3x = 246

    • 98. x 2 5x 14 = 0

    I.

     

    II. y 2 + 7y + 10 = 0

    • 99. I. x 2 3481 = 0

    II. 3y 2 =

    3 216000
    3 216000
    • 100. I. 5x 2 + 2x 3 = 0

    II. 2y 2 + 7y + 6 = 0

    • 101. A shopkeeper sold certain items at 630 each after giving 25% discount on the labelled price. Had he not given the discount, he would have earned a profit of 40% on the cost. What was the cost price of each item?

    • (a) (b)

    600

    540

    (c) 800

    • (d) (e) 750

    720

    • 102. The compound interest on a certain amount for two years is 1883.52 and the simple interest is 1728. What is the amount?

    • (a) (b)

    4000

    4500

    (c) 4800

    • (d) (e) 5400

    5000

    • 103. How many numbers between 300 and 1000 can be made with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 0?

    • (a) (b) 210

    280

    (c) 5040

    • (d) (e) None of these

    300

    • 104. 15 persons are seated around a table. What is the probability that four particular persons always sit together?

    1

    1

    91

    4

    • (a) 546

    (b)

    (c)

    455

    1

    • (d) (e) None of these

    2184

     
    • 105. A person can row 48 km upstream and 70 km downstream in 13 hours and he can row 30 km upstream and 56 km downstream in 9 hours. What is the speed of the person in still water?

    • (a)

    1

    (b)

    10 kmh 1

    • (d) (e)

    6 kmh 1

    12 kmh 1

    (c) 8 kmh 1

    • 106. Two trains can run at a speed of 30 ms 1 and 25 ms 1 respectively on parallel tracks. When they are running in opposite directions they cross each other in 4 seconds. When they are running in the same direction, a person sitting in the faster train observes that he passes the other train in 28 seconds. What is the ratio of the lengths of the two trains?

      • (a) (b) 7 : 4

    5 : 4

    • (d) (e) None of these

    7 : 5

    (c) 5 : 3

    • 107. A man, a woman and a boy can do a work in 40 days, 60 days and 80 days respectively. How many boys must assist 5 men and 6 women to do the work in 4 days? (a) 2

    (b) 4

    (c) 5

    ONLINE TEST

    • 108. In a two-digit number the digit in unit’s place is 1.5 times the digit in ten’s place and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is more than the original number by 18. What is 250% of the original number?

      • (a) (b) 160

    115

    • (d) (e) None of these

    70

    (c) 80

    • 109. The population of a city increases consistently by 20% per year. If the present population of the city is 151200, what was its population 3 years back?

      • (a) (b) 90000

    120000

    • (d) (e) None of these

    80000

    (c) 87500

    • 110. In a cricket match, the captain of one team scored 48 runs more than the average runs scored by the remaining five batsmen of the team who batted in the match. What is the difference between the total runs scored by these five batsmen and the runs scored by the captain?

      • (a) (b) 140

    162

    • (d) (e) Data inadicate

    112

    (c) 132

    Directions (Q. 111-115): The following bar-graph shows the number of adult Males and Females of six cities and the line graph shows percentage of adult Males and Females who voted in the last election:

    ONLINE TEST 108. In a two-digit number the digit in unit’s place is 1.5 times the

    Number of adult Males (in thousand)

    Number of adult Females (in thousand)

    % of adult Males who voted in the last election

    % of adult Females who voted in the last election

    100 90 90 80 80 72 80 75 72 75 72 75 70 70 64 70
    100
    90
    90
    80
    80
    72
    80
    75
    72
    75
    72
    75
    70
    70
    64
    70
    70
    60
    56
    60
    65
    48
    50
    48
    50
    56
    50
    40
    40
    45
    30
    25
    20
    A
    B
    C
    D
    E
    F
    • 111. What is the total number of Females from all the six cities together who voted in the last election?

    • (a) (b) 229160

    229060

    (c) 229260

    • (d) (e) 229460

    229360

    • 112. In which pair of cities are the numbers of Males who voted in the last election equal?

    • (a) (b)

    A and B

    B and C

    (c)

    C and D

    • (d) (e)

    A and C

    B and D

    • 113. What is the difference between the total number of Males and the total number of Males who voted in the last election?

      • (a) (b) 122850

    121750

    • (d) (e) None of these

    124550

    (c) 123740

    • 114. The total number of Females from City A and City C together who voted in the last election is what percentage of the total number of Males from City A who voted in the last election?

      • (a) (b) 80%

    75%

    • (d) (e) 150%

    120%

    (c) 90%

    ONLINE TEST

    • 115. The total number of Females from City F who voted in the last election is what percentage less than the total number of Males from the same city who voted in the last election?

      • (a) (b) 60%

    72%

    • (d) (e) 25%

    30%

    (c) 45%

    Directions (Q. 116–120): In a society, there are total 200 families. Out of that 47.5% people have taken subscription of AXN channel, 53.5% have taken HBO and 54% Star Movies channel. 6% of them have taken subscription of AXN and HBO but not Star Movies. 10% of the people have taken Star Movies and HBO but not AXN and 15% people have taken the subscription of all the three channels.

    Answer the following questions based on the given information.

    • 116. How many families are there who have taken the subscription of Star Movies and AXN but not HBO?

      • (a) (b) 20

    12

    • (d) (e) 48

    30

    (c) 18

    • 117. How many families are there who have taken the subscription of either only AXN or only HBO?

      • (a) (b) 80

    75

    • (d) (e) None of these

    85

    (c) 90

    • 118. What percentage of families have taken the subscription of Star Movies only?

      • (a) (b) 54%

    15%

    • (d) (e) 22.5%

    20%

    (c) 39%

    • 119. How many families are there who have taken the subscription of exactly two channels out of the given three?

      • (a) (b) 80

    50

    • (d) (e) None of these

    30

    (c) 120

    • 120. The number of families who have taken the subscription of at least two channels from the given three options is what percentage of the number of families who have taken the subscription of exactly one channel from the given three options?

      • (a) (b) 60%

    45%

    • (d) (e) None of these

    75%

    (c) 72%

    TEST-IV : GENERAL AWARENESS

    • 121. Which of the following is the biggest tax paying sectors in India?

      • (a) Agriculture sector

      • (d) Tourism sector

    (b) Industrial sector

    (e) Banking sector

    (c) Transport sector

    • 122. What is the purpose of the India Brand Equity Fund?

      • (a) To promote inbound tourism

      • (b) To make ‘Made in India' a label of quality

      • (c) To organise trade fairs

      • (d) To provide venture capital to IT sector

      • (e) None of these

  • 123. Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) from which of the following countries are proposed to be considered for dual citizenship with India?

    • (a) (b) US

    Fiji

    (c) Zimbabwe

    • (d) Russia

    Sri Lanka

    (e)

    ONLINE TEST

    • 124. Fiscal policy is related to

      • (a) money supply in the economy

      • (b) regulation of the banking system

      • (c) planning for economic development

      • (d) government's revenue and expenditure

      • (e) None of these

    • 125. Name the economist who led the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to develop the Human Development Indicators (HDI) which are used in the Human Development Reports (HDR) published by UNDP since
      1990.

      • (a) Prof Mahboob-ul-Haq (b) Muhammad Yunus

    (d) Amartya Sen

    (e) Paul Krugman

    (c) Ashma Jahangir

    • 126. As per the guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a must for which of the following?

    (a)Demat Accounts

    (b)

    All Savings Bank Accounts

    • (c) All Housing Loan Accounts

    (d)

    All Current Accounts

    • (e) None of these

    • 127. Name the committee which has been set up by the government of India to provide a road map for formulating a Green National Accounting (GNA) system to evaluate the impact of economic growth on environment by 2015.

    • (a) Jairam Ramesh Committee

    (b)

    Partha Dasgupta Committee

    • (c) Rangarajan Committee

    (d)

    Pulok Chatterjee Committee

    • (e) Yashwant Sinha Committee

    • 128. Who among the following is regarded as the architect of the Indian planning system?

    • (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

    (b)

    PC Mahalanobis

    • (c) Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraiyya

    (d)

    MN Roy

    • (e) Harrod-Domar

    • 129. Which of the following is the biggest borrower in India?

      • (a) Indian Government

      • (c) Indian Railways

      • (e) Public Sector Undertakings

    (b) Reserve Bank of India

    (d)

    State Governments

    • 130. Which of the following may not be an impact of inflation on the Indian economy?

      • (a) Increase in income disparities

      • (b) Formal or informal devaluation of currency

      • (c) Dampening of imports

      • (d) Dampening of the investment climate

      • (e) Economic recession

  • 131. In preparing the Human Development Index (HDI) for different countries, which of the following factors is not measured by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?

    • (a) Long and healthy life

    (b)

    Empowerment of women

    • (c) Access

    to knowledge

    (d)

    Decent standard of living

    • (e) All the above are measured

    ONLINE TEST

    • 132. The first public sector bank of India which was given ISO certification was

      • (a) State Bank of India

    (d) Canara Bank

    (b) Punjab National Bank (c) Allahabad Bank

    (e)

    Central Bank of India

    • 133. Which of the following is not a function of the EXIM bank?

      • (a) Financing of joint ventures in foreign countries

      • (b) Financing of export and import of machinery and equipment on lease basis

      • (c) Financing of export from and import into not only India, but also to other countries of goods and services

      • (d) Providing loans to a foreign party so as to enable it to contribute in the share capital of a joint venture in India

      • (e) None of these

  • 134. Which of the following will hold true if a cheque is postdated?

    • (a) The bank on whom it is drawn will not honour the cheque before the date on the cheque

    • (b) The bank on whom it is drawn has to honour the cheque before the date on the cheque

    • (c) The bank on whom it is drawn has the option to honour the cheque before the date on the cheque or not

    • (d) The bank on whom it is drawn has to refer to RBI to honour the cheque before the date on the cheque

    • (e) The bank on whom it is drawn has to refer to the court to honour the cheque before the date on the cheque

  • 135. e-Zameen, a project that authenticates sale of immovable property and reduces time for registration of a sale deed, is an initiative of which of the following state governments?

    • (a) Gujarat

    (b) Bihar

    (c) Uttar Pradesh

    • (d) Andhra Pradesh

    Rajasthan

    (e)

    • 136. Which of the following accounts for the highest share in India's foreign exchange reserves?

      • (a) Foreign currency assets (b)

      • (c) Special Depository Receipts

      • (e) None of these

    (d)

    Gold reserves

    Gilt-edged securities

    • 137. Which of the following has launched ‘Credible India' campaign aimed at making the country an attractive global investment destination for foreign and domestic firms recently?

      • (a) (b) NCAER

    CII

    • (d) (e) FICCI

    CMIE

    (c) ASSOCHAM

    • 138. The central government of India is empowered to borrow any amount it likes from the Reserve Bank of India through which of the following instruments?

      • (a) Commercial Papers (b) Treasury Bills

    (d) Repo Rate

    (e) None of these

    (c) Certificates of Deposit

    • 139. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has authorised commercial banks to deposit with it a stipulated ratio of their net total liabilities, called Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). CRR can vary from three per cent to up to what per cent of net total liabilities? (a) 8%

    (b) 10%

    (c) 12%

    ONLINE TEST

    • 140. Which of the following was the first commercial bank of India in the history of Indian banking system?

    • (a) Bank of Bengal

    (b)

    Imperial Bank of India

    • (c) Hindustan Bank

    (d)

    Allahabad Bank

    • (e) State Bank of India

    • 141. As per the new guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPO)?

    • (a) (b)

    30 days

    25 days

    (c) 20 days

    • (d) (e) 45 days

    12 days

    • 142. Under the priority sector lending stipulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the commercial banks, what percentage of net credit of these banks are kept aside for lending to weaker sections?

      • (a) (b) 18%

    40%

    • (d) (e) 8%

    15%

    (c) 10%

    • 143. The post of chairman of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) is allotted to a person belonging to which of the following countries?

      • (a) (b) Philippines

    China

    • (d) (e) Singapore

    India

    (c) Japan

    • 144. The term ASBA (Applications Supported by Blocked Amount) is used in which of the following financial services?

      • (a) General insurance

      • (d) Micro-finance

    (b) Capital market

    (c) Life insurance

    (e) Non-Banking Finance Corporation

    • 145. What is Green Index?

      • (a) It measures a nation's wealth according to GNP per capita.

      • (b) It measures a nation's wealth according to GDP per capita.

      • (c) It measures a nation's wealth according to provisions of control on greenhouse gases.

      • (d) It measures a nation's wealth in terms of coverage of forest area.

      • (e) None of these

  • 146. Which of the following countries is to host the regional investors' meet on Afghanistan shortly? It will be attended by China, Pakistan and Iran among 13 participating countries.

    • (a) (b) China

    Russia

    (c) Pakistan

    • (d) United States

    India

    (e)

    • 147. According to the latest data released by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, which of the following states of India has emerged as the state with the highest incidence of registered atrocities against Dalits across the country?

    • (a) (b) Rajasthan

    Madhya Pradesh

    (c) Bihar

    • (d) Andhra Pradesh

    Uttar Pradesh

    (e)

    • 148. Which of the following countries is in the process of raising the newest national army in the world?

    • (a) Afghanistan

    South Sudan

    (b)

    (c) Syria

    • (d) Libya

    (e) Sudan

    ONLINE TEST

    • 149. Who among the following is heading an Inter-Ministerial Group (IMG) for developing a coordinated approach for optimal exploitation of coal bed methane, underground coal gasification and shale gas?

    • (a) BK Chaturvedi

    (b)

    GC Chaturvedi

    (c) Alok Perti

    • (d) S Narsing Rao

    (e)

    M S Prasad

    • 150. Retcently, the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has upgraded the requirements for star rating of split room air conditioners. By what per cent has the energy efficiency standards been raised?

    • (a) (b)

    8 per cent

    5 per cent

    (c) 3.3 per cent

    • (d) (e)

    2.5 per cent

    8.5 per cent

    • 151. In its 90-year history, which of the following universities celebrated its foundation day on May 2?

      • (a) Jamia Millia Islamia

    (b)

    Guru Gobind Singh University

    • (c) IGNOU

    (d) Delhi University

    • (e) JNU

    • 152. Which of the following state governments has extended its partnership with Cure International to offer better care for children born with club foot condition, and will pursue campaign to reach out to all children with such condition and ensure their treatment making it country's first club-foot-free state?

      • (a) (b) Rajasthan

    Haryana

    • (d) (e) Maharashtra

    Delhi

    (c) Uttar Pradesh

    • 153. According to a report recently published by Save the Children, which of the following countries is at the first position in terms of deaths due to pre-term birth?

    • (a) Philippines

    (b) India

    (c) Indonesia

    • (d) Bangladesh

    (e) Maldives

    • 154. Which celebrated children's author's debut adult novel is to be called The Casual Vacancy ?

    • (a) (b) Sydney Sheldon

    Dan Brown

    (c) JK Rowling

    • (d) John Grisham

    (e)

    Stephenie Meyer

    • 155. Which of the following banks has the slogan ‘A passion to perform'?

    • (a) (b) Bank of America

    HSBC Bank

    (c) Barclays Bank

    • (d) ABN Amro

    (e)

    Deutsche Bank

    • 156. Which of the following is the only state in India using road-tracks fitted with sensors?

    • (a) (b) Delhi

    Karnataka

    (c) Andhra Pradesh

    • (d) Madhya Pradesh

    Gujarat

    (e)

    • 157. In which of the following states would a tropical butterfly conservatory be set up to protect butterfly species and create awareness among public of the importance of butterfly in maintaining ecological balance and biodiversity?

    • (a) Himachal Pradesh

    (b) Tamil Nadu

    (c) Kerala

    • (d) Manipur

    (e)

    Arunachal Pradesh

    • 158. “World Development Report” is an annual publication of

      • (a) United Nations Development Programme

      • (b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development

      • (c) World Trade Organisation

      • (d) International Monetary Fund

      • (e) Asian Development Bank

    ONLINE TEST

    • 159. Name the US-based airlines which will soon become the world's first air carrier to produce its own jet fuel by buying an oil refinery near Philadelphia from the Phillips 66, an oil company, for 150 million dollars.

    (a)

    American Airlines (b) JetBlue Airways (c) Delta Airlines

    (d)

    Sky West Airlines (e) Frontier Airlines

     
    • 160. With which of the following countries has the US signed a historic Strategic Partnership Agreement outlining cooperation between the two countries after withdrawal of all international forces in 2014?

    (a)

    Syria

    (b) Afghanistan

    (c) South Sudan

    (d)

    Libya

    (e) Iraq

     

    TEST-V : COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

    • 161. The most widely used input device is the

     

    (a)

    mouse

    (b) keyboard

    (c) modem

    (d)

    monitor

    (e) None of these

    • 162. A CPU contains

     

    (a)

    a card reader and a printing device

     

    (b)

    an analytical engine and a contorl unit

    (c)

    a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

    (d)

    an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

    (e)

    None of these

    • 163. The ability of an OS to run more than one application at a time is called

    (a)

    multitasking

    (b)

    object-oriented programming

    (c)

    multi-user computing

    (d)

    time sharing

    (e)

    None of these

    • 164. Permanent instructions that the computer uses when it is turned on and that cannot be changed by other instructions are contained in

    (a)

    ROM

    (b) RAM

    (c) ALU

    (d)

    REM

    (e) None of these

    • 165. Computations and logical operations are performed by the

    (a)

    RAM

    (b) ALU

    (c) Register

    (d)

    Control unit

    (e)

    None of these

    • 166. The benefit of using computers is that

     

    (a)

    Computers are very fast and can store huge amounts of data

    (b)

    Computers provide accurate output even when input is incorrect

    (c)

    Computers are designed to be inflexible

     

    (d)

    All of these

    (e)

    None of these

    • 167. Developing sets of instructions for the computer to follow and to do the taks the same way as many times as needed is called

    (a)

    listing

    (b) sequencing

    (c) programming

    (d)

    directing

    (e) None of these

    • 168. The term used to define all input and output devices in a computer system is

    (a)

    Monitor

    (b) Software

    (c) Shared resources

    (d)

    Hardware

    (e) None of these

    ONLINE TEST

    • 169. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resorce in a computer network?

    (a)

    Printers

    (b) Speakers

    (c) Floppy disk drives

    (d)

    Keyboards

    (e) None of these

    • 170. The vast network of computers that connects millions of people all over the world is called

    (a)

    LAN

    (b) Web

    (c) Hypertext

    (d)

    Internet

    (e) None of these

    • 171. Which is not an item of hardware?

    (a)

    An MP3 file

    (b)

    A keyboard

    (c) A disk drive

    (d)

    A monitor

    (e)

    None of these

    • 172. To shrink a window to an icon

    (a)

    open a group window (b) minimise a window (c) maximise a window

    (d)

    restore a window (e)

    None of these