-Socak . “piel fe) Set No. 1 14U/104/4 Question Booklet No... {To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ballpoint pen) Roll No. | | Roll Ne. {Write the digits in words) Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet Dia ded Date is ssissiacsiisescescesoistnncoiamate (Signature of invigilator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES {Use only bfue/black bell-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet} 1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet 10 ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Boollet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent /Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet 2. Do not bring any loose paver. written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. #3. Aseparate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall nat he provided Only the Answer Sheet unl be evaluated, #8. Write your Roit Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. {S. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the apace provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 16, No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. {if any} on OMR sheet and also Roll Nu, anid OM Shicet Nv, vin te Question Doolktct, 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator. otherwise it will be taken as unfair means, Bach question 1n this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Anewer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circlein the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect MO. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave alt the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marie 21, Por rangh work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet. 1a. Deposit only the OME Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 43. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14, facandidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment aa the University may determine and impose on him/her. [aes Ride fed ae ora & RATE Ihe of minted Pages: 366714U/104/4 Set No. No. of Questions tei st dom: 180 {time pe 2 Hoare/a Pall Marke tte : 450 leosste 0 ay ey 8) This paper consists of Objective Type Questions-and ia divided into TWO Sections (I and Il) aa under : E Be Feo wefhortia set a wre t mat I wee (fw TT) | Aes t, den AR afl & : 3 a] Section—t consists ‘of 120 Objective Type Questions on General Awareness, Mental Ability, Comprehension and Subject Awarences in vome major subjects, (=) eed 4, 120 agitate Re AT, afte Seen, ae MD aE qn frat & gr wt oma €1 : : tb) Sectional consists of 30 Objective Type Questions on {i} Enigiah Language and (ii) Hindi Language. . . (a) wre 4 30 aaftsata eA i) ait aw ote (a fed ore 3s we ante #1 : ¢ a A gandidate' in required to sttempt as many questions as he/she cif of Bestion I, and questions of ANY OME of the TWO Lang: {) English or (i) Hibdi in Seotlow . - wen & atta ¢ fk weet ae weal & (sitet on (iy fet ee wr & saftmafies rel a yet wi ; . Boch qucstion wauics 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorect ‘answer, Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. Sew Set 9 of RI ses era See fC ew ofa re ST che Se BT AT I BT if more then one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. WR witen Sefeis sec ag see S fa wea Ha fheaer we ae EF Each question is followed by Four alternative answers (1). (2). (3) and (4). Only, one ot these answersis correct. Select the correct answer and record it againat. the relevant question by darkening the circle with Ball Polat Pen in the Anewer Sheet, as per the guidelines. eA er eee om gee ef Fed (Y), 2) oe ) aed F ww Ul ye a tas we 8 am at 81 Ue TR ee Bm Boxy14U/ 104/4 Set No. 1 Section—I wat 1. The amount of ight entering the eye in determined by the eize of the (1) ectina 2) comea 8) pupil (4) fovea spa ste a wer ern POG |B feos are a Arie went? () Wea (2) Sm (3) wafer (ie CO Immune deficiency syndrome could develop due to (1) defective liver (2) defective thymus (3) AIDS-virus {4} weak immune systcu Prranteran & wae Prafhftre A 8 fah weerer ser ea 47 ee CR a (4) he ten we 0) Which one of the following diseases is communicable? (1) Rickets {2) Amocbiasis (3) Diabetes (4) Cancer eaten 3-2 atau dn wee £7 4) ae an (2) wifiafta a) RT @) Rn A bacterial disease is (1) leprosy (2) polio (2) chickenpox (4) influenza rafts 4 8 etre TH faery Be fy &e (2) Rit @) 3% 4) FR 5. Osteomalacia is duc to deficiency of (1) vitamin D (2) vitamin K (3) vitamin A (431) 2 {4) vitamin &a 31) 14U/104/4 Set No.1 sffeivafien 1 Peaftfer #8 fa saa & seers ater WaT t7 () fate D. (2) Rafe K 3). fafa A (4) Ratte & Kwaahiorkor, a disorder of children is due to (1) protein/essential amino acid deficiency (Q) eerbohydrate deficiency (3) genetic problem (4) vieamin deficiency wrfetrés sere wat Bt-EA sre In fas wereTET tar 87. () Roa /areees ete er ar are Q) aning2 = am (3) arpife, een (4) frafia we onme The life epan of human red corpuaclea is (1) uncertain (2) 129 daya (3} 180 days (4) am long aa the individual survives ara etamesit A aerate & (1) afafierr Q) 120 fa (3) 150 fa (4) safes & ater os Pre rtctaine of wine produced in an adult human every 24 houts is (2 tre (2) 25 litres (3) 3-0 litres @ 50 lites i WH Wars oof GT hs 24 9a A Kata yA A wT Oh & (1), pees: 2b ay 15 wer (3) 30 ate neo 414U/104/4 Set No. 1 Which one of the following scientists is kmown a the father of modern genetica? (1) Gregor Mendel (2) Hargobind Khorana (@) T. H Morgan (4) Charles Darwin Pofifas 22 fea Safe A ange anqaites ya aT ee RET TT E? “(Cp Fr tet (2) wet qn) Be eae a) we 10.) The universal recipient blood group is sentgt mata are yy & Qa 2) B {3} (AB m 0 12.) Radiocarbon dating is used to find the age of Q) buildings (2) fossils (9) rocks (1) babies ‘Yrdenks Ain wr win fem ang & Pui .& fee fer we £7 0) «A Fo (2) tare 3) = (@) fq 1a. Which one pf dhe following prupuscd S-O-R inudel of behaviour? {1) Thorndike (2) Woodworth (3) Watson -@) Koblar wan % wa-st-an wes a frafaferr #2 fia wenfaa Pet 1? 1) wears (2) qed (3) weer a) weer 13. In which one of the following areas.Geatalt peychologiets contributed maximally? () Perception (2) Learning (3) Memory ~ @) ‘Thinking Peafhfier 3 fier Qe FH Aeare wittenftel A wales dem fen? Q) saat (2) safer 3) afa @ fer asa) 414U/104/4 Set No. 2 14, )What-is it called when we perceive a stable object moving? (1) - Displacement (2) -Autokinetic effect (3) Fhi-phenomenon (4) Induced movement wa mw feet fA ag HT rasta nites BT A AZ, A RN Her ar 4? (2) Sear (2) Fenfes wre (3) afta (4) aaa nt ‘48. Whictt part of the ear converts sound energy into neural activity? (1) Eardrum (2) Cochlea (3) Hammer (4) Oval window rR h-at wer aft-aaf wy asa floor F oftafa wear 87 a) whiter (2) fferar {3} yiger/eeigt (9) signer ferget 6. }Plateau in learning refers to (1) cessation of learning (2) arrested growth in learning (@) defect in learning (4) obstruction in learning afte 4 aan dia wm t (Q) ater & anf ar (2) afte % sasgada a 8) sftrs # Qe (4) stom sate ar 7. Which one of the following proposed the cognitive theory of learning? (1) Kobler (2) Tolman (3) Skinner (4) Thorndike Prafafien 38 Reet after & dsrnere ara ar ufos fan mn? (1) Steer (2) eats (3) fare (4) attargs (28. Wha one tg the hignest level need in the riced-hierarchy proposed by Maslow? (1) Affiliation need (2) Biologkiaesed (3) Need for self-actualization (4) Need £6 aiagiielenseatt io ms14U/104/4 Set No. 1 treat cre wftetfta anea—wagee Fo edtea cat At aaa ferfafter Fa ata 37 (1) aaa steer (2) Afe sree (3) are-fae At svar (4) sea @ omen 19. Which onc of the following defined personality as a dynamic organization o psychophysical systems? (1) Cattel, (2) Allport (@) Sullivan, (4) Ebbinghaus * freafeian Fa fee safer ah wai cal S mean anet H er | aiewrfee fanz (1) Ra (2) arerté @) ater (4) vfangta Which one of the following developed the ‘Gtanford-Dinct! Lutelligcuuc Tool? (0) Terman 2) Binet (3) Stanford (4) Stanford ana tinet Preafteirr HR fm aes fa’ gh wth ar fiom fie a? () wr (2) fa (3) Rae (4) ag ger faa 21. Who made first successful attempt towards assessment of intelligence? (1) Weschler (2) Terman (3) Binet-Simon (4) Spearman ‘fe aer A fee 4 adver aoe wor fad fet ar? (1) Feet Q) wa (3) f8-ae (4) atta 22. ‘ which one of the following describes the concept of thinking? (1) [tis an inner speech (2) Itis a type of remembering (3) It is a process of problem-solving {4) It is a form of introspection nay é23. aaa) 14U/104/4 Set No. 1 frafafen 3 8 a fet & wie a why were? O) eR arate art & (2) ae ER BH ver 2 8) % aren-aran A oH aiken e 4) 3 aad oH GEN Re Which one ia the most suitable method of examining the ‘cause-effect relationship’ ‘between variables? {l) Correlational method (2) Experimental method {3} Observation method (4) Field-study method freien % 2 wha, ford & dha Servers & aaa’ & ater Sh welfira Mahe RF (Q) aeerar fat (2) warmers ff = (3) Bam ATH (4) @a-saee fae Which one of the following initiated the ‘time and motion’ studies? (Q) Taylor (2) Scott (3) Gilbreth (4) Elton Mayo freftiar 48 fer ‘er ua af’ rar A eon A oh? (yy tee (2) wate (3) frente (4) Fah Which of the following is the purpose of ‘job analysis’? (1) Description of the activities involved in a job Q) Description of the features of working conditions (3) Specification of the skills and capabilities required (4) All of the above frais 3a ae Swed feeden’ a ste 8? () fish wed 4 Fife fraser ar atta (ay era & aa sr als {3} preees Qual wd aes ar fate Raver (ae ah14U/104/4 Set No. 1 26. Which one of the following dates has been denoted as ‘World Environment Day’? jl) Sth May (2) 25th May (3) Sth June (4) Sth July res PA ie ‘Peewee Pera” we A see a aT #7 a) 5 3g (2) 25 98 Qo _ 5 gent Q7. Which one in the following continents is the genesis of human beings? {1} North America (2) South America (3) Africa’ + (4) Australia Proves ment # a Reeth ara wn at aqua yor 8? (1) aat aBter (2) eam atte 3) after (4) stfeefeen 20, nen was the Dowry Prevention Act passed? ae Praret afftas aa orfta Ran? (2) 1929 (2) 1955 @) 1961 (4) 1990 29. Who is the composer of Brahmasutra? . (1) Kalidas (2) Shankaracharya (3) Kautilya (4) Manu wena & cara We #7 ay sites (2) ved (3) ee a 30, Who among the following was the proponent of Non-Cooperation Movement in India? (1) Malaviyaji (2) Gandhiji (3) Aurobindo (4), Dayananda sien Ho oneedts orrctert wha Mefefua da ae ae. (1) Areas (2) Tiss 3) ang (4) wary (131) 814U/104/4 Set No. 1 31, Who among the following was the First Indian Gayernor General of India? (1) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (2) Motilal Nehru () Chakrabarti Rajagopalachary (4) Sardar Patel Prati 2 ata way mate nes Frade eer a? Q) tne gen cheat (2) Ahftete re G) set caritmerat ‘ 4) an a 32. Which one in the following is a correct sequence? (1) Satyayuga, Dwapara, Treta, Kaliyuga 2) Kaliyuga, Dwapara, Treta, Satyayuga (3) Satyayuga, Trete, Dwapara, Kaliyuga (4) Dwapara, Kaliyuga, Treta, Satyayuga feafafes $8 eee mA te Q) Fe, ore, Fa, wien (2) sian, am, 3a, aagT (3) Fag, kn, oa, afhyr 4) oe, afr, 3a, ae 33. Which one in the following pairs is not correctly matched? List—1 List—I (1) Ram Mohan Roy ~Sambad Kaumudi {2) Vivekananda Prarthana Samaj (3) Dayananda Arya Samaj (4 Mabatma Gandhi All India Harijan Sevak Sangha feafoiea att 4 a ats we git ae 8? wu wo (ly) wet we wag wey 2) fee wha ware 2) wR avd wana (4) mRReT fh afar wreta efor das ae aga 91411/ 104/4 Set No. 1 34. _ 3 37. 3a, aan Where #2 Diamofid Harbour situated? (1) Mumbei {2) Chennai (3) Kolkata (4) Ahmedabad wrAUE EAR set fea 87 ap ye (2) wat (3) Serer a) see ‘The Violence Against Women (Prevention) Act was passed in the year aftensit & fasg for (Pranm) safhfian fas ad afta ya? {1} 2000 (2) 2005 (3) 2008 (4) 2009 Who among the following women was the First Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh? (1) Arana Asef Ali (2) Sucheta Krinalani {3) Rajendra Kumari Vajpayee (4) Mayawati frafeter aed 2 a ae on wan A we gore WI? (0) Sem ae ore 2) eam Part @) waz gat att (4) ware ‘Which one in dhe fulluwiny, ie the correct sex ratio of population in India according to, Census 2011? (1) 936 females for 1000 males {2} 940 females for 1000 malee (3) 960 females for 1000 males (4) 970 females for 1000 mates freatifea ats ad de argos wea F aaciem a7 201) weer H aya 47 (1) 936 afteng sfx 1000 get (2) 940 afterd sft 1000 yor (3) 960 Hftert aA 1000 yea (4) 970 wfkend aft 1000 yee Which State in India has the largest population according o Census 2011 7 (1) Maharashtra (2) Bihar (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh41, © (133) 1alI/1Nd {4 Sat No. 1 sea 3 fee coer F 2011 A srerryn watts were 87 (A) FTERTE (2) Fae (3) aR wen (4) Neamae When was the First Five-Year Plan started in India? soma mem trate thor wer ore UE? (1) 1948 (3) 1949 (@) 1950 (4) 1982 When was Hindu Marriage Act passed? forq, Bae afttten wa soft gon? a) 1948 (2) 1952 {3) 1955 (4) 1956 What is the name of the treatise written by Kautilya? Q) Mimansu (2) Dhurmashasera 8) Smrith (4) Arthashastra Se cu fits ra a en am 8? (QO) tier (2) sibs Gy ae : (4) ants if a consumer gets constant satisfaction at different points on a curve, the curve is termed as (1) utility curve : (2) indifference curve (3) equal product ‘curve (4) budget tine aft fart satter Ql aw & faite fegal oe war Ugh frend &, a Ra aw A aE oat t () seater ae (2) ween a (3). ar seg ae (4) we Ye Fixed cost in Economics are generally termed as (2) prime cost {2) real coat $90 cppattidentiy cost (4) supplemetitary cnet: an14U/104/4 Set No. 1 andare @ fae ara St ATG: FR TTT B () areas ores (2) areata aera 43) Sere are (4) Ge ora In which of the following markets, firms sell differentiated products? (1) Impprfect competition (2) Perfect competition (3) Monopolistic competition (4) Oligopoly eafeftsa FA fea wa A wl Pitas aegd aa 7 (1) aot wftetfiar (2) gt siden (3) warfirestes. sftatfiim (4) sraftern 48. Under Ricardian theory of rent, transfer earnings are presumed to be (Q) positive {2) negative @) zero, (4) equal to rent. fer & oma fara & serfs, ear wiftel or art # (1) tee (2) sane @ az (4) a & ae 46.) Uncertainty Dearing Theury uf Profit was piupuundcd by (l) Knight {2) Clark (3) Hawley {4} Marshail ars ar sifattaram feera afta far var et 0) Re ger (2) Fars wo (3) Wa ge (4) mete ge 47. According to Keynes, speculative demand for money dependa on (1) income (2) savings @) conanmption (A) rate of intercat Wa ® agar, ag tgs & Ra a A at fhe we 8 ) ora (2) waw . 8) wing 4 a A aR (131) 12(134) 14U/104/4 Set No. 1 Discriminating monepoly is possible when $8) ‘two mariosts have increasing level of coots {two markets have decreasing level of coats (3) two markets have different elasticities of demand ” ¢) Wwe cumrkexs have sume elasticities of demand Retqees woe ah ae} =e (1) @ aad § era an ga ET RR (2) 2 wear Tera a nam et ERB 3) 2 want t at & ote fie et (4) 3 cmt 4 at @ ote an tt Which of the following is not a function of Central Bank? (0) Credit control (2) Credit creation (3) Lender of the last resort (4) Mosiopaly of note issue froth -& aaaw See tes we MR? 0) ore Peer ° Q) wea (2) af were & ac Foard sor 4) az ‘ort at waiter In Keynesian theory of employment, employment depends upon (1) aggregate demand (2) aggregate supply (3) effective demand (4) marginal efficiency of capital Wea & dew fers fi, tame Poh wert {hws ww (wens Rtn 2) re ft 13 PTO)14U/ 104/4 Set No. 1 51. 52. 53. aay Who is the Chairman of National Development Council in India? (1) Prime Minister (2) President (3) Vice-President “(@) Lok Sabha Speaker are ugha free afeg a army a 87 tL) sean (2) veh @ seo (4) Seen eae ‘According to Fisher’a Version of the quantity theory of moncy, if the quantity of money is doubled, the value of money will (1) be doubled (2) be halved © (3) remain unchanged (4) can't say SS rs Fear fe A Bigg A gr ay en () Far (2) sar (3) AE sheds ag a] 4 he ed, Which of the following tax can be shifted? (1) Income Tax 2) Corporation Tax {3} Customs Lury (@) weaitn rax Prafefaa 4 a aaa ax Rafa fer on sem 8? (1) sR (2) Frm a @) dn os 4) ‘When law of diminishing returns operates, the total variable cost (i), rises at decreasing rate (2) rises at increasing rate (3) declines at decreasing .rate (4) declines at increasing rate ‘wa para fee Peer oeef nom &, at ger oftedaefter oer (1) wed ef xe 8 ag R Q) wet Gf wa aot 8 (3) vet of 8 ue t 4) wat om a ued & . 1487. aay 14U/104/4 Set No. 1 ‘Who,.among the following, has not been the Governor of Reserve Bank of India® {l) Y. V. Reddy (3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia Q) Bimal Jalan (4) C. Rangrajan fetes 4 8 eh acta feed fe er ah tm #7 (1) ame fo HE Q) Fe fe again (2) fae arr (4) to RRA Qn which date, saving'deposit rate in India had been deregulated? (1) October 25, 2011 {3} October 25, 2010 (2) September 25, 2011 (4) September 25, 2010 feu Rit od, ner Tega em gw) BAdRe far wT (1) 25 ara, 2011 (3) 25 saga, 2010 ‘The President of India is elected 4 (1) directly by the people of India (3) indirectly by the people of India (2) 25 far, 2011 (4) .25 Reem, 2010 (2) directly by Parliament (4) indirectly by Parliament sama % uae fed ara Raffis Rear rer 4? (ho wee 94 3 oer} amet go a woeeg BTS ae aed en Parliament in India has (2) two chambers {3) one chamber area dae 3 AeA wea Ba FP Ria.» @ me (2) serg 60 8 dag ger (4) sama Fa a Faq oe (2) three chambers ~41_many chambers @) wa “a sf ae 15 PTO}14U/ 104/4 Set No. 1 62. (gay Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India ts appainted by (1) Prime Minister of India 2) President of India (3) Law Minister of Central Government {4) People of India one % vahe arena & goa anit A figs feed ger A act 87 + 0) 9a wh (2) ara & oh (3) 3 wer & ag at (4) sie 3 ates Scientific Socialism is associated with the name of (1) Johan Locke (2) Robert Oven (@) Charles Fourier (4) Kart Marx Arnfies amraare faa am % ore waz R? Q) 9 ate Q) tat stds @) aed Bier (4) wre aed ‘The First World War was not won by {l) USA (2) USSR (3) Central Powers (4) Allies Powers fiefs A & at oun Rage wr fon ae a? () aumous —. 2) qoumomosms (3) Safa aft (a) Pas et “Sovereignty is superpower over citizens and State unrestrained by law.” Whe said this? ‘ (Q) Hubbes (2) Locke Bentham (3) Bodin (4) Bryce “arhtfiear aanfest wa wea a fat ge aftefia merefe 80" Remar wea 87 () Ree Q) ate a (3) afer > 4) wer14U/104/4 Set No. 1 (*) Only nation that was expelled from League of Nations in 1939 wan (0) Germany (2) Russia (3) Japan (4) China RH 1939 4 vin ate Gera @ afters Gems bn eta-ar en7 iy aA Q) (3) sa (te 4. Who in called the Father of Political Science? “{l} Plato (2) Aristotle (@) Karl Mare A) Thomas lobbes wee we are fA oo are Y? a) a 2) (3y rt ed 4) he eee Who was the President of USA when TIN Charter was eigned? Q) Truman (2) Nixon (3) Roosevelt (4) Wileon EON ewer & geenaita ete maT oder we OE ts wn? Q) gt Q) free (3) wwe (4) Rear 66. Which date is observed os Human Rights Day? ()) January 1 2) May 1 3) June 10 (4) December 10 armas Raa Pefefirr # a fee fA at aera aren 87 Q) 1 wee 2) 1 @) 10 (4) 10 fran 67. Who was the Prime Minister of India at the time of Second Poltharan Nuclear Test? {1) Atal Bibari Vajpayee (2) Manmohan Singh (3) 1. K. Gujral . (4) Chandrashekhar fester trees won ham wee wre By verre te ar? (1) ize rere ae (2) erste fe G) wie tp 4) =e }491) WwW14U/104/4 Set No. 1 6a, 69. Who wrote the famous ancient book Politics ? (1) Plato (2) Aristotle (3) Cicero (4) Socrates uifcg adr gers Politics % dare ata a? a) a Q) ae ) Red @) was Article 14 of Indian Constitution deals with {1) Right to Freedom (2)-Right to Equality (3) Right against Exploitation (4) Right to Religion carats utter wr qed 14 Praferitra FO fewe weg 47 () Fare after 2) waren er siftem (3) we Paez srftrer (4) fe ernim a afrer Who was the last Governor General of India? (0) C. Rajagopalachari (2) Rajondra Prasad 3) K M. Munshi (4) Lord Mountbatten, we w afr met era HH a? We {1) te wamierereand (2) we wee (3) Be we Ah 4) wt oer 71. Which among the following nations is not a permanent member of United Nation's (131) Security Council? (Q) Russia (Q) Japan (3) France {4) China Profirfira 4 8 ahaa ug ogee & gen sftey a wert wera al 47 ww Q) 308 @) sie 4) tr In which of the following countries Mohenjodaro is located? (Q) India (2) Afghanistan (3) Pakistan (4) Iran wits fea Fa fka og F aafeer t7 (2) wa Q) seer (3) ofa 4) tr14U/104/4 Set No. 1 73. Which of the following animals is referred most in the Rig Veda? (i) Cow (2) Elephant (3) Horse (4) Goat Prieta a a fer oy Ho aaf wae to aad afte A meh 8? (t} 7 {2} wet (3) Sty 4) wR 74 Pachien the Chinese Pilgrim visited India during the period of (1) Qupas 2) Maurya (3) Harsha (4) Kushona Ot wet waite @ fea are 4 ana om #7 a) (2) ahd @ Ww @ Fm 76. Nae dhe wiiler of Rupuurangtnt ? (1) Vilhana (2) Kalhana {3) Banbhatta (4) Kalidas aaaifint % daw oe 7 (1) fee 2) ee () 8G (3) itera % Which Sultan transferred capital from Delhi to Daulatabad? {1) Ghiyasuddin Tughlag (2) Muhammad Bin-Tughlaq ‘ay Firoz Shah Tughlag (4) Mubarak Shah fs ear 3 Regt @ deromng caus wr sada fe? (1) anges Pres (2) eng ferret @) fete wm gree (4) que ome 77. Who iaid the foundation of City of Agra? (1) Shabjahan * (2) Ibrahim: Lodi (3) Babhd Lad (4) Sikandar Stiah Loski.i: 7 au) 1914U/104/4 Set No. 1 aera ae Ae RA eet 7 cy erent (2) wnt at) me a) ro MR aH Babar wrote Tuzuk-iBabri in which langusge? (1) Arabic (2) Persian (3) Turkish @) Urdu wae 3 gye-z-wrad fa aren Fforest? (2) at (2) reed o 4 Akbar built Buland Darwaza to commemorate the victory of (1) Bengal (2) Jodhpur * 3) Malwa (4) Quiarat arent A ge gore flor dk Raw om we warn? (Q) rea (2) tag 6) Wer (4) gaa | Nizamuddin Auliya belonged to which Sufi Silsilah (order)? (2) Pirdausi {2) Suharawardi (3) Chishti (4) Shattari fragt stfeva Fe me free (wera) @ ge a7 (1) Fert (2) Ward (3) feet (4) edt Who introduced Mansabdari System? (1!) Aurangzeb (2) Akbar (3) Humayun (4) Jahangir weed Baa A ye feet A? (1) aterea 2) aR @) ert, (4) aah (oie department was under Mir-Aatish in the Mughal Administration? 131) (1) Judiciary (2) Royal Household (3) Cannon, (4) Revenue 20s4U/ 104/4 Set No. 1 qa sees Ho dk-anftn & ata ats fm an? Q) = Q) evar 3) aVeRT (4) 1 88. Ryotwari Setdement was eatablished in which part of British India? ()) South (2) Eastern (3) Central (4) North emg seve ff ama & fer aH ary A wh eh? a) der ar @) am Which Officer advocated English as Medium of Education in India? () Charles {2) Macaulay (3) Alexander (4) Wilson fee aaftenrd 3 ster H fire & wre & ee Fost A ae A? (1) wef (2) fet Q) sae (4) Pree (as. Who was the Governor General during the Freedom Struggle of 1857 7 (1) Dalhousie (2) Hardinge (3) Canning (4) Lytton 1857 & weiner dm & aaa ana wr mek wa Ha aT? (1) wet (2) wit @) Sf (4) fea [96, } In which year Cripps Mission came to India? fica Frert fis af era sre? QQ) 1939 (2) 1945 . (3) 1942 , (4) 1946 = é 87.| Who has been appointed Chairman of the Fourteenth Finance Commission? {2} abnijit Sem, (@) ¥. V. Reddy @} Sudipto Mandal (4) Sushma Nath hsy at14U/104/4 Set No. 1 89. 90, 91, 92. (233) herd fan arin ar seme feet ges fer var 8? (Q) safteta 8a (2) af de tt 3) YM ee 4) Tn Ta ‘The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 45 and the average of the remaining 30 members ia 3-5. The average of the whole group is wr ge 8 Reet Aion 40 1 we 10 ad at ote 45 8 oft Be 30 ome oT ote 35 41 gt qa a ste t a4 (2) 15/2 @ 15/4 ae If MOHAN is represented by code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by aff MOHAN #1 KMFYL &, @ COUNT # 4 aT Q) AMSLR (2) MELAR (0) MADRL (4) SAMLR The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. If § years ago, the ratio of their ages was 9:3, the present age of A and B are a afte Aon BA omg em wig SOM oR 5 at Gd oA omy on RUG 5.3 mw wie 2 A mm BF ag Oh (2) 40, 20 @Q) 35, 15 3) 38,12 (4) 40, 10 Leta means minus (~}, b means multiplied by (x), c means divided by (+) and d means plus {4} The value of 9049 a29c 10h? is ‘ fe a at anf warn (-) &, be ak gm (x) 8, cat od fa een (+) Boh dw ont aR (+) 2, #90d9229c10b2 m ut a & (2) 10 8) 12 4) 14 ALU stands for ALU a mend & (l} American Logic Unit (2) Alternate Local Unit (3) Alternating Logie Unit (4) Arithmetic Logic Unit 2214U/104/4 Set No. 1 93. Which of the following is the Central Bank of India? (1) Reserve Bank of India {2) State Bank of India (3) Central Bank of India (4) Punjab National Bank Prafafers 4 3 ate-ar ora Sea te 27 (0) fad fa acto yer > (0) Or dx ste ifr @) tye fe sts efter (4) Tare ara te 94. Which is the highest Civilian Award given to a person in India? Q) Padmashri , (2) Padmabhushan (3) Padma Vibhushan (4) Bharat Rata say it Heath sats at fear aed are ate ACS WOT wT-aT 7 Q) yor (2) Faq (3) ew faye 4) Ta 98. Jawaharlal Nehru wrote the Discovery of. India in (1) Alimadnagar Fort Jail (2) Alipur Central Jail (3) Mandalay Jail (4) Yervada Jail ranmera we 3 Discovery of: india fret tt (1) aeepen WE Bett (2) seige atta are FH (3) Weed de (4) tag ae FH 96. Kisan Day is celebrated on () 23rd March (2) 23rd June (3) 23rd September (4) 23rd December pre Rew ana wer & 1} 23 wae Q2ee (2) 23 Freee SH} Be Me we (131) 2314U/104/4 Set No. 1 97, In India, decimal coinage system was introduced in the year a) 1951 (2) 1955 (3) 1987 (4) 1965 ame 3 anfte ga wench ys at (y 24 1951 4 (2) wf 1955 4 (3) wt 1957 # (4) 7 1965 4 Pink Revolution is related to ee {cotton (2) garlic (3) grapes (4) onion Tard wit) waft 8 , Q) ae 2) we a 3) aya @ ma (*) In the solar system, which planet possesses the least density? 12) Mere (2) Saturn (9) vupiter (@) Uranus NN ahchan st Sar me wad aS ar 8? S (1) are (2) af (3) geen (4) aa (=) Who stated thet “Earth is a spherical planet"? (1) Copernicus (2) Pythagoras (3) W. D. West (4) Aristoue “gett em iter oe 81" fever ems 87 (1) afar Q) Weert 3) Beye te Fz (4) () ‘The transfer of heat in the atmosphere through horizontal movement of the air ie called (1) convection (2) advection @) conducuon, (4) radiation sa) 2414U/104/4 Set No. 1 aay bee nit gr ay RIT aE t _ 0) ae (2) sree (3) wert 4) Re Which one has a highly elliptical orbit? (1) Pluto (2) Mercury (3). Barth (4) Mars ved 8 faerer a sarer digs 87 et (2) qe . 2 4) ae (=) Lines drawn through: places having same amount of sunahine are called {1) isohels (2) isotherms 3) ianbare (4) isohyete WW A wr on aa eM a eh wit mf ter wh aed (l) angie (2) Brat ter (3) ara ten (4) draft ter (204.| Mangrove Forests are found {W) along sea coasts (2) in Mountain ranges @) in River Valleys {4) over Plateaua tate ar wt at € (1) Wah aet & fet * (2) we sferensit F @) 74 wid ¥ (4) Tort © Biological Deserts are found in (1) Lakes (2) Rivers (8) Coutinaptal Shett * (4) Wide @pen Oceans (131) 2s14U/104/4 Set No. 1 fe Fata weer Wa ord & Q) set . (2) aReat # (3) sedi gate 4) Faq BA ser F (=) il ct dln Tn dun aie (1) Pollen (2) Bacteria (3) Virus (4) Dust frofertea Ho wta we argite rau #7 o) wm (2) trader (3) area " 4) a 107. Is this an environment-friendly activity? (1) Increasing Forest Cover (2) Increasing Agricultural Land (3) Increasing Industrial Production (4) None of the above UWE ae} sagET Hr t? (1) wr eat A ae (2) pit a st gfe (9) atte sees aR (4) aie 9 8 we ae 108. The industries which manufacture parts and components to be used by big industries are {1) ancillary industries (2) basic industries (3) consumer industries (4) village industries gol Row} ze Hoge A aa ord ore i oe er Air wt € (2) Bere ser (2) RO sa (3) suit sei (4) onfte: stir (aan) 2614U/104/4 Set No. 1 209. | Which one of the following is known for iron-ore? qa 31) Q) Bhilai (2) Visakhapatnam (3) Mumbai (4) Kudremukh Pefetis § & xh chess & fa sar arm 87 ) Prong (4) Rerrarsera 8) Tt 4) Rye Spices are grown mostly in () Malabar Region (2) Konkan Region @) Coromandel Coast (4) Saurastra Coast work Yor. ta fed ond O) Fares 2) og) adie a ERE Which one of the following groups are called millets? (1) Maize, Jowar, Pulses {2} Jowar, Bajara, Ragi (3) Rajara, Ragi, Maize (4) Maize, Jowar, Regi Prafafies wi? Fa ahem firee seer 7 (1) 7a, vara, at (2) RR, Ta, we (3) ara, uf, maT 4) 7H, saa, uf India ia the second largest rice producer in the world next to 0) China (2) Sri Lanka (3) Russia 4) USA fre #, wea are mL BRT BWR aH TUTE 8, fee we? (ye {2) teen a = (4) Foumoze 27 "~14U/104/4 Set No. 1 Salal is the hydropower project in (1) Punjeb (2) Haryana (Q) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Himachal Pradesh wort wafiga witcha fet wen #87 qQ) wa (2) Bern Q) TT Behe (4) terra wert Cs) ‘The power project which is associated with the largest man-made reservoir in India (1) Bhaka project 2) Gandak project (3) Rihand project (4) Chutha project Raya Wala a mca Fmd AB Haga send a waa t (1) srergt wettorat 12) "ew aero (3) fee eter (9) yar sft 118. Name of the richest, deepest and oldest gold mine of India Q) aud (2) Gourunaa {s} Kolar (4) Neulore ana 4, wad wag, Tet ot get at A oe wt at Q) ee é (2) Theger (3) Fen (4) Fate 116. The industry which is localized along the banks of river Hooghly in Weat Bengal is () Jute Textile @) Corton Textile {3) Ship Building (4) None of the above sain st item der ¥, gre 3G & ae oe eet (1) Year we sey (2) STE ww ae (3) ha Ante (4) arte 3 8 aig ae 33) 2814U/104/4 Set No. 1 117. The State which is famous for production of ginger @) Arunachal Pradesh. (3) Kasbmir were sere & fara wfrz crew t 0) 3eRe en 2) aR @) Uttar Pradesh (@) Haryana GB} Fer (4) earn 148. Which one of the following ia not a corrart cnmbirsition? {2) Andhra Pradesh--Aurangabad 8) Gujerat—Abmedabad feerfafera 7 a wwe qo at Re 0) seston (09) rao vane {2) cow group ®) horse group tert fies ag A aut €7 (1) haar (2) wantin BH 190, Baryte and manganese are found in- (1) Uttar Pradesh 3) Assam dor + fue wi mt meme) roma {eal} 3) s-aR (2) Mabarashtra—Sholapur (4) Uttar Pradesh—Ailahabad (2) MERE (4) SR Sen (2) antelope group {9} None ot the above 4) sade 33 att at (2) Haryana * (4) Andhra Pradesh (3) wana _ PQs14U/104/4 Set No. 1 Section mr LANGUAGE : ENGLISH (For Candidates Opting English Language) Note: rour alternatives are given a8 possible answers to each question. Gave the correct choice ag an anewer. Directions. (Queativs Nu, 121-424) Sclovt the word nearest in meaning to the given italic word, 121. Progile ) Bold (2) Hot (3) Delicate (4) Frank Virue (1) Demerit (2) Value (8) Vividness (4) Advantage 123. Vanish {l) Varnish (2) Disappear 3) Disregard (4) Vomit 124. Menace (1) Threat (2) Mind (3) Thrift (4) Maturity Directions : (Question No, 125-128) Select the word opposite in meaning to the given italic word, 125. Opaque Q) Black (2) White @) Thin (4) Transparent 126. Tender Q) Low (2) Strong G) Proud (4) Shy on a UP es B) Byce @) Ears (4) Mouth 128. Frugal (Q) Poor (2) Hasty (3) Extravagant (4) Fanatic 32) 3014U/104/4 Set No. 1 Directions: (Question No. 129-132) Select the word which has been correctly spelt. 129. (1) Comodity (2) Accomodation (3) Committee (4) Superitendent 120. (1) Tention {2} Retention (3) Mantion {4} Hection 131. (1) Haven (2) Scianes ) Cigarete A) Veilent 134. (1) Typer Q coo @} Percieve (4) Cattlea Directions : (Question No. 133-136) Select the word which can he substituted for the giren group of words. 138.°4 person that you work with (Comrade 2) Friend (3) Colleague (4) Helper 134, Am aren in space that nothing can cecape from {t) Skyscraper (Q) Black hole @) Cockpit (4) Galaxy 125. A group of people in society who are powerful because they are rich and intelligent {1) Aristocrat (2) Inteligentsia (3) Bureaucrat (4), Flite : 126. A device used to prevent heat, electricity or sound from escaping from something : Q) Insulator @) Rader (3) Dyad (4) Dynamo Directiogs: (Question No. 137-140) Select the word to fill in the blanks. 187. The Principal of the college looked rather ——. . . (1) mart {2} amiable @) ontentatious — 4) ‘sient (183) , 31 Pro)14U/104/4 Set No. 1 138. 139. 140. ‘The girl was enough to answer all the questions. (i) dull 2) nervous (3) frustrated (4) intelligent You have a mind and a kind heart. (Q) curious 2) eruat (3) reckless (4) eluggish if you are not to the radio, please awitch it off (1) hearing (2) looking (3) listening (4) caring Directions; (Question No. 141-147) Select the parts of epeech of the underlined word in 31. 142. 143. 144. 4131) the given sentences. He taught me English (1) Transitive Verb (2): (3) Auxiliary Verb (4) He sang the anng exceedingly well. Q) Determiner (2) Noun. @) ‘Intranaitive Verb Modal Verb Adjective. (4) Adverb Sitting on the top floor, we enjoyed the natural beauty of the landscape. (Q) Noun (2 +3) Adjective (4) India is a great country of ours. (1) Relative Pronenn oy (3) Possessive Pronoun 4 32 Verbal Noun Present Participle Reflexive Pronoun Personal Pronoun14U/104/4 Set No. 1 Directions: (Question No. 148-147) Chooag the explanation that catches the spirit of the 148. 146. 147, idiom given in each question. With flying colours . (hk) Swiftly (2) Merrily ‘@) Triumphantty (4) Leisurely Keep one’s head above water . Q) Keep smiling (2) Keep out of debt @) Keep swimming (4) Keep out of pleasure Call a spade a epade () Work hard (2) Take advantage of the situation (@) Challenge the enemy (4) Speak plainly ‘Directions: (Question No. 148-180) Choose the correct option to correct underlined part of 140. 10, (433) the given sentences. ‘Two hundred kilemetrce sccm to be @ long disteuwe. * (1) is seeming (2), seem to (3) seems to be (4) sew ‘He was prevented to come. () to coming (2) coming (3) from coming {4} not to come He went to the back side of the house. G) tae tna of {@) to the back of eo ‘at the back side of {4@) the back aide of ©14U/104/4 Set No. 3 isi. 182, 153. 154. 185.. 157, 158, asa (RA-AR are Rronfitat i fire) Ran: Pefefee wet (1), (2), @) Fo (4) ware & aa Fahe Fe AI at, fer a ate 6 at ti a oe a GUI feos tere after meq ear eT? ager} 3 een af Q) wget (2) wast qame? Q) at (2) aa fee 8 BR ent? . (0) feet (2) Samet a digs aia aaa 27 apa Qs wi a aa ee TR? a) (2) waa (1) ster (2) arftreret wai 2 sryg what? () ar Q) Siren ‘rea’ a af aft-firaz wn 87 ) we + (2) wR +f (3) @) cy - 8) @) 3) eer w+ (4) seer 4) Ua (ap eh a4 (4) ft (4) street (4) wiser 4 we+a189, “fenpre’ # ate-ar aaa 87 () hee (2) she 160. ‘aha’ re few tot aT R? . 0) ee Q) rer 161. wa a wet wm who tt (1) fort Q) we 162, Wi @ wir ats 87 Q) sare Q) sea wi & yr te 87 a a wa 2 eh warren dy att t7 Q) (2) Wye “eg Spt ase Rarer Foe’ eT A? ) a (2) aris fara O®: 166, cafe wi vated an t7 Q) fe 2 aa 167, i a ws ‘went’ wi caleert ae 87 (Q) mer Q) ae 168, “Were! ws Rectan a 87 Q ae 8) 8 feet w otis att WAH re. = ) Ty (3) Sra (3) eR 3) =n ®) gm 8) Hex feiss a 2) @) 14U/104/4 Set No. 4 14) Reet 4) we (4) BT ae (4) Aaaa 4) aa Ge (4) Aor (4) ae14U/ 104/4 Set No. 1 170, Wi qd & art wm bt, 32 eT aR? () Wet (2) aR @) ame 171, ‘am th maar word & ) 38 ear @) th =r (3) Fern 17a, “HC WaRT FH FGF (1) ye Paafor (2) Kaw - GB) fae ser wah At am Q) trgt {2} oT (3) aad 174, titer 7 fea & wh a (y erage (2) vere 3) ar 275. WAS Afeefen gH A Hf t (Q) srret (2) wea (3) free 176, ) fea B vee ert Stam wei arf & (1) ert (2) Srnten (3) afier 177. yt a wraend wt? ay Feige (2) watex vere (8) aR 178, “sph ye seer er or” cf fare 87 (1) saree (2) Fer @) aq we S nist farm onde a? Q) wear fD (2) Mterener 1 fA (3) REA 180, Safa ga’ & aves 2 (1) SrerpoT aE (2) ariry wire, (Q) wararra fire nee 36 (4) 4) {4 Co) 4 (4) 4) 4) a 4) 4) wii Ser PRR THT aqeg Rarer mA i werad wet Pee aren fara ae D/4{131)—10"safer & fem Free Gm ghee & nea oregano eat tw dae eho eh eee AE fee) 1. ve ofits fed & 10 Fre oom Maa a fe war A mt ge vee # oh AE we wad Geter tree Te a eA Ga eat se-Adew A Se ep) ee A qed yer ort ee tT 2. wien wort A rarer den sowed a orfifte, fro at wa Se vt gen es wa A a oT dg. Seema em & fem ore EL 87 a aR te 7 a ge wh) Ge Tov eT eae de, aT TTT vx ar eb year Pew wins 4. OT organi aan seed ay ait ey ree we AT A Peifes ea Pera s aq kom yew tr 8 ann ogonis Proifte ww kre aa Fe ka aa Bos Re aetant oreers Bowel wer qferan wt Ris sen Az wT Te shee eal fre 6. ofe wee ome wa aK Sten ten, agers dam 2 ae tron Cafe até A) aor WENT Sagari Wo ait ato Te Ke Ta te at afafed A veka st serie wet 1 7 cae sfafeen A ang vA ofterta wal Pree are wena eer fee sree me Te afea es wr eh Ret sa) a. neegfern Arar net Sore afer an fed wR D1 ember wry de danfbuss aor & ford meet TR cox af wrafecr ots are? fed 1d a ah aya wee ye We AS we Pada & aga FO Tw wen ty 9. wax a & aH fee aes ww A ae a re Se 8 af Ge A me aa Te qa at apt war ae Sa Ne AT ITT to. wa 2 fs Uw an eat ae sift Bm ween A OH wae th ae aN Pat wer gee aT oe at fa wat vfs & ors eae wt a A wet as Fi WH wet Ts ote fet aA 1a, ce ad & fe aegis ga Fos ma we ae of yew wh wer 12, Wer & suit baer siogvcane sor-ee wim we Hoon az F! a3, wer Tae RT a aA oder ve A TE a a oA A er 14. af a oad wher Fo agfza eer ar min wea tA ae faeafererea om fruits ee ave, ort emer