Scribd Logo
Загрузить

Добро пожаловать в Scribd!

  • BHU+B A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper

    Загружено:

    Mota Chashma
    1K просмотров40 страниц
    BHU+B.A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper

    Оригинальное название

    BHU+B.A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper.

    Авторское право

    © © All Rights Reserved

    Доступные форматы

    PDF или читайте онлайн в Scribd

    Этот документ был вам полезен?

    Это неприемлемый материал?

    Пожаловаться на этот документ
    BHU+B.A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper

    Авторское право:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Скачайте в формате PDF или читайте онлайн в Scribd
    Отметить как неприемлемый контент
    1K просмотров40 страниц

    BHU+B A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper

    Загружено:

    Mota Chashma
    BHU+B.A+Social+Sc+2015+Question+Paper

    Авторское право:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Скачайте в формате PDF или читайте онлайн в Scribd
    Отметить как неприемлемый контент
    из 40
    jet No. ~ Question Bookiet No... {To be filled up by the candidate by bue/black balt-potnt pen) Rollo. |_| | 1] } Roll No (Wite the digits in words) Serial No. of Answer Sheet (Sig: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blueyblack bal-point pen in the space above and on both sides or t12 Answer Shes! 1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Bovklet, cnees the Question Booklet to ensure that it cantaing all the pages in conect sequence and lis no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet’ bring it i2 dw notice of the Superintendent /Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question tookles. 2. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Exar.ination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope, 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It skould mat be folded or mutilcted, A secoud Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Onty the Answer Sheet will be evaluat.d 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Shees by pen in the space provided above. 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roil Number in the space provided at the tap, and by darkening the circtes at the bottom. Aiso, wherever applicable, write the Question Bookiet Number and the Set Number in appropria’s places, 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (ifany) on OMR sheet and Roll No. and OMR sheet No. on the Questiv. Booklet 7. Any changes in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilawr, otherwise it will be taken as unfairmeans @. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answets. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darceuing te appropriate ‘circle in the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by pen as menuunad in the guidelines given on the first page of ke Answer Sheet. 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. I: ).. darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer wil be treated as srv-orsecl 10, Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If You da not zwish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (..cb question will be awarded zero marks). 11. For rough work, use the inner back page of the litle cover and the Llu page at the end of this Booklet. 12. Deposit oniy the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. 48. You are not permitted to ieave the Examination !4all until the end of hz Test. 44. If a candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shail be Hable to such punishment as the University may determine and impose on him/1 Leuges Pree Raf a ae aree-gs wy fet Te eH] Total No. of Printed Pages : 40 Day and Date... re of invigilatar) FOR ROUGH WORK ‘un ort & fay Time wey Instrui Freer : 15U/104/4(Set-l) No. of Questions : 180 weit at Wom: 180 22 Hours} 1 Full Marks : 450 wee} ___ Eger: 450 ct This paper consists of Objective Type Questions and is divided into Two Sections (1 & IN) as under. Ue wesc agfretty wet ae omata 8 cen at weet Coed ID 4 free #, cer fe te afta & (a) Section - I consists of 120 Objective Type Questians on General Awareness, Mental Ability, Comprehension and Subject Awareness in some major subjects. () wre -1 4 120 agwetta wea aes oe, eRe ara, aera ae aE We at a aoe oe arena #7 (b) Section - II consists of 30 Objective Type Questions on (I} English Language and (11) Hindi Language. (@) wre - 11 # 30 agfaweta mea CD adot ur ok UD fet wer a smenfea 1 A candidate is required to attempt as many questions as he/she can of Section-L, and Questions on ANY ONE of the TWO Language papers (I) English OR (11) Hindi in Section - 11. onal @ atta 2 fh eee - 1 cer we - 1S @) seh am AD fe aro a aan wet ot se wt) Notel7ic : (1) Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark wil! be awarded for each unattempted question. wets we 3 sat on | ete Te oe Sy we aie wer TT sete ogata sea ar arti ee err (3) P.1.0. 4SU/ 04/4(Set-l) 1 2 Q @ '{ more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the + rect answer, choose the closest one. Ue yore Tefere wr wa SERS foe wie ei ot Precat Tel BERS tach question is followed by Four alternative answers (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these answers is correct. Select the correct answer and vecord it against the relevant question in the ANSWER-SHEET by darkening the circle with Ball Point Pen as per guidelines, nom we} ue defers sae |srt Tt ze fire (1), @), GI TM A) aba 8 cater aa 2) et G dam ew aay A we 8) aE oe AA Bad ted a) TATA A dere yer S ert Adega sito Gieng) # ae igre &4 arg ora wes qefed SECTION ~i wave -t ‘Clean India Campaign’ was launched on: (} Noverber 14 (2} January 30 (3) October 2 (4) August 15 Tere ana Burr ah quant ah mg : (2) aaa M4) (2) rag 30% (3) Saga, 2cT (4) GT 15 aT ‘Decil sed to measure (2) Alkatinity of soil (2} Intensity of sound (3) Air pollution (4) Radioactive radiations “Sitter wi wart ela & (1) AS oi arr ee A Q) ef a tra ae (3) oy eT TA A (4) Sear fafa amy Wildlife ins’ itute of India is located at : (1) Bhopa (2) Lucknow (3) Dehradun (4) Nagpur ashe Teer Rem @ : Q) wars GB) Sea (4) args A (4) 1BU/104/4(Set4) The headquarters of United Nations Environment Programme’ is located at > (1) Paris (2) Nairobi (3) New York (4) Washington Sam wy valet ores wr qe Rea 2 Q) te a (2) Are Hf Q) sgt a (4) aftrtes 3 ‘The number of agro-climatic regions of india are : (15 (2) 18 @) 22 (4) 12 area 8 pita ween Bl wee (1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 23 (4) 12 Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material ? (2) Aluminium — (2) ronand Steel (3) Cement (4) Fertilizer Peafefae 4a ata vel digeee or goat wea are SBF are e ? (2) tafifea, Q) ew ser (3) oe a) see The largest biosphere reserve {in terms af area) of India is : (1) Sundarban (2) Nanda Devi (3) Nilgiri (4) Gulf of Mannar ae ar eed asi Game a gfe a) Aarescha ony (arctfteae Rod) & () Gee (2) FT oe @ tame (4) FR at art Which one of the following pairs is related with equatorial forest ? (1) Pine and Spruce (2) Olive and Cork Oak (3) Mahogany and Rosewood (4) Teak and Sal PreafeRtea ys 4 a ate Ragan tate a a weft #7 (2) ths ae pe (2) Gat cen wis ale (3) Herr ger age () aria Ye wa Madhya Pradesh does ot have common border with : (Q) Maharashtra @) Gujarat (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (8) PTO. 15U/104/4(Set-1) 13. am pee Han Grae aes (1) Ferre & arr Q) Tera & wer Q) omer vee S eer (4) tured } arr Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (Q) Iron ore - Bailadila (2) Copper - Zawar (3) Bauxite - Koraput (4) Mica—Nellore Preteen & area we aH wel Gator Tete ? (12) ate orres - fergie Q) dar - ary 3) aeage — whee @) saw ~ Feet + Which one of the following is called the ‘sugar bawl' of the world ? (1) Hawai lslands (@2} Mauritius (3) Java (4) Cuba Prafaftaa #8 fre fea or Wt a peter mer ore BP (1) ead dia wex (2) arene (3) ara 4 =e Highest productivity (per hectare) of groundnut is found in the state of : Q) Gujarat 42) Andhra Pradesh (3) Tami Nadu (4) Karnataka pred or ead afm gore (ft tater) cont (Ll) ysree 4 (2) srr wee Q) aRarrg # (4) wafee 4 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (1) Green Revolution —Food grains (2) Blue Revolution — Fish (3) White Revolution - Milk (4) Yellow Revolution ~ Floriculture Prafattaa 4S erga wet aie ae 87 Q) eRe aif — aren (2) ate ana — Fe @) aa mPa — er (4), te afr — gator (6) 15UN04/4(Set-) 14 The correct sequence of the following states fir terms of population) in 18. 7, descending order is: (1) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar (2) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal (3) Ultar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal (4) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra Prevakac weet (erie of gi }) er wet mie amt C) ore wee, Heng, ofa are, flere 2) Gee wey, fre, ageng, fay dre @) ser wt, vereng, fter, ataR dare, 4) Ter wee, fee, ai ara, wERTE The largest reserve of Iron ore is found in the state of : () Odisha @) Karnataka (3) Jharkhand = (4) Chhattisgarh ate omen or walter afte iste ora oer & Q) sifger a (QQ) wer 4 Q) ares 4 (4) sing 4 Deltaic plain in India is an extension of t (1) Khadar plain (2) Bhangar plain (3) Tarat plan (4) Bhabar plain ART H Seer Aart eer Bay PT a: () er 4am oH Q) aTs Fat er 3) sag ARF aT (4) sa dara or The largest river basin of Peninsular India is : (1) Godavari basin (2) Mahanadi basin (3) Krishna basin (4) Cauvery basin. orn ana ah cet ast at af 2 () There’ af 2) sere ara (3) Pen afr (4) are aa (7) PT.O. 18U/104/4(Set-) 18. 19. 2t. 22. India’s longest border is with : (1) China (2) Bangladesh (3) Pakistan (4) Nepat and ot Hae oat Ho 8 ()} 4 # eer Q) avert} eer (3) oferty (3) are Farr Along the west coast of India which state is most vulnerable to cyclonic storm ? (1) Kerala (2) Karnataka (3) Maharashtra (4) Gujarat ana & oferh ve 3 cer aia ote amania qe S aad afte Wert fF Q) ae Q) water 3) FERRE (4) IRR Period of retreating monsoon in India is : (1), Mid December to mid-March {2) October to mid December (3) June to September (4) Mid March to May saree % Pray arrge ait salt 3: 41) ey Reve a ea al Q) segay @ az Rea 3) a 8 fire (4) Fea Hrd tag We can know about early Vedic period from : (1) Jatak Katha (2) Yajur Veda (3) Rig Veda (8 Rajtarangini oNfie afm ara a ae & et feet wet from 8 7 QQ) were Her (2) aay @) was () aorrfih ‘The first capital of Magadha was : (Q) Rajgir (2) Pataliputra (3) Gaya (4) Kumrahar ame BT weet ase) wel aft? () erariz (2) creferga G) 7 @ GRE The important port of Indus Valley Civilization was : (Q) AlamGirpur (2) Lothal (3) Banawali (4) Mohenjodaro Req dt wenn a recat weer BF oT? () arenninge (2) here 3) araet (4) Preaciest (8) 24. 26. 15U/104/4(Set-4) The first Gupta ruler who took the title of Maharajadhiraja was : {1) Samudra Gupta @) Kumara Gupta (3) Chandra Gupta (4) Skanda Gupta wer oe der @ era ferry mererorery at wedt eM Pose a oy Q) ayege Q) TARTS @) AT wy) ret The rules made for the Buddhist Sangha were written down in a book which was called as (1) Vinaya Pitaka (2) Sangha Pitaka (3) Sutta Pitaka (4) Niyama Pitaka the deo fae ol Rom fae ay Se yere a ear weT aire # ? @) fara Row (2) Her fer (3) Raw (4) Pret Rea Rajaraja [ belonged to which Dynasty ? (1) Pallava Dynasty (2) Chola Dynasty (3) Chalukya Dynasty (4) Rashtrakuta Dynasty aa wer fase wore B TRE a ? Q) Wee oe (2) diet der @) age ta (a) Tse der The famous traveller Ibn Battuta who visited India during Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s rule was from : (1) Afghanistan (2) Iran (3) Morocco (4) Abyssinia wire at sr an Rea gene qrew @ aed ae A ae a aa a ate ‘frarit a? () somPeert = (2) #0 (3) Aree G4) sii ‘Where is Humayun’s tomb located ? (0) Dethi (2) Agra (3) Sasararn (4) Lahore FAY or awae Het fers @ 7 () feet (2) PRT (3) STARE (4) are (8) PTO. 1SU/O4/4(Set-H) 23. 30, 31. 32. 33. What is Dargah ? (Q) Rest house ef Sufi Saint (Q) Tomb of Sufi Saint (3) Education centre (4) Prayer Place wee TG? 3 G) 3A wr & err eer 2) ai wa S wea 3) Safire ae (4) SRT ere Hyder Ali was the ruler of which state ? (1) Cochin (2) Karnataka (3) Hyderabad (4) Mysore be oct fire eve a es a? (1) etd (2) wate 3) ST & aR Who was the first Governor-General of Colonial India? (1) Robert Clive 2) Lord Comwaltis (3) Warren Hastings 44) John Shore Sofraites area a germ Tete OP BF eT ? Q) wad Fae Q) ers orients @) ans afc (4) silt ex ‘The policy of Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by = (1) Lord Canning (2) Lord Dalhousie @) Lord Wellestey (@) Lord Curzon aiftge for af sift Pres area fear ? Q) ad &Pr (2) as sata @) mS tert (4) ae Where was the permanent settlement introduced ? (4) Bengal, Bihar and Jharkhand (2) Bengal, Bihar and Awadh (3) Bengal, Bihar and Orissa (4) Bengal, Bihar and Central Province WHA ater wet aT, fT TAT aT? Q) ara, fer sie sieve QQ) are, Ber ste see (3) oa, fier ste ghar (4) aa, Per afte Fea git (10) 37, 3B. 15U/104/4(Set-l) In which year Delhi became the capital of India ? Pee ad fect ae a eroerh at 7 (1) 1909 (2) 1910 (3) 1912 (4) 1911 Which of the following Acts provided for Provincial Autanamy ? (1) Indian Council Act, 1909 2) Government of India Act, 1919 (3) Government of India Act,1935 (4) Indian Independence Act, 1947 Prefefenr.* 2 fire ec & art wmite errr aa weer fier rar ? (1) area cite tae. 1909 (2) see Weer sfAPeH, 1919 (3) ana eRe bee, 1935 (4) siedta erat oP, 1947 A 480 meter long train crosses a platform in 240 seconds. What is the speed of the train? (i) 4més Q) 2m/s (3) 3m/s (4) Cannot be determined we tems feat weg 480 Fie bo wwe ewe wT 240 Aare A oe edt t1 Yard} at fe war 8? () 4 Mer /aoes Q) 2 Mees aes 0) 3 Hee sae (4) Pratta sat a or wed Find the next term in the series : fret Soft ® orren 3e car er? BAC, DBE, FCI, HDL, JEO, ? () FLR Q) LER @) LET. (4) FTL The average age of the boys in a class is 16 and that of the girls is 15 years. The average age of the whole class is : ) 15 years Q) 15.5 years Q) 16 years (4) Cannot be determined (11) 15U/104/4{Set-I) 33. at. 42. 43. ww aa 4 areata shar va 16 af cer arefal Ht 1s ed #) eect wer BH ated ws ert G) 15a4 (2) 15.5 at 3) 16 oF (4) Prete et at oy erent ‘A man travelled fram the village to the post-office at the rate of 25 km/h and walked back at the rate of 4 km/h. If the whole joumey took 5 hrs 48 minutes, find the distance of the post office from the village : @) lgkm @) i5km @) 20km @) 23km we afta amt te a cee sire a sik 25 Pe yder Al ae Sau a 4 fh suer ah eS arw we 8) aR Ee aT A Ge S wer 48 Pre at st tt aie 8 she sift a qh ahh : Q) 1024 (2) 15 fi (3) 20 fart (4) 25 fet What is the missing number in the following series ? Prafafaa sean} ac wea a 3? 3,10, 17, 31,45, 66 ...2... (1) 94 (2) 85 @) 87 (a) 92 If2A = 3B =4C, then A: B: Cis: aft 2A =3B=4C%, a A:B:C am ql) 2:3:4 2) 4:3:2 (3) 6:4:3 (4) 3:4:3 If the radius of a circle is increased by 25%, then atea of the circle will increase by: ef Aaa? get a Poor at 25% ear fear wa, at Seen Seo ae ore {1} 25% (2) 37.5% (3) 50% (4) 56.25% Which of the following fractions are arranged in ascending order ? fra 4 at ahaa Ri omtdl wa i aad F ? @ £34 7350) (12) 44, 45. 47. 45U/N04/4(Set-1) A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to it, the digits interchange their places. Unit digit of this number is : a)2 3 @)5 (4) None of these a stot ot te team ge con oh 3 fH wad set Gr pra 12 2) ga Ten 4 Bovis S den S sinh w WIR TEER Tee UIT 2 | dea ow ga aie E: (2 (2) 3 3) 5 ) sai 8 ahd ae In an examination, the ratio of passes to failures was 4: 1. If 30 students less had appeared and 20 less passed, the ratio of passes to failures would have been 5: 1. How many students appeared for the examination ? () 150 (2) 120 3) 100 (4) None of these fart whan A eehel ste sapet erat ar arya 4s 1 @) a se ake 30 er ora ubafaa gf ad cer 20 wr Ts welof ga Oe, at atet cer egret wrt or SIT 5:18 re) Sa wen A ya ee ora wise ea? (1) 150 (2) 120 (3) 100 (4) aa & ore at The numbers in the series change in specific order. Suggest the next number to continue the series : od 3 deat ge Aftes a 8) ge Sl ar gr ae & fet amch sem at arg : 36,28, 24, 22,? (1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 21 (4) 23 ‘The number of Indian States after the formation of Telangana is : ASAT ST TMF ary ART H Yo wt Hey a ye a 27 @ 38 Q) 29 (4) 30 As long. as substitution effect dominates the income effect, the labour supply curve is: (1) positively sloped Q) negatively sloped (3) backward bending (4) shift towards right re Te VARI SET OTe HT AR wre eaT Bs a gE eae eter B (1) Ware wr A soa (2) Terie wy S cat (3) te ah ote yar ET (4) aie? sik Rare ara 8 (13) PTO. 15U/104/4(Set-l) 48. 61. $2. Which of the following is met a determinant of Fiuman Development Index (HDD? (1) Longevity (2) Infant Mortality (3) Decent Standard of living (4) Educational attainment Pe a ate ada Bert ania (Hosomngo) wr wacH wa BP a) befg (2) Pre TERR (3) oe Glas eee (4) Site sree Which of the following is tantamount lo absence of taxation ? (1) Tax evasion (2) Tax transformation (3) Tax capitalisation (4) Shifting of tax fr ta shear ar aguas} gee? 41) we ere Q) ewe 8) Ser (4) ae at Peer For substitutes, crass elasticity of demand is: (1) Positive (2) Negative (3) Zero (4) Always less than one verre & fee ahr at andi ae eh & (1) eae Q aI @) (4) Fer yw So Which of the following head is not included in non-plan revenue expenditure of Government of India 7 (0) Interest payments (2) Subsidies (3) Grants-in-aid (4) Loans to public enterprises Pre 8 @ ater ae ene eeene oe Arar gone opr Pier ae? Bar ore? Q) =a grt Q) ovat (3) Werear sare (4) wrdatres wert ey am (14) 53. 54. 55. 57. 15UN04/4(Set-l) The number of countries which are members of World Trade Organisation (WTO) at present, is ara 4 fea SR eer (WIO)H aces del Bae @ (1) i460 (2) 159 (GB) 150 ta) 140 The ministerial conference of W.T.O. in 2013 was held in the city of : (1) Seattle (2) Bali 8) Singapore (4) Cancun at 20134 Emo Ao ato aT sR Uma Phe wee A gy aT? Q) freee (ah (3) Renge @) 0 The law of demand relates to: (1) Price - income relationship (2) Price - cost relationship (3) Price - demand relationship (4) Price - supply relationship Him on Pre ware 2: (1) SRR ae & Q) FReann Fare 7 3) apa gare & (3) Fog wea & For perfect substitutes, the value of cross elasticity of demand is : (1) Zero (2) Negative (3) Positive (4) Infinite tare aga #, Aer eT srs cite or aE Or (2) aos (3) wetere (4) stat When the indifference curve is 'L' shaped, the two commodities are: (1) Perfect complements (2) Perfect substitutes (3) Imperfect complements ©) Imperfect substitutes ora Generar a6 'L! omphey a a, ay ay TRE ae ze: (1) petra gear @) hem gfe 3) anpt yee (4) snpiea sieves (18) PTO. ISUMO4{Set-1) 58. 61. A market in which several firms sell differentiated produced is termed as: (1) Discriminating monopoly 2) Monopolistic competition (3) Imperfect competition (4) Oligopoly ye mon ret ote wi Rite cag gett & ae om F () Pte cote Q) vartante starter (3) ort sft @) aeaRer -[f marginal cost is abave the average cost it implies that : (1) Average total costis rising (2) Average total cost is falling (3) Average variable cost is rising (4) Average variable cost is falling cafe tare crre athe Giver A aoe wh, oy gee aret # Q) yer share ore ae a ® 2) Get afer ard we ett (3) steer operate oer ac eh 2 (4) shee oRetaetea emia ue wit t If V denotes value of money and P denotes price level, then value of money will be equal to : WR V ga) Bye wT Gen P Stat eR wh Pee oxen eat gar aT ype fre aR eT ? (yy) /P 2) P/V" @) VV (4) Pav Which of the foliowing is not an objective of monetary policy 7 (Q) Exchange rate stability (2) Price stabitity (3) Resource mobilisation (4) Economic growth fret a & at te fa er okey ete ? (1) far ae freer (2) tha Rear 3) Se GER (4) sate: wight A group consists of 8 students. How many teams cf 3 students can be formed ? WS WEF Bora Bi 3 wal of Perr A wa wart #7 (1) 30 (2) 40 @) 56 (4) 60 (16) 65. 1SU/104/4{Set-l) Which variable is manipulated or varied in strength by the experimenter during a psychological experiment ? {i) Dependent variable @) Extraneous variable (3) Independent variable (4) Controlled variable fat ritenfre want wabrect arr fee oe wr verse a weet die # oftacts frat aren 8 7 () saftey ee 2) srért aR (3) wera we 4) Preifia ae In which type of observation, ‘the observer becomes a part of the group being observed’ ? (1) Naturalistic observation. (2) Participant observation (3) Controlled observation (4) Non-participant observation fare wer S herr Fo werredt se WR aT am ae UT @ fore fem fet om ver BY? (1) write deer (2) aeaTA Barr (3) Preifire Serr (4) aaeanit ter What is the age span of Piaget's preoperational stage by which ‘object permanence’ gets established ? (1) 0-2 years (2) 12-15 years (3) 7-11 years (@) 2-7 years frost ome ‘ydeifearere sae oa ae Re ceg warden write ef on t SAH a-eret TT EF {1} 0-2 aE @) 11-15 a Q) 7-114 (4) 2-7 at ‘The duration of which type of memory is less than one second ? (1) Episodic memory (2) Short-term memory (3). Sensory memory (4) Implicit memory fre co wh eet an are we debs we vere? (1) Terres eafet (2) erga weft 3) Hata aye (@) sama Bye (17) : PTO. 15UN04/4(Set-1) 87. If a person has to choose between either ‘going out to enjoy a picnic with one gtoup of friends’ or ‘going out to enjoy a movie with another group of friends’ then what would he/she be experiencing ? (1) Approach-avoidance conflict (2) Appreach-approach conflict (3) Lack of presence of confiict (4) Avoidance-aveidance conflict Ufa aet afea wold ya aes B ere Reefer a oe wart’ ae “frat & weap aye F ae fea aM oT aig wer" HS Ate ye we a at ar arqea dw et? (L) wert-gher sp (2} stator sressfor ae 3) we A sake or sere 4) oReecRer ee ‘Attributing one’s own traits or characteristics to another person’, refers to which defence mechanism ? (§) Reaction formation (2) Rationalization (3) Projection (4) Denial ‘Hor Tet ote weet or TTR anita wen", fe geen afer a efi ‘wear 8? (1) fear Frater Q) aabendoe: (3) sear @) aR The term ‘Eustress' refers to the stress which : (1) disturbs the equilibrium of an individual (2) remains under control of the individual (3) emerges from imaginary sources (4) is required or reaching peak performance RSW ve er ceed oe aaa a 2 oh (1) Pret ater & ego at fata ae Q) ata oot Arist A at 3) mecha wie a con @) sere ord ed we & for arqeeey ay (18) 70. 71. 72, 73. 74, 15U/104/4{Set-1) What does the individual's ‘underlying potential for acquiring skill’ refer to ? (1) Aptitude Q) Attitude (3) Intelligence (4) Ability afte & “aha arts ah sic After reer” wr aa oad & 7 Q) aaa 2) afta 3 ge 44) Fagen According to DSM-IV system of classification of mental disorders, the patient is evaluated on how many axes ? ante Rat ¢ Goveoyely ata fb agaR eh at amas fray seit oe farm ora & 2 3 @s a4 ) 6 What is the formula for Intelligence Quotient (IQ) in terms of Mental Age (MA) and Chronological Age (CA) ? (@) CA/MA (2) (CA/MA) x 100 (3) MA/CA (4) (MA/CA) x 100 FAs omy (Ale Ste) Ten TSH amy (ee sre) vet A gy ales yee a waare? (1) Ble sof Fo ao (2) (ate sif0/#10 wc) x 100 (3) Fle at0/%10 ato (4) (lo fo /™o atte) x 100 What does the term ‘delusion’ refer to? (2) False perception (2) False belie! (3) False memory ° (4) False sensation caftan' ve ar aan ore 8 ? (1) fear eer (2) fer renter (3) fea wafer (4) Prem tage Which psychotherapy is based on the laws of classical and operant conditioning ? (1) Psychodynamic therapy (2) Behaviour therapy (3) Cognitive therapy (4) Existential therapy (19) PTO. 15UM 04/4(Set-I) 75. 76. 78. ahaa aaftafinen saree od Brame srqdes & Prewt ox ornate @ ? QQ) Fares feferar (2) mara fafa Q) Gare frou (4) atacand fafaicar As factors influencing attitude change, ‘Credibility’ and ‘Attractiveness’ are the characteristic of which of the following ? (1) Source (2) Message (3) Target (4) Bxisting attitude afigtt Pada ar orf art me ane a wo 4 fieaeenr qe ‘ener Prefaftrs 4 & recht RArert &? QQ) ar - 2) Ter (3) oea (4) ectart sete What is “Attributing own success to'internal but that of others to external factors’ known as ? (1) Actor-observer effect (2) Attribution error (3) Impression formation {4) Equitable attribution “SA ame wT oT nate cen GE a wera ar a aeETERHT wT GAT" fara arr Gore oe & 7 (1) aiftardercreat ser (2) renter afe 3) ener Pratt ) fon oreo “Reduction in one’s own individual effort when working on a collective tasks", is indicative of which of the following ? (1) Social cohesiveness (2) Social facilitation (3) Social cognitien (4) Social loafing “Ret erate ard ot aed wae aot artery wer afar el oa wR", Frepferftas 4 a firmer qe & 7 (1) armies eterfter (2) arate qerdiect (3) ares dar (4) arafie agate Who among the following wrote ‘Anand Math’ ? (1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee Q) Ishwarchandta Vidyasagar (@) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) Ras Bihari Bose (20) 79. 61. 83. 15U/104/4(Set-1) Prine aa fret wrre qo’ at 8? (1) atrrre cenit Q) fx we frome @ art aa 4) we Pert are Who among the following Indians attended the parliament on World Religion in Chicago in 1893 ? (Q) Rabindra Nath Tagore (2) Vivekanand (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Pesta tS Are aretta 3 fer # 1893 ¥ any fear ? (1) vay are 2a (2) fears (3) Fete are ) Tora pen Tes The untouchability (offence} Act was passed in the year: sreqeaen (amram) aiftFien fret ad ote gan ee: (1) 1860 (2) 1855 (3) 1950 (4) 1955 Inwhich year the Hindu Marriage Act was passed ? fora af fay rare apne Re gar? (1) 1950 (2) 1955 (3) 1962 (4) 1980 ‘The Dowry Prevention Act was passed in the year : aio Pew afta fret ad nite gor ae & (1) 1950 @) 1960 (3) 1961 (4) 1970 Who among the following was proponent of the total revolution ? (2) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Jawaharlal Nehru (3) Jay Prakash Narayan (4) Subhash Chandra Bose fritter a eta aroanfr S weer ee ? (1) Fern tie (2) oer a ee (3) Wa wert ARTA: 4) guy ae oe (21) PTO. 1SU/104/4(Set-) 84, Who among the following was the First Indian crowned as Governor General of India? () Chitranjan Das (3) C. Rajgopalachari (2) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Puruskottam Das Tandon Prefer aha sare anche vk Pirat meke orace sil gtear date oe Ate fen rar? (1) feet art 3) fo carta Social Sciences are based on : (1) Observed consequences (3) Personal consequences arate Rey smote 8: (2) sata aRevii ae (3) @uftrar oft ox (2) Fern TT (4) geen ae car (2) Speculated consequences (4) Imaginary consequences (2) agate afters oe @) Breaker aot oe The Widow remarriage Act was passed in the year: from yaftare firs ae ofter Ean ae e @) 1850 42) 1855 (3) 1856 (4) 1857 ‘Who was the first Indian Lady Astronaut of NASA (U.S. A.) ? (1) Sunita Williams 3) Kamla Devi (2) Kalpana Chawla (@) Shivani “yo Wao Go Fae A A at me areata Rar arafter ener 8 ? (1) Biter Perret Q) aren 34 Where is Diamond Harbour situated ? 2) Chennai @) Kolkata erarvg Bia ei Rew 3 ? () ae (3) Baer (22) Q) Ser wae @) Part (2) Thirevanantpuram (4) Mumbai 2) SReRERT 4 Fe 1SUN04/4(Set-l) 88. The Panchsheel’ was projected by Jawaharlal Nehru to promote alliance between which of the following countries ? (1) India - Pakistan (2) India -China (3) India-US. A. @) India~ U.K, Penton Or Set Bode Ah sth ay way oe See ge dete ue fear mat ? (1) ART ~ ofr Q) ara — a (3) aRa — ER eee Sete (4) ana — anges fren 80. Panchayati Raj system was first initiated in which state? (2) Bengal (2) Rajasthan (3) Andara Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh fire wey dena Cane wor maven omy gy ? Q) atta @) wer (3) arr cde (4) WR wea 91. Which one in the following is not among the ‘Four Purusharthas' 7 (1) Dharma (Q) Attha (3) Kama (4) Niyoga Penfion 8S aha ww cow genet aah 8? (af (2) sie (3) oF @ Pram 2, The concept of ‘Satyagrala’ was cvined by : (1) Balgangadhar Tilak (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Ram Manohar Lohia Fee oh sere or Ea ar (1) are mer fea a (2) The gen area + (3) Fever aid (4) Um writer ehfear a 93. ‘The muscies found in the front of our thighs are: {i) Quadriceps 2) Biceps (3) Gastrocnemius (4) Triceps BAR oret om are A ort oy are tere G) eee @) aE B) are 4) eae (23) P.T.O. 1SU/104/4(Setd) 84, 97. ‘What substance are nails made of ? (1) Collagens (2) Keratins 43) Cellulose (4) Myosin carga fiver cent & wy ahd #7 (1) wear (2) fares (3) Bagi (ay Which system contains both bone marraw and the thymus? (1) Endocrine (2) Immure (3) Nervous (4) Circulatory fre wea A aA ae alienate orate de € 7 O) ore @ FF @) ae (4) wget Pace maker in the human heart is located in : Q) Right atrium (2) Left atrium (3) Pulmonary aorta (4) Systemic aorta ara gaa & ae tae venfta eter & : 41) ait antes (2) we artery # (3) Says AeRTe F (4) Reeeiter aeeere a The colored part of the human eye that controls how much light passes through the pupil is called the : (1) Retina Q) Cornea 43) Iris (4) Pigment ceils aaa ea ar ce Shs arr ot fi ue fais ae 8 fe gach B Rec ver arn, ae et : 1) fer (2) wit (3) amgfte (4) hE TATy The blood celi type responsible for oxygen transport is : (1) Lymphocytes (2) Erythrocytes (3) Platelets (4) Monocytes aa aiftar a sea wor sito deed & faq ewer 87 0) frre Q) sRvterges Q) Seder (4) artes (24) 100, 101. 102, 103. 16U/104/4(Set-l) The vitamin that contains a metal ion is : () Vitamin 4 Q) Vitamin Br: (3) Vitamin Be (4) Riboflavin Retr ot ow ag sme at arate erat tt 1) Pre y (2) Reta ate (3) Prewtir Hh, @) agdeetta Which is the first illness that was attributed to an animal carrier ? Q) Rabies 2) Smallpox @) HIV (4) Malaria Be wee ae wy aH H Te 7 @) ts Q) sitenter (3) Tro sige go (a) weifRar Which disease is not correctly paired with the nutzient or vitamin that prevents it? (1) Niacin - tuberculosis (2) Iodine - goitre (3) Vitamin C - scurvy (4) Vitamin D- rickets SP fore ar ot Seer & Pay thee sera Berta boots wet aE? () Prenfte camera (2) ord serine (3) Petts C- edt (4) Reid D- Ree Which disease has been completely eradicated ? (1) Smallpox . {2) Hepatitis (3) Heliobacter pylori (4) Leukemia wR a fore eer ar pt ay a oeryer Eat? (1) Patera Q) Rega (3) Bfertaaee wast 4) efter Folic acid, which is found in oranges, prevents which of the foliowing ? (1) Scurvy (2) Birth defects (3) High blood pressure (4) Dementia wifes amr at A ent funn orn @, ga4 a fhaat dere ae Bb ? Q) wre Q) 34 febae 3) Te we eR (4) Peer (25) P.T.O. 15U/104/4(Set-I) 104. 105. 107. 108. ‘What is the process of sterilizing milk called ? (1) Purification. (2) Pasteurization (3) Clostridization {4) Refrigeration Pabtter ga a wfeen a eer ores (1) Seber Q TERT 3) FaRssreseT (4) RBar Major source of lactose is : (1) Milk (2) Cane-sugarjuice (3) Liver (4) Rice Sect mT He eB am Q maw 3) aE @ ea Who of the following acted as the Corstitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly ? (1) BR. Ambedkar | (2) Dr. Rajendva Prasad @) BN. Rao (4) Dr.Sachchidanand Sinha after wr 3 videaPre were 3 ee A eT A frre eet fe? Q) dle site amram Q) go were Ware (3) #e To wa (4) tio eRaarre fret Into how many parts has Indian Constitution been divided ? anda wider @t fees erat a Perfo fear en? () 7 Qu (3) 21 (4) 22 The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, divided the entire country into : (1) 22 states and 9 union territories (2) 14 states and 6 union territories (3) 17 states and 7 union territories (4) Four categories of states (26) 119, 1. 15U/104/4(Set-)) ee Sait yee, 19567 wept eg at fafa fra : (1) 223 ote oem erie weer F Q) l4eea site de ete whe ¥ (3) 17 asa stk 7 Se eta wer F (4) wets oy deta F The following states were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation. (@) Haryana (b) Sikkim (©) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya Q) (@). {b), (0), (d) Q) (), (©), (a), (a) (3) tb), (d}. (a), fe) @) 4a), (a),

    Вам также может понравиться