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Respiratory system BCQs

By
Sajid Ali Talpur

1. The best initial test for Pulmoanary TB is:


a) CXR
b) ESR
c) FNAC of lymph nodes
d) Sputum microscopy
e) PPD
Ans. D
2. A 25 years old man was sometimes ago diagnosed as a case of
pneumoconiosis. He has recently developed Tuberculosis. The most likely
pneumoconiosis was:
a) Baganossis
b) Byssinosis
c) Silicosis
d) Anthracosis
e) Asbestosis
Ans. C
3. The most common cause of community acquired pneumonia is:
a) Staph. Aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Klebsiella pneumniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Ans. B
4. A 50 years old man presents with respiratory symptoms and he is
diagnosed to have mild unilateral pleural effusion which is exudative in
type with low glucose and raised LDH. The doctor suspects the joint
problem as the underlying cause. What could it be?
a) Osteoarthritis
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Gout
d) Psoriatic arthritis
e) Infective arthritis
Ans. B
5. The most common benign tumor of lungs is:
a) Chondroma
b) Fbroma
c) Bronchial carcinoid
2

d) Pulmonary hamartoma
e) Cylindroma
Ans. D
6. Stony dull sound on percussion is the characteristics of:
a) consolidation
b) cavitation
c) fibrosis
d) Pleural effusion
e) malignancy
Ans. D
7. The volume of gas in lungs after maximal inspiration is called;
a) Total lung capacity
b) Residual volume
c) Vital capacity
d) Functional residual capacity
e) N.O.T
Ans. A
8. A 22 years old female patient presents with the clinical triad of dypnea,
cough and wheezing. She is most likely suffering from:
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Both b & c
e) Bronchiectasis
Ans. A

9. The most common finding in asthma patients is:


a) Wheezing
b) Dyspnea
c) Stridor
d) Cough
e) Both a & c
Ans. A
3

10.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Asthma + eosinophilia + granulomatous vasculitis constitutes:


Atopy
Sainters syndrome
Churg strauss syndrome
Aspergillosis
N.O.T

Ans. C
11.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Mtacholine challenge test differentiates between:


Asthma and chronic bronchitis
Asthma and emphysema
Asthma and COPD
Asthma and bronchiectasis
Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

Ans. C
12. Status asthmatics is defined as failure of asthma to resolve with
therapy in
a) 6 hour
b) 12 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 48 hours
e) One week
Ans. C

13. The most common triggers of exacerbation in acute severe asthma


are:
a) Viral infections
b) Pollens
c) Moulds
d) Bacterial infection
e) Exercise and emotional stress
Ans. A
14. The most important risk factor for COPD is:
a) 1 antitripsin deficiency
b) coal miners
4

c) chronic asthma
d) smoking
e) cannabis smoking
Ans. D
15.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

emphysema refers to permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to:


main bronchi
trachea
terminal bronchioles
respiratory bronchioles
bronchioles

Ans. C
16.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

all are true about centriacinar emphysema except:


it is the most common type
it occurs in the middle lobe
it occurs in heavy smokers
it is associated with chronic bronchitis
N.O.T

Ans. B

17. Which of the following lung condition is associated with 1 antitripsin


deficiency.
a) Chronic bronchitis
b) Liver cirrhosis
c) Panacinar emphysema
d) Both a & c
e) Centriacinar emphysema
Ans. C
18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Barrel chest is seen in:


Bronchiectasis
Asthma
Both a & b
Chronic bronchitis
A.O.T
5

Ans. D
19.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is not a feature of pink puffers:


Associated with emphysema
Thin patient
No cyanosis
No distress or dyspnea
Normal PaCO2

Ans. D
20.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

In COPD the diagnostic test of choice is:


CXR
PFTs
CT scan
MRI
CBC

Ans. B

21. Obstructive pattern on PFTs + negative methylcholine test + normal


DLCO = ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Asthma
Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Both a & c
Bronchiectasis

Ans. C
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Obstructive pattern on PFTs + decreased DLCO = ?


Asthma
Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Both a & c
Bronchiectasis

Ans. B
23.

Which of the following improves mortality in COPD patients:


6

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Anti-cholinergic agents
Short acting agonists
Long acting agonists
Long term oxygen therapy
Inhaled steroids

Ans. D
24. Which of the following should be avoided in acute exacerbation of
COPD
a) High concentration oxygen
b) Antibiotics
c) Short acting agonists
d) Oral steroids
e) Noninvasive ventilation
Ans. A

25.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common cause of Bronchiectasis in USA is:


Cystic fibrosis
Kartagener syndrome
TB
Bronchial tumors
Suppurative pneumonia

Ans. A
26.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most cause of bronchiectasis world wide is:


Cystic fibrosis
Kartagener syndrome
TB
Bronchial tumors
Suppurative pneumonia

Ans. C
27.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Kartagener syndrome is associated with


Asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Both b & c
Bronchiectasis
7

Ans. E
28.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The investigation of choice for Bronchiectasis is:


CXR
PFTs
CT scan
MRI
CBC

Ans. C

29.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

All are the complications of Bronchiectasis except:


Cor pulmonale
Metastatic brain abscess
Amyloidosis
Kartagener syndrome
N.O.T

Ans. D
30.
a)
b)
c)
d)

All of the following are features of cystic fibrosis except:


It is autosomal recessive
It is the most common fatal genetic disease in Caucasians
Mutations affect long arm of chromosome 7
There is decreased reabsorption of water and sodium from respiratory
epithelium
e) N.O.T
Ans. D

31.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Regarding cystic fibrosis all are true except:


There is recurrent pneumonia
Men are infertile
75% chances of diabetes in adults
May cause biliary cirrhosis and portal HTN
N.O.T

Ans. C
32.

The management plan for cystic fibrosis does not include:


8

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Pancreatic enzyme replacement


Chest physiotherapy
Vaccinations
Antibiotics
N.O.T

Ans. E

33.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common type of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is:


Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Non specific interstitial pneumonia
Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia
RBILD

Ans. A
34.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The Pathological pattern of usual interstitial pneumonia is found in:


Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Non specific interstitial pneumonia
Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia
RBILD

Ans. A
35.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Ground glass appearance is characteristics of:


Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Non specific interstitial pneumonia
Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia
RBILD

Ans. A
36. A 65 years old man presents with dry cough and progressive dypnea.
On examination he has finger clubbing, central cyanosis and Bi-basal fine
end inspiratory crepitations. CXR shows honey comb appearance. The
probable diagnosis is:
a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
b) Non specific interstitial pneumonia
9

c) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia


d) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia
e) RBILD
Ans. A

37.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Definitive therapy for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is:


Steroids
Oxygen
Lung transplantation
Pulmonary rehabilitation
Opiates

Ans. C
38.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

All of the following are features of sarcoidosis except:


It is multisystem disease
It causes caseating granulomas
Affects female more than male
CD4 T cells are mainly involved
N.O.T

Ans. B
39.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common site affected by sarcoidosis is:


Skin
Lungs
CNS
CVS
Hepatobiliary

Ans. B
40.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Which of the following is not the lab finding in sarcoidosis:


Increased ESR
Increased ACE
Hypercalcemia
Lymphopenia
Decreased CD4-CD8 ratio

Ans. E

10

41.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CXR findings in stage 2 of the sarcoidosis would include:


Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
BHL + parenchymal infiltrates
Parenchymal infiltrates without BHL
Pulmonary fibrosis

Ans. C
42.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

All of the following are true about hypersensitivity pneumonitis except:


Also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitis
It results from inhalation of inorganic antigens
It involves both type 3 and type 4 hypersensitivity reactions
CXR shows diffuse and nodular infiltrates
In acute form there is leukocytosis

Ans. B
43.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is a disease of rural areas:


Tuberculosis
Chronic bronchitis
Farmers lung
HIV/AIDS
N.O.T

Ans. C
44.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is associated with textile industries:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
Anthracosis
Asbestosis

Ans. B

11

45.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is seen in the workers of sugarcane factories:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
CWP
Asbestosis

Ans. A
46.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Egg shell appearance is the characteristics of:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
CWP
Asbestosis

Ans. C
47.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is associated with increased risk of mesothelioma:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
CWP
Asbestosis

Ans. E
48.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Dust cells are present in:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
CWP
Asbestosis

Ans. D

49. A 30 years old man complaining of respiratory symptoms is diagnosed


to have centrilobular emphysema. The patient is also suspected to have
pneumoconiosis. What could it be the most likely?
a) Baganossis
b) Byssinosis
c) Silicosis
d) CWP
12

e) Asbestosis
Ans. D
50.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It can cause black lung disease:


Baganossis
Byssinosis
Silicosis
CWP
Asbestosis

Ans. D
51. It is associated with pleural effusion, benign pleural plaques and lung
cancer.
a) Baganossis
b) Byssinosis
c) Silicosis
d) CWP
e) Asbestosis
Ans. E
52.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in in lungs is:


Pulmonary nodules
Pulmonary fibrosis
Pleural effusion
Pleurisy
Dyspnea

Ans. B

53.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Caplans syndrome consists of rheumatoid arthritis +______?


Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
COPD
Pneumoconiosis
Asthma

Ans. D
54. All are associated with SLE except:
a) Pulmonary thromboembolism
13

b)
c)
d)
e)

Acute alveolitis
Expansion of lungs
Pleurisy
N.O.T

Ans. C
55.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hidebound Chest is the characteristic feature of:


Pneumoconiosis
SLE
Tuberculosis
Systemic sclerosis
COPD

Ans. D
56.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Rankes complex form when Gohn complex undergoes


Fibrosis
Calcification
Necrosis
Both a & b
Apoptosis

Ans. D

57. Collapse and consolidation in case of primary pulmonary TB most


commonly involve:
a) Right upper lobe
b) Right middle lobe
c) Right lower lobe
d) Left upper and middle lobes
e) Left lower lobe
Ans. B
58.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Milliary TB is most commonly spread through the route:


Hematogenous
Lymphatics
Direct spread
Both a & b
A.O.T
14

Ans. A
59. A 30years old lady gives history of fever, night sweats, anorexia,
weight loss and cough for the 2 weeks. CXR shows 1-2 mm lesions
distributed throughout the lung fields. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Typical pneumonia
b) Atypical pneumonia
c) Pneumoconiosis
d) Sarcoidosis
e) Milliary T.B
Ans. E
60.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common extrapulmonary site of the TB is:


Liver
Bone
Lymph node
Meninges
GIT

Ans. C

61. The massive cervical lymph node enlargement with discharging


sinuses indicates:
a) Granuloma
b) Caseous necrosis
c) Non caseous necrosis
d) Scrofula
e) Gohn complex
Ans. D
62.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common lymph nodes involved by TB are:


Cervical
Mediastinal
Both a & b
Para aortic
Sub mandibular

Ans. C
63.

The most common site involved by GIT TB is:


15

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Terminal ileum
Ileocecal region
Cecum
Small intestine
Sigmoid colon

Ans. B
64.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Potts disease involves:


Femur
Radius
Spine
Lungs
Skull

Ans. C

65.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common site of spine affected by TB is:


Cervical
Lower cervical and upper thoracic
Lower thoracic and lumbar
Lumbar
Lumbosacral region

Ans. C
66. A 40 years old patient gives history of chronic back pain which was
initially diagnosed as discitis, now develops kyphosis and Psoas abscess.
The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Primary bone malignancy
b) Metastases from prostate
c) TB of spine
d) Infective arthritis
e) N.O.T
Ans. C
67. All of the following are tests for extrapulmonary TB except:
a) Bone marrow biopsy
b) Liver biopsy
16

c) Tissue biopsy
d) Fluid examination (CSF, Joint etc)
e) N.O.T
Ans. E

68.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Which of the following primary drug is contraindicated in pregnancy:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. D

69.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it causes hepatitis and peripheral neuropathy:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin

Ans. A
70.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Its toxicity gives orange red color to various body secretions:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. B
71.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Pyridoxine is necessary to combat the side effect of:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. A

17

72.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

color blindness may occur after the use of:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. C

73.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it may cause hyperuricemia and gout:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. D
74.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hepatitis and SLE like syndrome may be caused by:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. A
75.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hepatitis and thrombocytopenia may be caused by:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. B
76.
a)
b)
c)
d)

Vestibular nerve damage may be caused by:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
18

e) Streptomycin
Ans. E

77.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Agranulocytosis and nephrotoxicity may be caused by:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. E
78.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hepatitis and psychosis may be caused by:


Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
streptomycin

Ans. A
79.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it is not the second line drug for T.B.


amikacin
capteomycin
streptomycin
kanamycin
N.O.T

Ans. C
80.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Induration 5mm caused by PPD is considered positive in:


Prisoners
Healthcare workers
Hematologic malignancy
Alcoholics and diabetes mellitus
HIV positive patients

Ans. E
19

81.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is the most common cause of nosocomial pneumonia


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. D
82.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It causes atypical pneumonia


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. E
83.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is the most common cause of post influenza pneumonia


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. A
84.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Currant jelly sputum is the characteristics of infection caused by:


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. C

85.

Rust color sputum is characteristics of the infection caused by:


20

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. B
86.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It causes bilateral cavitatory bronchopneumonia


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. A
87.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

It is the most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbation of COPD:


Staph. Aureus
Legionella pneumophillia
Klebsiella pneumniae
Hemophilus influenzae
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. D
88.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The drug of choice in Klebsiella pneumoniae infection is:


Pencillin G
Amoxicilin
Both a & b
Azithromycin
Ceftriaxone

Ans. E

89.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It may cause infection in alcoholics and organ transplant patients:


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Legionella pneumophillia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
21

Ans. D
90.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is associated with water coolers and air conditioning:


Legionella pneumophilla
Hemophilus influenzae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. A
91.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Green sputum is the characteristics of infection caused by:


Staph. Aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. D
92. It is the most cause of death due to pneumonia associated with cystic
fibrosis:
a) Staph. Aureus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Klebsiella pneumniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e) Mycoplasma pneumonia
Ans. D

93. A 35 years old asthmatic patient gives the history of recurrent episodes
of brown flecked sputum. CT scan shows proximal bronchiectasis. The
most likely underlying cause is:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Aspergillus
c) Pneumoconiosis
d) TB
e) N.O.T
Ans. B
22

94.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common risk factor for fungal ball is:


Tuberculous cavities
Pulmonary infarct
Abscess cavity
Bronchietatic space
Pulmonary edema

Ans. A
95.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common risk factor for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is:
Advanced HIV
Hematologic malignancy
Severe COPD
Neutropenia caused by drugs
Immunocompromised patients

Ans. D
96.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The drug of choice for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is:


Amphotericin B
Clortimzole
Ketoconazole
Voriconazole
Steroids

Ans. D

97.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The earliest symptom produced by lung cancer is:


Cough
Blood in sputum
Chest pain
Weight loss
Dyspnea

Ans. A
98.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common type of lung cancer associated with smoking is:
Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
N.O.T
23

Ans. B
99. It is neuroendocrine in origin and associated with most of the
paraneuplastic syndromes:
a) Small cell lung cancer
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma
e) N.O.T
Ans. A
100.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Also known as oat cell carcinoma:


Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
N.O.T

Ans. A

101.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It presents as a central hilar mass. The histology shows keratin pearls:


Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
N.O.T

Ans. B
102.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is highly anaplastic undifferentiated tumor and may secrete hCG.


Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
N.O.T

Ans. D

24

103. It is located peripherally and is the most common cancer in


nonsmokers.
a) Small cell lung cancer
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma
e) N.O.T
Ans. C
104. It is associated with hypertrophic osteoarthropathy and often stain
mucin positive.
a) Small cell lung cancer
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma
e) N.O.T
Ans. C

105. Cushing syndrome and SIADH as a paraneuplastic syndromes are


caused by:
a) Small cell lung cancer
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma
e) A.O.T
Ans. A
106.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Gynecomastia as a paraneuplastic syndrome is caused by:


Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
A.O.T

Ans. D
107. Dermatomyositis and Acanthosis nigricans are caused by:
25

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Small cell lung cancer


Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
A.O.T

Ans. E
108.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is unresectable and often responds to radiation and chemotherapy:


Small cell lung cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large carcinoma
A.O.T

Ans. A

109.
a)
b)
c)
d)

All are true about Horners syndrome except:


Ipsilateral partial ptosis
Miosis
May be associated with pancoast syndrome
It is due to involvement of sympathetic chain at or below stellate
ganglion
e) Anhidrosis

Ans. D

110. It is the investigation of choice for the assessment of mediastinum and


possible metastasis in case of lung cancer.
a) CT scan
b) MRI
c) CXR
d) PET
e) Percutaneous aspiration and Biopsy
Ans. D

26

111. The most common complication of the following procedure is


pneumothorax.
a) CT scan
b) MRI
c) PET
d) CXR
e) Percutaneous aspiration and Biopsy
Ans. E
112. The most common lung abnormality associated with pulmonary
embolism is:
a) DVT
b) Atelactasis
c) COPD
d) Tachypnea
e) Dyspnea
Ans. B
113. A 40 years old man suddenly develops shortness of breath, tachypnea
following leg surgery.
CXR is normal. The most common underlying cause is:
a) Asthma
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Fat embolism
d) CCF
e) ARDS
Ans. B
114. The most common immediate cause of death following major surgery
in most of the cases is:
a) CCF
b) Fat embolism
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Hypovolemia
e) Sepsis
Ans. C
115.
a)
b)
c)

The gold standard investigation for pulmonary embolism is:


CT scan
MRI
PET
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d) CXR
e) Pulmonary angiography
Ans. E
116.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The first line diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism is:


CXR
MRI
PET
CT angiography
Pulmonary angiography

Ans. D

117.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common ECG finding in pulmonary embolism is:


Sinus tachycardia
Sinus bradycardia
Absence of p wave
Presence of u wave
Ventricular bradycardia

Ans. A
118.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hyaline membrane formation is associated with:


Pleural effusion
Pulmonary embolism
Fat embolism
CCF
ARDS

Ans. E
119. it is diagnosed as pulmonary hypertension when mean pulmonary
artery pressure at rest is
a) 15 mmHg
b) 20 mmHg
c) 25mmHg
d) 30mmHg
e) 35mmHg
Ans. C
120. All of the following are true about pleural effusion except:
a) There is decreased chest expansion
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b)
c)
d)
e)

Associated with meigs syndrome


About 200 ml fluid required to be detected on CXR PA view
SLE causes transudative effusion
N.O.T

Ans. D

121.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is not a feature of exudative pleural effusion.


LDH effusion 200 IU/ml
LDH effusion : serum ratio 0.6
Protein effusion : serum ratio 0.5
Caused by pancreatitis
N.O.T

Ans. E
122.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The most common cause of Spontaneous pneumothorax is:


Idiopathic
Paraseptal emphysema
Iatrogenic
Marfan syndrome
Positive pressure ventilation

Ans. A
123.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is not the feature of pneumothorax:


Sudden onset of dypnea
Tympanic percussion note
Breath sounds present
Pleuritic chest pain
N.O.T

Ans. C
124.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It is the volume of gas exhaled with maximal forced expiration


Total lung capacity
Residual volume
Vital capacity
Functional residual capacity
N.O.T

Ans. C
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125. Which of the following parameter is increased in obstructive lung


disease:
a) FEV1
b) FEV1/FVC
c) Both a & b
d) Total lung capacity
e) Peak expiratory flow rate
Ans. D
126. Which of the following parameter remains normal in restrictive lung
disease.
a) Residual volume
b) FEV1/FVC
c) Both a & b
d) Total lung capacity
e) Peak expiratory flow rate
Ans. E
127.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

All are true about asthma except:


It is reversible disorder
There is variable air flow obstruction
Extrinsic asthma is associated with hay fever and eczema
In intrinsic asthma IgE levels are increased
N.O.T

Ans. D
128.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The immediate treatment of tension pneumothorax is:


Chest intubation
Needle decompression
Bronchodilators
Steroids
N.O.T

Ans. B

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129.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

In case of hypoxemia best initial test should be:


CXR
ABGs
Pulse oximetry
PFTs
CT scan

Ans. B
130.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Tension pneumothorax should be diagnosed on


CXR
CT scan
PFTs
ABGs
Clinical basis

Ans. E

Note: Please notify me the mistakes if I have made any.

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