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Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
11. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary Portland cement after three days should not
be less than
a) 7 MPa b) 11.5 MPa c) 16 MPa d) 21 MPa
Ans: c
12. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and
standard sand in the proportions of
a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4 d) 1:6
Ans: b
13. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
a) 25 mm to 50 mm b) 50 mm to 100 mm
c) 100 mm to 125 mm d) 125 mm to 150 mm
Ans: a
14. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams?
a) ordinary Portland cement b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement d) sulphate resisting cement
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
19. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
a) along the direction of bedding planes
b) at 45 to the direction of bedding planes
c) at 60 to the direction of bedding planes
d) perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Ans: d
20. The depression provided in the face of brick during its manufacturing is known as
a)Indentation b) Anchorage c) Well d) Frog
Ans: d
21. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
a) single Flemish bond b) double Flemish bond
c) English bond d) zigzag bond
Ans: c
22. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 1:6 d) 1:8
Ans: a
23. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandy soils should not exceed
a) 25 mm b) 40 mm c) 65 mm d) 100 mm
Ans: a
24. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is
to
a) increase the depth of foundation b) drain the soil
c) compact the soil d) replace the poor soil
Ans: d
25. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
28. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor
covering is desired is
a) cork flooring b) glass flooring
c) wooden flooring d) linoleum flooring
Ans: a
29. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the inner curve of an arch is known as
a) intrados b) rise c) spandrel d) extrados
Ans: b
30. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
a)10-20% b)20-30% c) 30-40% d)40-50%
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: a
34. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is
known as
a) haunch b) spandrel c) voussoirs d) skewbacks
Ans: b
35. The lintels are preferred to arches because
a) arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
b) arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
c) arches are difficult in construction
d) all of the above
Ans: d
36. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for
a) centering b) actual laying of arch work
c) striking of centering d) none of the above
Ans: c
37. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the
load of the wall above is
a) segmental arch b) pointed arch
c) relieving arch d) flat arch
Ans: c
38. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
a) pitched and sloping roof b) flat roof
c) shell roof d) none of the above
Ans: b
39. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
a) coastal regions b) plain regions
c) covering large areas d) all of the above
Ans: a
Ans: a
51. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as
a) gable roof b) hip roof c) gambrel roof d) mansard roof
Ans: c
52. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in
a) two directions without break in the slope on each side
b) two directions with break in the slope on each side
c) four directions without break in the slope on each side
d) four directions with break in the slope on each side
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: d
55. The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
a) 5 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 10 cm d) 15 cm
Ans: b
56. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
a) 5 to 8 cm b) 9 to 13 cm c) 14 to 18 cm d) 19 to 23 cm
Ans: b
57. Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 80 %
Ans: c
58. Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars because rich mortars have
Ans: a
59. Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
(i) there is no gain in strength of masonry (ii) there is high shrinkage (iii) they
are prone to segregation Of these statements
a) Only (ii) is correct b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans: b
60. Consider the following statements:
A high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
1. slow hardening.
2. quick setting.
3. weaker mortar. Of these statements
a) 2 and 3 are correct b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: c
Ans: a
62. Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against when it supports RC slab will
be
a) more b) less
c) the same in both the cases d) 100%
Ans: b
63. Hydrographic survey deals with the mapping of
a) Large water bodies b) rainfall data
c) wave movement d) none of the above
Ans: a
64. In surveying when curvature of earth is taken into consideration then that type is called as
a) Chain surveying b) Geodetic surveying
c) Plane surveying d) Contouring
Ans: b
65. Following is the term used in leveling while reduction of levels
a) Zero circle b) Height of Instrument
c) Fore bearing d) Local attraction
Ans: b
66. In leveling, for taking levels of ground one of the following instrument is used
a) Prismatic compass b) Plane table
c) Dumpy level d) Prism square
Ans: c
67. The least count of prismatic compass is
a) 10 b) 30 c)15 d)20
Ans: c
68. In leveling work the diagram where each line is having points of equal elevations is called as(a) Contour map
(b) survey map
(c) topographic map
(d) Survey map
Ans: a
69. The prismatic compass and surveyor's compass
a) give whole circle bearing (WCB) of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB) of a line respectively
b) both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
c) both give QB of a line
d) both give WCB of a line
Ans: a
70. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called
a) azimuth b) declination
c) local attraction d) magnetic bearing
Ans: b
71. A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the
a) eastern side of the true meridian
b) western side of the true meridian
c) southern side of the true meridian
d) none of the above
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: d
74. The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane
is known as
a) transiting b) reversing c) plunging d) swinging
Ans: d
75. Size of a theodolite is specified by
a) the length of telescope b) the diameter of vertical circle
c) the diameter of lower plate d) the diameter of upper plate
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
81. The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
a) backsight b) intermediate sight
c) foresight d) all of the above
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: b
84. The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that
a) level line is a curved line while horizontal line is a straight line
b) level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at the tangent point to
level line
c) horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line
d) both are same
Ans: a
85. The permissible limits of error in chaining for measurement on rough or hilly ground is
a) 1:2000 b) 1:1000 c) 1:500 d) 1:250
Ans: a
86. The scale on which three dimensions can be measured is known as
a) Plain scale b) diagonal scale
c) shrunk scale d) comparative scale
Ans: d
Ans: c
88. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the instrument
station should be
a) equidistant from A and B
b) closer to the higher station
c) closer to the lower station
d) as far as possible from the line AB
Ans: c
89. Contour interval is
a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c) larger for accurate works
d) larger if the time available is more
Ans: a
90. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal
is known as
a) contour line b) horizontal equivalent
c) contour interval d) contour gradient
Ans: d
91. Select the correct statement.
a) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
b) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value contour lies towards the higher value contour.
c) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an overhanging cliff.
d) All of the above statements are correct.
Ans: c
92. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
a) steep slope b) gentle slope
c) uniform slope d) plane surface
Ans: a
Ans: c
94. The maximum allowable limit upto that a measurement may vary from the true value is known as
a) permissible error b) residual error
c) expected error d) safe error
Ans: c
95. Generally while chaining, the arrow which accompany with one chain must be
a) 3 nos. b) 5 nos. c) 10 nos. d) 12 nos.
Ans: b
96. As per Indian standard, the length of one link in 30 metre chain should be
a) 20 cm b) 30 cm c) 40 cm d) 10 cm
Ans: a
97. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is called
a) ranging b) centring
c) horizontal control d) vertical control
Ans: d
98. Select the correct statement.
a) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: a
103. Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called
a) workability admixtures b) accelerators
c) retarders d) air entraining agents
Ans: b
104. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately
a) 25% b) 40% c) 60% d) 80%
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
Answer : C
Answer : D
Answer : B
Answer : C
135. While placing of concrete the thickness of each layer for R.C.C. is
[ A ] 150 to 300 mm [ B ] 450 mm [ C ] 500 to 750 mm [ D ] 500 mm
Answer : A
Answer : A
Answer : C
138. While determining the workability of concrete mix, the compaction factor test is ------than the slump cone test
[ A ] Less accurate [ B ] More accurate
[ C ] Approximate method [ D ] None of the above
Answer : B
139. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
[ A ] Tensile strength test [ B ] Slump cone test
[ C ] Compaction factor test [ D ] Flexural strength test
Answer : C
Answer : C
Answer : A
[ D ] i, ii and iii
Answer : C
143. The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is
known as
Answer : D
b) Bed
c) Closer
d) Quoin
b) Raking
c) Facing
d) English
b) Louver
c) Sash
d) Style
c) Impart colour
d) Increase workability
5. Initial setting time of cement is controlled by the addition of during the process of grinding.
a) Gypsum
b) calcium
c) Sodium
d) Potassium
c) Compressive strength
d) Impact value
7. Density of cement is
a) 2400 Kg/m3
b) 1640 Kg/m3
c) 2500 Kg/m3
d) 1440 Kg/m3
c) 0.6 to 1.1%
b) 0.25 to 0.6%
9. Density of steel is
a) 8750 Kg/m3
b) 7850 Kg/m3
c) 7580 Kg/m3
d) 8580 Kg/m3
10. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
a) Moulding
b) Kneading
c) Pugging
d) Tempering
B.sand
C. surkhi
D. cinder.
B.
50 minutes
C.75 minutes
D.
90 minutes.
cracks
B.
shrinks
C.
reduces to powder
C.
honey combing
D.
none of these.
segregation
B.
bleeding
D.
none to these.
B.
C.
D.
0.30
B.
0.40
C.
0.50
D.
0.60
10 x 10 x 9 cm
B.
19 x 9 x 9 cm C.
22.5 x 10 x 8.5 cm
D.
75 kg/cm2
B.
90 kg/cm2
C.
100 kg/cm2
D.
120 kg/cm2
A.quality of water
B. quantity of aggregate
C.
quantity of cement
D.
water-cement
ratio.
21Seasoning of timber is done for
A.
C.
8% moisture content B.
C.
slate
B.
D.
basalt.
sand stone
C.
lime stone
one day
B.
3 days
C.
7 days
D.
10 days
is brittle
C.
D.
26. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
A.
strip footing
B.
strap footing
C.
combined footing
D.
raft footing
strength
B.
workability
C.
stability of structure D.
28. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
A.
stretcher
B.
face
C.
front
D.
header
B.
permeability is uncertain
C.
D.
closer
B.
half brick
C.
bed
D.
bat.
turn
B.
junction
32.
A.
skew back
B.
C.
quoin
soffit
C.
D.
spandrel
D.
haunch.
33. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually limited to
A.
15 mm
B.
25 mm
C.
35 mm
D.
45 mm
B.
C.
D.
none to these.
B.
C.
D.
B.
C.
D.
ashlar arch
B.
rubble arch
C.
gauged arch
D.
axed arch.
38 The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support heavy
concentrated structural loads, is known as
A.
combined footing
B.
strap footing
C.
raft footing
D.
none of these.
39. The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called
A.
spandrel
B.
haunch
C.
springing
D.
soffit.
40. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as
A.
cornice
B.
coping
C.
frieze
D.
lintal.
B.
D.
C.
42. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
A.
C.
43.
The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is called
A.
Flemish bond
B.
B.
D.
ashlar masonry.
English bond
C.
Stretcher bond
D.
Header bond.
buttress
B.
leaf wall
C. pilaster
D.
pillar.
ranging rod
B.
steel tape
C. levelling staff
D.
bonning rod.
46. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
A.
English bond B.
Flemish bond
C.Russian band
D.Mixed bond.
25 to 50 mm B.
30 to 125 mm
C.50 to 100 mm
D.
75 to 125 mm
English bond
B.
Flemish bond
C.
Header bond D.
49. For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be
A.
1:2
B.
1:3
C.
1:4
D.
1:6
Stretcher bond.
B.sliding of voussoirs
C.
cracking
B.
dubbing
C.blistering
D.
hacking.
B.
soft rocks
C.
compact soils D.
multistoreyed buildings
90 mm
B.
150 mm
C.
190 mm
D.
200 mm.
54. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of full brick, is
called
A.
half brick
B.
queen closer C.
king closer
D.
bevelled closer.
55. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
A.
C.
B.
D.
ashlar masonry.
56. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known
A.
hacking
B.
dubbing out
C.
blishering
D.
peeling
57. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
A.
50 N/cm2
B.
100 N/cm2
C.
150 N/cm2
D.
200 N/cm2.
58. The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called
A.
Soffits
B.
voussoirs
C.
haunchs
D.
spandrils.
enamel paints B.
aluminium paints
C.
asbestos paints
C.
D.
cement paints.
stone masonry
B.
brick walls
D.
A.
C.
B.
D.
C.
smoothness
durability
B.
colour
D.
glassy face
63. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
A.
strip footing
B.
strap footing C.
combined footing
D.
raft footing
C.
B.
hard rocks
B.
C.
D.
A.
strip footing
B.
strap footing
C.
combined footing
D.
raft footing
Answer: Option B
2. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase
A.
strength
B.
workability
C.
stability of structure
D.
Answer: Option C
3. The 9 cm x 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
A.
stretcher
B.
C.
front
header
D.
face
Answer: Option D
A.
B.
permeability is uncertain
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
5. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called
A.
closer
B.
half brick
C.
bed
D.
bat.
Answer: Option D
6.
The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as
A.
turn
B.
junction
C.
quion
D.
Answer: Option C
7.
A.
skew back
B.
soffit
C.
spandril
D.
haunch.
Answer: Option A
8. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually limited to
A.
15 mm
B.
25 mm
C.
35 mm
D.
45 mm
Answer: Option B
9. In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on
A.
B.
C.
D.
none to these.
Answer: Option B
10. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
11. Raft foundations are used for :
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
12. An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known
A.
ashlar arch
B.
rubble arch
C.
gauged arch
D.
axed arch.
Answer: Option A
13 The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support heavy
concentrated structural loads, is known as
A.
combined footing
B.
strap footing
C.
raft footing
D.
none of these.
Answer: Option C
14. The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called
A.
spandril
B.
haunch
C.
springing
D.
soffit.
Answer: Option B
15. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as
A.
corniceB.
coping
C.
frieze D.
lintal.
Answer: Option B
16. The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
17. The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
ashlar masonry.
Answer: Option B
18.
The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is called
A.
Flemish bond
B.
English bond
C.
Stretcher bond
D.
Header bond.
Answer: Option B
19. The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as
A.
butress
B.
leaf wall
C.
pillaster
D.
pillar.
Answer: Option B
20. The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a
A.
ranging rod
B.
steel tape
C.
levelling staff
D.
bonning rod.
Answer: Option D
21. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
A.
English bond
B.
Flemish bond
C.
Russian band
D.
Mixed bond.
Answer: Option B
22. The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is
A.
25 to 50 mm
B.
30 to 125 mm
C.
50 to 100 mm
D.
75 to 125 mm
Answer: Option C
23. The To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer
A.
English bond
B.
Flemish bond
C.
Header bond
D.
Stretcher bond.
Answer: Option D
24. For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be
A.
1:2
B.
1:3
C.
1:4
D.
1:6
Answer: Option C
25. An arch may fail due to
A.
B.
sliding of voussoirs
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
A.
cracking
B.
dubbing
C.
blistering
D.
hacking.
Answer: Option C
27. Pile foundations are suitable for
A.
B.
soft rocks
C.
compact soils
D.
multistoreyed buildings
Answer: Option A
28. The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is
A.
90 mm
B.
150 mm
C.
190 mm
D.
200 mm.
Answer: Option D
29. The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of full brick, is
called
A.
half brick
B.
queen closer
C.
king closer
D.
bevelled closer.
Answer: Option B
30. The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
ashlar masonry.
Answer: Option D
31. The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known
A.
hacking
B.
dubbing out
C.
blishering
D.
peeling
Answer: Option B
32. The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
A.
50 N/cm2
B.
100 N/cm2
C.
150 N/cm2
D.
200 N/cm2.
Answer: Option B
33. The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called
A.
Soffits B.
voussoirs
C.
haunchs
D.
spandrils.
Answer: Option B
34. The most fire resistant paints are :
A.
enamel paints
B.
aluminium paints
C.
asbestos paints
D.
cement paints.
Answer: Option C
35. Stuco paints are suitable for
A.
stone masonry
B.
brick walls
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
36. Smith's test of stones is performed to find out
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
37. In paints, the pigment is responsible for
A.
durability
B.
colour
C.
smoothness
D.
glassy face
Answer: Option B
38. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
A.
strip footing
B.
strap footing
C.
combined footing
D.
raft footing
Answer: Option B
39. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
A.
B.
C.
D.
hard rocks
Answer: Option D
40. Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
1. Sand stone is a
a.sedimentary rock b.igneous rock
c. silicious rock
2. Lime stone is a
a. igneous rock
b. sedimentary rock
b.sedimentary rock
3. Marble is a
a. igneous rock
b. lime stone
c. sand stone
d. granite
5. Gravel is a type of
a.igneous rock
b. sedimentary rock
7. The rock having calcium carbonate as main mineral constituent, is known as main mineral
constituent, is known as
a.calcareous rock
b. argillaceous rock
c. silcious rock
d. sandy rock
b. cleavage
c. breaking
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
d. fault
b. after seasoning
d. any time
11. The preparation of surface of stones to obtain plain edges or to obtain stone of required
shape and size is known as
a. blasting of stone
b. quarrying of stone
c. seasoning of stone
d. dressing of stone
13. Specific gravity for most of the building stone lies between
a. 1.5 to 2.0
b. 2.0 to 2.5
c. 2.5 to 3.0
d. 3.0 to 3.5
b. silica
b. 20 30%
c. 50 60%
b. silica
c. magnesia
d. alumina
b. 19 x 9 x 9 cm
c. 18 x 9 x 9 cm
d. 18 x 8 x 8 cm
c. 18 x 9 x 9 cm
d. 18 x 8 x 8 cm
b. 19 x 9 x 9 cm
b. 20 - 30%
c. 30 40%
d. 40 50%
d. brittleness
d. brittleness
c. to prevent shrinkage
d. to increase impermeability
25. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is called
a. moulding
b. tempering
c. pugging
d. blending
26. The process of mixing sand with the powdered natural soil to improve the quality is known
a. moulding
b. tempering c. pugging
d. blending
b. decay of bricks
b. to increase durability
c. to prevent shrinkage
d. to increase impremeability
29. For one cubic metre of brick masonary, the number of bricks required is
a. 400
b. 500.
c. 5000
d. 6000
b. Hoffmans kiln
c. Tunnel kiln
b. bottom face
c. exposed face
d. interior face
b. insulation
c. storage
c. Chuffs
d. Efflorescence
b. Lamination
36. The discolouration and formation of white deposits due to presence of relatively large
proportion of soluble salts in a brick is known as
a. Bloating
b. Efflorescence
b. Chuffs d. Nodules
37. Portion of the brick left after removing the corner equal to half the width and half the
length is called
a. Closer
38. Portion of the brick cut across its width and having its length equal to that of a full brick,
known as
is
a. Closer
d. Squint brick
39. Portion of the brick cut to form angles other than right angles in plan, is known as
a. closer
b. Blending
c. Tempering
43. When the walls are subjected to heavy loading and the bearing capacity of the soil is
very low, then the wall is constructed on
a. reinforced concrete footing
b. column footing
44. Maximum differential settlement in case of foundations on clayey soils is usually limited
to
a. 10 mm b. 25 mm
c. 40 mm
d. 100 mm
c. 40 mm
d. 100 mm
46. Raft foundations are generally used, when the area required for individual footing is
more than
a. 25% of total area b. a. 30% of total area c. a. 40% of total area d. a. 50% of total area
47. A type of foundation in which a cantilever beam is used for joining the two footings is
a. raft footing
b. strap footing
c. combined footing
48. Fro supporting a heavy structure in a sandy soil, the type of foundation generally
preferred is
a. strap footing
b. pier footing
c. raft footing
49. Generally for a column in a workshop using Gantry cranes, the foundation to be used
should be
a. pile foundation
b. grillage foundation
c. raft foundation
d. well foundation
50. Type of masonry in which the stones of the same height are used and the courses are
also of the same height is called
a. random rubble masonry
c. uncoursed rubble
51. Type of masonry in which the stones of irregular size and shapes are used and there are
no regular courses is called
a. riubble masonry
52. A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar or sometimes without mortar is known as
a. bond
b. course
c. brick masonry
53. In a single day the maximum height of masonry to be raised should not be more than
a. 0.5 m
b. 1 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 2 m
b. headers
c. bats
d. closers
55. If after every three or four stretchers, one header is used in a brick masonry wall, then the
bond so formed will be called as
a. English garden wall bond
c. Stretcher bond
56. The wall constructed along the slopes to protect the slopes of cutting from the adverse
effect of atmosphere are called as
a. retaining walls
b. breast walls
c. buttresses
b. stretchers
c. bats
d. queen closer
b. jamb
c. sleeper wall
d. parapet
59. The part of a wall at the side of an opening in the masonry is called
a. quoin
b. jamb
c. sleeper wall
d. parapet
60. The operation of finishing mortar joints after completion of a masonry wall is called
a. toothing
b. pointing
c. racking back
d. jointing
c. to indicate year and name of the manufacture d. to indicate top of the brick
62. A portion of a brick cut across the width is known as
a. bed
b. base
c. bat
d. half brick
63. The bricks having one or two edges rounded for use in slightly curved corners are called
a. bull nose
b. closer
c. round nose
d. specific nose
64. Type of bonding in which all courses are laid as stretchers, is known as
a. Stretcher bond b. Header bond
c. English bond
d. Flemish bond
65. The end of a brick as seen in the wall faced (9 x 9 cm) wide is known as
a. front
b. face
c. header
d. stretcher
66. When lengthwise brick is laid parallel to the face of wall, it is known as
a. front
b. face
c. header
d. stretcher
d. dampness
b. Parapet
c. Quoin
d. Squint
b. retaining wall
b. ground moisture
c. defective construction
72. To protect the top of a parapet wall from the action of rain water, it is provided with a
special course known as
a. drip course
b. string course
c. coping
d. cornice
73. To facilitate draining off rain water from the coping, sills, sunshades, a groove is cut on
the underside of these and this groove is known is
a. drip course
b. throating
c. string course
74. Portion of the wall left on the face of the door or window is called as
a. still
b. jamb
c. reveal
75. Generally in W.C., kitchens and bathrooms, the type of door used is
a. ledged and braced type
b. flush type
d. fully glazed
76. A horizontal member fixed in a door or window frame for the separation of fan light is
known as
a. Transom
b. Threshold c. Mullion
d. Sill
10and 90
b.
30and120
20and120
1
16
b. 5 mm
c. 8 mm
b. 150
c. 180
d. 200
86. The longest chain line passing through the centre of the area is known as
a. Base line
b. Tie line
b. Optical square
c. small areas with simple details d. large areas with simple details
92. If W is weight of the chain, L is the span and P is the tension or pull, the sag correction for chain line
will be
W 2 L2
24P 2
W 2L
24 P
W 2L
24P 2
W 2 L2
24 P
a.
b.
c.
d.
93. The angle that can be set by French cross staff is
a.
45
b.
90
c.
45or 90
94. The method of offset laying involving minimum measurement of the ground is
a. perpendicular offset method
c. zero
d. none of above
96. The angle of intersection of horizon mirror and index mirror of an optical square and
prism square is
a.
30
b.
45
c.
105
d.
120
b. Marking stations
d. Reconnaissance
90
0
0
at north
at south
102.
True meridians
103.
a. clock wise from the north point of the reference meridian towards the line of
105.
b.
90
c.
45
d.
30
magnetic declination
325
b.
205
c.
35W
215
d.
315
180
180
113. Inclination of the needle to the horizontal towards the pole is called
a. Dip
b. Declination c. Azimuth
d. Bearing
b. True declination
d. Azimuth
180
c. the fore and back bearing of the line should be exactly same but with opposite signs
d. none of the above
119. A 10 cm theodolite means that
a. length of its telescope is 19 cm
1. a
13. c
25. b
37. b
49. b
61. b
73. b
85. a
97. a
109.a
2. b
14. c
26. d
38. c
50. b
62. c
74. c
86. a
98. d
110.a
3. c
15. e
27. c
39. d
51. c
63. a
75. a
87. b
99. b
111.b
4. a
16. b
28. c
40. c
52. b
64. a
76. a
88. b
100. b
112.b
5. b
17. c
29. b
41. d
53. c
65. c
77. a
89. d
101. b
113. a
6. c
18. a
30. a
42. c
54. b
66. d
78. b
90. a
102. b
114. b
7. a
19. b
31. b
43. a
55. b
67. d
79. c
91. a
103. a
115. a
8. b
20. a
32. a
44. c
56. b
68. a
80. d
92. c
104. b
116. b
9. a
21. b
33. c
45. b
57. a
69. b
81. b
93. c
105. a
117. e
10. a
22. a
34. a
46. d
58. a
70. d
82. b
94. a
106. b
118. b
11. b
23. c
35. a
47. b
59. b
71. d
83. d
95. b
107. a
119. c
12. b
24. a
36. b
48. b
60. b
72. c
84. b
96. b
108. a
120.b