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    Microbiology McQ

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    Microbiology MCQ

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    Microbiology McQ

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    \chievers MDS Academy India’s Leading Academy in MDS Entrance Examinations Complete Course 2016-17 Subject Test - MICROBIOLOGY 1 Question Booklet April 3, 2016 www.achieversmdsacademy.com +91 8758094554, +91 9974112761, +91 9850636866 1, Hemolytic Streptococci can cause serious cross infections in hospital settings. These bacteria usually harbor which site in health workers working in the hospitals: A. Skin 8. Hair C. Nails D. Throat 2. Endotoxins are produced by: A. Fungi 8. Gram +ve bacteria . Virus D. Gram ~ve bacteria 3, Mycotic abscesles are due to: A. Bacterial Infection B. Fungal infection. C. Viral infection. D. Mixed infection 4. In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenic mechanism except A. Vibrio cholerae 8. Shigella C. Vibrio parahemolyticus D. Staphylococcus aureus 5, Process of tissue culture is known as?, ‘A. Macro propagation B. Micro propagation C. Vegetative propagation D. Chemical propagation 6. Post streptococcal’aciite glomerulus nephritis is an ‘example for A. Type I hypersensitivity’ B. Type Il hypersensitivity C. Type Ill hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity 7. Grave's disease is an example of which type of immunologic response A.Typel 8. Type I! C. Type Ill D. Type IV 8. Rh incompatibility is which type of hyper sensitivity reaction? A. Typel 8. Type Il C. Type lll D. Type IV 9. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis C. Treatment D. Epidemiological investigations 10. All are true relation to scrub typhus except? A. Mites act as reservoir B, Tetracycline is the drug of choice C. Transmitted when adult mites feed dn\host D. Caused by 0. Tsutsugamushi 11, The genetic ability ofa bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics Is passed from one bacterium to other by A. Conjugation B. Rarefaction) C. Transduction D. Transformation 12. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one tell to ahather is known as: ‘Transduction. B. Transformation. C. Transcription. D. Integration. 13. The specific test for Treponema palildum is A. VDRL B. Kahn’s test C.TPHA D. Widal test 114, Some bacteria get encapsulated to A. Achieve protection from phagocytosis B, To produce spores C.To increase penetration capacity D.To multiply 15. Most antibodies are produced in the: A. Heart and the liver B, Brain and the meninges C. Thymus and the appendix D. Spleen and the Lymph nodes 16. Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except A. Through plasmids B. Incorporating part of host DNA ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 1 C. Through bacteriophages D. Through conjugation 17. True about bacteroides is all except A. Susceptible to most of the antibiotics B, Present mainly in mixed infection €. They are bile resistant anaerobes D. B. fragilis is most virulent 18. The “window period” in HIV infection means: A. The time Lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies B, The time (apse between the infection and development of AIDS C. The time Lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab D. None of the above 19. All are true about viruses except: A. Do not show latency between inoculation and disease B. Enveloped virus are more susceptible to environmental conditions C. The nucleic acid is either RNA or DNA D. Are obligate intracellular parasites 20. Culture medium of choice for Candida albiéans Ist A. Sabouraud's agar B, Potissium tellurite medium €. Thayer martin medium D. Mac Conkey’s agar 21. Staphylococci typically occurs in, A. Pairs B. Chains C.Tetrads D. Irregular Clusters: 22. Leprosy bacillijcambe grown in A. Foot paid on ninéibranded armadilo B, Tail of guinea pig C. Testes of albino rats D. Testes of guinea pig 23. Positive Shick's test indicates that person is, A. Immune to diptheria B, hypersensitive to diptheria C. Susceptible to diptheria D. Carrier of diptheria 24. In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a: A. Hapten B. Carrier C. Super antigen ©. Toxin 25. First released Immunoglobulin after primary immunization Aled Bilge CleG D. IgM 26. Ig predominant in saliva is: Alea Bled Cle D.IgM 27. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except: A. Neisseria meningitides B Salmonella typhi. C Streptococeus pyogenes. D. Legionella pneumophila. 28, AWark field microscope would.be useful in ‘examining blood for ‘A. Treponema Actinomyces C Streptococcus D. Mycobacterium 29. First organism to appear in oral cavity: A. Streptococcus sanguis 8. Strept. salivarious CC Strept. mutans D. Lactobacilli 30. In a patient with typhoid, diagnosis after 15 days of onset of fever is best done by: A Blood culture 8, Widal's test C. Stool culture D. Urine culture 31. Acute otitis media in children is most commonly due to: AH. influenzae 8. M. catarrhalis .Steptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus 32. Zero growth rate is observed during one of the phases of the bacterial growth curve: A. Lag wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 2 B. Exponential growth C. Stationary phase D. Decline 33. For uniform staining reaction, morphology & biochemical activity, it is advisable to study bacterial cultures during the A. Lag phase B. Death phase C. Stationary phase D. Logarithmic phase 34, Anaphylaxis refers to the A. Severe reaction followings the injection of protein solutions in a sensitized individual 8, Severe reaction following primary injection of protein solutions C. State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance D. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to ‘common allergens 35, Polypeptide capsule is seen in ‘A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Clostridium welchii ©. Staphylococcus aureus D. Bacillus anthracis 36. Which organism causes prosthetic valve endocarditis within 60 days of surgery A. Streptococcus viridans B. Staphylococcus epidermis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Fungus 37. Bacteria reprodute mainly by A. Budding B. Binary fission, C. Sporing D. Bacterial components produced by host cells 38. Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is: A. Brain B. Liver C. Spleen D. Lungs 39, Hot air oven is used for sterilization of all EXCEPT: A, Glassware 8. Rubber tubes CC. Sharp instrument D. Liquid paraffin 40. When a horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit and again into the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs at the site of the second injection A. Atropy B. Anaphylaxis €. Serum sickness D. Arthus phenomenon 41. Which of the following organisms are arranged in cubical packets of eight cocci A. Staphylococcus B, Micrococcus C.Sarcina D. Aerococcus 42, Moist heat kills all of the following EXCEPT: A. Brucella B, Mycobacterium C. Salmonella D. Coxiella butnetti 43, The property of splitting sugars by bact called! A. Saprophytic B Taxagenic CSaccharolytic D. Virulence 44, The medium of choice for growing most fungi is A. Blood Agar B. Tissue culture C. Sabourauds agar D. Thioglycollet medium 45. Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture of which of the following: A. Salk vaccine B. Tetanus toxoid C. Sabin’s oral vaccine D. ALL of the above 46. Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify: ‘A. Mycoplasma B. Chlamydiae C Rickettsiae D. Spirochaetes 47. Immunoglobulin crossing placenta is Alem B.lgA C.lgG D.lgD ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 3 48. All of the following are true regarding chlamydia trachomatis except: A. It has a bipha'sic life B. Inside the cell it evades phagolysosome C. Reticulate body divides by binary fission D. Elementary body is metabolically active 49. Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to A. increase toxigenicity B. increase antigenicity C. reduce the antigenicity D. reduce the toxigenicity 50. HIV can be detected and confirmed by: ‘A. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). B. Reverse Transcriptase-PCR. C. Real Time PCR. D. Mimic PCR. 51. True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by - A. Cats B. Dogs C. Rats D. Cow 52. Which of the following is anaerobic: A. E.coli B. Bacteroides C. Pseudomonas D. Klebsiella 53. Which of the following statements related to cross-infection is not true? A. blood, saliva are fegarded as fomites with respect to infection transmission, 8. viral infections are unlikely to spread during the prodromal stage C. prions are resistantito conventional sterilization methods D. Droplet nuclei less than 100 /Im in diameter are entrained in the air for many hours 54. True about meningococci vaccine is A. Capsule polysaccharide act as a virulent factor for the production of antibody B. Conjugate vaccine not given in outbreaks C. Polysaccharide vaccine should be given to children below 2 years of age D. Vaccine with Polysaccharide B is immunogenic 55. Chlamydia causes all of the following except A. Trachoma 8, Mon-gonococcal urethritis © Pneumonia D. Parotitis 56. The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is: ‘A. Apthous stomatitis B, Tuberculosis C. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D. Herpetic gingivostomatitis 57. Gram positive cocci which produce greenish colonies when cultured on blood agar, 's bile insoluble and does not produce Jésions When inoculated intra peritonially in\mice is: A, Streptococcus mitis. B, Streptococcus pyogenes C Pneumococci D. Staphylococci auteus 58. Whichof the following is not a feature of anaphylaxis? A. Delayed reaction B.Imiediate reaction C.Passiveltransfer by serum 1D. Non@’éf the above 59. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical mycobacteria by A. Niacin test B. AFB staining PAS staining D. None 60. Influenza is caused by A. Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus 8, Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus C. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus D. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus G1. Signs of typhoid fever is / are ‘A. Haemorrhage B. Perforation C Osteomyelitis D.All of the above 62. All are true about Widal test except one A Baseline titer differ depending on endemicity of the disease 8. H agglutinins cannot differentiate between types CO agglutinins lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection D. Antibiotic treatment can modify results wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 4 63, Synthesis of antibodies in plasma cells occurs In: A. Golgi body B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Nucleus D. Mitochondria 64. The difference between gram positive and negative bacteria lies in their A. Cell wall 8. Cell membrane C. Nuclear material D. Mesosomes 65. Toxoids are A. antigenic and toxic 8. antigenic and non-toxic C. non-antigenic and toxic D. non-antigenic and non-toxic 66. Pleoniorphic' shape of bacteria signifies: ‘A. Dumb-bell shaped bacteria 8. Irregular clusters of bacteria C. Non specific shape D. Long rods shaped bacteria 67. Virus is usually cultured in: ‘A, Rogosa blood agar B. Sabourouds medium C. Non embryonated hen eggs D. Embryonated hen eggs 68. Antibody to HSV will begin to appear A. Ina week and reach apeakin weeks 8. Only after one year C. No antibodies are présentin primary HSV D. Antibodies are present In recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis 69. Immunity that iS\conferred to the foetus by transfer of IgG and IgA antibodies is called as A. Active acquired immunity B. Passive acquired Immunity C. Natural active immunity D. Passive natural immunity 70. EB virus is associated with which carcinoma: A. Carcinoma of larynx B. Carcinoma of bladder C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia 71. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are A, Gram positive organisms. B. Gram negative organisms. C. Mycoplasma, D. Virus infections. 72. Most of the drug resistance occurs due to A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Mutation D. Conjugation 73. Killer and Helper cells are parfof: A.Bcells B.Tcells C. Monocytes D. Macrophage 74, Delayedituberculin.test response is due to A. B Lymphocytes B. Tlymphocytes C. Monocytes, D. Histiocytes. 7S. Graft versus hast reaction is caused by ‘B-lymphocytes B. T-lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Leukocytes 76. Micro-organisms that grow optimally between 25-40°C are called: A. Thermophilic B. Cryophilic C. Mesophilic D. Psychrophilic 77. Candida albicans causes all of the following except A. Endocarditis B. Mycetoma C. Meningitis D. Oral thrush 78, A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 "Rs" ie, rats, ricefields, and rainfall is A. Leptospirosis. B. Plague. C. Melioidosis. D. Rodent-bite fever. 79. Which of the following is an enrichment medium? ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 5 A. Blood agar B, Selenite F Broth C. Mac Conkey agar D. Nutrient Broth 80. Commonest mycobacterial infection in tropical countries A.M. Leprae 8. M. Avium intracellulare C. M. Tuberculosis D. Kansasi 81. Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species? A. M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis tothe humans B. M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis C.M. Africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source D. M. Marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy 82. The type of immunoglobulin most commonly increased in multiple myeloma is Ags B.leA Clem D. gD 83. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum? A. IgGl B. lec ©.1gG3 D.IgG4 84. Which of the following is true: A. Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodénturine and faces B. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of / wild animal C. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks D. None 85. Which of the following is true regarding conjugation in bacteria: A. Sex pili is necessary B. Transfer Of double stranded DNA occurs . Lysis of donor bacteria D. Requires restriction endonuclease 86. IL-1 and TNF - a during Inflammation are secreted by A. Plasma cells B, Activated macrophages C Lymphocytes 0. Platelets 87. Which of the following distinguishes viral infections from other microbial assaults: A. Toxin production 8. Production of interferon C Lymphocyte production D. Neutrophil production 88, Secretary piece of IgA is synthesize A.T-cells, 8. B-cells C.Lymph nodes D. Mucosal epithelium ‘89. Anaerobicibacteria can be cultured in A. Le. mediuny B. Robertson cooked meat medium ‘G,Loéfflers medium D. Sabourauds agar 90 Exotoxins are: A. Lipid-polysaccharide complex B, Protein compound . Lipoprotein D. None 91. Lance field grouping of streptococci is based on: A.M protein B. Cell wall peptidoglycan C.Lipopolysaccharide capsule D. Carbohydrate C antigen ‘92. Phase contrast microscopy is based on A. Light scatter B, Different refractive indices of object Light attenuation D. Different reflective index 93, Nagglers reaction detects- A. Coagulase 8, Hyaluronidase C Lecithinase D. None of the above ‘94. An advanced diagnostic technique which has been suggested as an alternative to culture methods is: wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 6 ‘A. Phase contrast microscopy. 8. Direct immunofiurescence. C. Latex agglutination. D. Indirect immunofiuorscent microscope assays. 95. Microorganisms of which of the following genera are most predominant in the normal oral flora A. Bacillus B. Streptococcus C. Lactobacillus D. Staphylococcus 96. Portion of Immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight of 50000: A, Secretary piece 8. H chain C. Lehain D.J piece 97. Sterilization means: A. Kills all pathogens B. Kills all organisms in a specific environment C. Kills pathogenic organisms but not spores D. Kill spores and only pathogenic organisms 98. What is sterilization? A. Destroying all organism in a given environment B. Destroying all organism except spores . Kills all pathogenic organism D. Deactivate the spores and only pathogenic organism. 99, Physical sterilization was discovered by: ‘A. Robert Koch B. Joseph Lister C. John Hunter D. Alexander Flemings 100. It is truewegarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin arid mucous membranes that A. it cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents. B. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH. C. Itestablishes in the body only after the neonatal period. D. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea. 101. Pseudomonas, true is all except A. Itisa strict aerobe 8, It grows in antiseptic solution . It can cause endogenous infection D. Most common organism in burnt patient 102. The component that sensitizes bacteria and virus to UV Irradiation A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Inorganic salts D. Nucleic acid 103. Oral polio vaccine, all are true except A. Killed vaccine B. Stored at subzero temp. C. Induces intestinal and humoral immunity D. Residual neurovirulence is a problem 104. All of the following are true about acute infection except: A. Specific IgM antibody octurs ih acute infection B. Specific lgM indicates rubellalimimune status C. Immunofluorescence\is useful in detecting influenza infection D. ELISA is'Useful in Hepatitis 8 infection 105eAn example of naturally acquired passive immunity is: ‘A. Tetafus immunization B. Gamma globulin injection ‘©. Immiine blood transfusion ‘0 )Placentral transfer of antibodies 106. Type | hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins Alea. B.IgG. C.lgM. D. lee. 107. Alll are true about Leptospirosis except: A. Penicillin G is drug of choice B. Urine and faeces are main mode of transmission C. IgM is formed in 5 days D. Latent period is 10 days 108. Immunoglobin, which is produced first by the fetus in response to Infection A.lgG B.IgA Clem D. led 109. The Ig found in exocrine secretions is: A.lgG B.IgD C.lgM D. IgA ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 7 110. A child on administration of Penicillin developed fever, rashes, urticaria and swelling. It is due to: A. |g E mediated hypersensitivity B, Delayed hypersensivity C. lg G mediated hypersensitivity D. Immune complex cytotoxicity 111. The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as A. Clone B. Epitope €.Idiotope D. Paratope 112. The mechanism by which most fungi cause disease A. Exotoxin production B. Lecithinase production C. Hypersensitivity D. Coagulase production 113. Regarding leptospirosis all are true except: A. It isa zoonosis B, Lice act as reservoirs of disease ©. Humans are accidental hosts of the disease D, Humans are the end hosts 114. All of the following clinical features are associated with enteroviruses except A. Myocarditis, B. Pleurodynia C. Herpangina D. Hemorrhagic fever 115. The following hépatitis\virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route: A. Hepatitis B Virus B. Hepatitis CVirUs C. Hepatitis D Virus D. Hepatitis € Virus 116. Both intranulear and intracytoplasmic inclusions: are present in which of the following viruses A. Pox Virus 8. Measles virus C. Hepatitis B virus D.HIV 117. All of the following infections may be transmitted by dental instruments except ALHIV B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis E 118. Streptococcus mutans can be distinguished from ‘other streptococci by ‘A. Production of extracellular polysaccharides 8, Fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol C. Hemolysis on blood agar D. Optochin sensitivity 119. Stain used for histologic demonstration of candida hyphae A.PAS B, Carbol fuschin C. Hematoxylin & Eosin! D. Acridine orange 120. Sunlight has stetilizingieffect becau: ‘A. Ithas short wavelength B. Ithas long wavelength C Heat is present D. Ozone is présent in the environment 121. Prieumocdccus can be differentiated from streptococcus by 1A. Type'f hemolysis 8..Gram staining C. Growth characteristics D. Bile solubility 122. All the following is true about Yersinia pestis except: A. Transmitted by bite of fleas B, Lipopolysaccharide forms major exotoxin C. Grows at 25°C D. Shows bipolar appearance 123. Which of the following is a true statement? ‘A. Gomori- Methanamine silver stains the fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci green 8, Gram negative bacteria appear .red in Gram staining grain positive bacteria appear black D. Calcalour white stains acanthamoeba red 124, Kolmer test A. Syphilis B, Tuberculosis C. Gonorrhea ©. Lymphoma a screening test done for 125. H. pylori infection is seen in all except: A. Duodenal ulcer wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page & 8. Gastric carcinoma C. Gastric lymphoma D. Fundal gastritis 126. Best method of sterilizing disposable syringes: A. Hot air oven 8. UV rays C. Gamma rays D. Boiling 127. Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective for mosquito A. Trophozoite B. Ookinete C. Gametocyte D. Sporozoite 128. Actinomycetes is A. Gram positive bacteria 8. Gram negative bacteria C. Fungus, D. A yeast like form 129. Organism most resistant to sterilization: A. Prions 8. Spores C. Fungus D. Mycobacteria 130. A protoplast is best described as a bacterial cell A. With a cell wall but free of capsule B. Containing a cell wall and a capsule C. Free of cell wall and capsule D. Uniquely sensitive topenicillin 131. Multiple drug résistance ofibacteria depends on which of the following? A. Resistance transfer factor (RTF) B. Colicigeni¢factor (Col) . Fertility facton(F 4y D. All of above 132. Acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis true is: ‘A. Meningitis caused by acanthamoeba species: is acute in nature 8. Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoite in CSF C. Feco-oral transmission occurs D. More common in tropical climate 133. All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true except ‘A. Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people B, About 30% of general population is healthy nasal carriers C. Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigen D. Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated 134. A 39-year old female presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Corynebacterium species C. Enterococcus species, D. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 135. Blood agar is A. Simple media 8. Transport media C. Enriched media D. Differentialmedia 136,,All are true regarding Donavanosis except: 1A. The Causative organism is Calymmatobacter eranulomatis B. Causes painful ulcerative genital lesions C. Endemic in tropical areas D. Syphilis can occur concomitant with it 137. Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of microorganisms is determined by A. Direct microscopy B. Culture C. ELISA D. DNA probe 138. All of the following are potential pathogens of ororpharynx except: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. N. meningitidis C. E.coli D.H. influenzae 139. Causative organism for gas gangrene A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium welchii C.E. Coli D. Strep. Faecalis 140. False about Staphylococcus lugdunensis A. Skin commensal ‘wwwaachieversmdsacademy.com Page 9 B. Causes infection of native valve C. Does not produce coagulase D. Susceptible to antimicrobial 141. Characteristic feature of retiovirus is: A. Ribonuclease B. Reverse transcriptase C. DNA polymerase D. Restriction endonuclease 142. Bacteria used in probiotics is A. Bifidobacterium B.E. coli C. Diphtheria D. All 143. Opacity around colonies of Clostridium. perfringens is due to - A. Theta toxin B. Lecithinase C. Desmotase D. Cytokinin 144. Phagocytosis enhanced by coating the surface of antigen is called A. Opsonisation 8, Chemotaxis C. Decoding D.CFT 145. Techoic acid is present in A. Cell wall of Gram positive organisms 8. Cell wall of Gram negative organisms C. Cytoplasm of Gram positive organisms D. Cytoplasm of Gram negative organisms 146. Which of the following is true regarding cryptosporidial infection? A. Causes fulminant diarrhea in AIDS patients B, Itis highly sensitive to aminoglycosides like tobramycin C. Cysts can be removed by water chlorination D. Immunocompromised patients are less susceptible than immunocompetent 147. Effector region of immunoglobulin is ‘A. Constant region of light and heavy chain B. Variable region of light and heavy chain C. Constant region of heavy chain D. Variable region of heavy chain 148. The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle Is A. Transformation 8, Translation C Conjugation D. Lysogeny 149. Tuberculin test screens for ‘A. Humoral immunity 8, Cell mediated immunity . Complement function D. Phagocyte dysfunction 150. Which of the following enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot by pathogenic staphylococci A. Lysozymet 8. Fibrinolystin C. Coagulase D. S-protein 151. Whichiof the follawing enzyme is required to induce the formation of a plasma clot pathogenic staphylococci A Lysozyme 8. Fibrinolysin C. Coagulase ©.S protein 152. The best way to sterilize an instrument soaked in AIDS virus is: ‘A. Dip the instrument in glutaraldehyde B. Moist autoclaving C Clean and autoclave with dry heat D. Boiling for 1 hour 153. Complement binding Inmunoglobin via the classical pathway is - A.leG & IgM BIg & IgA C.lgG & IgD D.IgD & IgE 154, Pentameric structure: Alem BlgG CigA D.lgD 155. Endoscopes are sterilized by using: A. Autoclaving 8. Boiling ¢.Cidex D. Gamma radiation wwwachieversmdsacademy.com Page 10 156. Hepatitis E virus causes which of the following: A. Chronic liver disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Chronic renal failure D. Acute liver failure 157. Australian antigen is associated with: A. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis, 8. AIDS C. Chronic leukemia D. Basal cell carcinoma 158. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following: A. Common variable immuno deficiency syndrome 8, Severe combined immuno deficiency syndrome C. Chronic granulomatous disease D. Nezelofs syndrome 159. The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is A. Chocolate agar 8. Robertson’s cooked-meat broth C. Chorio allantoic membrane D. Sabourad’s agar 160. Rabertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of: A. Clostridia B. S.epidermidis . Cholera D. Mycobacterium 161. The cell wall deficient bacteria A. Rickettsiae B. Mycoplasma C. Chlamydiae D. Ehrtichiae 162. Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis: A. Staphylococcus 8. Shigella C. Chlamydia D. Yersenia 163. All are true regarding Bordetella Pertussis except: A. Nasopharyngeal swab is taken as a sample for diagnosis 8, Antibody immunoassay is diagnostic . Children and adults who are vaccinated can have disease later in life D. Causes whooping cough. 164. The binding site for complement on the IgG. molecule is in the A. Vi domain B. CL domain C. CHI domain 1D. CH2 domain 165. Serum sickness syndrome is an example of A. Anaphylactic shock B. Systemic arthus reaction C. Cell mediated immunity D. Angioneurotic edema 166. The earliest identifiable cells of T-Cell Lineage during maturation are A. CD7 + Pro-T-Cells B. CD4+ Pre-T-Cells C. CD8+ Pro-T-Calls D. CD8+ Pre-T-Cells 167

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