- beh MQRDE) 13P/286/7 Question vost se = _ (To be filied up by the candidate by blue/ black ball-point pen won vof [| L | Roll No. (White the digits wm words! Serial No. of OMI Answer Sheet ae - (Signature of Invigilator) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES {Use only blue/black ball-point pen in te space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet} 1. Within 10 minutes of the issue of the Question Booidet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing, In case nf faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent /Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. Day and Date 2. Do nat bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without Hs envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. it should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shalt not be provided Only the Answer Sheet wall be evaluated. 4. Write your Koll Numtinr and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in Une space provided above 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6 No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set Ne. jif any! on OME sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet Na. on the Question Booklet, 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means, 8. Each question in this Rookiet is followed by four alternative answers, For euch question, yute are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the cor resyionding row of the Answer Sheet, by hall-paint pent as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sircct, 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken mere than one vircle or darken a circle paitially. the answer will be treated as incorrect 10. ote that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. I you do not wish to attempt a question rave all the cisctes in the corresponding row blank fsuch question will be awarded zero mark). 21. For rougti work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet 12. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 13. You are not permitted to leave the Kixamination Hall until the end of the Test 14. Ma candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment ‘as the University may determine and impose on him/her. roe frie, fie iio oncom wr A a] No. of Printed Pages : 66213P/286/7 No. of Questions /wvil # den : 150 Time fama : 2 Hours /aee Fall Marke quis : 450 Mote : (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. afters wet eg a8 a san Ft wets we 3 sie a Ri wee nee ae faq es oie eT STM | Wes oats we ar MatE RET aM (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. aR wating tafe see ae am & faz ota a, a fee we aA EI 1. What is the theory proposed by Savigny to explain legal personality called? (1) Reslist theory ©.) Q) Fiction theory (8) Bracket theory _-@) Parpoue theory ffs saora sere % Rey APA ger weathea Regret a AE aT 87 (1) Frater ferera Q) fram er (3) 382 farsa (4) eam rare ain 1 (PTO)13P/286/7 (317) In which one ofthe foowing ces the cour pleced the ei of corporat eeonaliy? {2} Salamon. ‘Salomon Case ae . {2}: Stith, Stone and Knight's Case C BS 2 (3) Daénler Company vs. Continental Tyre Co. Case (4) - Peles Pleasure Park_Co. vs. Rohleder Case eae a Fee A sree 4 shee scftet eee Am #7 (1) Rene aT, TERT Te (2) fara, ear ei eee ae (3) Sree were ages adteer ze wee ae (4) igre cotae ark see wart deta aT Out of the following Jurists, whose theory of law has earned the name of ‘natural law with a variable content’ ? (1) St. Thomas Aquinas (2) Jéhn Locke (> Y (3) R. Stammler (4) John Rawls Prafefet Pra fafa Pater % PAY fara A ‘feaaeq aren apis fran’ 4} ae wee A af a Q) az etme tae (2) 9ie aia (3) sie eaeR (4) 9 tee13P/286/7 4 Match List—I with List—II and select the correct answer by using the Codes given a) below the lists : List om “ Task of law ie social engincesing | (8) Law is to be found in social facts (C) Law is a means to an end (D) Organic theory of the society Code : (a) (6) c) (0) ao @ (3) a Q) 2 3) ay 2) Co) 3) ie} @) 8) (ql) @ a) 2) @) (3) List (1) Thering (2) Herbert Spencer (3) Ehrlich (4) Roscoe Pound St Soe pier SE ae AA I EE ww ws (A), fafa ar enh & anni safiraifnh (B) faftt at eonfes cet Foe fier a wan t {C) faft, cea ft an oe rer t (D) wat a Se fear ee: ~ 8 © oO ay @ 8) 41) 2) a 8) a (2) (4) (3) @ @) (3) i) 4) a) @Q) 4) (3) wen (eatin (2) eae BR (3) refera (4) Feat avg (PTO)13P/286/7 5. The obiter dicta of the Supreme Court is binding on {1) all other courts ~~ (2) High Court only pos ) e Not binding on other courts, But of persuasive value and may be considered by {4) None of the above wats mrrarera A pets mrecardt att B (1) sro at sare % fare (2) aa Fa area & fara (9) gata & fe meet, Pg wees se ef ean Et rts (4) sats 8 a att ae 6. Possession acquired through an agent or servant is an example of (1) corporeat possession (2) mediate possession ~~» (3) incorporeal possession (4) immediate possession |“ .“ em Ware are shat % wre | fer we wea faa TeIETT BF Q) af sear (2) sag Feat 3) sagt sear (4) a aan 7. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Ulpian—Science of Just and. Unjust . Julius Stone—Lawyer’s Extra-Version /- 2) (3) Patterson—Categorical imperative oe (4) Maine—Status of Contract (317) 4 2)10, (317) 13P/286/7 Pefefea 4 A ate at an a atts we A? () sfee—sha we aghre ar far (2) aftea Ata A slater mre (3) Seager srt (4) Ra—agace a feat Bridges ve. Hawkesworth held that notes found on the floor of a shop passed into the possession of the C = Q) shopkeeper (2) fence “"_/) Landowner (4). None of the above Sta sa reed ag 8 se Pfs & agen gar ah mm MA ara Tt aioe & (1) Geren (2) sreeT a 3) aorta (4) sate 9 8 ate ae Which one of the following scts does not represent tests of authority of custom? (1) Continuance, peaceable enjoyment (2) Antiquity, obligatory force (3) Certainty, reasonableness (4) Codification, moral Petit Fa ata-a de sen afar } ade ar wher ae wr 87 () Reaean, wife sata Up (2) sire, arererd af (3) Birra, whens (4) adem, Sf According to Historical School , (1) Law is found, not made, it is self-existent . @) Laws are of universal application / : oe (3) Laws are rules consisting mainly of social habits (4) None of the above 5 (PTO)13P/286/7 11, 12, 13. 17) Ureie wae F ATA (1) fate sma erat 8, Aalifa eT AY set, ae ea, (2) fated afar es 8 ator & (3) faftal t& fan 4, fer sqe ea 9 aun eora ats ae fF (4) sate 8 at aT Law must remain free from elements of Psychology, Sociology, Ethics and Political principle. This concept was propounded by () Kelson (2) Hart, t ) (3) Bentham: (4) Salmond ffi at omifar, aera, Tait fg % at a ia ar ae we sree & sfeergs a Q) Fe (2) we 8) (4) Brg Historical School was a reaction to natural law school’s (1) rationalism (2) universalism {3) individualism (4) federalism Aes Framer wp FAR Rrmere & Ate A eh () (a) aera (2) wafer (3) aftrare (4) Baa “Jurisprudence is philosophical aspect of knowledge of law’, This statement was given by (1) Ulpian (2) Saint Augustine (8) Cicero (4) Zeno 2 ) “Patras fate & wa wr eats ve 4" we seq faa? Q) afte (2) Wa si (3) frat (4) 3 614, 16, 17. @17 13P/286/7 ‘Who has written the book entitled The Indian Supreme Court and Politics in the year 19807 (1) Dr, Rajiv Dhawan fu) (2) Godbois ( (3) Hidayatullah ae (4) Dr, Upendra Baxi @ ¥Ra7 gin ae ws ieee ae Jere HI wana ad 1980 3 feet fer om? (1) We wha (2) Teme (3) feeragare (4) we Tey wert “Legal rule without force or coercion is like a fire which does not burn, a light that does not shine.” The statement was given by (1) Leon Duiguit (2 (2) Eugen Ehrlich (3) Rudolf von thering S (4) Roscoe Pound “cara or adie fen faites far a8 8 8 den fe oft at aah wet ote yarn at aA et Bh 1" ae wey fea ger fear eT on? (2) Rote sete 2) iH retire (8) eee aia yeti (4) det ora ‘The theory of ‘withering away of Law and State’ has propounded by (1) Lenin (2) Marx Ala Karl Renner (4) Pashukanis ‘fate site oer A Aref an Rrgra’ ar witarea fare fen on? () aR (2) are (3) are tt 4) Tarte Law means ‘exchange of commodities between individuals based on contract’ was propounded by ON (1) Pashukanis é 1 } (2) Grotius (3) Samuel Pufendorf ~~ (4) Thomas Hobbes 7 PTO)13P/286/7 1s, 19, (317) fat a areal “aaftod A ater sega ar fata Bost afer we sarees BY, a after Pear on Q) eget (2) sftret (3) Sage Grek (4) ate ei ‘Equal behaviour between equals’ is preliminary concept of (Q) utilitarian theory of justice“) (2) cqualitarian justice (3) contratarian theory of justite~“ (4) entitlement theory of justice ‘gam aii & de aa areen’ wes sere & (1) ara & seatfrarard fegrr A (2) sa =I & fered st (Q) am & amis dren & fears A 4) see erat fra A “Law is only which has been declared by the court and legislation, precedent, opinion of the experts, custom and morality are mere sources of law.” Who has given the statement? = (1) Prof. Chipman Grey ( \ (2) Austin (3) Holland (4) Savigny “Rift ad 8 at fe amaaa ga cia Ht onf 2, cen ferem, qd-fiofa, faaest A va, why othe After ora fA A atte 1" Ga ar fee Rar? () she fant 2 (2) fee (3) tees (4) ett “Custom is positive morality till the force of law has not been accorded by legislature or judges.” This statement is of (1) Maine (2) Austin (3) Marx (4) Fuller “eit aa ae Tare Area 8 wa we Wa Renita ar arene gia RH a wer WaT Ae a fem ae" ag wet Qe 2) sR @) @) FRA 8 A21. 17 13P/286/7 Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right? (1) Right to constitutional remedies (2) Right to life os) (3) Right to property (4) Right to form Association.’ Frafefaa Fa vy qenfiven we 87 (1) aifanBa: soar at arftenc (2) a et otra (3) arafis at ofirer, (4) da ae at safire Which President held office for two consecutive terms? (2) Dr. Radbalerishnan @) R, Venkatraman (@) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) V. V. Giri SE » fre reef: A ermare St ae ve ee far? (1) Be TER, (2) sme Azam (3) Bo wey wee (4) Ae ato fit ‘The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but (1) one-third of its members retire every two years (2) one-half of its members retire every three years © (3) one-fifth of its members retire every two years (4) one-half of its members retire every two years Tee we eed aa 8 fq (1) FS eRe weer we get al fign de wa # (2) Se ond ween ex tek at fags att wet g (3) WS 1/5 aaa we at Aga aa oa (4) sem ond ager ee gat ad fige ga wet & 9 (PTO)13P/286/7 24. 25. 26. (317) What is Court of Record? (1) It is a Court where all the records are kept (2) It is a department of Supreme Court (3) Itis a Court whose records are admitted to be evidentiary value and they are not to be questioned when produced before Court (4) None of the above ofa sere ar 8? () ae ew arene @ aef wh cards want F (2) Fe wa Fee eae wr fet t (3) ae we arom @ freak oficta oer ey A sega fee on waa t ote mea A egy ae mao onda al fen wn aT (4) sate 33 ate et Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution can be amended with simple majority? (1) Articles 2 and 3 yy (2) Articles 54 and 55 (3) Articles 73 and 162." (4) Article 368 Poaffas #8 wrete afer % fet agedat A arner agua a aeifia fen oT wa 8? O) ayaz 2 si 3 (2) ayeeg 54 SR 5S (3) aqeez 73 sik 162 (4) 3s 368 Who among the following has characterised Indian Constitution as ‘a federation with a strong centralising tendency’? (1) Prof. K. C. Wheare os (2) Granville Austin (3) Dr. BR. Ambedkar { a) (4) Sir Ivor Jennings Le 10a7. 28. (317) 13P/286/7 fafefes 9 8 feat unete der + Aahge veh weal sees oe at cam aaa 8? (1) Se Bo afte Fx 2) dake aif (3) Sto Me ome ante (4) a ora Sra Which one of the following is not a constitutional office? (1) Comptroller and Auditor-General (2) Attorney General (3) Solicitor General (4) Advocate General (3) Fraferfter ¥ & aia ve wifes ug el 37 (1) Priven mereka ater (2) merarerardt (3) mererferiex (4) weft Under the Indian Constitution, an American Citizen has the following right in India (1) Right to Vote 2) Right to Freedom of Expression (3) Right to Equality (4) None of the above anda afm % seria, sre ee aha ant et Bee ere a 6 CB) (1) Fa 23 a1 siften (2) afreats ot eadaren (3) Bam aw sitter (4) sate 4a ate aa Which one of the following is not a statutory body? (1) Central Vigilance Commission (2) National Human Rights Commission oa (3) Planning Commission C3) (4) University Grants Commission ul (P.7.0)13P/286/7 30. 31. 17 frafafter 4 a str wifaften dem adi 287 (1) ate aed oreitn (2) ade rare EAT (3) ae arin @) fara ager ani K. Venkataswamy Commission was established to enquire into (1) Backward Classes Issues in Karnataka (2) Tehelka Episode (3) Mumbai Riot (4) Ayodhya Dispute %o Facrant onin wea fea ata & fea faa man? () arte & frag wf & ioe (2) Weer Beat (3) ye or (4) oniten rare ‘The official language of the Union of India is (1) English (2) Hindi (3) Hindi in Devanagari Script” {4) None of the above ana da 4 ToT —— t! (1) 9st (2) fea (3) fet Raat fafa (4) sere 4 a ate ae32. 33. 34. (317) 13P/286/7 The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of Government because (1) the President, the head of the executive is answerable to Parliament oe (2) the Prime Minster, the head of the Cabinet is accountable u) (3) the Councit of Ministers is responsible to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (4) The Council of Ministers is collectively answerable to the Lok Sabha ara eRe, aR H dade cee FH anita wen 2, wile (1) sebufean ar ma opete dae wf sacerdt & (2) Fitose a yfee/aqe wart warty ® (3) FBvheg area at cern & wf seer & (4) sBtafeeg male wr A aire & af serarlt 2 Right to Property is a (1) Legal Right - (2) Fundamental Right (3) Constitutional Right ( 2) (4) Natural Right oft a often tee (1) faire sien (2) ag safteare (3) Were arf (4) arta afte Right to Vote in election to Lok Sabha is a (1) Fundamental Right 2, {2} Constitutional Right we) (3) Natural Right ‘ (4) None of these 13 (PTO)13P/286/7 35. 37. B17 dream & qa dow Bow often 8 we (1) Ag aftrere (2) weenie sftrar (3) ares sire (4) wa a ag ae The Commission which submitted the first report on backward class was headed by (1) B. P. Mandal ) (2) Kaka Kalekar (3) L.G. Havanuer * \ (4) Chinnappa Reddy ae amin faa gar fed anf & arafia wer feité seqa wong, gee yfern a (1) eo fle Foxe 2) HRW Heat 13) Ue Tho wR (4) Pawn th The present Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission in India is {1) Justice Ranganath Mishra~” ray (2) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan (3) Justice J. S. Verma Ce (4) Justice P. N, Bhagawati cara 4 ufta avenfivert smetr & acfare area (1) -areeier rarer flo (2) Warde oso aero, (3) =i Jo ume anf (4) andi flo To wrTadt The Supreme Coust of India has asserted that no political party can be based on religion in (1) fndra Sawhney vs. Union of India (2) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of india (3) Keshvananda Bharati vs. Union of India (4) The Court never said so(317) 13P/286/7 are germ area 9 fe ae 9 fraeadas ae 8 Pe od oe omens Ste oats ol ae a whi te (1) Far met aa IT AT (2) He amo aeng warm er ae (3) dararre weet wm oat oe (4) reer 3 Der anh wal wer ‘The Urban Land Ceiling Act has been repeated to i a () help builders: & (2) provide more house sites to people without houses (3) help capitalist lobby (4) None of these met aft aiferr fatten a} fifteen ra 8 (Q) fest nag & fm (2) fer ee & art Hae & foe we weR aT (3) Sstefedt A neg zen (4) waa att at “In democracy, voter’s have a right to know antecedents of candidates for election to Parliament or State Legislature.” In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India expressed this view? oa (1) Union of india vs. Navin Jindal ( 5 (2) Tata Press Lid. vs. MTNL — (3) Hum Dard Dawakhana ve. Union of India (4) Union of India vs. Association for Democratic Reforms 15 PTO}19P/286/7 41. 317) “creda Gower at deg 7 Ber sa & seh a Giga wa aT finer 21” efor a a faa are una & gee ane 3 owe Pram oe fe? (1) sea ae warn ee Breer (2) zrer Ste fetes sar were Selah (3) Baad Barer aa ART a (4) era ae eam Ging sit Sihhfes froth Indian Constitution describes India as (1) Federation (2) Unitary State os pw) (3) Confederation (4) Union of States anda after, wre ai aia fea we A aT ae a) a (2) Carers oT (3) vitee 4) wrt a aa X and ¥ go to murder Z. X stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at all. ¥ killed Z (1) only ¥ is lable for murder of Z oa) (2) X and ¥ both are liable for the murder od a (3) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt-aet~ (4) Both (1) and (3) Xo Y, ZO am 88 oa 8X ven a a Aat tet A RR THT , fey AZ aro aren al fem y 3 oz A ee Al {l) Seay @z A owen % faa ah et Q xy ai Gz H wn & fom oh e (3) X serarf wet a, waif get ea ee 8 ate aed afl Peon (4) () (3) Bt42. (317) 13P/286/7 In case of an offence, punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine (1) has to be rigorous a (2) has to be simple ( = (3) can be rigorous or simple (4) can be partly rigorous and partly simple Fae gat 3 we at sme 4, gait At serfs a} Re eae A on Q) ear ef area (2) we af wate (3) San ower om a wah @ (4) sHfta eo @ sdk rat act et re a X with a view to murder ¥ enters ¥'s bedroom at night. But at that time ¥ is out of station, X is guilty of (1) murder (2) house trespass (3) attempt to murder X,Y fea} pay & ah & a Foe AB yao wen 2 aA wey Be a ret tot 81 X Pee ore a ah 8? () Fea (2) 9 safer ye (4) no offence (3) Gea a var (4) @td srere ort The maxim de minimis non curat lex means (1) Law would not take action on small and trifling matter (2) Law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm (3) Law would not take action in serious matters (4) All of the above (i) 17 70)13P/286/7 45. (317) gO Mitta aia sate daa a1 seme (1) AR area ee gE are Oa aA Bet (2) AR esa A at EHR wa aed A ster AE ae (3) fale iste anit ae oar ae Sat (4) sath at In cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or of grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to voluntarily vo (1) causing grievous hurt Ch) (2) causing death (3) causing any harm other than death (4) All of the above yey orem tific aie cine oneian ara Feit A Aa qa ar ofere Reafta et ora & ae () Ait de agar a seve 2) 7yaha aA a eT (3) 77 & cafes are wat Bah aft wr ste (4) sate ah ‘To succeed in the defence of insanity, the accused has to show that he was of unsound mind (1) at the time of commission of the act (2) after the time of commission of the act (3) before the time of commission of the act (4) At any time in his life 1847. 48. (317) 13P/286/7 ara & 51 A ofan & fq oh at as fg er ahr fe ae Pg Nfs aro ot (1) ath ani a wa a Q) fet arf Dea & way \(g) fe af ata mT GE (4) ont shan @ fh oat a Basudev vs. Stgteof Pepsu is'a leading case on {1) infancy{ 7 }(2) insanity (8) intoxication (4) All of the above anges aaa ey Ted Fre Farr we Um TES ATE 2? () fraser 2) Wr @) 74 A ae (4) sats eA X and ¥ agree to commit murder of Z by poisoning and ¥ was to procure poison, but he did not procure it, X and Y are guilty of (1) abetment of murder by conspiracy Cy) (2) attempt to murder with the aid of Section (3) no offence (4) criminal conspiracy to murder Z XY aa tt 2 4 een ae % foe ces mm oh y at oe soeee eA aw en aha na, ‘afer ae ten ae a aH xX HY oh f (Q) seas a ee (2) om 34 wre we after Ft wera a gen ro (3) feet of ora & Set ad (4) 2 war & fog srvaite wea & Punishment for criminal conspiracy is given in (1) Section 120B, IPC \ (2) Section 120A, IPC (3) Section 144 of | / (4) Section 500 IPC a 19 PTO)13P/286/7 51. (317) omfirs veda & faq we a age feo me (QQ) sm 1208 aa wa after F (2) ant 120A aRdtr ave after (3) arr 144 sneda aos afer F (4) err 500 uRdia eve fen 4 X cuts down a tree on Y’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of ¥'s possession without Y's consent. X commits ‘a (ay (1) no offence until the tree is taken away (2) the offence of criminal misappropriation of properiy~—" (3) the offence of criminal breach of trust (4) the offence of theft, as soon as the severance of the tree from the ground is complete X.Y A agit & ah, y A ah ee aa w Wg a epi ea we a ae ee A yan & ae stem #1 X () 3a am tg Baal a ger vel fear ore, ar am fae A aoa at ath eT (2) wale we anes a1 8 samt HE ar th (3) suvafirs fear sin on Se 2 (4) 3f ow fea tg at ed A fen At ami ara Gh AH oe Hw ah t Which of the following is not essential for the offence of kidnapping? (1) minor child DQ (2) intention of the accused C i} (3) without permission of lawful guardian — (4) None of the above 20(317) 13P/286/7 waco & sera & fee Paffiaa Fa whem oraws wi 8? (1) sae fing, (2) ath A gear (3) 30 aftvnas A eipf a dat (4) sae 3 8 a ae Section 511 of IPC does not apply in case of oo (1) attempt of riot / (2) attempt of murder > (3) attempt of theft NX (4) attempt of affray onda we after A am S11 fea vem & ae w aM ae eM? (1) aera a ae eT (2) 3en a ya (3) Sta 41 sare (4) @ #8 wee The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 with effect from 27th October, 2009 which amended the Indian Penal Code in Section 464, substituted electronic signature for —~ (Q) digital signature Ch (2) documentary evidence (3) manual signature (4) Electrically certified signature wndta ave afar Sum 464 % 27 sazm, 2009 @ (asin) sft, 2008 9 etazifie fide & frmer 3 er 4 Aeaferiea Fa fA me ve A et? (1) fie Reiree (2) Terres are (9) pra fire (4) Aart woes fhe What is not correct about ‘rape’? (1) Consent is immaterial if she is under 16 years of age (2) Penetration is sufficient “os (3) both (1) and (2), UY CY 21 (4) None of the above (PTO)13P/286/7 55. 56. 87. (317) ‘aera’ & fava a Pirifefad Ha ata-ar ad ae 87 (1) Sifgar A weata wr and were x4 2, af ae 16 af a eR org HF (2) ate @ ofa ® (@) Q) 7a Q) et (a) setts #3 ar aah ‘The offence of ‘cheating by personation’ is mentioned under Section (1) 416 of IPC (2) 415 of IPC (3) 419 of IPC (4). 420 of IPC ‘eater ge drag ar aga Prafefiag 2 & fea wer Y faa wr 87 (1) arate aos fsa A 416 t (2) arden we feet A 415 (3) ania gee Hiker AY 419 (4) wee ee afer #1 420 In which of the following, the right to private defence of property does not extend to causing death? () Robbery ON .) {2} House breaking by night (3) Mischief by fire ata (4) House trespass fafefaa #8 fea mma A af A Aeh gar often a Rea Ry & a ae ae an? (1) sett (2) 04% dant (3) Sm gr rE (4) @ 3 srfren wa ‘The case of Gian Kaur vs. State of Punjab relates to which one of the following? (1) Murder : (2) Culpable homicide not ambuning 0 murder (3) Abetment of suicide (4) Attempt to commit suicide59. 60. (317) 13P/286/7 rr ah sam are cee ar a Pfam ore 87 (1) ter (2) Fen @ a Fa om aren soni ara we (3) ater & fare geo (8) ge a Which provisions of the [PC makes water pollution punishable? {1} Section 277 (2) Section 278 (3) Section 279 (4)_Section 280 sata aoe dito an ara wae we seg A este wer #7 Ci) Q) oR 277 (2) «a 278 (3) wa 279 (4) mm 280 What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed for use of deadly weapons in ‘dacoity’ ? (1) 10 years (2) 7 years (3) 5 years (4) 14 years at ‘aha A aaere afi & wen] fly aI Shae a a fen ore (2 ) _- a) 10 a (2) 7 #4 @ sa (4) 14 af What punishment is provided for dowry death? (3) Not less than 3 years aoé f uy ‘ { f Ne (3) Not less than 7 years and in rare cases may extend to death sentence (2) Not less than 5 years (4) Not less than 7 years but which may extend to imprisonment for life 23 (PTO)13P/286/7 aes & fee ger Hoes ar ae & () 3 a4 8 am af (2) 5 a4 a am ae (3) 7 a4 8 am ag go faite wel A ohh A aon ae (4) 7 ad & oan ae Sf RR onion Se ow agen HT TET F 61. The Chairman of the Pollution Control Board shall exercise the power as (1} delegated by the Board oo (2) delegated by the Central Government Us ) (3) delegated by the State Government (4) All of the above wraun Priam at fea wifinel ar wet ar wa R? (1) 38 are see (2) 4 Fen oH eA (3) Uy we BRI AT (a) arte we 62. Which of the following is true? (1) Head of the Department under the pollution laws shall be guilty of the offence (2) Head of the Department under the (3 eg laws shail be deemed to be guitty of the offence o- 7 [3) Head of the Department under the pollution laws shall not be guilty of the offence (4) Head of the Department under the pollution laws shall not be deemed guilty of the offence committed without his knowledge (317) 2464, (317) 13P/286/7 frsfafes ta ae-a adi 8? (1) agen aaa & aga ffs eg aoe ar ah eo (2) 3qu0 arg % aga feta og aPerda: arte a eet eh (3) sq argat & aga Pmtia ery ere ar ah aah ee (4) Fay arg & ea Fra ona oe dar & athe qe sear a cafiardy: ahh wg att ‘The Pollution Control Board function under the Air Act as constituted under the Water Act, since 3. sqwo feo aig aa a et often & opaia aie ay yan ard at E? Q) 1974 (2) 1981 (3) 1987 * (4) 1988 Central Government under the Environment Protection Act has (1) power to protect and improve quality of environment ‘a 1°) (2) power to prevent and control environmental pollution (3) power to close industry (4) All of the above valaer Fam after & ae ag aeR a afer 8 () welaet & da an se queen A que a (2) satawha age a te wer Fria ar 3) ena maa a (4) atte af 25 (PPO)