BIOL237

Question

Answer

The layer missing from thin skin

stratum lucidum

The layer which constantly exfoliates

stratum corneum

Its cells contain numerous keratin

filaments

stratum spinosum

This layer undergoes constant mitosis

stratum basale

Its cells contain dense keratin granules

stratum granulosum

gap junctions

Allows ions to pass between cells. These

allow osteocytes to exchange calcium
ions.

tight junctions

Called the zona occludens because it

blocks passage of substances between
cells. Their presence is responsible for
making a cellular membrane semipermeable.

desmosome

Called macula adherens because they

are like spot welds which adhere cells
together

keratin filaments

fibers which hold cells together laterally

hemidesmosome

adheres cells to the basement

membrane (attach epithelial cells to the
basement membrane)

Which of the following forms the structure

fibrocartilage
of the intervertebral disks?
Which of the following is NOT one of the
basic tissue types into which all other
tissues fall:

Loose

osteoclasts are stimulated by:

parathyroid hormone

The cell derived from osteoprogenitor

cells which produces ossification is the:

osteoblast

Insufficient _____ is associated with

osteoporosis.

Vitamin D3

The first location of ossification in long

bones is the:

diaphysis bone collar

The olfactory nerves pass through the

cribriform plate, ethmoid bone
____ of the _____ on their way to the brain.
The _____ are intracapsular ligaments
which help to prevent anteroposterior
displacement and twisting of the knee.

anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

All true diarthrotic joints have a joint

capsule composed of:

synovial membrane

The type of arthritis which begins with

damage to articular cartilage from stress osteoarthritis
or injury is called:
The series elastic elements of a muscle
are composed of the various connective
titin
tissues and proteins including the protein
_____.
In order to produce an action potential on
the sarcolemma, depolarization at the
voltage-gated ion channels
neuromuscular junction must activate:
Movement in which the thigh is raised
toward (lifted forward against) the
abdomen (torso) is _____ of the hip.

flexion

What is the origin of melanocytes?

Neural crest cells (or nervous tissue)

What features of the epidermis function to

protect against mutation and tumor
The presence of melanin and apoptosis.
production due to exposure to UV
(Not the presence of keratohyaline.
radiation?
What characteristic of melanocytes makes
them the most likely to metastasize of all Ability to migrate.
skin cell types?
In order to metastasize from the skin a
cell must break through the:

Basement membrane.

Osteoclasts are similar to monocytes in

being phagocytic, but they differ from
monocytes in that:

They digest the target particles

externally, not internally.

Bone remodeling never ceases throughout

True. When bone breaks down faster
a person's life, although the breakdown
than it builds up a person gets disorders
can exceed buildup in bone
such as osteoporosis.
demineralization disorders.
The bone built by osteoblasts is totally

False, it is considered immature and

mature and doesn't need to be further

remodeled.

must be further remodeled in order to

achieve its maximum strength and
functionality.

They are the areas of bone being

remodeled at any given time. About 10
Which of the following is true about bone bmus will fit into a total bone area of
maintenance units:
about a millimeter. Over a time period of
about 2 yrs, all bmus in the skeleton will
have been remodeled.
The trabeculae in a subject with postmenopausal osteoporosis:

Have more frequent active bmus. Have

deeper resorption cavities. Have gaps
that are not ossified.

Provide a substrate on which the patients

The function of ECM (extracellular matrix)
own cells can grow. Provide growth
is to:
factors to stimulate cell growth.
Because ECM is very similar between
different species there is little chance of This is true. Not only is it similar it is very
rejection when transplanting porcine ECM inert to begin with.
into the human body.
Unlike most phagocytic cells, these
release their digestive enzymes outside
the cell.

osteoclasts

These cells are actively secreting the

matrix:

fibroblasts

The symphysis pubis is composed of:

fibrocartilage

The last location within a long bone to

harden is the:

distal epiphyseal plate

The component responsible for the

hardness and rigidity of bone is (What is
the name of the chemical substance
hydroxyapatite
which is most abundant in inorganic bone
matrix?):
This hormone stimulates closure
(hardening) of the epiphyseal plates and
end to growth of the long bones.

estrogen

The hormone which is thought to

calcitonin
stimulate uptake of calcium into bone
tissue in children (While this may work for
bone growth in children, it is not present

in adults):
Post-menopausal osteoporosis is
characterized by ___ parathyroid hormone Lower than normal
in the blood.
Senile (age-related) osteoporosis is
characterized by ___ calcium levels in the Lower than normal
blood.

estrogen

This is deficient in post-menopausal

women. The primary component in
hormone replacement therapy used to
treat post-menopausal osteoporosis.

testosterone

this is used as an anabolic steriod to

stimulate growth.

Growth Hormone

When abused as a supplement, this can

cause Linked to acromegaly and a form
of type II diabetes. This hormone has
effects which block insulin in the body.

Parathyroid hormone

This is suppressed by high calcium in

post-menopausal osteoporosis. This is at
high levels in senile osteoporosis.

Vitamin D3

This is produced in insufficient amounts

in senile osteoporosis. This, together with
calcium supplements, is given to treat
senile osteoporosis.

Skin is designated as thick if it:

Has the stratum lucidum

The intervertebral disks are composed of: fibrocartilage

Microvilli increase area on the _____
surface.

apical

The component of connective tissues

responsible for maintaining hydration is:

proteoglycans

Low _____ and high _____ is a

characteristic of senile osteoporosis.

Vitamin D3, PTH

Scar tissue is the repair seen in:

areolar tissue, tendons and ligaments

(but not bone)

Low _____ and high _____ is a

characteristic of post-menopausal
osteoporosis.

PTH, serum calcium

The first step in repair of most tissues and

Production of a hematoma.
organs is:
There are already high levels of serum
calcium in post-menopausal
Briefly explain why calcium supplements
osteoporosis, but due to the lack of
would be given in senile osteoporosis, but
Vitamin D, calcium absorption is low in
not post-menopausal osteoporosis.
senile osteoporosis. So calcium and
Vitamin D supplements are given.
Merkel disks are fine discriminative touch
receptors concentrated on tips of fingers
Briefly explain the difference in
and around lips. Meissner's corpuscles
perception and distribution on the body of are non-discriminative/crude touch
Merkel Disks vs. Meissner's Corpuscles.
receptors found not only on fingers,
palms, soles, lips, areolae, but generally
all over skin.
The ability of a blind person to feel braille
markings is due to the _____ _____. (Name merkel disks (or merkel discs)
of the receptor, plural form)
The processes of osteocytes travel
through small canals known as _____ in
order to connect with one another. Use
plural form of anatomical term.

canaliculi

What component of the bone matrix is

most important in providing resistance to organic materials
stress?
Collagen fibers which form a continuous
connection from the periosteum to the
bone are called?

Sharpey's fibers

Most bones begin their ossification as:

Hyaline cartilage

In both ossification and bone repair,

chondroblasts become _____, the cell
important in building up new bone.

Osteoblasts

In both ossification and bone remodeling,

osteoblasts become _____, the cell which Osteocytes
maintains bone.
The hormone responsible for calcium
homeostasis is:

Parathyroid hormone

When is someone most likely to

experience problems with the temporomandibular joint?

TMJ disorder usually occurs in young

people and disappears as the bones
mature. In older adults it results mostly

from teeth grinding and clenching and

can be corrected with behavior
adaptation or oral appliances.
What is the function of the nasal
conchae?

Increase the surface area of the nasal

lining.

What is the function of the paranasal

sinuses?

Make the bone lighter.

What is most important in supporting the

shoulder while allowing great range in
Muscles.
motion?
Medial and lateral collateral ligaments are
Hinge joints
found in:
This movement, in which the head is lifted
extension
away from the chest is ____ of the head.
What is the smallest unit in a muscle
which can shorten?

The sarcomere

What is the direct trigger for the exposure

Ca+2 released into the sarcoplasm
of the active sites on actin?
What happens as a direct result of Ach
Na+ enters the sarcoplasm.
stimulating receptors on the sarcolemma?
When which ion gates open does the
action potential begin?

Voltage-gated Na+ channels

Where does the calcium come from which

The sarcoplasmic reticulum
triggers crossbridge formation?
Which of the following cells produces the
Oligodendrocytes
myelin sheath in the CNS?
Which of the following cells is important in
Schwann cells
nerve fiber regeneration?
A structure in the CNS that is analogous
with a nerve?

Tract

Which tract carries pain, temperature,

touch and pressure?

Spinothalamic

Which tracts reach the cerebral cortex?

Spinothalamic and Fasciculus gracilis and

cuneatus

There are how many pair of spinal

nerves?

31

The femoral nerve arises from which

plexus?

Lumbar

The axillary nerve arises from which

plexus?

Brachial

The sciatic nerve forms which of the

following?

Tibial and peroneal (fibular)

Which part of the brain is the origin of

upper motor neurons?

Pre-central gyrus

Which part of the brain would receive

stimuli from the spinothalamic tract?

Post-central gyrus

Which part of the brain would connect to

both auditory areas and Brocas area?

Wernickes area

Too much dopamine, or malformation of

which part is believed to be a cause of
schizophrenia?

Pre-frontal lobe

Lack of dopamine secreted into the _____

Basal Nuclei
is the cause of Parkinsons?
Which part facilitates reflexes of a skilled
Basal nuclei
and repetitive nature?
Which part would contain the reflex
center for blinking?

Corpora qadrigemina (or Superior

Colliculi)

Which part contains the respiratory

center?

Medulla

Which part controls most endocrine

glands?

Hypothalamus

Visual signals would travel to which parts?

Pineal Gland, thalamus, superior colliculi

of midbrain, occipital lobe

The part of the limbic system which

activates fear and other emotional
responses:

Amygdala

What is the anatomical term for the

semimovable joints?

Amphiarthroses

Both hinge and pivot joints are:

Uniaxial

Biaxial joints and multiaxial joints can

perform which of the following
movements that uniaxial joints cannot

Adduction-abduction and circumduction

perform.
What two parts come together to produce Trochlea (on humerus) and semilunar (or
the hinge joint at the elbow?
trochlear) notch (on ulna)
In addition to the articular capsule, what
other structures possess a synovial
membrane?

Tendon sheaths and bursae

Which type of ligaments is more

important for holding bones in their
normal position at a joint?

Extracapsular

Which of the following is important in

preventing tendons from moving out of
their normal position?

Retinaculum (medial patellar retinaculum

in knee, flexor retinaculum in wrist)

The agonist for extension of the head

would be the

Splenius capitus

The area around the origin of which of the

following is inflammed in lateral
Extensor carpi radialis longus
epicondylitis:
Which of the following is important in
preventing water loss from the skin?

Sebaceous glands

Which of the following contains the

pituitary gland?

The sella turcica

What bone is the only bone in the body

that doesn't articulate directly with any
other bone?

the hyoid bone

This hormone, present in both males and

females, is important for bone
Estrogen
maintenance and remodeling.
What is the first major stage of repair in
simple fractures?

hematoma formation

Where in the body can you find elastic

cartilage?

Cartilage of the external ear

Canals that lie at right angles to the long

axis of the bone and connect the blood
and nerve supply of the periosteum to the Volkman's canals
central canal and medullary cavity are
known as:

The patellar ligament connects the patella

Tibia (tibial tuberosity)
to:
The most important action of the rectus
femoris muscle is on the:

Tibia

What is the name of the joint injury when

a bone becomes dislocated from its
luxation
position in the socket of the joint?
Which type of muscle is found in layers of
the mucous membranes of the respiratory Visceral (single unit smooth muscle)
and digestive systems?
Cardiac muscle cells allow an impulse to
pass through the entire network of cells
due to:

gap junctions

The tissue important in insulation and

shock absorption is:

Adipose

In order for a process to be self-regulated

Negative feedback
it would use:
Calcium supplements would not be
advised in the early treatment of:

Post-menopausal osteoporosis

Which muscles are the agonist and

antagonist for head flexion?

Sternocleidomastoid, splenius capitus

Rotation of the head would accompany:

Sternocleidomastoid working unilaterally

Which muscles are the agonist and

antagonist for thigh flexion?

Iliopsoas, gluteus maximus

Which muscle is the antagonist of the

gluteus maximus

Iliopsoas

Which muscles are the agonist and

antagonist for shoulder abduction?

Deltoid, pectoralis major

What muscle plantar-flexes the foot?

Gastrocnemius and fibularis (peroneus)

longus

Which muscle fixes the knee in an

extended position?

Rectus femoris

Which cranial nerve(s) mediate taste?

Facial and Glossopharyngeal

Which cranial nerve(s) are part of cardiac

Vagus and Glossopharyngeal
control?
Which cranial nerve(s) produce salivation? Facial and Glossopharyngeal

Which is not a parasympathetic nerve?

Trigeminal

Which is not a parasympathetic function? Forceful contraction of GI sphincters

Copious secretion of sweat in
thermoregulation is:

Sympathetic

The receptors on eccrine sweat glands

are:

Cholinergic muscarinic

Vasodilation of blood vessels leading to

the skeletal muscles, heart, lungs, and
skin is:

Sympathetic

All of the previous functions except

vasodilation to the skeletal muscles are:

Adrenergic beta

Which junction produces a semipermeable

Tight junctions
membrane?
Which tissue principally lines the
respiratory tract?

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

epithelium

Which tissue(s) are found in the dermis?

Areolar ct and Dense irregular ct

Which tissue is found in the epiglottis?

Elastic cartilage

Endochondal ossification begins with:

Fibrous connective tissue

Which type of osteoporosis has too much

Senile
PTH:
Which hinge joint is composed of three
bones:

Knee

Which of the following has intracapsular

ligaments:

Knee and Hip

The primary abductor of the shoulder:

Deltoid

Where is calcium important in muscle

contraction:

Exocytosis of acetylcholine at NMJ,

Trigger for movement of troponintropomyosin

Which of these produces the myelin

sheath in nerves:

Schwann cell

The first order neuron in every reflex

pathway is:

Unipolar

Which tracts have third order neurons?

Spinothalamic and Fasciculus gracilis

Which of the following correctly describes Femoral nerve, lumbar plexus,

a pathway for anterior thigh pain:
spinothalamic tr.
Which part of the brain initiates skeletal
muscle contraction:

Pre-central gyrus

Which type of tissue is important for

holding most of the bodys water:

Areolar

Which two of these are found in the

dermis of the skin and in mucous
membranes?

Areolar and Dense irregular

Which substance is most important in

hydration of connective tissues:

Proteoglycans

Which layer of the skin contains the most

stratum spinosum
numerous desmosomes?
Which junction allows cells to exchange
materials directly with one another

gap junctions

Which tissue lines most of the

gastrointestinal tract?

simple columnar

Merkel disks send information through

which of the following spinal tracts

fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus

cuneatus

Information originating in the vestibule

and semicircular canals would ultimately
reach the lower motor neurons through
which of the following:

extrapyramidal

The joint between the atlas and axis is a: pivot joint

Which of the following can exhibit flexion condyloid joint, hinge joint, and ball-andand extension?
socket joint
Primary muscle for flexing the thigh:

iliopsoas

Primary muscle for abducting the thigh:

tensor fasciae latae and gluteus minimus

and medius

Primary muscle for extending the knee:

rectus femoris

What type of ion channels are needed to

generate an action potential?

voltage-gated

Where are chemically-gated channels

found?

On dendrites and cell body to axon

hillock

Where are voltage-gated channels found? From axon hillock to axon terminus

What causes the actin-myosin

crossbridges to attach and then swivel?

calcium is released into the sarcoplasm

Which type of muscle fiber responds to

appropriate training by building
myofibrils?

white

Which glial cell would be found associated

ependymal cells
with the choroid plexus?
Which type of neuron is only found in the
bipolar
special senses?
A muscle contracts, producing a reflex (as
part of repetitive and reciprocal
movements). The reflex would be _____. It tendon; inhibited, activated
would cause the first muscle to be ___ and
its antagonist to be ___
If many EPSPs from different neurons all
add together to produce threshold
depolarization, the type of summation
which is occurring is:

spatial

An IPSP occurring at the same time which

prevents spatial summation from reaching inhibition
threshold produces a condition known as:
The neuron carrying an impulse from the
thalamus to the cerebral cortex travels in corona radiata
the:
If the information transmitted is from pain
inferior post-central gyrus
in the jaw, it will ultimately reach the:
The part of the brain malfunctioning in
dyslexia is the:

Wernickes area

Visual stimuli will reach the:

visual cortex, pineal gland, superior

colliculi, thalamus

The center for the fear response is the:

amygdala

Which cranial nerve(s) control muscles of

Facial
facial expression?
Which cranial nerve(s) control chewing?

Trigeminal

Which cranial nerve carries the sense of

balance?

VIII

Which cranial nerve innervates the

spinal accessory

sternocleidomastoid?
Which sensory mode has receptors which
Taste and Olfaction
replace themselves over time?
Which part of the eye is most important in
Cornea
bending the light rays?
Glaucoma is due to excessive pressure in
Aqueous humor
which part of the eye?
Secretion of apocrine glands in sexual
arousal is:

Sympathetic

Which of these is the area of sharpest

vision?

Fovea centralis

Which of these has all of the color

receptors?

Choroid

Which tissue is found as the stroma of

soft organs?

Reticular ct

Which tissue forms the symphysis pubis? Fibrocartilage

Endochondal ossification occurs in all the
following except the: (wrist, long, cranial, Cranial bones
calcaneus)
Which type of osteoporosis has too much
Post-menopausal
blood calcium:
Which set of movements occurs at a pivot
supination-pronation
joint:
Which of the following is released into the
neuromuscular junction to bind to
ACh
receptors on the sarcolemma?
What occurs after ACh is released into the
Na+ enters the muscle cell causing
neuromuscular junction to bind to
depolarization
receptors on the sarcolemma?
Depolarization must reach the _____ in
order to produce an action potential on
the sarcolemma.

Voltage-gated Na+ channels

The action potential travels next to the:

T-tubules

A complex composed of which molecules

blocks the active sites of actin, preventing tropomyosin-troponin
crossbridge formation?

At what point is ATP taken up from the

sarcoplasm?

The detachment of the myosin from actin

Which of the following is true about

creatine phosphate?

It is produced from ATP and creatine

during periods of rest and it must be
reconverted to ATP during muscle
contraction.

Stores glycogen for conversion to

In comparing White fibers and Red fibers,
glucose, depends on anaerobic
which selection would best describe White
metabolism, larger in diameter, used for
fibers:
speed and strength
The first 15 seconds of anaerobic
contractions rely on _____ for energy.

Phosphagen system

What muscle is most important for

fixating the foot during standing?

Soleus

The soleus would rely on mostly _____

motor units with predominantly _____
fibers.

Large, red

Which muscle fixes the thigh in an

extended position?

Gluteus maximus

The ligament responsible for preventing

anterior movement of the femur against
the tibia is:

posterior cruciate ligament

desmosomes

These help to prevent epidermal cells

from pulling apart when the skin is
stretched

adherens junctions

play a small role in holding cells together

osteomalacia

A demineralization disorder of bones

occurring in adults with calcium
deficiency.

rickets

A bone malformation disorder of bones

occurring in children with calcium
deficiency.

acromegaly

A condition related to hypersecretion of

growth hormone

Which of the following would be important

Cilia
to fluid movement along a cell surface?

Optimum amount of sun exposure on skin

10-15 minutes
per day is:
What normally prevents carcinoma of
keratinocytes in intermediate layers?

apoptosis

Cranial bones harden in a process known

intramembranous ossification
as:
Also known as "soft spots"

fontanels

What are the areas of unhardened

membrane that remain at birth?

fontanels

Unclear sense of deep pressure or illness pacinian corpuscles (or meissner's

would be the result of sensation by:
corpuscles)
The stratum lucidum layer of epidermis
can be found on:

palms, soles

Non-keratinized stratified squamous

epithelium is found in:

internal skin (such as lining of the mouth

and the anal opening and the lining of
the vagina)

Some exposure of skin to UV is important

Precursor to vitamin D formation
for what process?
Both types of osteoporosis would benefit
from what therapy to stimulate bone
remodeling?

Weight bearing exercise

Identify a specific joint which contains an

Temporomandibular joint
articular disk.
The articular disk of TMJ attaches to what
lateral pterygoid
muscle?
A common injury tears a tendon allowing
the humeral head to pull away from
articulation in the glenoid fossa. What
Rotator cuff, luxation (separation)
muscle is affected? What is the name of
the injury?
What are the origins of the biceps brachii Scapula and glenoid fossa, coracoid
and what bone is it part of?
process
An activity requires repeated wrist flexion
and produces pain. What is name of
Carpal tunnel syndrome
problem?
An activity requires repeated wrist
extension and produces pain. What is

Tennis elbow (or lateral epicondylitis)

name of problem?
Medial and lateral collateral ligaments are
found in what classification of movable
Hinge joints
joints?
What are the two types of synovial joints
capable of rotation?

Ball and socket (in shoulder, hip) and

pivot (in head of radius in capitulum)

The Achilles tendon is the insertion for

which muscle(s) and on which bone?

Calf muscles, heel bone

The nucleus pulposus is the spongy

center of:

a symphysis

What is the name of the joint injury in

which the bone becomes dislocated from luxation
its position in the socket of the joint?
The origin of the _____ is inflammed in
lateral epicondylitis.

Extensor carpi radialis longus

The _____ surrounds each fasciculus of

muscle cells.

perimysium

The extraoptical and lumbrical muscles

would have which of the following in
common:

none of the above (1. both are important

postural muscles 2. both have very large
motor units (many cells) 3. both are
composed primarily of slow twitch red
fibers. 4. both utilize primarily aerobic
metabolism)

The latissimus dorsi:

adducts the humerus at the shoulder

(glenohumeral joint)

Which muscle is a synergist with the

latissimus dorsi in its action on the arm?

teres major

Slow twitch red fibers have:

abundant myoglobin, a rich blood supply,

many mitochondria (but not stored
glycogen)

White fibers utilize _____ to provide

energy for metabolism.

the phosphagen system and anerobic

glycolysis (but not anerobic metabolism)

In order for an action potential to be

produced on the sarcolemma, what type
of ion channels must open?

Voltage-gated sodium channels

Acetylcholine is the excitatory

neurotransmitter at skeletal muscles.

Chemically-gated sodium channels

Which type of ion gates does it stimulate?

Muscles with mostly fibers of which twitch
length will depend on aerobic metabolism slow twitch red
for most of their ATP?
Muscles with predominantly ____ fibers
are more likely to have very large motor
units?

slow twitch red

Once it is passing along the sarcolemma,

where does the action potential enter the T-tubules
sarcoplasm?
Only hinge joints have:

collateral ligaments

Can flex, extend, abduct, and adduct.

condyloid

The bone which articulates with no other

bone

hyoid

So-called supination of the foot is actually: nversion

So-called adduction of the foot is actually
rotation
_____ of the thigh.
Spasm of the _____ is often associated
with TMJ disorder.

lateral pterygoid

The TMJ is one of only a few joints with an

articular disk
internal:
When the sternocleidomastoid muscles
contract bilaterally, the antagonist is
_____.

splenius capitus acting bilaterally

The little muscle that is important in

opening the jaw:

digastric

The type of muscle possessing striations

(This muscle type has striations):

skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle (but not

smooth muscle)

The type of muscle which contains

myogenic cells:

cardiac muscle and smooth muscle (but

not skeletal muscle)

The type of muscle with no striations:

smooth muscle

This is inflammation of a synovial

membrane located outside the actual
joint.

bursitis

The _____ holds the head of the radius in

place while allowing it to turn.

annular ligament

The joint between the atlas and axis is a

_____ joint which performs a movement
called _____.

uniaxial, rotation

A dislocation is defined as:

A luxation in which a bone pulls away

from its normal position in the joint.

Which type of arthritis is caused by an

gouty arthritis
inherited inability to metabolize uric acid?
The carpal tunnel is a narrowed area
enclosing tendons between the carpal
bones and the _____.

flexor retinaculum

The movement of the foot in which the

inversion
sole is turned inward is correctly termed:
A separation (e.g. shoulder separation) is A tearing of the fibrous tissue in a
defined as:
syndesmosis or synovial capsule.
Which type of arthritis is caused by
damage to the articular cartilage from
injury or excessive use?

osteoarthritis

All hinge joints have _____ ligaments,

which are not found in other joint types

collateral

What is the name of the structure which

holds the head of the radius in place while annular ligament
allowing it to rotate. Two words.
The head of the radius is held in place by
annular
the _____ ligament
Pick correct: Hip joint needs more bony
support due to weight placed on it,
restricting motion. Shoulder joint needs
more muscle, less bony support due to
All are correct
motion range, reducing strength. Almost
all support is by rotator cuff muscles, not
bone, ligaments
Correct? Short refract. period of muscle:
Causes all/none where cells contract to
max before relax; Causes muscle to end
contract. to produce fast twitch speed;
Allow cell contract to build/produce
quantal sum; Allows stim. at high frq.

The short refractory period of a muscle

cell allows it to be stimulated at a high
frequency to produce tetanus.

producing tetanus.
Interphalangeal joint example

Hinge joint; diarthrotic joint

radius-humerus example

Pivot joint

intertarsal joints example

Gliding joint

talus-tibia example

Condyloid joint

shoulder joint example

Ball-and-socket

suture joint example

synarthrotic joint

intervertebral disk example

amphiarthrotic joint

intercarpal joint example

diarthrotic joint

The receptive region of a multipolar

neuron would include:

the dendrites, the cell body, and the

axon hillock

Fibers in the corticospinal tract are known

Upper motor neurons
as:
Fibers which cross in the pyramids (and
are called the "pyramidal fibers") are
concerned with:

Motor control on the opposite side of the

body from their origin.

Which of the following tracts has first

order, second order, and third order
neurons?

Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus

gracilis and spinothalamic tract

Multipolar neurons function as:

spinal and cranial nerve motor neurons;

spinal and cranial interneurons

The criterion for an area being the neuron possessing chemically-gated ion
receptive region is:
channels
An epidural injection of anesthetic would
be administered:

outside the dura mater

Threshold depolarization will result in an

action potential when it occurs at:

voltage-gated ion channels only

When an action potential spreads from

one node of Ranvier to the next it is called
saltatory conduction, faster
_______ and it travels _________ than other
forms of transmission.
Repeated use of a particular neural
pathway, such as in a rote task, will result
post-tetanic potentiation
in a temporary facilitation of the pathway
called:

Neurons grow at about the rate of:

An inch per month

The autonomic system has a ganglion in

each motor pathway from the CNS, the
The autonomic nervous system differs
somatic nervous system does not.The
from the somatic nervous system in which
autonomic system has two motor
of the following ways:
neurons, the somatic has only one, in
each reflex arc.
The fibers which control the heart in the
absence of stress come from the _____
cranial, parasympathetic
portion of the CNS as part of the _____
division of the autonomic nervous system.
Most blood vessels are innervated only by
sympathetic
the _____ division
Most glands are _____ by the sympathetic
inhibited
nervous system.
Sympathetic stimulation of the eccrine
sweat glands is through _____ fibers.

cholinergic, muscarinic

As a result of an autonomic ganglion

in a lateral chain or plexus, sympathetic
located _____ the _____ is alble to produce
division
mass activation.
The fibers which control the heart at all
times in the absence of stress are:

cholinergic, muscarinic

Receptors which mediate excitation of the

adrenergic, beta
heart in response to stress are:
The autonomic function of the
glossopharyngeal nerve is:

sensory from baroreceptors in carotid

sinus, motor to salivary glands

The receptors which produce pupilary

dilation are:

adrenergic, alpha

The brain center which controls much of

the endocrine and sympathetic systems is hypothalamus
the:
The upper motor neurons originate in the: pre-central gyrus
Pain stimuli terminate in the:

post-central gyrus

The centers which control the heart,

respiratory muscle contraction, and
vascular smooth muscle are located in
the:

medulla oblongata

The primary auditory area is located in

the _____ lobe.

temporal

The _____ surrounds the intermediate

mass.

third ventricle

Functions such as emotional motor

responses and short term memory both
reside in the:

limbic system

Broca's area is located alongside the:

Lower portion of the pre-central gyrus.

The brain center which mediates

functions which are part voluntary and
part involuntary is:

pons

Which of the following secretes

pheromones?

apocrine sweat glands

As soon as Ca++ ions enter the axon:

Acetylcholine is released into the

synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

In order for myosin heads to detach from

ATP
actin and reset, _____ must be available.
The type(s) of muscle which have
myogenic cells:

cardiac and smooth muscle

Cerebrospinal fluid is a filtrate from the

capillaries of the:

choroid plexus

The _____ separates the mainly motor

from the mainly sensory portions of the
cerebrum.

central sulcus

The brain region involved when

insufficient dopamine production
produces Parkinson's disease:

substantia nigra

The _____ is derived from the canal within

ventricles of brain; spinal canal
the primitive neural tube.
Reflexes such as blinking and pupilary
reflex is centered in the:

superior colliculi of corpora quadrigemina

A muscle spindle receptor responds to:

stretch and extension of the muscle.

possessing voltage-gated ion channels;

The criterion for an area being the neuron
being able to propagate an action
conductive region is:
potential
If several inputs to a reflex pathway each spatial summation
produce simultaneous sub-threshold

depolarizations, it could result in _____ at

the receptive region of the receiving
neuron.
In myelinated peripheral nerve fibers the
voltage gates are located only at the
True
Nodes of Ranvier.
Opening of the chemically-gated K+
channels would produce:

hyperpolarization and IPSP

If one input to a reflex releases a

depolarizing neurotransmitter with a high
temporal summation
frequency it could result in _____ at the
receptive region of the receiving neuron.
musculocutaneous

controls the biceps brachii (sensory from

the skin on anterior upper arm)

axillary

sensory from the skin of the shoulder

(innervates the deltoid)

radial

controls extensor muscles of the wrist

(would transmit pain from the thumb)

ulnar

controls flexor muscles of the wrist

(controls extensor muscles of the wrist)

median nerve

contains fibers from both the lateral and

medial cords

Fibers leading to the corticospinal tract

are known as:

Upper motor neurons

Merkel disks would send information

through this tract.

Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus

(considered as a single tract)

When a stretch reflex is initiated it

produces:

Muscle contraction in the initiating

muscle and reciprocal inhibition.

Impulses from this tract terminate on the

same side of the brain as their origin (i.e. Spinocerebellar tract
they do not cross).
The medial lemniscus carries signals from
medulla to the thalamus
the ___ to the ___.
Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus
Impulses from this tract have a third order
(considered as a single tract);
neuron.
Spinothalamic tract
The sense of _____ has receptors which

smell

are bipolar neurons.

A tract with the name tectospinal would
be:

descending & motor

The second order neuron from which of

the following travels in the medial
lemniscus to the cortex:

Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus

gracilis

The rarest neuron type, found only in the

special senses of olfaction, vision, and
bipolar neuron
hearing is the:
The medial lemniscus contains the _____
in the pathway it is part of.

second order neuron

A unipolar neuron has:

No dendrites and one axon attached to

the cell body.

Fibers which cross in the pyramids and

are called the "pyramidal fibers" are
concerned with:

Motor control on the opposite side of the

body from their origin.

Impulses from this tract travel through

the corona radiata.

Fasciculus gacilis and cuneatus

(considered as a single tract);
Spinothalamic tract

Given: the stimulus is pain in the upper

anterior arm in the region of the biceps
musculocutaneous, brachial
brachii. What nerve and plexus would the
sensory pathway use?
Plantarflexion would send impulses
through which plexus and nerve.

sacral, tibial

Given: the stimulus is pain in the little

finger. What type of reflex would that
produce?

withdrawal

Given: the stimulus is pain in the little

finger. What nerve and plexus would the
sensory pathway use?

ulnar, brachial

Given: the stimulus is pain in the dorsum

(top) of the foot. What nerve and plexus peroneal (fibular), sacral
would the sensory pathway use?
Given:An individual running up stairs,
repeatedly flexing then extending the
thigh. The stimulus is thigh flexion, the
muscle in which the reflex is initiated is

stretch; muscle spindle

the gluteus maximus. What type of reflex

would be produced and what is the
receptor?
Abduction of the shoulder would send
axillary, brachial
impulses through which plexus and nerve.
Extension of the knee would send
lumbar, femoral
impulses through which plexus and nerve.
A blood clot developing under the outer
layer of the meninges is known as a [x]
hematoma

subdural

proprioception; muscle sense;

What sense would be affected in damage
discriminative touch; fine touch; touch;
to the lemniscal pathway of the brain?
proprioceptive; conscious proprioception;
One or two words is sufficient.
conscious proprioceptive
This is the name of a somatic region of
the body which is innervated by a
particular spinal nerve.

dermatome

Identify the specific cells damaged by the

autoimmune disorder known as multiple oligodendrocyte(s)
sclerosis. One word only
Exactly what is missing in the receptive
region which prevents an action potential voltage gated ion channel (or voltage
from being generated there. Three or four regulated)
words
The ____ is the location of production of
blood cells:

red marrow

A lumbar vertebra ossifies from preexisting model of:

hyaline cartilage

hair root plexus

A nerve responsible for the sense of light

touch on the skin

sebaceous gland

Important for retaining moisture in the

skin

sudoriferous gland

comes in two types

meissner's corpuscles

widely distributed on the skin for nondiscriminating touch

piloarrector muscles

part of the skin's thermoregulatory

functions

The most aggressive skin cancer is:

malignant melanoma

Channels called connexons are the

primary structural component in:

gap junctions

A process which controls a parameter

within a narrow range will utilize:

Negative feedback

True parenchymal repair occurs in ___

tissue.

epithelial

Give ONE specific area of the body where

thick skin is found. Be specific. One word palm; sole; bottom of foot
only.
An unclear sense of deep pressure or
illness would be the result of sensation by
pacinian corpuscles
the ___ ___ (Name of the receptor; plural
form)
The latissimus dorsi and teres major act
antagonistically to the:

deltoid

Fast twitch red (intermediate) fibers have:

stored myoglobin, a rich blood supply,

many mitochondria, and stored glycogen

Slow twitch red fibers primarily utilize ____

aerobic metabolism
to provide energy for metabolism.
As long as the ___ has ended, the
sarcolemma can respond normally to
another stimulus.

Relative Refractory Period

Can rotate (can only rotate):

pivot

Only the ___ can supinate.

hand

In the process of supination and

pronation, the head of the radius rotates
around the:

capitulum

patellar retinaculum

keeps the patella from sliding laterally

collateral ligament

keeps the tibia from abducting

patellar ligament

inserts on the tibial tuberosity

extensor tendon

the insertion of the rectus femoris

muscle

tibia-fibula example

synarthrotic joint

costal cartilage example

amphiarthrotic joint

Which of the following is considered an

intracapsular ligament of the hip joint?

ligamentum teres

Starting in anatomical position, the hand

is rotated so that the palm is down (or to pronation
the back). This movement is called:
The action of the rectus femoris muscle is
to move what bone and process. Answer tibia(l) tuberosity; tuberosity tibia
in the format "femur head". Two words.

The rotator cuff muscles are:

the primary support for stabilizing the

shoulder joint by holding the head of the
humerus in its normal position in the
glenoid fossa.

The shoulder joint:

is almost entirely supported by the

muscles of the rotator cuff and not by
bone or ligaments; needs more muscular
and less bony support due to its range of
motion, but this reduces its strength.

The hip joint:

needs more bony support due to the

weight placed on it, but as a result this
restricts its range of motion

The criterion for an area being the neuron having both chemically-gated and
trigger region is:
voltage-gated ion channels
Impulses from this tract cross over in the Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus
medulla
(considered as a single tract)
A bipolar neuron has:

One dendrite and one axon attached to

the cell body.

Adduction of the thigh would send

lumbar, obturator
impulses through which plexus and nerve.
Given: the stimulus is pain in the thumb.
What nerve and plexus would the sensory radial, brachial
pathway use?
Visceral pain that is misinterpreted as
coming from a somatic region is known as referred
___ pain.
The end of the spinal cord is anchored to
the sacrum via the [x].

filum terminale

An anesthetic administered in the lumbar epidural

region of the spinal cord, often for

childbirth, is called a(n) [x] anesthetic.

Which glial cell is damaged in multiple
sclerosis?

oligodendrocytes

Which of these is missing in a 2-neuron

reflex?

sensory

If the information transmitted is from pain

in the lower jaw, it will ultimately reach
inferior post-central gyrus
the:
Secretion of eccrine glands in
thermoregulation is:

Sympathetic

The most important hormone in calcium

homeostasis in adults is:

PTH

Which two of these are found in the

dermis of the skin and in mucous
membranes?

areolar and dense irregular

Which of the following can exhibit flexion condyloid, hinge, and ball-and-socket
and extension?
joints
Histamine is neurotransmitter involved in
pathway of signals from inner ear to
brain. Histamine blockers reduce
conflicting signals passing to brain.
Cholinergic muscarinic
Dramamine inhibits muscular stomach
action that produces nausea + vomiting.
What receptors inhibited?
Another drug called scopolamine has also
been used for the same purpose. It has
also been found to inhibit copious
Cholinergic muscarinic
sweating. What specific receptors would
be inhibited at the sweat glands?
If the information transmitted is from pain
superior pre-central gyrus
in the big toe, it will ultimately reach the:
Which receptor allows you to feel the
ridges on the edge of a coin:

Ruffini organs

The long axons of neurons depend upon

which type of energy production?

anerobic glycolysis

The receptive region has which type of

channels?

chemically-gated

BIOL237 Final
Anatomy flashcards for UNM BIOL237 final exam
Question

Answer

Spongy bone lacks:

Haversian systems

True/False: Is a mastoid sinus a one of the

paranasal sinuses?

False.

The large anterior fontanel hardens at:

1.5 to 2 years after birth

The occipital condyles articulate with

superior surfaces on the:

atlas

The olfactory nerves pass through holes in

the _____ on their way to the olfactory bulb
of the brain.

cribriform plate

The cell which acts first in the process of

remodeling in adult bone:

osteoclast

The primary bone which forms the nasal

cavity is the:

ethmoid bone

The primary stimulus for adult bone

remodeling is:

stress placed on the bone from weight

bearing exercise

The component responsible for the flexibility

collagen fibers
and resilience of bone is:
This hormone is directly necessary for
calcium absorption from the gut.

Vitamin D3

An excess or abuse of this hormone can lead

to acromegaly and sometimes pituitary
growth hormone
diabetes.
Endochondral ossification begins at about
_____ in the developing embryo.

8 weeks

Post-menopausal osteoporosis is
characterized by ___ calcium in the blood.

higher than normal

The primary characteristic which causes

melanocytes to metastasize is their:

ability to migrate

Which of the following signaling chemicals

called pheromones?

apocrine glands

Chondrocytes are found within fluid-filled

spaces called:

lacunae

When tissue wraps to form a tubule the ___

surface is toward the lumen.

apical

define hemidesmosome

these connect epithelium to its

basement membrane

define gap junction

osteocytes use this to exchange

calcium ions

define desmosome

also known as macula adherens, these

prevent cells in the epidermis and
other tissues from pulling apart

define tight junction

block or partially block the transport of

molecules between cells in a
semipermeable membrane

define zona adherens

these are small junctions for attaching

cells together

The two primary components of all

connective tissues are:

cells and matrix

A process which requires rapid response will

positive feedback
usually utilize:
Which of the following tissues is well
vascularized and experiences functional
repair? bone, adipose, cartilage, all of the
above, bone and adipose but not cartilage

bone and adipose but not cartilage

Unlike most other ligaments, the

ligamentum flavum in the vertebral column elastic fibers
contains:
Goblet cells are an important functional cell
mucous membranes
in:
The rectus femoris acts to move the:

tibial tuberosity

Extremely small passages that connect the

lacunae to each other in bone tissue are
called:

canaliculi

The patellar ligament connect the patella to

tibial tuberosity
the:
Immediately after, and as a result of, the
neurotransmitter making contact with
receptors on the sarcolemma:

Na+ gates open causing Na+ to enter

the muscle cell.

Which muscle is NOT a member of the

teres major

rotator cuff? trees major, supraspinatus,

infraspinatus, subscapularis
The autoimmune disease in which the
immune system cells release chemicals
which attack the joint tissues and cause
severe inflammation is called:

rheumatoid arthritis

Melanocytes are part of which layer?

stratum basale

Adipose tissue located in the ___ would be

used to determine nutritional condition at
time of death.

yellow marrow

A _____ is a tendinous structure that

prevents the displacement of other tendons
retinaculum
or ligaments and holds them in their normal
positions.
The connective tissue surrounding each
muscle cell is the:

endomysium

Which muscle listed is not a member of the

teres major
rotator cuff muscles?
The latissimus dorsi and teres major are:

synergists in adducting the arm

White fibers have:

stored glycogen

Fast twitch red (intermediate) fibers can

utilize _____ to provide energy for
metabolism.

the phosphagen system, anaerobic

glycosis, and aerobic metabolism

The type of muscle possessing short,

branching, cells.

cardiac and smooth

The _____ along with the

semimembraneosus and semitendinosus are biceps femoris
called the hamstrings.
An action of the tibialis anterior is:

dorsiflexion and inversion

The primary insertion of the triceps brachii is

olecranon process
on the:
A synergist of the gastrocnemius is the:

soleus and peroneus (fibularis) longus

Which of the following muscles is not a

member of the quadriceps group? biceps
biceps femoris
femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius,
rectus femoris
Spasm of the _____ is a common cause of

lateral pterygoid muscle

TMJ disorder.
Reduced estrogen causes calcium to
Briefly explain why calcium supplements will leave the bones, therefore serum
not help a woman during the early stages of calcium levels are high. This
post-menopausal osteoporosis.
suppresses PTH and Vitamin D and
reduces calcium absorption
Briefly explain what bursae are and their
function.

Bursae are synovial sacks which

lubricate the movement of tendons
and ligaments to prevent friction and
irritation.

All the parts of the ear are found in the

______ bone

temporal

What structural characteristic of epithelial

cells would enhance their ability to secrete
and absorb substances?

microvilli or mitochondria

What is the name for the portion of the bone

containing holes through which olfactory
cribriform plate
nerves ascend to the brain?
Which of the following is important in
thermoregulation?

eccrine sweat glands

The stroma of the lungs contains _____ which

elastic connective tissue
permits its expansion and recoil.
When a tissue experiences parenchymal
repair the new tissue _____ produce the
tissue's orignal function.

does

The stroma of the body's soft organs is

made of:

reticular tissue

Which of the following tissues is well

vascularized and experiences true
parenchymal repair? bone, adipose,
cartilage

bone and adipose

Define areolar

the most abundant connective tissue

define p.c.c.e.

normally the the most abundant lining

in the respiratory tract

define dense regular

tendons are made of this type

define dense irregular

comprises the deep dermis

define transitional

stretchable epithelium

where is fibrocartilage found?

in symphysis pubis

where is elastic cartilage found?

in the epiglottis and ear

where is hyaline cartilage found?

as costal cartilage

where is mesenchyme found?

all connective tissues are derived from

this

where is serosa found?

a lining and covering membrane

Cranial bones start out as a:

fibrous connective tissue membrane

The last location within a long bone of

cartilage formation is:

epiphyseal plate

The spaces in spongy bone are initially filled

red marrow
with:
the myeloid tissue responsible for
hematopoiesis is found in the:

red marrow

Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous

Sharpey's fibers
bone covering into the bone itself are called:
The distal epiphyseal plate of long bones
hardens at:

early twenties

The large anterior fontanel hardens at:

1.5 to 2 years after birth

Once completely hardened, osteoprogenitor

cells must come from the _____ for bone
periosteum
repair.
Ca+2 is released into the sarcoplasm when
an action potential stimulates the:

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A sack made of synovial membrane which

lies between tendons, ligaments, and
nearby bones is called:

bursa

The intervertebral disks are which type of

joint classified according to structure?

cartilaginous

Which type of arthritis involves the greatest

rheumatoid arthritis
degree of inflammation and disability?
The sarcolemma is polarized because more
_____ are pumped out than ___ are pumped Na+, and K+
in.
The _____ surrounds a muscle and fuses with
epimysium
a tendon or aponeurosis.

The intervertebral disks are what type of

joint, classified by movement?

amphiarthrosis

A syndesmosis is actually a small _____

which connects bones in a non-movable
way.

ligament

Joints which non-movable are usually

classified structurally as _____ joints.

fibrous

The trigger which causes vesicles of

acetylcholine to move to the axon
membrane and release ACh is:

Ca+2

What event causes repolarization of the

sarcolemma?

Opening of potassium channels.

What is the next thing which happens after

an impulse enters the T tubules?

Calcium ions enter the sarcoplasm

from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

What is the first thing that happens when an

impulse reaches the axon terminus of a
Calcium ions enter the axon
neuromuscular junction?
As a result of threshold depolarization at the
Opening of the voltage-gated sodium
neuromuscular junction, what happens on
channels.
the adjacent sarcolemma?
As soon as Ca++ ions enter the axon:

Acetylcholine is released into the

synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

What event causes opening of the

chemically-gated Na+ channels?

Acetylcholine binds to post-synaptic

receptors on the sarcolemma.

As a direct result of Ca+2 binding to

troponin:

The troponin-tropomyosin complex

shifts, exposing the active sites on
actin.

As soon as the active sites are exposed on

actin:

Attachment of actin-myosin
crossbridges and swiveling of the
myosin heads.

Which event is required for detachment of

the crossbridges?

Uptake of ATP by the myosin heads.

Which event, required for continued function

of the neuromuscular junction, is prevented Breakdown of ACh by AChase.
by certain pesticide and nerve gas poisons?
As soon as Ca++ ions are released into the
sarcoplasm:

Binding of calcium ions to Troponin C.

Curare acts as a muscle relaxant by

competing with this process:

Acetylcholine binding to post-synaptic

receptors on the sarcolemma.

An action potential is generated on the

Opening of the voltage-gated sodium
sarcolemma by which event of the following: channels.
What event causes depolarization of the
Opening of the chemically-gated
sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction? sodium channels.
Which of the following binds calcium ions:
sarcoplasmic reticulum, troponin C, myosin
or all of them

sarcoplasmic reticulum and troponin C

The cell bodies of spinal sensory neurons

are located in:

dorsal root ganglion

A multipolar neuron has:

Many dendrites and only one axon

attached to the cell body.

A tract with the name vestibulospinal would

descending and motor
be:
Which of the following tracts does not send
impulses ultimately to the cerebral cortex?
spinocerebellar tract, Fasciculus cuneatus
and fasciculus gracilis, spinothalamic tract

spinocerebellar tract

Unmyelinated fiber, synapses, and cell

bodies in the brain and spinal cord are
located in:

gray matter

The period during which the trigger region is

relative refractory period and the
effectively inhibited but not prevented from
period of hyperpolarization
generating an action potential is the:
The crossed extensor reflex consists of:

A withdrawal reflex on one side of the

body and extension on the other side.

A demyelination disorder of the CNS which

results in impaired and disrupted conduction multiple sclerosis
along axons is:
Prior sub-threshold depolarization of a reflex
facilitation
pathway produces:
Prior sub-threshold hyperpolarization of a
reflex pathway produces:

inhibition

High frequency stimuli result from:

A stimulus of high intensity on the

body's soma.

Once an action potential is generated,

Na+ activation gate closed, Na+

another cannot be generated until the ion

gates return to the following configuration:

inactivation gate open, K+ gate

closed.

A small local depolarization or

hyperpolarization may be called:

EPSP, IPSP, graded potential

The relative refractory period occurs during:

closing of K+ gates when excess K+

has left the neuron.

When a pathway is automatically facilitated

by the brain, when the proper circumstances learned reflex
are present, it is called:
The area said to represent intelligence and
an interpretive area for language is the:

Wernicke's area

The receptive region of a multipolar neuron

dendrites
would include:
Most glands are _____ by the sympathetic
nervous system.

inhibited

Which of the following tracts is responsible

for conscious sensations?

Fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus

gracilis and the spinothalamic tract

The predominant fibers in dense regular

connective tissue are:

collagen

The types of muscle which exhibit striations

skeletal and cardiac muscle
are:
Both cartilage and bone possess:

lacunae

The _____ is derived from the canal within

the primitive neural tube.

ventricles of brain and the spinal canal

The term "complementarity" used in

Anatomy and Physiology refers to the
deterministic relationship between:

Structure and function in body tissues,

organs, and systems.

Which of the following is a way in which the

somatic and autonomic nervous systems are both have motor fibers
similar?
For which of the following activities is the
parasympathetic nervous system generally
responsible?

resting and digesting

Oculomotor nerves are responsible for which

Focusing the eyes on close objects
of the following functions?

Which of the following is NOT an autonomic

skeletal muscle
nervous system effector?
Which of these effectors is not directly
controlled by the autonomic nervous
system?

skeletal muscle

Which of the following is not a result of

parasympathetic stimulation?

dilation of the pupils

The parasympathetic division uses only

________ as a neurotransmitter in the
ganglionic neurons.

acetylcholine

True/False: Because the ANS is a visceral

motor system, afferent pathways are of no
importance and actually are rarely found.

False

True/False: Acetylcholine is the substance

released by the axonal endings of the
somatic efferent fibers and by the
parasympathetic nerve fiber endings.

True

True/False: Most body organs are innervated

by only the sympathetic division of the
False
nervous system.
True/False: The ANS stimulates smooth and
skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the
False
somatic nervous system innervates cardiac
muscles only.
Which of the following does not receive
branch fibers of the vagus nerves?

Inferior hypogastric plexus

Why might an individual experience the

phenomenon known as "referred pain"?

Visceral pain afferents travel along the

same pathways as somatic pain fibers.

The two types of receptors that bind

acetylcholine are _______ and _______
receptors.

Nicotinic; muscarinic

Which division of the nervous system has

short preganglionic neurons?

sympathetic

Which of the following is NOT a function of

the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

emergency action

What differentiates an autonomic reflex from

a two-neuron motor pathway
a somatic reflex?
Sensory nerve endings that are located in

The heart rate would slow down

the carotid bodies are rich in vagal fibers.

How, and why, would external stimulation of because of stimulation of the
the carotid artery, such as carotid massage, parasympathetic system.
affect the heart rate?
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to
sympathetic stimulation
supplement the effects of ________.
Which of the following does not describe the a system of motor neurons that
ANS?
innervates all muscle cells
The somatic and autonomic nervous
systems differ in all of the following except
________.

all of the neurotransmitters

Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight"

response is the role of the ________.

sympathetic nervous system

The parasympathetic ganglion that serves

the eye is the ________.

ciliary ganglion

Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic

division include all except ________.

dilation of the blood vessels serving

the skin and digestive viscera

Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are

X
derived from cranial nerve number ________.
The "resting and digesting" division of the
autonomic nervous system is the ________.

a parasympathetic division

True/False: Sympathetic origin is

craniosacral, parasympathetic is
thoracolumbar.

False

Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal

cord at which vertebra?

first thoracic

The parasympathetic fibers of the ________

nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye
oculomotor
that cause the lenses to bulge to
accommodate close vision.
Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic
chain without synapsing form structures
splanchnic nerves
called ________.
True/False: Is the celiac a plexus of the
vagus nerve?

False

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in

that ________.

visceral arcs involve two motor

neurons

Sympathetic division stimulation causes

________.

increased blood glucose, decreased GI

peristalsis, and increased heart rate
and blood pressure

The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera

tenth cranial nerve
is served largely by the ________.
Parasympathetic functions include ________. lens accommodation for close vision
The vagus nerve does not innervate the
________.

parotid gland

Sweat glands are innervated by the ________

sympathetic
fibers alone.
The ________ division alone stimulates the
lens of the eye.

parasympathetic

The two cholinergic receptor types are

________ and ________.

nicotinic, muscarinic

The ________ receptor type is used by the

heart, and when activated increases heart
rate.

beta

Which of the following best demonstrates an

example of cooperation of the
parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous
systems?

Parasympathetic stimulation causes

vasodilation of blood vessels in the
penis, leading to erection; sympathetic
stimulation then causes ejaculation.

Which of the following is responsible for the

overall integration of the autonomic nervous hypothalamus
system?
Which of the following target
organs/systems is affected by the
sympathetic nervous system, but not
affected by the parasympathetic nervous
system?

Cellular metabolism and coronary

blood vessels

Which of the following is not an antagonistic

interaction of the sympathetic nervous
Increased cognitive functioning
system?
Conduction through the autonomic efferent
chain is faster than conduction in the
False
somatic motor system.
Which autonomic neurons release
norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter?

sympathetic postganglionic neurons

Which target organ is NOT affected by the

adrenal medulla

parasympathetic division of the ANS?

The two divisions of the ANS normally have
antagonistic
what relationship?
What is the effect of norepinephrine on the
heart?

an increase in heart rate

Which of the following is responsible for the

hypothalamus
overall integration of the ANS?
The fainting episodes are a result of
Fainting occurs only in warm room. What is
orthostatic hypotension. The condition
the cause of the fainting, and how does it
is exaggerated when blood supply to
relate to the autonomic nervous system and
the skin is increased, such as when the
to room temperature?
room is warm.
What surgery is needed to correct Raynaud's
The doctor will perform a
disease; will she have anhidrosis (lack of
sympathectomy, and the affected
sweating) or hyperhidrosis (profuse
hand will suffer from anhidrosis.
sweating) after?
The Ears would be ____________ to the Nose. lateral
The Integumentary system is the most
__________ organ system of the body.

superficial

The Fingers would be ___________ to the

shoulder.

distal

Location of the epithelial tissue: simple

cuboidal

tubules of the kidney

Location of the epithelial tissue: transitional lining of the bladder

Location of the epithelial tissue: simple
squamous

alveolar sacs of the lungs

Location of the epithelial tissue: PCCE

respiratory tract

Location of the epithelial tissue: stratified

squamous

integumentary system

What is the function of adipose connective

tissue?

insulates body from heat and cold

What is the function of osseous connective

tissue?

forms your hip bone

What is the function of areolar connective

tissue?

composes basement membrane and

packages organs

What is the function of hyaline cartilage?

form the larynx

What bone markings aid in forming joints?

facet, head, ramus and condyle

What are the bone Marking that allows blood

foramen
vessels and/or nerves to pass?
The most common cartilage in the body,
which forms the articular cartilage, costal
cartilage and Nose is __________.

hyaline cartilage

Once completely hardened, bone forming

cells must come from the _____ for bone
repair.

periosteum

Collagen fibers which run from the fibrous

sharpley's fibers
bone covering into the bone itself are called:
For the bone category "long bones", the
spaces within spongy bone are initially filled red marrow
with:
Which type of bone is a rib?

flat

Which type of bone is the humerus?

long

Which type of bone are the carpals?

short

Which type of bone are the vertebrae?

irregular

Both cartilage and bone tissues possess:

lacunae

All ribs articulate directly with the:

thoracic vertebrae

There are _____ pair of ribs.

12

The first cervical vertebra is called the:

atlas

Almost all growth of the _____ occurs by 2

years of age.

cranial bones

The last part of a long bone to harden is the: epiphyseal plate

True/False: Is the coxyx part of the hip
(coxal) bone?

false

This bony landmark of the pelvic girdle

receives the head of the femur.

acetabulum

The type of muscle found in the intestines is

smooth muscle
_________.
Which types of joints give you the three
types of Functional Joints?

synarthroses, ampiarthroses and

diarthroses

The type of synovial joint created by the

articulation of the humerus and the ulna is a hinge
_________ joint.
Which muscle play a role in inspiration (i.e., diaphragm, scales and external
drawing air into the lungs)?
intercostals
The Triceps Brachii has how many origins?

The superficial Flexor muscles of the

forearm all originate on what bony
landmark?

Medial Epicondyle of the Humerus

A muscle that opposes the movement of

another muscle is a/an ____________.

antagonist

The gluteus minimus and sartorious are

synnergists for what function?

abduction of the thigh

True or False: the "Hamstrings" are made up

of the semitendinosus, the
false
semimembranosus, and the biceps brachii.
What is the action of the: peroneus longus

extension

What is the action of the: tibialis anterior

dorsiflexion

What is the action of the: psoas major

flexion

Which muscle is antagonist to the: iliacus

gluteus maximus

What is the action of the: biceps femoris

gluteus medias

What is the action of the: adductor longus

vastus lateralis

What is the action of the: erectus abdominus erector spinae

The tibialis anterior and the peroneus longus
antagonists
are _______ to each other.
True/False: the gastrocnemius is a synnergist
true
to the soleus.

Question 1
1 out of 1 points

When a tissue experiences parenchymal repair the new tissue _____ produce the
tissue's orignal function.
Selected Answer:

a.

does
Answers:

a.
does
b.
does not

Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Which type of cell junction is important in preventing cells from tearing apart
from one another when subjected to stress?
Selected Answer:

a.
Desmosome

Answers:

a.
Desmosome
b.
Gap Junction
c.
Tight Junction
d.
Basement membrane

Question 3
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following tissues is well vascularized and experiences true

parenchymal repair?
Selected Answer:

e.

Answers 1 and 2, but not 3.

Answers:

a.
bone
b.
adipose
c.
cartilage
d.
all of the above
e.
Answers 1 and 2, but not 3.

Question 4
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following forms the structure of the intervertebral disks?

Selected Answer:

a.
fibrocartilage

Answers:

a.
fibrocartilage
b.
elastic cartilage
c.
hyaline cartilage
d.
elastic connective tissue

 Question 5
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is important in thermoregulation?

Selected Answer:

a.
eccrine sweat glands

Answers:

a.
eccrine sweat glands
b.
apocrine sweat glands
c.
sebaceous glands
d.
Answers 1 and 3
e.
Answers 2 and 3

Question 6
1.67 out of 1.67 points

Match each type of tissue with its description.

Question
areolar

Correct Match
B.
the most abundant connective
tissue

Selected Match
B.
the most abundant connective
tissue

p.c.c.e.

A.

A.

normally the the most abundant normally the the most abundant
lining in the respiratory tract
lining in the respiratory tract
dense
regular
dense
irregular
transitional

C.
tendons are made of this type
E.
comprises the deep dermis
D.
stretchable epithelium

C.
tendons are made of this type
E.
comprises the deep dermis
D.
stretchable epithelium

All Answer Choices

A.
normally the the most abundant lining in the respiratory tract
B.
the most abundant connective tissue
C.
tendons are made of this type
D.
stretchable epithelium
E.
comprises the deep dermis

Question 7
1.67 out of 1.67 points

Match the cell junctions and other structures with their descriptions. Junctions
may be used more than once.

Question
gap junction

Correct Match
E.
Allows ions to pass between
cells.

tight junction

A.
Called the zona occludens
because it blocks passage of
substances between cells.

desmosome

D.
Called macula adherens
because they are like spot
welds which adhere cells
together.

keratin
filaments

hemidesmoso
me

B.
fibers which hold cells
together laterally
C.
adheres cells to the basement
membrane

Selected Match
E.
Allows ions to pass between
cells.
A.
Called the zona occludens
because it blocks passage of
substances between cells.
D.
Called macula adherens
because they are like spot
welds which adhere cells
together.
B.
fibers which hold cells
together laterally
C.
adheres cells to the basement
membrane

All Answer Choices

A.
Called the zona occludens because it blocks passage of substances between
cells.
B.

fibers which hold cells together laterally

C.
adheres cells to the basement membrane
D.
Called macula adherens because they are like spot welds which adhere cells
together.
E.
Allows ions to pass between cells.

Question 8
1.67 out of 1.67 points

Match each type of tissue with its description.

Question
fibrocartilage

Correct Match
C.
found in symphysis pubis

elastic
cartilage
hyaline
cartilage
mesenchyme

D.
found in the epiglottis and ear
E.
found as costal cartilage
B.
all connective tissues are
derived from this

serosa

A.
a lining and covering

Selected Match
C.
found in symphysis pubis
D.
found in the epiglottis and ear
E.
found as costal cartilage
B.
all connective tissues are
derived from this
A.
a lining and covering

membrane

membrane

All Answer Choices

A.
a lining and covering membrane
B.
all connective tissues are derived from this
C.
found in symphysis pubis
D.
found in the epiglottis and ear
E.
found as costal cartilage

Question 1
1 out of 1 points

The first cervical vertebra is called the:

Selected Answer:

c.
atlas

Answers:

a.
occipitum
b.
axis
c.

atlas
d.
manubrium
e.
gladiolus
Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Insufficient _____ is associated with osteoporosis.

Selected Answer:

b.
Vitamin D3

Answers:

a.
calcitonin
b.
Vitamin D3
c.
growth hormone
d.
estrogen
e.
weight bearing exersize
f.
All of the above
g.
Answers 2, 4 and 5 only.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Cranial bones start out as a:

Selected Answer:

b.
fibrous connective tissue membrane

Answers:

a.
hyaline cartilage plate
b.
fibrous connective tissue membrane
c.
membrane of areolar and dense irregular tissue.
d.
membrane of stratified squamous epithelium

Question 4
1 out of 1 points

The cell derived from osteoprogenitor cels which produces ossification is the:
Selected Answer:

b.
osteoblast

Answers:

a.
osteoclast
b.
osteoblast
c.
osteocyte
d.

mesenchyme cell
Question 5
1 out of 1 points

Both cartilage and bone possess:

Selected Answer:

a.
lacunae

Answers:

a.
lacunae
b.
a basement membrane
c.
canaliculi
d.
internal blood vessels

Question 6
0 out of 1 points

All ribs articulate with the:

Selected Answer:

d.
Both answers 1 and 2

Answers:

a.
thoracic vertebrae
b.
sternum

c.
lumbar vertebrae
d.
Both answers 1 and 2
Question 7
1 out of 1 points

the myeloid tissue responsible for hematopoiesis is found in the:

Selected Answer:

b.
red marrow

Answers:

a.
Sharpey's fibers
b.
red marrow
c.
yellow marrow
d.
periosteum

Question 8
1 out of 1 points

There are _____ pair of ribs.

Selected Answer:

c.
12

Answers:

a.
7

b.
5
c.
12
d.
10
Question 9
1 out of 1 points

Increased calcium absorption is produced by:

Selected Answer:

e.
Vitamin D3

Answers:

a.
calcitonin
b.
parathyroid hormone
c.
estrogen
d.
growth hormone
e.
Vitamin D3

Question 10
1 out of 1 points

Match the parts of the temporal bone with the letters.

Question

Correct Match

external acoustic meatus

3.
A

mastoid process

1.

mandibular fossa

5.

zygomatic process

4.

styloid process

2.
E
3.
A
4.
D

4.
D

2.
E

5.
C

1.

1.
B

All Answer Choices

3.
A

Selected Match

2.
E

5.
C

0 out of 1 points

The primary hormone for calcium homeostasis is:

Selected Answer:

e.
Vitamin D3

Answers:

a.
calcitonin
b.
parathyroid hormone
c.
estrogen
d.
growth hormone
e.
Vitamin D3

Question 2
1 out of 1 points

All ribs articulate with the:

Selected Answer:

a.
thoracic vertebrae

Answers:

a.
thoracic vertebrae

b.
sternum
c.
lumbar vertebrae
d.
Both answers 1 and 2
Question 3
1 out of 1 points

The last location within a long bone of cartilage formation is:

Selected Answer:

b.
epiphyseal plate

Answers:

a.
bone collar
b.
epiphyseal plate
c.
medullary canal
d.
trochanter

Question 4
1 out of 1 points

The large anterior fontanel hardens at:

Selected Answer:

a.
1.5 to 2 years after birth

Answers:

a.
1.5 to 2 years after birth
b.
late teens
c.
early twenties
d.
birth

Question 5
1 out of 1 points

The first location of ossification in long bones is the:

Selected Answer:

a.
diaphysis bone collar

Answers:

a.
diaphysis bone collar
b.
epiphyseal plate
c.
proximal epiphysis
d.
distal epiphysis

Question 6
1 out of 1 points

osteoclasts are stimulated by:

Selected Answer:

b.
parathyroid hormone

Answers:

a.
calcitonin
b.
parathyroid hormone
c.
estrogen
d.
growth hormone
e.
Vitamin D3

Question 7
1 out of 1 points

The spaces in spongy bone are initially filled with:

Selected Answer:

b.
red marrow

Answers:

a.
Sharpey's fibers
b.
red marrow
c.
yellow marrow
d.

periosteum
Question 8
1 out of 1 points

The cell which initiates the process of remodeling in adult bone:

Selected Answer:

a.
osteoclast

Answers:

a.
osteoclast
b.
osteoblast
c.
osteocyte
d.
mesenchyme cell

Question 9
0 out of 1 points

Osteoclasts are derived at some point from:

Selected Answer:

b.
monocytes

Answers:

a.
mesenchyme cells
b.
monocytes

c.
osteoprogenitor cells
d.
all of the above
e.
Answers 1 and 2 only.
Question 10
0.2 out of 1 points

Match the bone parts with the letters.

Question

Correct Match

greater sciatic notch

B.
A

iliac crest

E.
C

C.
B

ischial tuberosity

A.
E

E.
C

acetabulum

B.
A

D.
D

pubic crest

D.
D

A.
E

uestion 1
0 out of 1 points

The primary hormone for calcium homeostasis is:

Selected Answer:

e.
Vitamin D3

Answers:

Selected Match

a.
calcitonin
b.
parathyroid hormone
c.
estrogen
d.

C.
B