PRACTICE TEST 4

SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. danger
B. landscape
C. hand
D. nature
Question 2: A. stringer
B. hanger
C. stronger
D. banger
Question 3: A. circuit
B. building
C. guiltless
D. suitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. contribute
B. compliment
C. bacteria
D. procedure,
Question 5: A. rhinoceros
B. curriculum
C. kindergarten
D. discriminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
.
Question 6: - Salesgirl: "
" -Customer: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."
A. Do you look for something?
B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?
D. Can you help me buy something?
Question 7: She couldn't have been very attached 'to the cat if she decided to give it away at a
A. touch
B. hint
C. stroke
D. glance
Question 8:
the ringing phone when it went dead.
A. Hardly I reached B. I had no sooner reached C. Just as I reached
D. Scarcely had I reached
Question 9: Some snakes lay eggs, but
give birth to live offspring.
A. other
B. others
C. the others
D. the other
Question 10:
, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far
B. As far as is known C. It is known as far D. Known as far as it is
Question 11:
as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to
B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
Question 12: I'm a little
money. Can you lend me some?
A. shortage of
B. short of
C. lack of
D. lack with
Question 13: As a very cheerful and energetic woman, Joyce is
when there's work to be done.
A. the first always to sign up
B. to sign up always the first
C. always the first to sign up
D. the first to sign up always
Question 14: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is
certain.
A. by all means
B. by no means
C. at any rate
D. by any chance
Question 15: - Lisa: "Have you been able to reach Peter?" - Gina: "
"
A. Yes, I've known him for years
B. No, the line is busy C. There's no approval D. It's too much high
Question 16: We were
looking for a manager when the impeccable candidate showed up.
A. in view of
B. in the hopes of
C. with a view towards D. in the process of
Question 17: Not only
to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
A. to use seismology B. is seismology used C. seismology is used
D. using seismology
Question 18:
a few sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
A. Only
B. There are only
C. That only
D. With only
Question 19:
, William Shakespeare is the most widely known .
A. All writers in English
B. All of the writers in English
C. Of all writers in English
D. With all, writers in English
Question 20: Judy is
smarter than the others that she ought to be in a higher grade at school.
A. much
B. so much
C. too much
D. such a
Question 21: My son dropped
college and joined the army.
A. away from
B. out of
C. off
D. by
Question 22: The reason I have to go is
if I don't.
A. that she will be disappointed
B. because she will be disappointed
C. on account of her being disappointed
D. that she will be disappointing
Question 23: Once known as the "Golden State" because of its gold mines,
.
A. North California today mines few metallic minerals.
B. few metallic minerals are mined in North California today.
C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North California today.
D. today in North California few metallic mineral are mined.
Question 24: No sooner had we started the picnic
the rain poured down.
A. when
B. that
C. and
D. than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I think we have solved this problem once and for all.
A. in the end
B. forever
C. temporarily D. for everybody

Question 26: Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I heartily
support.
A. inner part
B. test
C. entrance
D. change
Question 27: The money was donated by a local businessman who wishes to remain anonymous.
A. unknown
B. publicized
C. identified D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: My mother is a live wire who is always as busy as a bee.
A. leisurely
B. freely
C. appropriate
D. critical.
Question 29: Hardly anyone showed up the party last night due to the heavy rain.
A. Almost everyone B. Practically no one C. Everyone D. Nearly no one
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks from 30 to 39.
In the early days of the cinema, before sound was introduced, silent films were (30)
by a pianist, or
even a small orchestra playing in the cinema itself. One reason for this was to (31)
up the noise of
the projector. However, a more important role was to provide support for what was going on in the film, and
guide the audience through the story. Different kinds of music were (32),
with different situations, such
as, fights, chases, romantic scenes and so on. Music was also used to identify the geographical location or
historical setting of the story. In (33)
individual characters often had their own tune, which could also
(34)
what sort of person they were.
Music added something extra what was happening on the flat screen. It could create atmosphere and
(35)
the involvement of the audience, one moment encouraging them to relax, the' next developing, a
(36)
of tension. And all this was done without any words being spoken.
Audiences at that time would have been (37)
with the musical language connected with the
traditions of popular theatre, and many of these were (38) to the new medium of the cinema. Today, (39) the
films produced may be technically very different from before, much of the musical history still remains.
Question 30: A. chased
B. pursued
C. taken
D. accompanied
Question 31: A. cover
B. put
C. tie
D. make
Question 32: A. joined
B. united
C. associated
D. collected
Question 33: A. measure
B. plus
C. addition
D. total
Question 34: A. indicate
B. point
C. paint
D. draw
Question 35: A. rise
B. increase
C. grow
D. lift
Question 36: A. look
B. meaning
C. sight
D. sense
Question 37: A. popular
B. educated
C. familiar
D. experienced
Question 38: A. cut
B. moved
C. transported
D. transferred
Question 39: A. instead
B. although
C. despite
D. however
.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 40: Political science, alike the other social sciences, is not an exact science.
A
B
C
D
Question 41: Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity (A) of volcanic eruptions because even a small
amount (B) of volcanic ash (C) can damage its (D) engines.
Question 42: Some fishes live at enormous depths that they are almost complete blind.
A
B
C
D
Question 43: The author hasn't rarely written anything that was not a best-seller.
A
B
C
D
Question 44: It is said (A)that Einstein feels (B) very bad (C) about the application of his theories to the creation
(D) of weapons of war.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the Constitutional
Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been instructed by the Continental
Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was
needed. There were differences, however, about what Structure the government should take and how much
influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four times as
many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia delegation, James
Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its
essence was that
congressional representation would be based on population. It provided for two or more national executives.
The smaller states feared that under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey
countered with the Small State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature
and for a single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.

A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out an
agreement known as the Great Compromise - actually a bundle of shrewd compromises. They decided that
Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted representation based on population in
the lower house, the House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the
upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators .regardless of population. It was also
agreed that there would be a single executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and
from then on, success seemed within reach.
Question 45: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. James Madison's plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States
B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise
C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan
Question 46: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional Convention?
A. Twelve
B. Thirteen
C. Fourteen
D. Fifty-five
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation
A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
C. allowed small states to dominate large ones
D. provided for only a weak central government
Question 48: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST people?
A. Virginia
B. Delaware
C. New York
D. New Jersey
Question 49: In 1787, the population of New York was
as high as that of New Jersey.
.
A. twice
B. three times
C four times
D. ten times
Question 50: In the second paragraph, the phrase this plan refers to
A. the Small State Plan
B. a plan suggested by the national legislature
C. the Large State Plan
D. a compromise plan
Question 51: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional Convention?
A. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise.
B. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia.
C. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived.
D. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work.
Question 52: The word shrewd in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. practical
B. unfair
C. important
D. clever
Question 53: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the Great
Compromise?
A. There would be only one national executive. B. The president would be elected by popular vote.
C. Each state would have two senators.
D. Congress would be divided into two bodies
Question 54: The author uses the phrase broke the logjam in the third paragraph to indicate that
A. the government was nearly bankrupt
B. some major problems had been solved
C. the Convention came to a sudden end
D. the situation had become desperate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank
among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer
greatly. At first, the body in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 of the
individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a good allergy, since it can show up so many different
ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs,
seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also
tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled
herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many oriental and prepared foods (read the
labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially
colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches,
tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book "Why your Child is
Hyperactive". Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 55: The topic of this passage is

A. reaction to food
B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies
D. a good diet
Question 56: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to food is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 57: The word "symptoms" in the second paragraph is closest, in meaning to
A. indications B. diet
C. diagnosis
D. prescriptions
Question 58: The phrase "set off" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
Question 59: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 60: The word "hyperactive" in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. overly active
B. unusually low activity C. excited
D. inquisitive
Question 61: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has
to do with the infant's
A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
Question 62: The word "these" in the third paragraph refers to
A. food additives
B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods
D. foods high in salicylates
Question 63: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
Question 64: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. available in book forms
B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
SECTION B (2 points)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the-word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word
given.
Question 1: "You've broken my radio, Frank!" said Jane. (accused)
Jane

her radio.

Question 2: My car really needs to be repaired soon. (must)

I really

repaired soon.

Question 3: Susan regrets not buying that house. (wishes)

Susan

that house.

Question 4: I could never have succeeded without your help. (you)

I could never have succeeded

me.

Question 5: I thought I might run out of cash, so I took my cheque-book with me. (case)
I took my cheque-book with me
out of cash. .
.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of studying abroad. Write your paragraph on your
answer sheet.
The end

 THI TH S 4
SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. danger
B. landscape
C. hand
D. nature
Question 2: A. stringer
B. hanger
C. stronger
D. banger
Question 3: A. circuit
B. building
C. guiltless
D. suitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. contribute
B. compliment
C. bacteria
D. procedure,
Question 5: A. rhinoceros
B. curriculum
C. kindergarten
D. discriminate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
.
Question 6: - Salesgirl: "
" -Customer: "Yes. I'd like to buy a computer."
A. Do you look for something?
B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?
D. Can you help me buy something?
Question 7: She couldn't have been very attached 'to the cat if she decided to give it away at a
A. touch
B. hint
C. stroke
D. glance
Question 8:
the ringing phone when it went dead.
A. Hardly I reached B. I had no sooner reached C. Just as I reached
D. Scarcely had I reached
Question 9: Some snakes lay eggs, but
give birth to live offspring.
A. other
B. others
C. the others
D. the other
Question 10:
, dolphins have no sense of smell.
A. As known as far
B. As far as is known C. It is known as far D. Known as far as it is
Question 11:
as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to
B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
Question 12: I'm a little
money. Can you lend me some?
A. shortage of
B. short of
C. lack of
D. lack with
Question 13: As a very cheerful and energetic woman, Joyce is
when there's work to be done.
A. the first always to sign up
B. to sign up always the first
C. always the first to sign up
D. the first to sign up always
Question 14: Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is
certain.
A. by all means
B. by no means
C. at any rate
D. by any chance
Question 15: - Lisa: "Have you been able to reach Peter?" - Gina: "
"
A. Yes, I've known him for years
B. No, the line is busy C. There's no approval D. It's too much
high
Question 16: We were
looking for a manager when the impeccable candidate showed up.
A. in view of
B. in the hopes of
C. with a view towards D. in the process of
Question 17: Not only
to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
A. to use seismology B. is seismology used C. seismology is used
D. using seismology
Question 18:
a few sounds produced by insects can be heard by humans.
A. Only
B. There are only
C. That only
D. With only
Question 19:
, William Shakespeare is the most widely known .
A. All writers in English
B. All of the writers in English
C. Of all writers in English
D. With all, writers in English
Question 20: Judy is
smarter than the others that she ought to be in a higher grade at school.
A. much
B. so much
C. too much
D. such a
Question 21: My son dropped
college and joined the army.
A. away from
B. out of
C. off
D. by
Question 22: The reason I have to go is
if I don't.
A. that she will be disappointed
B. because she will be disappointed
C. on account of her being disappointed
D. that she will be disappointing
Question 23: Once known as the "Golden State" because of its gold mines,
.
A. North California today mines few metallic minerals.
B. few metallic minerals are mined in North California today.
C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North California today.
D. today in North California few metallic mineral are mined.
Question 24: No sooner had we started the picnic
the rain poured down.
A. when
B. that
C. and
D. than

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I think we have solved this problem once and for all.
A. in the end
B. forever
C. temporarily D. for everybody
Question 26: Dr. Jones suggested that final examinations should be discontinued, an innovation I heartily
support.
A. inner part
B. test
C. entrance
D. change
Question 27: The money was donated by a local businessman who wishes to remain anonymous.
A. unknown
B. publicized
C. identified D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 28: My mother is a live wire who is always as busy as a bee.
A. leisurely
B. freely
C. appropriate
D. critical.
Question 29: Hardly anyone showed up the party last night due to the heavy rain.
A. Almost everyone B. Practically no one C. Everyone D. Nearly no one
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer for each of the blanks from 30 to 39.
In the early days of the cinema, before sound was introduced, silent films were (30)
by a pianist, or
even a small orchestra playing in the cinema itself. One reason for this was to (31)
up the noise of
the projector. However, a more important role was to provide support for what was going on in the film, and
guide the audience through the story. Different kinds of music were (32),
with different situations, such
as, fights, chases, romantic scenes and so on. Music was also used to identify the geographical location or
historical setting of the story. In (33)
individual characters often had their own tune, which could also
(34)
what sort of person they were.
Music added something extra what was happening on the flat screen. It could create atmosphere and
(35)
the involvement of the audience, one moment encouraging them to relax, the' next developing, a
(36)
of tension. And all this was done without any words being spoken.
Audiences at that time would have been (37)
with the musical language connected with
the traditions of popular theatre, and many of these were (38)
to the new medium of the cinema.
Today, (39)
the films produced may be technically very different from before, much of the musical
history still remains.
Question 30: A. chased
B. pursued
C. taken
D. accompanied
Question 31: A. cover
B. put
C. tie
D. make
Question 32: A. joined
B. united
C. associated
D. collected
Question 33: A. measure
B. plus
C. addition
D. total
Question 34: A. indicate
B. point
C. paint
D. draw
Question 35: A. rise
B. increase
C. grow
D. lift
Question 36: A. look
B. meaning
C. sight
D. sense
Question 37: A. popular
B. educated
C. familiar
D. experienced
Question 38: A. cut
B. moved
C. transported
D. transferred
Question 39: A. instead
B. although
C. despite
D. however
.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 40: Political science, alike the other social sciences, is not an exact science.
A
B
C
D
Question 41: Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity (A) of volcanic eruptions because even a small
amount (B) of volcanic ash (C) can damage its (D) engines.
Question 42: Some fishes live at enormous depths that they are almost complete blind.
A
B
C
D
Question 43: The author hasn't rarely written anything that was not a best-seller.
A
B
C
D
Question 44: It is said (A)that Einstein feels (B) very bad (C) about the application of his theories to the creation
(D) of weapons of war.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the Constitutional
Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been instructed by the Continental
Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was
needed. There were differences, however, about what Structure the government should take and how much
influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four times as
many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia delegation, James
Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its
essence was that

congressional representation would be based on population. It provided for two or more national executives.
The smaller states feared that under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey
countered with the Small State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature
and for a single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out an
agreement known as the Great Compromise - actually a bundle of shrewd compromises. They decided that
Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted representation based on population in
the lower house, the House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the
upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators .regardless of population. It was also
agreed that there would be a single executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and
from then on, success seemed within reach.
Question 45: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. James Madison's plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States
B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise
C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan
Question 46: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional Convention?
A. Twelve
B. Thirteen
C. Fourteen
D. Fifty-five
Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation
A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
C. allowed small states to dominate large ones
D. provided for only a weak central government
Question 48: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had the FEWEST people?
A. Virginia
B. Delaware
C. New York
D. New Jersey
Question 49: In 1787, the population of New York was
as high as that of New Jersey.
.
A. twice
B. three times
C four times
D. ten times
Question 50: In the second paragraph, the phrase this plan refers to
A. the Small State Plan
B. a plan suggested by the national legislature
C. the Large State Plan
D. a compromise plan
Question 51: According to the passage, the weather had what effect on the Constitutional Convention?
A. Hot weather intensified the debate while cooler weather brought compromise.
B. Bad weather prevented some of the delegates from reaching Philadelphia.
C. Delegates hurried to achieve an agreement before winter arrived.
D. Cold temperatures made Independence Hall an uncomfortable place to work.
Question 52: The word shrewd in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. practical
B. unfair
C. important
D. clever
Question 53: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the Great
Compromise?
A. There would be only one national executive. B. The president would be elected by popular vote.
C. Each state would have two senators.
D. Congress would be divided into two bodies
Question 54: The author uses the phrase broke the logjam in the third paragraph to indicate that
A. the government was nearly bankrupt
B. some major problems had been solved
C. the Convention came to a sudden end
D. the situation had become desperate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a
substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank
among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer
greatly. At first, the body in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 of the
individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a good allergy, since it can show up so many different
ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains
mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs,
seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also
tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled
herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many oriental and prepared foods (read the
labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially

colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches,
tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book "Why your Child is
Hyperactive". Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 55: The topic of this passage is
A. reaction to food B. food and nutrition C. infants and allergies
D. a good diet
Question 56: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to food is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
C. lack of a proper treatment plan
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 57: The word "symptoms" in the second paragraph is closest, in meaning to
A. indications
B. diet
C. diagnosis
D. prescriptions
Question 58: The phrase "set off" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
Question 59: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as
infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 60: The word "hyperactive" in paragraph three is closest in meaning to
A. overly active
B. unusually low activity C. excited
D. inquisitive
Question 61: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has
to do with the infant's
A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
Question 62: The word "these" in the third paragraph refers to
A. food additives
B. food colorings
C. innutritious foods
D. foods high in salicylates
Question 63: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
Question 64: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. available in book forms
B. verified by researchers as being consistently
effective
C. beneficial for hyperactive children D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
SECTION B (2 points)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the-word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word
given.
Question 1: "You've broken my radio, Frank!" said Jane. (accused)
Jane accused Frank of breaking/ having broken her radio.
Question 2: My car really needs to be repaired soon. (must)
I really must have / get my car repaired soon.
Question 3: Susan regrets not buying that house. (wishes)
Susan wished she had bought that house.
Question 4: I could never have succeeded without your help. (you)
I could never have succeeded if you had not helped me.
Question 5: I thought I might run out of cash, so I took my cheque-book with me. (case)
I took my cheque-book with me in case I ran out of cash. .
.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of studying abroad. Write your paragraph on
your answer sheet.
The end