Study Guide

Matching
Match each item with the correct description below.
a. autocracy
f. judicial power
b. citizen
g. legislative power
c. confederate government
h. majority rule
d. executive power
i. oligarchy
e. free enterprise system
j. presidential government
____

1. holds certain rights and responsibilities in a state

____

2. the power to decide the meaning of laws

____

3. government with a small group holding all power

____

4. the power to carry out the laws

____

5. has separate and equal legislative and executive branches

____

6. government with one person holding all power

____

7. capitalism

____

8. idea that the largest group will be right more often than wrong

____

9. the power to make laws

____ 10. several states joined together for a common purpose

Match each item with the correct description below.
a. autocracy
f. judicial power
b. citizen
g. legislative power
c. confederation
h. majority rule
d. executive power
i. oligarchy
e. free enterprise system
j. presidential government
____ 11. someone with certain rights and responsibilities in a state
____ 12. the power to interpret laws
____ 13. a government where a small group holds all political power
____ 14. the power to carry out and enforce laws
____ 15. the legislative and executive branches are independent and coequal
____ 16. a government where one person has unlimited political power
____ 17. based on private ownership, individual initiative, profit, and competition
____ 18. the concept that the largest group will be right more often than it is wrong
____ 19. the power to make laws
____ 20. an alliance of independent states

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____

1. Which is the same as government by popular consent or indirect democracy?

a. representative democracy
b. autocracy
c. oligarchy
d. unitary democracy

____

2. Which describes equality in a democracy?

a. equal ability
b. equal opportunity
c. equal income
d. equal living conditions

____

3. What is another term for free enterprise in the United States?

a. democracy
b. communism
c. socialism
d. capitalism

____

4. How are differences usually settled in a democracy?

a. by autocracy
b. by minority rule
c. by dictatorship
d. by compromise

____

5. Which are the three basic powers of government?

a. political power, public policy power, democratic power
b. political power, legislative power, executive power
c. legislative power, executive power, judicial power
d. sovereign power, legislative power, executive power

____

6. Which are the four characteristics of the state?

a. population, territory, sovereignty, foreign policy
b. population, territory, sovereignty, constitution
c. freedom, liberty, sovereignty, government
d. population, territory, sovereignty, government

____

7. Which gives more power to a central government than to local governments?

a. a judicial government
b. a unitary government
c. a direct democracy
d. a territorial system

____

8. The process by which a society decides how power and resources will be distributed within that society is called
a. politics.
b. government.
c. public policy.
d. sovereignty.

____

9. The U.S. government is correctly classified as

a. unitary, presidential, and a direct democracy.
b. federal, presidential, and an indirect democracy.
c. unitary, presidential, and an indirect democracy.
d. federal, presidential, and a direct democracy.

____ 10. In a free enterprise system, who decides what, and how much, to produce?
a. the federal government
b. market analysts
c. local governments
d. consumers and sellers
____ 11. Which colonies governed themselves?
a. royal colonies
b. proprietary colonies
c. charter colonies
d. all British colonies
____ 12. What is true about the First Continental Congress?
a. It sent a Declaration of Rights to King George.
b. It sent the Declaration of Independence to King George.
c. It governed the colonies during the Revolutionary War.
d. It wrote the Constitution.
____ 13. Delegates met in Philadelphia in 1787 to revise the Articles of Confederation. What did this meeting become?
a. first national government
b. United States Congress
c. Constitutional Convention
d. Confederation Congress
____ 14. What power(s) did the national government have under the Articles of Confederation?
a. It could pass amendments with a majority vote.
b. It could regulate trade.
c. It could make war and agree to treaties with other nations.
d. A strong executive could enforce acts of Congress.
____ 15. Where did George Washington take the oath of office as the first President of the United States?
a. Philadelphia
b. New York City
c. Washington, D.C.
d. Boston
____ 16. Which English document first granted the right of citizens to ask the king for help?
a. the Magna Carta
b. the Petition of Right
c. the English Bill of Rights
d. the colonial charter
____ 17. How was the United States set up under the Articles of Confederation?
a. The states controlled most of their own affairs.
b. The central government was the same as it is today.
c. The states were tightly unified under a strong central government.

d. Each geographical region acted like a separate country.

____ 18. Which is true about the Second Continental Congress?
a. It governed the colonies during the Revolutionary War.
b. It governed the colonies under the Albany Plan of Union.
c. It sent the Petition of Right to King George.
d. It fixed the political problems with England.
____ 19. The Stamp Act Congress
a. was the first attempt at confederation in the American colonies.
b. urged a boycott of English goods.
c. was the first time a significant number of colonies had joined to oppose the British
government.
d. agreed with Parliament about taxation without representation.
____ 20. What policies enacted under King George III upset the colonists?
a. forcing the colonies to accept the Albany Plan of Union
b. removing the colonists elected representatives from Parliament
c. taking away their charters and sending royal governors to rule them
d. imposing restrictive trading acts and new taxes
____ 21. Benjamin Franklin felt that the Constitution
a. was a perfect system of government.
b. was the best constitution that could be made under the circumstances.
c. had so many faults it would prove unworkable.
d. would need to be substantially revised in a few years.
____ 22. Which amendment gave African American men the right to vote?
a. 11th Amendment
b. 15th Amendment
c. 22nd Amendment
d. 26th Amendment
____ 23. The 22nd Amendment was passed in reaction to what unwritten custom that was broken?
a. the no-third-term tradition
b. the electoral college tradition
c. the senatorial courtesy tradition
d. the Presidents Cabinet tradition
____ 24. The Bill of Rights is a list of
a. ways to cancel legislation.
b. rules for national elections.
c. ways to amend the Constitution.
d. basic freedoms and rights.
____ 25. What did some of the Framers of the Constitution fear might happen if they did not include a Bill of Rights?
a. A too-powerful government might abuse its citizens.
b. The judicial branch would not ratify the Constitution.
c. The people would overthrow the National Government.
d. The government would not be strong enough to be effective.
____ 26. When members of Congress vote according to what they believe the voters want, they are voting as which of the
following?

a.
b.
c.
d.

politicos
partisans
trustees
delegates

____ 27. How many senators does each state have?

a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
____ 28. For whom do senators and representatives work?
a. the president
b. the people who elect them
c. the political parties
d. the committees to which they belong
____ 29. How many voting members does the House of Representatives have?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 435
d. 565
____ 30. What is the goal of the Speech or Debate Clause of Article 1, Section 6 of the Constitution?
a. to protect the freedom of legislative debate
b. to place a limit on the length of legislative debates
c. to encourage members of Congress to make more public speeches
d. to protect members of Congress from harassment by the executive branch
____ 31. Which can Congress do using its judicial powers?
a. appoint Supreme Court justices
b. set the punishments for state crimes
c. set federal crimes and punishments
d. create courts above the Supreme Court
____ 32. If no candidate receives a majority of the electoral votes for President, what happens?
a. A new election must be held.
b. The popular vote decides the winner.
c. The House votes by State to decide the winner.
d. The Senate votes by State to decide the winner.
____ 33. What makes opening day in the Senate different from opening day in the House?
a. There are always more new senators.
b. The House has a first-day filibuster.
c. The Senate is a continuous body.
d. The House must hear the State of the Union message.
____ 34. What happens to most bills that are referred to committees?
a. They are quickly approved.
b. They are thoroughly debated.
c. They are pigeonholed and die.
d. They are revised several times.

____ 35. Which rule provides that the most important posts will be held by those party members with the longest records
of service in Congress?
a. seniority rule
c. the Cloture Rule
b. the party discipline rule
d. the rule of law
____ 36. Which is an important characteristic of a joint committee?
a. The public is invited to participate.
c. The President sits in on the meetings.
b. It has both House and Senate members.
d. Governors sit in on the meetings.
____ 37. What is the purpose of a conference committee?
a. to limit debate on a bill
b. to introduce a new bill
c. to add new material to a bill
d. to develop a compromise bill
____ 38. Which party officer serves as the Senates presiding officer in the Vice Presidents absence?
a. majority whip
b. Speaker of the House
c. Senate majority leader
d. President pro tempore
____ 39. The President must be which of the following to qualify for office?
a. no older than 65
b. a general in the military
c. a natural born U.S. citizen
d. a U.S. senator
____ 40. After the Vice President, who is next in the line of succession to become President?
a. Secretary of Labor
b. Speaker of the House
c. Secretary of Energy
d. Chief of Staff
____ 41. Which best describes how the President works with Congress as chief legislator?
a. He can fire legislators that do not pass his laws.
b. As president of the Senate, he suggests new laws.
c. He suggests, requests, and insists that Congress pass his laws.
d. As commander-in-chief, he commands Congress to pass his laws.
____ 42. According to the Constitution, which procedure is followed if the office of the Vice President becomes vacant?
a. Congress must nominate a new Vice President, and the President must confirm the
nomination.
b. The President must nominate a new Vice President, and the Cabinet must confirm the
nomination.
c. The President must nominate a new Vice President, and Congress must confirm the
nomination.
d. The House must nominate a new Vice President, and the Senate must confirm the
nomination.
____ 43. Historically, the office of the Vice President has been considered
a. the second most important job in the country.
b. the nations chief diplomat.
c. an office of little real consequence.

d. that of an Assistant President.

____ 44. The characteristic most common among presidential nominees has been that most have
a. been incumbents.
b. been Republicans.
c. held public office.
d. had the broadest appeal.
____ 45. If the Presidency becomes vacant, presidential succession is determined by the
a. Constitution.
b. Presidential Succession Act of 1947.
c. Supreme Court.
d. Congress.
____ 46. A States presidential electors are chosen by
a. the State legislature.
b. its members in Congress.
c. popular vote.
d. a State convention.
____ 47. The War Powers Resolution authorizes the President to commit military forces to combat in all of the following
circumstances EXCEPT
a. when Congress has declared war.
b. when the nations interests are threatened.
c. when an attack on the United States or any of its armed forces has occurred.
d. when Congress has authorized the action.
____ 48. The President is responsible for what part of the federal government?
a. educational branch
c. legislative branch
b. executive branch
d. judicial branch
____ 49. The President does not act on a bill within 10 days of receiving it. If Congress has not adjourned, what happens
to the bill?
a. It is held until the next session.
c. It is returned to Congress.
b. It becomes law.
d. It is automatically vetoed.
____ 50. What is it called when the President approves a bill but also explains how he plans to enforce the new law?
a. line-item veto
c. executive order
b. pocket veto
d. signing statement
____ 51. The Constitution requires the President to execute
a. all federal laws.
b. only those federal laws the President supports.
c. only those federal laws relating to the military.
d. both State and federal laws.
____ 52. Which of the following is an argument for the line-item veto?
a. It would reduce wasteful and unnecessary spending.
b. It would shift power to the executive branch.
c. It would shift power to the legislative branch.
d. It is unconstitutional.
____ 53. How can Congress prevent the President from becoming too powerful?

a.
b.
c.
d.

It can declare presidential actions unconstitutional.

It can refuse to nominate the President for re-election.
It can enact laws limiting presidential powers.
It can veto presidential actions.

____ 54. Which of the following best summarizes the Presidents removal power?
a. The President may remove most of the federal workers whom he or she has appointed.
b. The President may remove only those federal workers whose appointment did not require
Senate approval.
c. President may remove a federal worker but only after the Senate has confirmed a successor.
d. The President may removal all federal workers.
____ 55. Which member of the Presidents administration helps negotiate treaties with other countries?
a. secretary of defense
c. secretary of homeland security
b. secretary of state
d. secretary of treaties
____ 56. What action can Congress take to check the power of a presidential veto of a bill?
a. override the veto
c. send the bill back to committee
b. eliminate the pocket veto
d. represent the bill in the next session
____ 57. What kind of jurisdiction allows a state or a federal court to hear a case?
a. original jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. exclusive jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
____ 58. When the U.S. government is sued for damages, the case is first heard in the
a. Court of Federal Claims.
b. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit.
c. Supreme Court.
d. federal district court for the District of Columbia.
____ 59. Which is an example of symbolic speech protected by the 1st and 14th Amendments?
a. peaceful picketing at a business site
b. advertising the price of tobacco products
c. advertising prescription drug prices
d. leaking classified government papers to the press
____ 60. Which is a rule regarding public assembly that has been supported by the Supreme Court?
a. Local officials may review public speeches in advance.
b. A license may be required for a public parade.
c. A demonstration should not be too critical of others.
d. People should not use hostile language during a protest.
____ 61. Why did Americans demand that a Bill of Rights be added to the Constitution?
a. Most other countries guaranteed individual rights and freedoms.
b. Most state constitutions had failed to include a listing of rights.
c. They wanted a guarantee of rights as a defense against government.
d. They believed in governments right to control what people can and cannot do.
____ 62. The free exercise of religion is limited when a particular religious practice
a. violates criminal laws.
b. is strange or unusual.

c. is designed to raise money.

d. tries to recruit new members.
____ 63. Which document protects rights not directly stated in the Constitution?
a. the 1st Amendment
b. the 9th Amendment
c. the 14th Amendment
d. the Preamble to the Constitution
... if [the machine of government] is of such a nature that it requires you to be the agent of injustice to another,
then, I say, break the law. Let your life be a counter-friction to stop the machine.
Henry David Thoreau
____ 64. What method of opposing injustice is Thoreau advocating in this statement?
a. assembly
c. civil disobedience
b. petition
d. association
____ 65. People in the United States may do as they please as long as they do not
a. anger the President.
b. express unpopular views.
c. offend others.
d. infringe on the rights of others.
____ 66. In which case has the Supreme Court ruled that police can conduct a search with no warrant?
a. searching an apartment
b. searching for drugs
c. searching a home
d. searching an automobile
____ 67. What does the Miranda rule say?
a. Police must get a warrant before searching a home.
b. Accused persons are entitled to a fair and speedy trial.
c. Police must tell a suspect about his or her rights before questioning.
d. A confession to a crime will not be accepted in court.
____ 68. Which is one reason that bail is used?
a. It helps the family of the accused.
b. It provides government with a steady income.
c. It is used because most of the accused are not guilty.
d. It is easier for a defendant to prepare for trial outside of jail.
____ 69. The right to keep and bear arms is an interpretation of which constitutional amendment?
a. 4th Amendment
b. 7th Amendment
c. 8th Amendment
d. 2nd Amendment
____ 70. Which of the following is a characteristic of an ex post facto law?
a. It provides for the punishment of a person without a court trial.
b. It applies to an act committed before its passage.
c. It is a civil law.
d. It works to the advantage of the accused.

____ 71. Which of the following constitutes treason as it is defined in the Constitution?
a. telling someone that you hate America
b. criticizing Congress or the President
c. giving aid and comfort to the nations enemies in times of war
d. wanting to overthrow the government
____ 72. Which makes it illegal to refuse to rent to a family with children?
a. Civil Rights Act of 1968
b. Grutter v. Bollinger
c. affirmative action laws
d. reverse discrimination laws

____ 73. The laws that allowed the kind of discrimination shown in this illustration were called
a. integration laws.
b. desegregation laws.
c. Jim Crow laws.

d. de jure laws.
____ 74. Which has made it difficult for women to compete with men in the workplace?
a. traditional home responsibilities
b. the Equal Rights Amendment
c. a lack of good jobs
d. a declining female population
____ 75. What does the Constitution say about the rights of men and women?
a. Women cannot own certain types of property.
b. Women cannot serve on juries in federal courts.
c. Civil rights guarantees are given mainly to men, not to women.
d. Civil rights guarantees are given to citizens, not men or women.
____ 76. How does a person become a U.S. citizen according to the rule of jus soli?
a. by being born in a foreign country along the U.S. border
b. by serving in the U.S. military during wartime
c. by being naturalized in the United States
d. by being born in the United States
____ 77. Which could cause a naturalized citizen to lose his or her citizenship?
a. breaking a federal law
b. breaking a state law
c. telling a lie to become a naturalized citizen
d. criticizing the United States government
____ 78. The status of aliens in the U.S. is different from the status of citizens because aliens
a. do not have civil rights.
b. may be subject to deportation.
c. are here illegally.
d. can never become citizens.
____ 79. Compared with men in the United States, women
a. earn less.
b. dominate corporate management.
c. have more education.
d. are fewer in number.
____ 80. According to the Equal Protection Clause, the government
a. may never draw distinctions between classes of people.
b. may not draw unreasonable distinctions between classes of people.
c. can draw distinctions among classes only if the courts have created the distinctions.
d. cannot give special treatment to any class of persons.