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American Student Dental Assoc iation

National Board Dental Examinations
TEST PACKET II-M
Compiled, released it ems from approximately 2000-2008
American Student Dental Association
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C> 2009 Amer ican Dental Association. All right s reserved.
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JOINT COMMI SSI ON ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLI NOIS 60611
3
2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commissionon National Dental Examinations. All rightsreserved.
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Part II Released Items 5
Case A Questions 23
Case B Questions 24
Case A 26
Case B 31
Answer Key 36
1.
2.
3.
A patient has pain over the left pre-auricular area;
this patient can open approximately 45 mm and
has a "pop-and-ctck" in the joint area. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome.
B. internal derangement with reduction.
C. auriculotemporal syndrome.
D. coronoid hyperplasia.
Erythromycin is responsible for numerous drug
interactions, some of which are fatal. This is
because erythromycin
A. increases the absorption of many drugs.
B. decreases the absorption of many drugs.
C. decreases cytochrome P-450 metabolism of
other drugs.
D. increases renal reabsorption of many drugs.
E. decreases distribution of many drugs.
The penetrating quality of x-ray beams is
influenced by which of Ihe following?
A. Kilovoltage
B. Milliamperage
C. Exposure time
D. Focal-film distance
E. Filament temperature
6.
7.
8.
9.
A 2-day-old developing plaque consists primarily of
A Treponema species.
B. Bacteroides species.
C. filamentous organisms.
D. gram-positive cocci and rods .
E. a structureless, non-mineralized pellicle.
Each of the following is an electromagnetic
radialion EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Radar
B. X rays
C. Alpha rays
D. Gamma rays
E. Visible light
Which of the fallowing is NOT a complication of
radiation therapy?
A. Mucositis
B. Xerostomia
C. Osteoradionecrosis
D. Granuloma
Each of the following is known to contribute to
orofaclal c1efting EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
Contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscle moves
the articular disk in which of the following
directions?
10 . Which of the following physical signs indicates
severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
4.
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Ant eriorly and medially
Posteriorly and medially
Anteriorly and laterally
Posteriorly and laterally
Anteriorly, laterally, and inferiorly
A
B.
c.
D.
Valium
Poor diet
Acetaminophen
Vitamin deficiency or excess
5. A decrease in which of the following causes an
increase in radiog raphic density?
A.
B.
c.
D.
Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light
reflex
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Milliamperage (mA)
Kilovoltage peak (kVp)
Object-film distance
Source-film distance
Exposure time
5
11. Subconjunctival hemorrhage is most commonly
found in which of the followi ng fractures?
A Nasal
B. LeFort I
C. Frontal sinus
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Zygomaticomaxillary complex
2009.American DentalAssociation, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rightsreserved.
18. Acute pyogenic bacterial infections produce
12.
13.
Which of the following drug groups incr eases
intraocular pres sure and is, therefore,
contraindicated in patients with glaucoma?
A. Catecholamines
B. Belladonna alkaloids
C. Anticholi nesterases
D. Organophosphates
Which of the fonowing besl describes a vestibu-
loplasty?
A Bone is added to the mandible to augment
ils height.
B. Osseoi ntegrated denial implants are placed
10support prosthesis.
C. Soft tissue is repositioned in order to
increase the area on which the denture may
be supported.
D. The chi n is augmented to enhance estheti cs.
E. Periodontal tissue is removed from around a
tooth to establish a biologic width.
17.
19.
An analgesic compound #3 contains how many mg
of codeine?
A. 7.5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60
A. leukopenia.
B. lymphopenia.
C. neutropenia.
D. leukocytosis.
E. lymphocytosis.
A 35-year-old woman has an acute dentoalveolar
abscess. Which of the following conditions will be
the most likely to compl icat e the management of
this patient?
14. On a new patient's initi al appointment. the dentist
should do which of the following first?
A
B.
c.
D.
Asthma
Epilepsy
Chemotherapy
Hypertension
A
B.
c.
D.
Establish rapport
Inform
Gather information
Evaluate
20. Which of the following is indicated to correct a
condition of atropine poisoning evidenced by rapid
heart rate, dry mouth and gastrointestinal
inactivity?
15, An elderly pati ent has worn a maxillary complete
denture against 6 mandi bular anterior teeth for an
extended period of time. In examining the
edentulous mouth of this patient, the dentist would
probably see which of the following?
A.
B.
C
o.
E.
Nicotine
Homatropine
Epinephrine
Pilocarpine
Physostigmine
16. The use of study casts in orthognalhic surgery
does each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
c.
D.
Intrusion of the mandibular anterior teeth
Flabby ridge tissue in the pos terior maxillary
arch
Loss of osseous structure in the anterior
maxillary arch
Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the
anterior palatine nerve
21. If a patient suddenly becomes unconscious during
treatment. the practiti oner should immediately
assess the patient's
A. airway and pulse .
B. airway and blood pressure.
C. pulse and blood pressu re.
D. color and pupils.
A, Constructs splints
B. Performs model surgery
C. Determines the postoperative occlusion
D. Identifi es the type of skeletal deformity
E. Aids in expl aining the surgical procedure to
the patient
6
2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All ri ghts reserved.
22. Gi ngival overgrowth . hi rsutism, coa rsening of facial
features, lymph gland hypertrophy, cognitive
deficits, and fetal abnormalities are side effects
associated with which of the following antlepileptic
drugs?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Carbamazepi ne (Tegretoj)
C. vaioroate (Depakene)
D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
27. What space management treatment should be
planned for a chi ld age 4. missing both primary
mandibular first molars with no primate space
present?
A. Lingual arch
B. Distal shoe{s)
C. Nance holding arch
D. Band-and-loop space mainta iner(s)
E. Observation; no space mai ntai ner
necessary.
Which of the following should be performed fi rst for
a collapsed or unconscious victim of illness or
accident?
Each of the followi ng characterizes an impending
insulin shock EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
23
A.
B.
C.
D.
Open the ai rway
Est abli sh unresponsiveness
Establish pulselessness
Examine thevictim for bleeding and
fract ures
28.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Weakness
Convulsions
Mental confusion
Cold perspiration
24.
25.
A patient presents with facia l lacerations thai have
lrreqular or devitalized wound edges. In excising
the wound elliptically, a practitioner takes into
account each of the foll owing EXCEPT one. Which
is the EXCEPTION?
A, Excision is perpendicular to the natural skin
tension lines.
B. Length to width ratio of the excisi on is at
least 3 to 1.
C. Excision is done as conservatively as
possible.
D. The wound is undermined prior to closure.
Which of the following represents the major route
of excretion of peni cillin V?
A. Secretion in the bile and into the feces
B. Excretion in the urine as inactive metabolites
C. Total metabolism by the liver and excretion
in the feces
D. Secretion not metabolized in the urine
29.
30.
31.
An unconscious patient is suspected of having an
obstructed airway. How should this patient be
managed?
A. Protrude the tongue, clear the pharynx,
extend the neck, and protrude the mandibl e
B. Extend the neck, cl ear the pharynx, protrude
the tongue. and protrude the mandible
C. Extend the neck, protrude the mandible,
protrude the tongue, and clear the phary nx
D. Clear the pharynx, extend the neck, protrude
the mandible, and protrude the tongue
A tender swelling in the soft tissue of the
submandibular triangle is most likely caused by
A. lipoma .
B. lymphadenopathy.
C. an obstruction of stensen's duct.
D. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst.
Which of the following is the least helpful in
determining the anatomical integrity of the
temporomandibular joint?
26. WhiCh of the following systemi c conditions lowers
resistance, impairs healing , and indicates early use
of antibiotics for infections?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Diabet es mellitus
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
7
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Arthrography
Arthroscopy
Panora mic fil ms
Computerized tomog raphy
Magnetic resonance imaging
10 2009, American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
32. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam restoration
has a defici ent margi n at the proximogingivar
cavosurface angle. This might have been caused
by which of the following?
A. Overtightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C, Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of
amalgam
36. Which of the following is a local contraindication for
the surgical removal of an impacted tooth?
A. A nonvital tooth
8. Fever of unknown origin
C. A history of bleeding disorder
D. An undiagnosed ulcer in the oral cavity
E. Pale gingiva with a confirmed history of
anemia
33.
34.
Each of the following measures can minimize
fractures of the maxillary alveolar process
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A Use of controlled force when using forceps
and elevators
B. Removal of buccal bone and/or sectioning of
teeth
C. A thorough presurgical analysis and planning
alterations in the surgica l approach
D. Use of the maxillary pinch grasp 10detect
expansion of the alveolar bone
E. Use of forceps with beaks that grasp the
roots more firmly
Ethyl alcohol is a good antidote for methanol
poisoning because
37.
38.
Which of the following properties increases when
the intermediate chain of a local anesthetic drug is
lengthened?
A. Potency
8. Allergenicity
C. Solubility in water
D. Rate of botranstormanon
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of
chemical vapor sterili zation?
A. Cycle time is short.
B. It will not char fabrics.
C. It will not cause corrosion.
D. There is no need for special ventilation.
E. Instruments are dry at the end of the cycle.
Each of the following nonsedating antihistamines
would be contraindicated in an individual taking
cimetidine for heartburn EXCEPT one. Which one
is the EXCEPTION?
A. it inhibits methanol metabolism.
8. it competes successfully with methanol for
alcohol dehydrogenase.
C. it prevents formation of formaldehyde.
D. it prevents damage to the optic nerve.
E. All of the above.
The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus
of a Class II restoration is
Alveoplasty following closed extraction is usually
performed with
a bur.
fingers.
a rongeur.
a bone file.
A.
B.
c.
D.
A. delayed amalgam expansion.
B. a sharp axio-pulpafIine angl e.
C. isthmus width too narrow.
O. moisture contamination of the amalgam
during placement.
E. lack of interproximal contact.
39.
40.
Astemizole (Hismanal)
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Fexofenadine (Allegra)
Hydroxyzine (Vistari l)
Terfenadine (Seldane)
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
35.
41. The periosteal elevator is used to do each of the
following EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Luxate the teeth
B. Retract the soft tissue flap
C. Elevate the interdental papil lae
O. Provide protection to the soft tissue flap
8
2009. AmericanDental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
42. The fenestration technique for mandibular vesubu-
loplasty is based on the premise that the mucosal
attachment will
48. How does the growth of the cranial base generally
relate in time to the growth of the jaws?
A.
B.
c.
D.
not cross the skin graft.
not cross the mucosal graft.
not cross a fibrous scar band.
be maintained in its lowered position by the
new denture.
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Follows
Precedes
Unrelated
Accompanies
Initially follows, then accompanies
43. Which of the following represents a constitutional
symptom?
49. Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect associated
most frequently with which of the following
antibiotics?
44. Which of the following is the most commonly used
surgical procedure to correct maxillary
retrognathia?
50. The therapeutic index of a given drug indicates the
relative
A
B.
c.
D.
A
B.
c.
D.
Tinnitus
Chills
Xerostomia
Dysphagia
C-osteotomy
Le Fort I osteotomy
Inverted Losteotomy
Anterior maxillary osteotomy
A
B.
c.
D.
A
B.
c.
D.
E.
Streptomyci n
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Chlortetracycline
safety.
potency.
efficacy.
duration.
solubi lity.
45. In the preauricular approach to the TMJ, which of
the following anatomic structures, if damaged,
presents the potential for greatest morbidity?
51. Which of the following flap designs allows the best
surgical access to the apical aspect of a tooth root
with the least reflection of soft lissue?
A
B.
c.
D.
E.
Facial nerve
Parotid gland
Auriculotemporal nerve
Superficial temporal vein
Facial artery
A.
B.
c.
D.
Envelope
Semilunar
Vertical release
Rot ation pedicle
46. Which of the following is most clearly associated
with the appearance of "moon facies"?
52. Each of the following is a disadvantage of oral
sedation EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
47.
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Regular corticosteroid use
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Pancreatic insuffici ency
Osteomyelitis of the mandible is most likely to
develop because of
A. failure of pus to localize.
B. a resistant strain of bacteria.
C. low resistance of the patient.
D. lack of drai nage from the infected area.
9
A.
B.
c.
D.
The administrator has little control over the
ultimate clinical actions of the drug(s).
There can be significant differences in the
bioavailabihty of oral drugs.
With most oral drugs, there is a relatively
slow onset of clinical activity and a
prolonged duration of action.
Oral anxiolytic drugs are effective in relieving
anxiety in the hours immediately preceding
the dental appointment.
2009. American Dental Association. Joint Commission on Nation;:)1 Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
53. Principles for managing a localized alveolar osteitis
after extraction of a mandibular first molar incl ude
each of the foll owing EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCE PTI ON?
56. You are doing some preprosthetic surgery on a
patient in preparation for a new denture. Which of
the following stat ements about removal of her
moderate-sized mandibular lingual tori is correct ?
54.
A. Flushing out debris with normal saline
solution
B. Curetti ng the boney wall to promote bleeding
C. Placing a sedative dressing in the socket to
protect exposed bone
D. Administering mild analgesic drugs as an
adj unct to local treatment
When i s the most appropriate time to perma nentl y
modify/ alter the occlusion of an acute TMD
patient?
A.
B.
c.
D.
The tori should be removed using a large
pear-shaped acrylic bur.
The tori should be removed by grooving the
superior surface then shearing the torus off
with a mono-beveled chi sel. The area is
then smoothed with a bone file.
The tori should be removed by grooving the
superior surface of the torus with a bur, then
shear the torus off with a bibeveled chisel.
The tori should be removed by inserting a
rongeurs vertically under a lingual flap and
"snipping off' the tori.
55.
A. During the first visit, while the patient has the
acute symptoms
B. Prior to initiating splint therapy, one week
after the first visit
C. Only after the patient is sympton-free and
has shown improvement during splint
therapy
D. Never, until definitive orthodontic treatment
has been started
Which of the following best defines the term
' Temporomandibular Disorders"?
A. A cli nical condi tion related to dysfuncti on of
the temporomandibular j oi nt and disk
B. A collective term for a heterogenous group
of muscul oskeletal disorders of varying
etiologies, that present with similar signs and
symptoms
C. A clinical condition caused by disharmony
between the occlusal proprioceptors and
masticatory muscles
D. Agroup of clinical conditions that arise from
excessive loads being placed on the TM
joi nts by muscle spasms, resulti ng in disk
displacement on one or both sides
10
57.
58.
Which of the following statements about the flap
for the removal of a pal atal torus is correct?
A. The most optimal flap uses a midline incision
which courses from the papilla between
teeth #8 and 9 posteriorly to the junction of
the hard and soft pal ates.
B. The most optimal flap is a reflection of the
enti re hard palate mucoperiosteum back to a
line bet ween the 2 first molar teeth.
C. The most optimal flap uses a midpalatal
incision that courses from the palata l aspect
of toot h #3 across to the palatal aspect of
tooth # 14.
D. The most optimal flap is shaped like a
"double-r", with a midline incision and
anterior and posterior side arms extending
bilaterally from the ends of the midline
incision.
Which of the foll owing statements about
maxillofacial bone grafts is INCORRECT?
A. Xenografts are frequently used in
mandibular reconstruction.
B. The most common source of autologous
bone is the iliac crest.
c . Allogeneic banked bone is often used as a
carrier, suppl emented with an autogenous
graft.
D. An example of isogeneic bone grafti ng is
transplanting bone marrow in the treatment
of such diseases as leukemi a.
@2009 American Dental Associ ation. Joint Commission on National Dental Exami nat ions . All rights reserved,
59.
60.
Your patient was referred to an oral and
maxillofacial surgeon for an impla nt, and you were
advised that she was going 10 need a sinus lift
procedure with placement of an autogenous bone
graft. What is the definition of thai graft?
A. The graft will use an artificial, bone-like
mat erial.
B. The graft uses bone from another human
being.
C. The graft uses the patient 's own bone, laken
from another site.
D. The graft uses bovine bone, or bone from
another animal species.
A complete denture patient returns for a 24-hour
post-op appointment after insertion of new
dentures. The patient points to a sore area on top
of the mandibular ridge crest on the posterior right
side but no sore spot is visually evident. Which of
the following is the first procedure the dentist
should perform?
62.
63.
Each of the following statements concerni ng the
administ ration technique of inhalation sedation is
correct, EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTI ON?
A. If the patient is weari ng contact lenses, they
should be removed prior to admi nistration of
the sedation.
B. The patient should be seated in an upright
(85-90 degree) position in the dental cha ir .
C. The initial flow rate of oxyg en should be at
least 6 Umin vi a the nasal hood.
D. As the flow of nitrous oxide throu gh a mixing
dial style unit is increased, the flow rate of
oxygen is reduced, so the correct
percentage of each is del ivered at a
constant flow rate .
Each of the following is a common cause of
postsurgical atel ectasis (decreased expansion of
the alveo li) EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Reduce the centric contacts on all posterior
teeth on the right side of the mandibular
denture.
Using a large acrylic bur, grossly reduce the
intemal surf ace of the denture.
Reduce all eccentric contacts on the right
side of the maxillary and mandibular
dentures.
Apply pressure indicator paste to the internal
surface of the mandibular denture and check
for pressure spots.
Tell the pati ent this is normal for the first day
of wearing new dentures and to return in one
week for another post -op check.
64.
A. Shallow inspirations
B. Pain-limiting movement
C. Inactivity after surgery
D. Preoperative respiratory infection
E. Narcotic analgesic that depress the
respiratory drive
Cavity liners should have a minimal thickness of
A. 1 mm.
B. 1.5 mm.
C. 15 mm.
D. 125 mm.
61. When a pati ent bites on a hard object on the left
mandibular molar, the interarticular pressure of the
right temporomandibul ar joint is
65. Each of the following statements is correct
regarding phenytoin EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTI ON?
A.
B.
c.
o
i ncreased.
decreased.
remains unchanged.
varied but it is unpredi ctable.
11
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Causes gingival hyperplasia
Corrects certain cardiac dysrhythmias
Is ineffective when administered orally
Causes toxic effects related to the
cerebellum and vestibular system
Exerts antiseizure activ ity at doses which do
not cause general CNS depression
2oo9. AmericanDental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
66 A properly executed posterior superior alveolar
nerve block will anesthetize each of the follOWIng
structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Maxillary sinus membrane in the molar
region
B. Second and third molar teeth and a portion
of the first molar tooth
C. Buccal alveolar bone, soft tissue and
periodontium in the posterior maxilla
D. Soft palate mucosa on the side of the
injection
71.
72.
Which of the following is the most serious result of
digoxin intoxication?
A. Bradycardia
B. Renal failure
C. Atrial tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation
E. Ventricular fibrillation
Each of the following represents an advantage of
oral sedation EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
67. Which areas should be avoided for an 1M inj ection
before a child can walk?
A. Gluteal muscles
B. Ventrogluleal
C. Vastus tateraus
D. Deltoid area
A.
B.
c.
D.
Need for specialized training and equipment
High incidence and severity of adverse
reactions
Erratic and incomplete absorption of drugs
from the Gllract
Short duration of action
73. The depth of light penetration into the tooth or
restoration before it is reflected outward is the
68. Adrenal insufficiency during major stress results in
69. A palienllhat is having general anesthesia using
an IV barbiturate rapidly passes through
74. In young patients, stai ns are usually more
prominent in which areas of the teeth?
A
B.
C
o
A.
B.
C.
D.
gingival hyperplasia.
cardiovascular collapse.
hypotension.
ketoacidosis.
Stage I.
Stage II.
Stage III.
Stage IV.
A
B
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.
metamerism.
degree of translucency.
color perception.
value.
Incisal
Occlusal
Cervical
Facia!
70. Which of the following antibiotics has been
implicated in the vast majority of cases of oral
contraceptive failure during antibiotic use?
A. Penicillin
B. Rifampin
C. Keflex
D. Erythromycin
E. Tetracycline
12
75. The character and individuality of teeth are largely
determined by
A. translucency.
B. surface texture .
C. color.
D. shape.
2009, American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved .
76. When the denti st enters the operatory, the patient,
who is new to the office, stands close to the wall ,
has his arms folded, and is looking at the floor. The
dentist should initiate communication by saying
whichof the following?
A. let's get going, I've got a lot to do.
B. What are you angry about?
C. Didn't my assistant gel you seated?
D. You seem uncomfortable: did you have a
bad dental experience?
E. Hi , I'm Doctor Wilson , what brings you here
today?
81.
82.
The outstanding advantage of phenytoin over
phenobarbital in the treatment of epil epsy is that
phenytoi n
A. does not bring about dependence.
S. has a longer duration of action.
C. is effective against both grand and petit mal.
D. produces less sedation for a given degree of
motor cortex depression.
The main function of the liner used in a casting
ring is to
Exception to its use in a given situation is
acceptable if the patient i s informed and consents.
The use of a rubber dam is considered an
essential component of endodontic
armamentarium.
The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration's (OSHA) "Bloodbome Pathogens
Standard" deals with each of the following
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Disposal of medical waste
B. Exposure Control Plan
C. Hepatitis B vaccination
D. Instrument sterilization and storage
E. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
provide venting of the mold.
help prevent shrinkage porosity.
provide easy divesting of the casting .
provide additional water to the investment
mix.
allow uniform and uninhibited setting
expansion of the investment.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true , the second is
false.
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true.
E.
A.
B.
c.
D.
84.
83.
A 4-year-old child has a history of frequent
spontaneous pain in a primary mandibular second
molar. This molar has a necrotic pulp. Which of the
following represents the treatment of choice?
A. Pulpectomy
B. Pulpotomy
C. Extraction
D. Pulp cap
A. fluorescence.
B. incandescence.
C. opalescence.
D. translucency.
E. metamerism.
The phenomenon whereby various light sources
produce different perceptions of color is called
Which of the following is an outstanding advantage
of phenytoin over phenobarbital in the treatment of
grand mal epilepsy?
Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute
of choice for penicillin in the penicillin-sensitive
patient?
A. Cephalexin
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Ctindamycin
80.
79
78.
77.
A. Exerts less sedation for a gi ven degree of
motor cortex depression
B. Is effective in a greater percentage of cases
C. Needs to be given much less frequentl y
D. Does not cause gastric distress
E. Has a longer duration of action
13
2009. American Dental Asscclanon. Joint Commission on National Denial Exami nations. All rightsreserved.
85.
86.
A 20-year-old patient presents with an upper
maxillary central incisor previously treated for
endodonti c fractures at the level of the alveolar
crest. Which of the following represents the first
necessary step to restore and maintain the tooth's
esthetics?
A. Orthodonticafly extrude remaining tooth
structure
B. Extract remaining tooth structure
C. Fabricate FPD over the remaining root
O. Fabricate RPDover the remaining root
Shrinkage porosity in a gold casting is associated
with
90.
91.
Back pressure porosity is
A. the same as occluded gas porosity.
S. the result of using an oxidizi ng flame .
C. mos t likely wtl en the wax patt ern is
positioned very close to the open end of the
ring.
D. often evidenced by rounded margins on the
casting.
E. the same as suck-back porosity.
Which of the followi ng explains why a properly
designed rest on the lingual surface of a canine is
preferred to a property designed rest on the incisal
surface?
87. Which of the following is an acronym fOf a
marketing strategyto use for reluctant patients?
92. The most potent anti tubercular drug is
A.
B.
C.
O.
E.
A.
B.
C.
O.
the use of excessive flux .
the use of no flux.
sprue diameter.
alloy oxidation.
excessive bumout lime.
SUCCESS
RECRUIT
OPTIMEM
EIEI Q
A.
B.
c.
o.
A.
B.
C.
O.
The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by
the lingual rest.
The visibility of, as well as access to, the
lingual surface is better.
The cingulum of the canine provides a
natural surface for the recess.
isoniazid.
vancomycin.
trimethoprim.
sulfamethoxazole.
88.
89.
Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage or acute
stomatitis, observed in a pediatric patient under
trealment for absence seizures, indicates
withdrawal of which of the followi ng anticonvulsant
drugs?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenobarbital
E. Valproic acid
Whi ch of the following drugs is most likely to c aUSQ
convulsions when a physically dependent person is
withdrawn?
93.
94.
The main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol
is
A. urea.
B. acetone.
C. methanol.
D. acetaldehyde.
E. forma ldehyde.
Al the try-in appointment for a 3-unit posterior gold
FPD, the proximal contacts, fit, occlusion, contour,
and surface fini sh have beendetermined 10 be
acceptable. Which of the followi ng represents what
step is accomplished next wi th this FPD?
A.
B.
C.
O.
E.
Pentobarbital
Diazepam (Valium)
Hydroxyzine (VtstariJ)
Chloral hydrate
Chlorzoxazone (Parafon Forte)
14
A.
B.
C.
O.
Soldering index
CopaJitepreparations
Temporary cementation
Mix zinc phosphate cement
C 2009. American Denial Associat ion, Joi nt Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
95. Larger condensers and laterally applied
condensation forces are recommended to ensure
complete condensation of which of the following
amalgam types?
A. Admixed
B. Spherical
C. Lathe-cui
D. High- copper
E. Conventional
100. With respect 10temperature, the proces sing cycl e
of a denture is designed to
A. attain development of col or.
B. prevent boiling of the monomer.
C. prevent breakdown of the initiator.
D. volatilize the hydroquinone inhibitor.
101. Alcoholic euphoria results from
96. Proposed modes of action for the oral ant idiabetic
agents include each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
increased activity of the cerebrum.
increased activity of thalamic areas.
increased activity of limbic synapses.
decreased act ivity of medullary centers,
removal of the inhibitory effect of the cortex .
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Blockade of glucagon release from pancreas
Blockade of catecholamine release from
adrenal medulla
Stimulation of insul in release from pancreatic
beta cells
Acti on as direct receptor agonists for the
insulin receptor
Increase affinity of tissues for ulifization of
available plasma glucose
102. The porti on of an artificial tooth that is found only
in porcel ain anterior teeth is
A. the pin.
B. the collar.
C. the finish line.
D. the diatoric.
E. None of the above.
97. Compressing the acrylic resi n in a rubbery stage
will probably result in
104. Which of the following is a disadvantage of glass
ionomer cement?
103. The casting shrinkage of cobalt-chromium alloys is
approximately
A.
B.
c.
D.
an open bite or open pin.
porosity of the finished acrylic.
incomplete filling of the mold details.
large amounts of excess that is difficult to
trim.
A.
B.
c.
D.
1.25%.
1.75%.
2.2%.
3.2%.
98.
99.
Which of the following statements concerning ethyl
alcohol is true?
A. It produces a true stimulation of the central
nervous system.
B. II protects individuals against exposure to
cold by preventing heat loss.
C. It is met aboli zed primarily by the lungs .
D. It is part ially absorbed in the stomach .
E. It possesses anticholinergic properties.
The most likely cause of failure in the pre-ceramic
soldering technique is
A. underheating the parts to be joined.
6. overheating the parts to be joined.
C. using an incompatible solder.
D. using phosphate as the soldering
investment.
E. preheating the soldering assembly.
15
105.
A. Difficulty in mi xing
B. Irritation of the pulp
C. Low bond strength to dentin
D. Moisture sensitivity during initial set
Which of the following will result when using a
thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded casting
investment?
A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Increase setting expansion
C. Decrease setting expansion
D. Increase therma l expansion
E. Decrease requi red burn-out temperature
2009. American Dental Association. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved,
106. Which of the following oral bacteri a have been
implicated as periodontal pathogens?
112. Allowing the ultrasonic-scaler tip to remain on the
tooth suriace too long will
A. damage the tooth suriace.
B. dull the tip of the instrument.
e . bumish the calculus onto the tooth surface.
D. cause irreversible pulpal damage.
A.
B.
c.
D.
Porphyromonas gingi valis. Eubacterium sp.,
and eampylobacter recta
Streptococcus gordonii , Streptococcus
mutens, and Gemetla so.
l actobacill us casei and Veillonella so.
Streptococcus mitior. Streptococcus gordoni i,
and Bacteroides gracilis
113. The most important anticoagulant effect of hepari n
is to interfere with the conversion of
107.
lOB
109.
The base of the incision in the gingivectomy
technique is located
A. in the alveolar mucosa.
B. at the mucogingival junction.
e. above the mucogingival junction.
D. coronal to the periodontal pocket.
E. at the level of the cementoenamel junction.
Which of the followi ng is the most important factor
affecting pulpal response?
A. Heat
B. Depth to which dentinal tubules are cut
C. Desicca tion
D. Invasion of bacteria
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is most likely to
occur in which of the foll OWing age groups?
A. 1-5 years
B. 6-10 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 16-20 years
E. 21-25 years
114.
115.
116.
A. PTA to PTe.
B. PTe to Factor VIII.
e. fibrinogen to fibrin.
D. prothrombin to thrombin.
E. proacceleri n to acceler in.
Dental phobias are very hard to eliminate because
they
A. are ego-syntonic.
B. cannot be seen .
e. become habitual.
D. are self-reinforcing.
Which of the following describes a material with
high compressive strength but low tensile
strength?
A. Resilient
B. Brittle
e. Ductile
D. Malleable
The Occupational Safety and Health Admi ni strati on
(OSHA) is concerned with regulated waste within
the office.
110. Which of the Icllowinq filling materials is least
desirable for use as Preventive Resi n Restoration?
OSHA regulates the transportation of waste from
the office.
111,
A. Microfilled resin
B. Amalgam
C. Hybrid resin
D. Gbss ;onon,.. .
Each of the following osseous defects would be
classified as infrabony EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. A trough
B. A dehiscence
e. A hemiseptum
D. An interdental crater
16
117.
A. Both statements are true .
B. Both statements are false.
C The fi rst gtal<>monl ;s lru.., the s<lcond ;"
false.
D. The first stat ement is false , the second is
true.
One can accelerate the setting time of zinc oxide-
eugenol impression pastes by adding a small
amount of
A. water.
B. glycerin.
C. petrolatum.
D. plaster of paris.
2009.American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
118. What percentage of the U.S. population does not
have dental insurance?
122. The drug of choice to treat overdosage with
tricyclic antidepressants is
A.
B.
c.
D.
35-40%
45-50%
55-60%
65-70%
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
atropine.
phenytoin.
physostigmine.
pentobarbital.
an amphetamine.
119. A patient works at a nuclear power plant. He is
frequently exposed to a small amount of radiation,
although the dose he receives is below the
occupational limits. Which of the following best
explains why this patient need not wear his
employee film badge while he is having dental
radiographs made?
A. His badge records only gamma-radiation,
not x rays.
B. His film badge must be used only to
measure occupational doses.
C. It is unlikely that the current dose will rise
above his occupational limit.
D. The dose from the dental radiographs is too
low to be measured accurately by the
badge.
123. Chlortetracycline acts by interfering with
A. cell wall synthesis.
B. nucleic acid synthesis.
C. protein synthesis on bacterial but not
mammalian ribosomes.
D. protein synthesis on mammalian but not
bacterial ribosomes.
124. The toxic impurity that can theoretically be found in
nitrous oxide gas is
A. ozone.
B. helium.
C. methane.
D. nitric oxide.
E. cyclopropane.
120. A 5-year-old child has a posterior unilateral
crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift
of the mandible. When should this crossbtte be
corrected?
125. How many hours per day should a cervical pull
headgear be worn to achieve the most effective
results?
A.
B.
c.
D.
Immediately, without waiting for the eruption
of permanent first molars
When all the primary teeth have exfoliated
After the permanent first molars have fully
erupted
When the child is approximately 9 years of
age
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
6
8
10
12
14
121. When determining the appropriate dose of
systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is, most
important for the dentist to consider which of the
following?
A. The fluoride content of the drinking water
B. The child's diet and caries activity
C. The child's age and the fluoride content of
the drinking waler
D. The child's weight and the fluoride content of
the drinking water
17
126. Drug interaction resulting in serious adverse
cardiovascular events, including death, might occur
between erythromycin and which of the following
antihistamine drugs?
A. Tertenadlne (Seldane)
B. Promethazine (Phenergan)
C. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
E. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
2009. American Denta! Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
127. A mercury spilt in the laboratory or office is
appropriately cleaned up by
A. removi ng the mercury, then spraying the
area with BAl.
B. scrubbing the spill area with hot water and
detergent.
C. sweeping up the mercury and disposing of it
in a plastic bag.
D. aspirating the mercury into a wash bottle
trap, then dusting the spill area with sulfur
powder.
128. The concentration of which of the following ions
determines the binding affinity of agonists and
antagonists to the opioicI receptor?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
E. Phosphate
129. In oommunicating with children, which of the
following should the dental team do?
A. Allow the parent to answer questions asked
by the child at cbejrsioe
B. Allow both the parent and the dentist to
communicate simultaneously with the child
C. Transmit word substitutes for dental
procedures and equipment during the
appointment
D. Attai n voice control to build the groundwork
for future instruct ions
130. A prescription includes each of the following parts
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTI ON?
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Transcription
E. Conscription
131 . Inhalation of amyl nitrile can result in each of the
following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Tachycardia
B. Coronary artery dilation
C. Peripheral arteriolar dilation
O. Adecrease in arterial blood pressure
E. Increased motility of the small bowel
18
132. Which of the following cannot be used 10 calculate
the dosage of a drug for a child?
A. Clark's rule
B. Vital signs
C. Body surface area
D. Body weight (mglkg)
133. Which of the following symptoms is the most
distinct characteristic of morphine poisoni ng?
A. Comatose sleep
B. Pin-point pupils
C. Depressed respiration
D. Deep. rapid respiration
E. Widely dilated. rco-responsfve pupils
134 . In addition to the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin
may be indicated for the treatment of
A. arrhythmia.
B. narcolepsy.
C. hypertension.
D. schizophrenia.
E. panic attacks.
135. Which of the following drugs is commonty used in
the treatment of congestive heart failure?
A. Phenytoin
B. Digitalis
C. Quinidine
O. Procamamide
E. Nitroglycerin
136. The mechanism of action of the muscle relaxation
induced by diazepam most clearly resembles that
produced by
A. d-tubocurarine.
B. meprobamate.
C. succi nylcholine.
D. decamethonium.
E. gallamine.
137. What percent of the blood alcohol level is the most
likely to produce a lethal effect in 50 per cent of the
population?
A. 0.05%
B. 0.10%
C. 0.20%
D. 0.30%
E. 0.50%
0 2009, American Dental Association. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinatioos. All rightsresefVed.
138. Prolonged use of amyl nitritemay result in 142. Which of the following bast describes adjunctive
orthodontic treatment?
A. aplastic anemia.
8. thrombocytopenia. A. Orthodontic therapy performed only with
C. granulocytopenia. removable appliances
D. methemoglobinemia. 8. Limited orthodontic treatment to align the
E. hy poprothrombinemia. front teeth for maximum esthetics
C. Orthodontic Ireatmenllo enhance restorative
and periodontal rehabilitation
139. The thinnest portion of the wax pattern should be
D. Early treatment of orthodontic problems to
placed
prevent more serious malocclusion
A. agai nst the ring for support.
i.'
8. in the deepest part of the ring.
143. Which of the following drug groups is currently the
C. opposite the di rection of rotation of the
mainstay of treatment in depressive
castin g arm.
psychoneurotic disease?
D. in the same direction as the rotation of the
casting arm. A. Amphetamines
B. Phenothiazines
C. Benzodiazepines
140. Which of the following statements is true
D. Monoamine oxidase inhib itors
concerning anticholinesterase?
E. Tricycli c (imipramine-like) antidepressants
A. Agents such as DEP inhibit only plasma
cholinesterase.
144. Each of the following is a symptom of poisoning by
8. Organophosphates are readi ly absorbed
an organophosphate insectici de EXCEPT one.
through the skin.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
C. Age nts may cause paroxysmal supraven-
trlcutar tachycardia. A. Diarrh ea
D. Reactivators such as 2-PAM reactivate 8. Hot, dry skin
ACHE which has undergone ~ a g i n g C. Excessive salivation
E. Al kaloi d physostigmine has the greatest D. Increased lacrimati on
number of side effects unrelated to ACHE E. Skeletal muscle fasciculation
inhibiti on.
145. Digitalis should be given to patients with atrial
141. In developing a canine-protected articulation where fibrillation who require quinidine to avoid
the anterior vertical overlap is determined to be
A. hypokalemia.
less than 2 mm, the posterior cusp height should
be kept shallow because the buccal cusps of the
8. thromboembolism.
posterior teeth will have to assist in protrusive
C. sino-atrial bradycardia.
orsciusron.
D. ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
E. prol ongation of P-R interval of the ECG.
A. Both the statement and the reason are
correct and related.
8. Both the statement and the reason are
146. The presence of Ag in metal-ceramic alloys
correct but NOT related.
contributes to which of the following?
C. The statement is correct but the reason is
A. Increases melting temperature
NOT.
D. The stat ement is NOT correct, but the
B. Increases alloystrength
reason is correct.
C. Increases alloy corrosion resistance
E. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is
D. May cause green discoloration of the
correct.
porcelain
19
2009.AmericanDentalAssociation, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
147. Hoving had a compl ete radiographic survey made
12 months ago, an asymptomatic adult patient
presents for a recall appointment. There is no
clinical evidence of caries or periodontal disease .
The United States Food and Drug Administration
would recommend which of the following for this
adult?
151. The S in DMFS signifies which of the following?
A. Score
B. Standard
C. Surfaces
O. Simplified
E. Significant
148.
A. No radiographs
B. Bite-wing radioqraphs uruy
C. Panorami c radiograph only
D. Panoramic and bite-wing radiographs
E. FUll-mouth survey including bite-wing
radiographs
When high gold content alloys are compared to
base metal alloys, the base metal alloys exhibit
152. Ench of the following pharmacologic effects is
produced by ethanol EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Diuresis
B. CNS depression
C. Enzyme induction
D. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
E. Increased gastric acid secr etion
A.
B.
c.
o.
E.
a higher melting point , increased specific
graVity, and generally higher yield strength
and hardness.
a higher melting point, decreased specific
gravity, and generally higher yield strength
and hardness .
a higher melting point, generally higher yield
strength and hardness, and more consi stent
bonding 10 porcelain .
increased specific gravity, generally lower
yield strength, and more consistent bonding
to porcelai n.
decreased specific gravity, generally higher
yield strength and hardness, and more
consistent bonding to porcelain.
153.
154.
The cardiac glycosides will reduce the
concentration of which ion in an active heart
muscle cell?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Chloride
D. Potassium
E. MagneSium
Which of the following antihypertensive agents acts
direcUy on arterial smooth muscle to cause
vasociletion?
149. The central skeletal muscle relaxation produced by
depressing the polysynaptic renex arcs is brought
about by all of the following drugs EXCEPT
A. diazepam
B. lorazepam (Ativan).
C. meprobamate (Equanil(K\
D. d-tubocurarine (Tubarine).
155.
A. Methyldopa (AJdomet)
B. Clonidine
C. Guanethid ine (lsmeli n)
D. Metoprolol (Lopresso")
E. Hydralazine
The combination of a Schedule II narcotic with an
antipsychotic drug produces which of the
followi ng?
150. Which of the followi ng statements best describes
why L dope ovontually becceeee incHedivc in the
treatment of Parkinson's disease?
A.
B.
c.
o.
Neurol eptic analgesia
Conscious sedation
Dissociative anesthesia
Psychotomimetic analgesia
A.
B.
c.
o.
E.
L-dopa absorption slows with aging.
Dopa decarboxylase activity increases with
age.
Dietary intake of pyridoxi ne speeds L-dopa
metabolism.
Patients graduall y develop tolerance
because L-dopa induces liver enzyme
acti vity.
Neuronal cell loss in the substantia nigra is
progressive and continuous over the course
of the disease.
20
156. Which of the following drugs is excreted primarily
by renal tubular secretion?
A. Benzylpenicillin
B. Strept omyc in
C. Tetracycline
D. Bacitracin
E. Polymyxin
02009. American Dental Associatiorl , Joint Commission on National Dental ExaminatiOns. All rights reserved.
157. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may
result in which of the following?
162. In pursuit of what the dentist believes is best for
the patient, the dentist attempts to control patient
behavior. This is known as
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Poor denture retention
Increased interocclusar distance
Drooping of the corners of the mouth
Creases and wrinkles around the lips
Trauma to underlying supporting tissues
A.
B.
c.
D.
autonomy.
competence.
maleficence.
paternalism.
158. Which of the following represents the cause of
death in poisoning from an irreversible
anticholinesterase, such as diisopropylfluo-
rophosphate?
Which of the following is the most common reason
for a cast crown not to seat on a patient's tooth?
Loss of a primary right molar in a a-year-oro child
requires placement of a
A. band and loop.
B. distal shoe.
C. removable acrylic appliance.
D. None of the above.
The disk sensitivity assay for antibiotic activity is
used because
A. the results are obtainable in a few minutes.
B. it distinguishes between bacteriostatic and
bactericidal drugs.
C. it Indicates whether or not an antibiotic has
good oral absorption.
D. it allows for routine testing of sensit ivity to a
range of antibiotics.
Metabolism of a drug will usually result in
conversion to each of the following EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Inact ive form
B. More active compound
C. Less active compound
D. More water-soluble compound
E. Less ionized compound
Which of the following represents an
amphetamine-like drug that is widely used in the
treatment of hyperkinetic children?
A. Doxapram (Dopramj
B. Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
C. Theophylline
D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
166.
164.
165.
163. When 50 mg. of chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is
administered to a patient, on standing the patient
might experience a fall in blood pressure due to
which of the following?
A. Anticholinergic action
B. Decrease in heart rate
C. Alpha-adrenergi c blockade
D. Negative inotropic action
E. Stimulation of autonomic ganglia
Cardiac failure, resulting from excessive
vagal stimulation
Dehydration, resulting from hypermotility of
the gastrointestinal tract
Asphyxia, resulting from increased airway
resistance
Respiratory failure, resulting from paralysis
of the intercostals and the diaphragm
Central nervous system depression,
following prolonged excitation
Treatment with sulfonamides is less likely to be
accompanied by crystalluria if
A. a mixture of sulfonamides is used.
B. cortisone is administered concurrently.
C. probenecid is administered concurrently.
D. the urine is acidified with ammonium
chloride.
E. para-aminosalicylic acid is administered
concurrent ly.
E.
A. Overextended margins
B. Excessive proximal contact
C. Undercut areas on the preparation
D. Casting too wide bucco-lingually
E. Porosity within the inner surface of the
crown
c.
D.
A.
B.
159.
161.
160.
21
2009. American Dental Association, Joi nt Commission on Nati onal Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
167. Which of lhe following agents Is the least effective
in producing topical anesthesia?
173. Nystatin (Mycostatin) is used in the treatment of
infections caused by
A
B.
C
D.
E.
Tetracaine (Pontocaine)
Butacai ne (Butyn)
Procaine (Novocaine)
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Benzocaine
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
Peptostreptococci spp.
Bacteroides spp.
Candida albicans.
Streplococcus mutans.
Pseudomonas aerugi nosa.
168.
169.
Which of the following routes of administration
exhibits the slowest rate of absorption?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Which of the following sedatives is most likely to
cause a dry mouth?
A. Buspirone (BuSpar)
B. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C. Chloral hydrate o c t e c ~
D. Phenobarbital (luminal)
174.
175.
Which of the following analgesi cs can be given
either orally or by intramuscular inj ection?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen (Tylenor)
C. Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
D. Ketorolac (Torador)
E. Naproxen (Naprosyn, Aleve)
A cast gold restoration might be indicated for the
replacement of a faulty amalgam 10 obtain
A. better margins.
B. more ideal contours .
C. less trauma 10 the putp.
D. less removal of tooth struct ure.
170. Barbiturates taken in combination with very high
doses of ethanol exhibit an interacti on best
described as which of the following?
A. Potentiation
B. Protein bumping
C. Negative synergism
D. Competit ive inhibition
E. Enterohepat ic circul ation
176. During a soldering procedure, flux serves 10
A. provide an oxidizing environment in the area
to be soldered.
B. displace gases and dissolve corrosion
products .
C. remove any debris that may remain in Ihe
area 10 be soldered.
D. hold the solder in place during heali ng.
171. Which of the following erythromycins is both
enteric coated and long acting?
177. Excessive heating of the acrylic resin during
processing should be avoided to prevent
172. Each of the following is a characteristic of tramadol
(Ultram) EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
178. Following compression of acrylic into the denture
flasks, placing the flasks into the processing tanks
at curing temperature is delayed to
A.
B.
c.
D.
A
B.
c.
D.
E.
ERYC
E.E.S.
Erythrocin
lIosone
Centrally acting analgesic
Structurally similar to morphine
Binds to the mu-opioid receptor
Biol ransformed inlo a more actlve metabolite
Inhibits uptake of norepinephrine and
serotonin
22
A.
B.
c.
D.
E.
A.
B.
c.
D.
exothermic heal buildup.
acrylic resin shrinkage.
evaporation of the monomer.
excessive acrylic resin expansion.
discoloration of the acrylic resin.
assure complete flow of acryl ic into the mold.
allow the monomer to permeate all polymer
crystals.
establish an equalized and uniform pressure
in the molds.
allow the flasks and the acrylic 10 reach a
stable temperalure.
2009. American Denta l Association. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved,
Which of the following represents the structure
indicated by the arrows on the radi ograph?
Prior to undergoing scaling and root planing, how
should this patient be treated?
A. Innominate line
B. Lateral border of the orbit
C. Pterygoid plate of the sphenoid
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla
E. Posterior border of the maxillary sinus
A. Leukoplakia
B. Nicotinic stomatitis
C. Chronic lip chewing
D. Psoriasis
E. Smokeless tobacco hyperk eratosis
Alveolar osteitis in the removal of bony
impactions might occur (5-20%).
The alveolar nerve is not likely to be injured
during this extraction.
Horizontally impacted teeth are considered
the most difficult mandibular impactions.
Asymptomatic bony impactions are not
recommended for extraction in patients over
35 years-of-age.
c.
The position of tooth #26 will complicate the design
of a maxillary prosthesis.
Maxillary tuberosity reduction on the patient's left
side would facilitate prosthesis fabrication.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false .
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true.
Which of the fat/owing represents the best initial
restorative treatment for tooth #4?
B.
A.
Each of the following statements is true conceming
impacted teeth #17 and #32 EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Place porcelain fused to metal crown
B. Restore with conservative MO amalgam
C. Treat mesial caries with composite resin
D. Place mesial glass lonorner restoration to
restore root caries lesion
E. No treatment is necessary.
D.
184.
186.
185.
Amoxicillin (Amoxil), 2 gm, 1 hour prior to
procedure
Cephalexin (Keflexl, 3 gm, 1 hour prior to
procedure
Clarithromycin (Biaxin), 600 mg, 1 hour
prior to procedure
Cllndamycm (Cleocin), 2 gm, 1 hour prior
to procedure
No antibiotic treatment is necessary. E.
c.
A.
B.
D.
ICase A #'s 179-1871
(see page 26)
The plaques on this patient's lower labial mucosa
most likely represent which of the following?
181.
179.
180.
182. Which of the following risk factors is most likely to
contribute to future attachment loss in this patient?
A. Probing depths greater than 3 mm
B. Insulin administration
C. Occlusion
D. Nutrition
E. Smoking
187. Prior to dental treatment using local anesthesia
without sedation the patient should be instructed to
take his usual dose of insulin and eat a normal
diet.
If the patient is to have local anesthesia with
sedation, the pati ent should be instructed to reduce
the usual dose of insulin and not eat.
183. There is a vertical defect on the mesial of tooth #2.
There is a crater defect between tooth #2 and
tooth #3.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second is
false .
D. The first statement is false, the second is
true.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false .
The first statement is true, the second is
false .
The first statement is false , the second is
true.
23
2009.American Dental Association. Joint Commission on National Denial Examinations. AI! rights reserved.
166.
ICase B #'s 188-200I
(see page 31)
Which of the following is the most likely periodontal
diagnosis for uus patient?
A. Plaque-induced gingivitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Aggressive periodontitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
193.
194.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
for the radiolucency distal to the apical third of the
root of tooth #13?
A. Metastatic carcinoma
B. lateral periodontal cyst
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis
D. Extension of the maxillary sinus
Which of the following is the most appropri ate
restorative therapy for the patient's lower incisors?
Following root canal therapy on tooth #10, which of
the following foundation options, pri or to crown
preparation, is most appropriate?
A. Bonded composite resin
B. Pin retained composi le resin
C. Prefabricated post and composite resin core
D. Composite resin into canal conti nuous with
cere
Which of the following approaches would be best
in determining why the patient has had infrequent
dental care in the past?
A. "Why haven't you gone to the dentist more
often? The more you avoid the dentist the
worse your dental fear will become."
B. "It is costly to have two daughters in college,
you should go to the dentist more often or
you will need expensive dental treatment."
C. "Can you tell me why someone with a
medical history as bad as yours has stayed
away from the denti st for so long?"
D. "You have had many dental problems in the
past. If you had seen the dentist regularly as
you should have you wouldn 't have had as
many. What could possibly have kept you
away?"
E. "Could you tell me more about your past
dental experiences and present dental
concerns?"
169.
190.
191.
Which of the following is the strongest radiographic
evidence that tooth #10 requires endodontic
treatment?
A. Pulp chamber calcification
B. Periodontal bone loss coronally
C. Extent of coronal restorat ion
D. Widened apical periodontal ligament space
Which of the following is the best, most
conservative restorative treatment for teeth #6 and
#11?
A. All-ceramic crowns
B. Porcelain fused to metal crowns
C. Restore proximal surfaces as needed with
composite resin
D. Apply fluoride
Which of the following treatments will achieve the
best esthetic results for teeth #7, #8, #9 and #10?
A. Place all-ceramic crowns on all four teeth
B. Place ceramic crown on tooth #7, and place
composite resin restorations on teeth #8
#10
C. Place all-ceramic crowns on teeth #7 and
#9, repl ace MI composite resin restoration
on tooth #8, remove facial cari es on tooth
#10 and restore wit h composite
D. Restore caries on the facial surface of tooth
#7, polish composite resin restorations on
teeth #8 and #9, and place crown on tooth
#10
E. Pl ace porcelai n fused to metal crowns on
teeth #7, #9, and #10, and restore the
mesial surface of tooth #8 with composite
195.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Splint together with composite resin
Remove failing margi ns and rough surfaces,
and place new composite restorations where
indicated
Place porcelai n fused to metal crowns
No treatment is indicated.
192. Which of the following is the best means to
evaluate the pulpal vitality of tooth #13?
A. Appl ication of cold to teet h #12 and #13
B. Percussion testing on teeth #5 and #13
C. Electric pulp testing of teeth #12 and #13
D. Palpation in the buccal vestibule from teeth
#12 -#14
24
2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rightsreserved.
197. Which of the followi ng options is the best to
replace the missi ng mandibular teeth?
A. Mandibular removable partial denture
B. Fixed partial denture teeth #20 to #22 and
removable partial denture
C. Fixed partial denture teeth #28 to #31 and
removable partial denture
O. Fixed partial denture teeth #18 to #22 and
fixed partial denture #28 to #31
198. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for the
radiolucency apical to teeth #23-#261
A. Mental fossa
B. Coalesced periapical granulomas
C. Periapical cemental dysplasia
o . Central giant cell granuloma
E. Traumatic bone cyst
199. Following initial therapy, oral hygiene is good and
there is a 1 mm reduct ion in probing depths.
Periodontal treatment of the mandibular anterior
teeth would include
A. another round of scaling and root planning.
B. nap surgery.
C. soft tissue grafting.
O. regenerative therapy.
E. periodontal maintenance therapy only.
200. In addition to oral hygiene instructions and scaling
and root plani ng, which of the following course of
actions is most appropriate during initial
periodontal therapy?
A. Systemic tetracycline administration for 10
days
B. Subgingival irrigation with 0.12%
chlorhexidine
C. Consultation with physician conceming
diabetes mellitus
O. Tooth grinding for occlusal adjustment and
equilibration of the dentition
25
C 2009_American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental ExaminatiOns. All rights reserved.
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ICASE A
I
Dental
History
Sporadic visits for emergency extractions.
Age
38 YRS
Sex
IllI Male 0 Female
Height
5' 10"
Iwelght
154 LBS
BIP
125/78
Chief
"I don't like the spaces in my
Complaint
upper teeth:
Medical
History
Diabetes Social
Patient had a hang-gliding accident 3 years ago
History
with resuitant knee replacement.
Bartender
He smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and uses
chewing tobacco.
Current
Medications
insulin (Humulin R')
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ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
CASE A I
Current Oral Hygiene Status
Fair
Supplemental Oral Examination Findings
1. Diffuse irregular white patcheson lower labial
mucosa.
Q Clinically cariO\ls lesion
Clin;C8lly miasing tooth
6. Furcanon
... "Through and through" furcati on
Probe 1: initial probing depth
Probe 2: probing depth 1 month after
scaling and root
<l:
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28
C 2009. American Dental Association , Joint CommissiOnon National Dental ExaminatIOns. All nghts reserved.

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2009, American Denter Association. Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. NI rights reserved.
- - - - - - - -

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2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Denial Examinations. All rights reserved.
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ICASE B
I
Dental
History
Patient has had infrequent dental care.
Age
50 YRS
Sex
181 Male 0 Female
Height 6' 0"
Weight
210 LBS
B/P
130/80
Chief
"I'm not happy with my front teeth .
Complaint
They feel rough."
Medical
History
Patient says he had a "mild stroke" 3 years ago. Social
arrythmias
History
diabetes mellitus Type II
Patient is a bui lding contractor with two daughters in college.
hypertension
Current
Medications
metformin (Glucophage ')
metoprolo l (Lapressor ,, )
aspirin
I CASE B I
Supplemental Oral Examination Findings
Current Oral Hygiene Status
Fair
ADULT CLINICAL EXAMINATION
3 456789
545 444 434
, 2
P r b e ~ 755 57
Probe 1
666 656 555 454 454 434 555 545 666 544 545 556 667
2
Probe2
55 5 565 667 756 55 1 555 666 66 545
WW U
9uVn.uV ~ 9
~
GJ
R 83)83)
QB
ffiW U
9VV.eIY V9 ~
m
(J
Clinically vi" ble carious jesson
g
Clinical ly mining too:h
Probe ~
5 5 5 4
6
FurcatiQn
32 31 30 29 26 27 26 25
2'
23 22 21 20 I. 18 17
...
"Through and throu gh' /urcatlOl1
Probe 1: initial probir'lg depth
Probe 2: probing de pth 1 melnl., aft&<
acal ing and I"QOt plllni"'ll
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0 2009. Amencan Dental Association, Joinl CommissiOn on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
34
2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved.
PART 2 KEY
The keybelow may be usedtorteterrmne correct and mcorrect answers: however, lor thIs Item set, it is not possible
to convert a rawscorn number correctto a staucurd ncore or essccreted :1lf1tUS.
1 B
51 B 101 E 151 C
2 C
52 0 102 A 152 0
3 A
53 R 103 C 153 D
4 A
54 C 104 D 154 E
5 D
55 B 105 C 155 A
6 D
56 B 106 A 156 A
7 C
57 D 107 C 157 E
8 D
58 A 108 B 158 D
9 C
59 C 109 A 159 A
10 C
60 D 110 B 160 B
11 E
61 B 111 B 161 D
12 B
62 B 112 A 162 D
13 C
63 D 11 3 C 163 C
14 A
64 C 114 D 164 D
15 C
65 C 115 B 165 E
16 D
66 D 116 C
166 D
17 C
67 A 117 A
167 C
18 D
68 B 118 D
168 A
19 C
69 B 119 B
169 B
20 E
70 B 120 A
170 A
21 A
71 E 121 C
171 A
22 D
72 C 122 C
172 B
23 B
73 B 123 C
173 C
24 A
74 C 124 D
174 D
25 D
75 B 125 E
175 B
26 B
76 E 126 A
176 B
27 D
77 B 127 D
177 C
28 B
78 E 128 A
178 D
29 D
79 A 129 C
179 E
30 B
80 A 130 E
180 D
31 C
81 D 131 E
181 A
32 D
82 E 132 B
182 E
33 E
83 C 133 B
183 D
34 E
84 E 134 A
184 C
35 C
85 A 135 B
185 C
36 D
86 C 136 B
186 A
37 A
87 C 137 E
187 A
38 D
88 E 138 D
188 B
39 B
89 A 139 B
189 D
40 B
90 D 140 B
190 C
41 A
91 B 141 C
191 A
42 C
92 A 142 C
192 A
43 B
93 B 143 E
193 C
44 B
94 C 144 B
194 B
45 A
95 B 145 D
195 E
46 B
96 D 146 D
196 C
47 C
97 C 147 A
197 B
48 B
98 D 148 B
198 A
49 C
99 B 149 D
199 B
50 A
100 B 150 E
200 C
36
2009. American Dental Association, Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations. All rights reserved,