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# commquestions answer = b The frequency of a free vibration. a. Resonant frequency b. Natural frequency c. Center frequency d.

Normal frequency answer = a The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings. a. Flanking transmission b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Reverberation answer = c A measure of threshold of hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specifie d standard of normal hearing. a. Hearing loss b. Sensation level c. Hearing level d. Sound pressure level answer = a A certain machine with a slightly out-of balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calcula te the resonant frequency of mount. a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer = d Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120mm thick, 4m b y 2m in area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is sup ported at its edges.) a. 10 Hz b. 20 Hz c. 30 Hz d. 40 Hz answer = b Velocity of sound in air. a. 300 m/s b. 330 m/s c. 1130 m/s d. 344 m/s answer = b What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. a. 114.5 Hz b. 214.5 Hz c. 314.5 Hz d. 414.5 Hz answer = d The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 d

B (re10^-12W). Find the max. sound pressure level on the ground directly below t he flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directio ns a. 59.1 dB b. 69.1 dB c. 79.1 dB d. 89.1 dB answer = b Speaker is a device that a. converts sound waves into current and voltage b. converts current variations into sound waves c. converts electrical energy to mechanical energy d. converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy answer = c Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistan ce of carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary? a. Dynamic b. Crystal c. Carbon d. Ribbon-type answer = c Bass response is a. maximum high frequency response b. emphasizing the high audio frequencies c. bypassing high audio frequencies d. bypassing low audio frequencies answer = d Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing. a. 1 Hz b. 10 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 1000 Hz answer = a __________ is early reflection of sound. a. Echo b. Reverberation c. Pure sound d. Intelligible sound answer = a Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. a. Dolby b. dBa c. dBx d. dBk answer = d What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direc tion per unit time? a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound pressure d. Sound intensity answer = d

__________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. a. Sone b. Decibel c. Mel d. Phon answer = c __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direc tion through a cross-section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction. a. Sound pressure b. Loudness c. Sound intensity d. Pressure variation answer = d What is the unit of pitch? a. Sone b. Phon c. Decibel d. Mel answer = b A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity. a. Phon b. Decibel c. Pascal d. Watts answer = c Sound wave has two main characteristics which are a. highness and loudness b. tone and loudness c. pitch and loudness d. rarefaction and compression answer = b Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates a n output signal voltage? a. Carbon b. Dynamic c. Crystal d. Condenser answer = d The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in watts is this light bulb consuming a. 10 watts b. 20 watts c. 40 watts d. 50 watts answer = b Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 f oot, 1.5 inches? a. 500 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 2000 Hz answer = c

The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms current? a. 2 A b. 4 A c. 5 A d. 6 A answer = b A church has an internal volume of 90,05 cubic ft (2,550 cubic m). When it cont ains 2,000 customary sabins of absorption (186 metric sabins), what will be its reverberation time in seconds. a. 2.0 b. 2.2 c. 2.5 d. 3.0 If a. b. c. d. answer = a the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb/square ft, what is the sound pressure level? 7.6 dB 108 dB 88 dB 10 dB

answer = b Speed that is faster than speed of sound. a. Ultrasonic b. Supersonic c. Subsonic d. Transonic answer = b Sound waves travel in water at a ___________ speed. a. 12.4 miles/sec b. 5,000 ft/sec c. 186,000 ft/sec d. 3,141 ft/sec answer = d What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates sound uniformly? a. 0.15 W b. 0.21 W c. 0.24 W d. 0.18 W answer = b Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave travel. a. Compression b. Wavelength c. Period d. Sound wave answer = a Sound intensity level is ____________. a. 10 log l/lref b. 10 log p/pref c. 20 log l/lref d. 30 log p/pref answer = a

Sound a. 20 b. 30 c. 10 d. 20

pressure level is ____________. log P/Pref log p/ref log p/pref log l/lref

answer = a The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones. a. Frequency response b. Field strength c. Power density d. Gain answer = c Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument. a. Midrange b. Harmonic c. Fundamental d. Period answer = a Tendency of a sound energy to spread. a. Diffraction b. Rarefaction c. Reflection d. Refraction answer = d When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called ________. a. reflection b. defraction c. rarefaction d. refraction answer = c Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB. a. Echo time b. Delay time c. Reverberation time d. Transient time answer = a The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________. a. frequency b. noise c. amplitude d. tone answer = c Sound that vibrates at frequency too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kH z). a. Subsonic b. Transonic c. Ultrasonic d. Stereo answer = b Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52 degree s C? a. Dynamic

b. Crystal c. Ribbon d. Capacitor answer = d A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dyna mic loudspeaker to move back and forth along the core of its magnet. a. Vibrator b. Diaphragm c. Hypex d. Spider answer = c One hundred twenty ubars of pressure variation is equal to a. 120 dBSPL b. 57.78 dBSPL c. 115.56 dBSPL d. 41.58 dBSPL answer = a The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Fi nd the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines. a. 35.3 b. 10.96 c. 379.8 d. 109.6 answer = c What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bass frequenci es for close microphone spacing? a. Field effect b. P.A. effect c. Proximity effect d. Reverberation answer = d What is the audio frequency range? a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz answer = d What is the bass frequency range? a. 20 kHz to 40 MHz b. 1 Hz to 20 kHz c. 40 Hz to 160 kHz d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz answer = b High frequency range of audio signals. a. 2,500 Hz to 5,000 Hz b. 5,000 Hz to 10 kHz c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz d. 20,000 Hz to 30 kHz answer = b What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office? a. 90 b. 65

c. 55 - 60 d. 80 - 85 answer = c What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music? a. 80 - 95 b. 85 - 90 c. 95 - 100 d. 100 - 105 answer = b What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? a. 90 b. 80 - 85 c. 85 - 90 d. 90 - 95 answer = b Intensity can also be called as a. volume b. loudness c. sharpness d. strength answer = d The loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to _________ _ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound. a. transmitting b. running c. moving d. vibrating answer = d _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of th e sound and its intensity varies inversely with the square of this distance. a. volume b. bass c. treble d. loudness answer = d If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, th e intensity is reduced to a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 1/4 answer = c If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased t o 1/2 the original amount, the intensity of the sound would be ___________. a. 2 times as great b. 3 times as great c. 4 times as great d. 5 times a great answer = a At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is a. 1000 mels b. 500 mels

c. 2000 mels d. 100 mels answer = b If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone, what is t he frequency of the electric current? a. 3 to 30 MHz b. 25 to 8000 Hz c. 4 to 40 Hz d. 30 to 2000 Hz answer = c For a music lover concert &quot;A&quot; is 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave higher were played, it would be ______________ that frequency. a. one-half b. one-fourth c. double d. triple answer = d In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower it would be ___________. a. 22 Hz b. 27.5 Hz c. 440 Hz d. 110 Hz answer = d Much of music generally referred to in a. harmonics b. good hearing c. fidelity d. octaves answer = c __________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal passes through a d evice. a. Noise b. Vibration c. Distortion d. Harmonics answer = c Distortion enhances intelligibility when an _______ is added. a. equalizer b. igniter c. exciter d. emulsifier answer = d A class of signal processors. a. Amplifiers b. Equalizers c. Microprocessors d. Exciters answer = c Hall construction and internal finishes affect the final sound quality ________ _____. a. poorly b. mildly c. significantly

answer = c Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. If the temperature is 149 degrees C ? a. 1530.03 ft/sec b. 1320 ft/sec c. 1357.03 ft/sec

d. 1920.435 ft/sec answer = c The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is a. 16.5 m b. 16.5 cm c. 16.5 mm d. 16.5 um answer = b The ratio of frequencies is termed a. octave b. interval c. harmonics d. masking answer = c What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled? a. b. c. d. 2 3 6 4 dB dB dB dB

answer = d A term which is subjective but dependent mainly on frequency and also affected by intensity, a. Timbre b. Quality c. Frequency d. Pitch answer = d An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop t he nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound. a. Piezoelectric effect b. Skin effect c. Lasing d. Masking answer = b For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable? a. Sabine b. Stephen and Bate c. Norris-Eyring d. Notch answer = d The ________ of sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and brain. a. pitch b. frequency c. timbre d. loudness answer = a Defined as the time taken for the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to one millionth of its initial value. a. Reverberation time b. Transmit time

c. Decaying time d. Response time answer = d ___________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagatio n direction, per unit time. a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound stress d. Sound intensity answer = d One octave above 600 Hz is a. 601 Hz b. 800 Hz c. 1400 Hz d. 1200 Hz answer = a A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At this distance, what is the sound power in watt? a. 0.63 b. 1.26 c. 0.315 d. 0.56 x 10^ -6 answer = d The unit of loudness level a. Sone b. dB c. Mel d. Phon answer = d Consists of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes. a. Rarefaction b. Refraction c. Reflection d. Flutter echo answer = b Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings. a. Charles H. Townes b. W.C. Sabine c. A. Javin d. Stephen and Bate answer = b The average absorption for a person is a. 5.7 units b. 4.7 units c. 6.7 units d. 3.7 units answer = b An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced by some source of vibrations. a. Music b. Sound c. Disturbance

d. Speech answer = d Considered to be as the threshold of hearing. a. 10^-12 W/square cm b. 10^-16 W/square m c. 10^-13 W/square m d. 10^-12 W/square m answer = a The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per second. a. Frequency b. Timber c. Quality d. Pitch answer = c Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given directio n through a cross-sectional area of 1 square m at right angles to the direction. a. b. c. d. Sound pressure Loudness Sound intensity Pressure variation

answer = b What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having an RMS pressure of 200 N/square m? a. 150 dB b. 140 dB c. 170 dB d. 160 dB answer = d The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. threshold of feeling b. threshold of pain c. threshold of sensation d. threshold of hearing answer = b What is the intensity of sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/square m? a. 96.8 W/square m b. 97.8 W/square m c. 95.8 W/square m d. 94.8 W/square m answer = d The unit of pitch. a. Sone b. Phon c. dB d. Mel answer = b What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled ? a. 2 dB b. 3 dB c. 4 dB

d. 6 dB answer = a The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at ________ for the purpose of building acoustics. a. 330 m/s b. 330 mm/s c. 330 um/s d. 330 cm/s answer = a An instrument designed to measure a frequency - weighted value of the sound pre ssure level. a. Sound level meter b. Transducer c. Sound pressure meter d. Sound analyzer answer = a A unit of nosiness related to the perceived noise level a. Noy b. Sone c. dB d. Phone An the a. b. c. d. answer = c agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to center frequency of the octave bands. C-message weighting curve Psophometric weighting curve Noise rating curves F1A weighting curve answer = c Communication is the process of a. Keeping in touch b. Broadcasting c. Exchanging information d. Entertainment by electronics answer = d A key barrier in communications a. Cost b. PN Junction c. Walls d. Distance answer = c Electronics Communication was discovered in what century? a. Sixteenth b. Eighteenth c. Nineteenth d. Twentieth answer = b Which of the following is not a major communications medium? a. Free Space b. Water

c. Wires d. Fiber Optics Cable answer = d Random interference to transmitted signals is called a. Adjacent channel overlap b. Cross talk c. Garbage - in - Garbage - out d. Noise answer = c The communications medium causes the signal to be a. Amplified b. Modulated c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer = a Which of the following is not a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmospheric effects c. Manufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electronic components answer = d One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = b Simultaneoues two-way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = c The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called a. b. c. d. Modulating Signal Carrier Baseband Signal Source Signal

answer = d The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer = a The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneo usly over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection

answer = b The voice freqency range is a. 30 to 300 Hz b. 300 to 3000 Hz c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz d. 0 Hz to 15 kHz answer = c Another name for signal in the HF range is a. Microwaves b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer = c Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answer = a Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared rays b. Microwaves c. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer = b A micron is a. One - millionth of a foot b. One - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One ten-thousandth of an inch answer = d The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 30 to 300 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10 microns answer = b The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 microns b. 7000 Angstrom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer = a Which of the following is not used for communications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Microwaves answer = b A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The band width is a. 0.007 MHz

b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer = c In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and man aged by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC d. NTC answer = d For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signa ls in the range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer = b Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal i s called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer = c Which a. The b. The c. The d. The of the following is not true about AM? carrier output varies. carried frequency remains constant. carrier frequency changes. information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude.

answer = d The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modulation c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer = a The circuit used to produce modulation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Multiplexer answer = c A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication d. Division answer = c The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier vo ltage is referred to as a. The voltage ratio

b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix factor answer = d If m is greater than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Carrier drops to zero. c. Carrier frequency shifts d. Information signal is distorted answer = b For a. m b. m c. m d. m ideal AM, which of the following is true? = 0 = 1 &lt; 1 &lt; 1

answer = c The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer = a Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm &gt; Vc b. Vm &lt; Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc = 0 answer = d The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious emissions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer = d A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequency spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer = a Most of the power in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Modulation signal answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent

d. 93.3 percent answer = b A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and U SB are, respectively, a. 873 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer = b An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation i s 80 percent. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer = a For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer = a An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier po wer is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer = b An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and f ound to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. Th e percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer = d In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer = c An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband

b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer = c What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One sideband d. Both sidebands answer = a The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer = c In SSB, which sideband is the best to use? a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer = b Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage answer = a It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by e lectronic means. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d. Telephony answer = a What services uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Sattelite system answer = b The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is calle d a. b. c. d. Carrier Information Sideband Squarewave

answer = c What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the inter

mediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the interm idiate frequency by 1kHz answer = a A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictab le variations in amplitude frequency. a. Speech b. Digital c. Pulses d. Bits answer = c He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex re petitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d. Y. Uda answer = b The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carr ier is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling answer = d A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and max imum bunching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith chart b. Venn Diagram c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer = a It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the prin cipal source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect answer = d It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer = a An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which underg oes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler

answer = a What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in th e path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer = b It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitud e is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer = c The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invent ion of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer = a In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound wi th his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = b He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = a Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of t he phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Either d. Neither answer = d What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called? a. b. c. d. Receiver Transmission medium Converter Reproducer

answer = c What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b. Energy

answer = a What a. To b. To c. To d. To

is the purpose of conversion frequency oscillator? provide a conversion frequency produce the IF provide good selectivity increase stability

answer = d What circuit is used to create vestigial transmission? a. HPF b. LPF c. Duplexer d. Diplexer answer = d What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer = b Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer = a In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a (n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer = a Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer = c Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulati ng signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer = a The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor

b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer = b Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer = b The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer = c The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer = d A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude Modulator b. Diode Detector c. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer = c A widely used balanced modulator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full Wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer = b In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Switches c. Rectifiers d. Variable Capaitors answer = d The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM

answer = c What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy answer = b What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the tr ansmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity

b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer = d What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. Direct c. Transformer d. Inductive answer = a What class of bias should produce least harmonics? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D answer = c What type of field does a Faraday shield stop? a. Common b. Array c. Electrostatic d. Magnetostatic answer = a What type of circuit reduces even-order harmonics? a. Push-pull b. Class A c. Armstrong circuit d. Demodulator answer = d How many watts are represented by 40dBw? a. 40,000w b. 1,000w c. 40w d. 10,000w answer = a Term for transmission of printed picture by radio. a. Facsimile b. ACSSB c. Xerography d. Television answer = b What is another name for an AF volume control? a. FC b. Gain c. ARC d. AMC answer = d What device can be used to make a modulated envelope visible? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Synthesizer c. Calibrator d. Oscilloscope

answer = b Which of the following is not an advantage of SSB over AM? a. Power saving b. Simple receiver circuit c. Less spectrum d. None of these answer = b What is the result if a balanced modulator is not perfectly balanced? a. b. c. d. SB filtered Carrier transmitted Lower sideband transmitted Both sideband transmitted

answer = d If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0 b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer = d What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer = b In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate d. SB answer = a What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodulator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer = a What kind of crystal is used in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer = b Power is always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer = c Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators?

a. b. c. d.

## AM FM Aircraft Shortwave listeners

d. Oscillations answer = b _______ frequencies are exact multiples of the fundamental frequency. a. b. c. d. Distortion Harmonic Modulation Radio

answer = d Amplitude distortion results from _______ amplification. a. Indirect b. Linear c. Direct d. Nonlinear answer = c A _____ is a resonant circuit tuned to reject an undesired signal by r educing the gain at the trap frequency a. LC tank b. LPF c. Wave trap d. HPF answer = a A subcarrier has a(n) _____ frequency than the main carrier. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. Good answer = a Amplitude limiting in the IF section eliminates ___ interference from the FM signal. a. AM b. FM c. PM d. Broadband answer = b With which emission type is capture-effect most pronounced? a. CW b. FM c. SSB d. AM answer = d The parameter of a high frequency carrier that may be varied by a low frequency intelligence signal is a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. All of the above answer = a A carrier signal has ____. a. Constant peak amplitude b. The information c. Frequency range 20-20000Hz

answer = d The width of television broadcast channel a. 200MHz b. 10kHz c. 100kHz d. 6MHz answer = b CATV trunk and feeder system amplifier input voltage of _____. a. 110 V b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V

answer = b If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3 degrees, the antenna is called a a. end fire array b. critical phased array c. broadband array d. wideband array answer = a A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave. a. Antenna b. Loudspeaker c. Microphone d. Transducer answer = a Which is a non-resonant antenna? a. Rhombic antenna b. Folded dipole c. End-fire array d. Yagi-Uda antenna answer Gain of a. 2.15 b. 1.76 c. 1 dB d. 0 dB = a a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic. dB dB

answer = b Very low signal strength in antenna. a. Minor lobes b. Null c. Antenna patterns d. Major lobes answer What is a. 1.64 b. 2.15 c. 1.76 d. 1.55 = c the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna? dB dB dB dB

answer = c ____________ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivi ty. a. Phase angle b. Antenna gain c. Beamwidth d. Bandwidth answer = b In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type o f antenna must be used? a. Void antenna b. Dummy antenna c. Hertzian antenna d. Isotropic antenna

answer = a The best solution of fading is ____________. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer = c _____________ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols. a. Bandwidth b. Enthalpy c. Entropy d. Quantum answer = b If an antenna has a gain of 30 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter b y a. b. c. d. 10,000 times 1000 times 100 times 1 million times

a. b. c. d.

## Antenna array Tower Omni-directional Rhombic

answer = a Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical polarization? a. Marconi antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn antenna d. Helical antenna answer = d An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth. a. Helical antenna b. Discone antenna c. Horn antenna d. Parabolic dish antenna answer = d What determines antenna a. The frequency of the b. The direction of the c. The direction of the d. The direction of the polarization? radiated wave radiated wave magnetic field vector electric field vector

answer = a ______________ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. a. Azimuth b. Angle of elevation c. Right angle d. Beamwidth answer = b A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given sign al strength to a particular distant pt. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use of the reflector. (Gain referred to this particular dip ole). a. 4.75 b. 2.6 c. 1.81 d. 4.24 answer = c What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design? a. 300 kph b. 100 kph c. 200 kph d. 250 kph answer = a Discone radiation pattern is _____________. a. omnidirectional b. unidirectional c. bidirectional d. figure of eight

answer = c ______________ is an open-ended slot antenna. a. Helical antenna b. Rhombic antenna c. Notch antenna d. Cassegrain antenna answer = b Which antenna is a properly terminated? a. Marconi b. Rhombic c. Dipole d. Yagi-Uda answer = b What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna? a. Omnidirectional b. Bidirectional c. Unidirectional d. Hemispherical answer What is a. 1.76 b. 2.15 c. 3 dB d. 0 dB = a the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole? dB dB

answer = c An antenna with unity gain. a. Rhombic b. Half-wave dipole c. Isotropic d. Whip answer = b How will you increase the gain of an antenna? a. By adding several antennas in parallel b. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction c. By making antenna rods thicker d. By making the antenna size larger answer = d An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long. a. Hertzian dipole b. Loop antenna c. Marconi antenna d. Elementary doublet answer = a What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have? a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6 answer = b What is the gain of isotropic antenna? a. 10 b. 1

a. b. c. d.

a. b. c. d.

## MHz MHz MHz MHz

answer = d Numerical frequency band designation of Channel 9. a. 488 - 494 MHz b. 530 - 536 MHz c. 632 - 638 MHz d. 186 - 192 MHz answer = c Cable TV systems originates from a. Germany b. Dallas, Texas c. Pennsylvania d. Japan answer = a A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade th e performance of a system. a. composite triple beat b. single dual mode c. field strength d. noise answer = b A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service are a, but is permitted to originate programming from virtually any source. a. DME b. LPTV c. HDTV d. ITFS answer = d Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distributi on of program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula. a. translator b. LPTV c. HDTV d. ITFS answer = c ITFS means a. International b. Instructional c. Instructional d. International

Television Frequency Standard Telephone Frequency Service Television Fixed Service Telecommunications Frequency Standard

answer = a MDS means a. Multipoint Distribution Service b. Multipoint Digital Service c. Maritime Data Standards d. Multipoint Drop Standards answer = d Direct broadcast satellite based allocation. a. 12.2 - 12.7 GHz for downlink

a. b. c. d.

15 20 25 30

Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipments, tests, malfunctio ns, and corrections in communications system. a. reporting b. documentation c. log d. file answer = d Which of the following is not a low-impedance microphone? a. dynamic b. velocity c. condenser d. crystal answer = d Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items? a. map b. pictures c. printed page d. all of these answer = c Television has a lot of features in common with a. FM stereo b. telephone service c. motion picture d. magazine answer = a The major component of the TV signal waveform is the a. video b. radar c. stereo d. antenna answer = d For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from a. top to bottom b. left to right c. right to left d. choices A and B above answer = b One complete NTSC scanning cycle called field consist of how many lines? a. 500 b. 525 c. 625 d. 60 answer = c The field rate in the NTSC television system. a. 30 Hz b. 120 Hz c. 60 Hz d. 15.75 Hz answer = c What is the horizontal synchronous / blanking pulse rate? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz

c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer = b What is the vertical blanking pulse rate? a. 30 Hz b. 60 Hz c. 15.75 kHz d. 120 Hz answer = d The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse. a. equalizing (sync) pulse b. serrated vertical sync pulses c. black level pulses d. choices A and B above answer = d Television camera pickup tube is called a. vidicon b. image orthicon c. plumbicon d. all of the above answer = d The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for a. beam focusing b. beam deflection c. beam modulation d. beam focusing and beam deflection answer What is a. beam b. beam c. beam d. beam = c the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube? focusing deflection production modulation

answer = d Video modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer = b Audio modulation for television is a. amplitude modulation b. frequency modulation c. vestigial sideband d. both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband answer = a What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission ? a. b. c. d. 25 30 50 75 kHz kHz kHz kHz

answer = a The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by _____ MHz. a. 4.5 b. 5.5 c. 6.5 d. 7.5 answer = a In practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include componen ts clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz. a. 15.75 b. 30 c. 12.25 d. 45.5 answer = d Brightness of an image is known as a. radiance b. chrominance c. reflectance d. luminance answer = a The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as a. primary b. white c. desaturated d. all of the above answer = d A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television picku p? a. red b. green c. blue d. all of these answer = a What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmi tter? a. Y, I and Q b. P, D and Q c. M, N and O d. R, S and T answer = b Range of a VHF television transmitter. a. 54 - 98 MHz b. 54 - 216 MHz c. 54 - 128 MHz d. 54 - 166 MHz answer = c Range of a UHF television transmitter. a. 470 - 670 MHz b. 470 - 770 MHz c. 470 - 890 MHz d. 470 - 980 MHz answer = b

What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color TV? a. 0.8 MHz b. 1.8 MHz c. 8.1 MHz d. 1.6 MHz answer = a The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be a. saturated b. dark c. light d. monochrome answer = b At what position of the color triangle will saturated yellow be located? a. between red and blue b. between red and green c. between blue and green d. at the center answer = d What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers? a. 0 deg b. 45 deg c. 60 deg d. 90 deg answer = d _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance fre quency components. a. low pass b. band pass c. notch d. comb answer = a The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broadcas ts are received by the a. color killer b. SAW filter c. NOT gate d. all of the above answer = d What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? a. 25 % b. 0 % c. 12.5 % d. 75 % answer = d What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? a. 0 % b. 25 % c. 12.5 % d. 70 % answer = a What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?

a. b. c. d.

0 % 12.5 % 25 % 70 %

d. interface set answer = a A _____ represents one set of 262 1/2 scanning lines. a. field b. frame c. cycle d. interface set answer = c The number of scanning lines is _____ per second. a. 14,750 b. 15,570 c. 15,750 d. 16,550 answer = b Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second. a. 25 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 answer = b Lack of raster is an indication of no a. AGC b. high voltage c. video signal d. television signal answer = c The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver. a. IF stage b. video amplifier c. video detector d. burst separator answer = b The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the ____ _ circuit. a. horizontal b. reactor c. burst separator d. chroma amplifier answer = b Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated b y a TV signal. a. A3F b. F3F c. A3C d. F3C answer = c What is emission A3F? a. RTTY b. SSB c. TV d. modulated CW

b. T-8 c. 2 d. 3 answer = a The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13. a. 23.75 - 29.75 MHz b. 60 - 66 MHz c. 41.75 - 47.55 MHz d. 5.75 - 11.75 MHz answer = c Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV. a. 54 - 60 MHz b. 66 - 72 MHz c. 180 - 186 MHz d. 204 - 210 MHz answer = b The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate pictu re detail. a. constant b. resolution c. hue d. pixels answer = a CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television u sed. a. Rec. 265 - 6 b. Rec. 407 - 4 c. Rec. 408 - 5 d. Rec. 450 - 1 answer = d CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF. a. Rec. 601.2 b. Rec. 501.2 c. Rec. 500.4 d. Rec. 450.1 answer = c ISO Rec. 23 in 1976 is the standard for a. recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm motio n picture film b. projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector c. camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film d. camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film answer = c International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ in accorda nce with international agreements. a. 7012 and 26,100 kHz b. 6409 and 26,100 kHz c. 5950 and 26,100 kHz d. 10,950 and 26,100 kHz

a. b. c. d.

they are larger they must contain clock recovery circuits the production volume is larger they must operate on a larger bandwidth

Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog tran smission because a. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distortion b. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distort ed c. analog signals are continuous and are not easily distorted d. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals answer = d Digital to analog converter in synchronous modems send signals to the a. modulator b. transmission lines c. terminal d. equalizer answer = c Binary codes are transformed in modems into a. hexadecimal b. Hullman code c. Gray code d. octal answer = b Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because a. they are larger b. they must contain clock recover circuits c. the production volume is larger d. they must operate on a larger bandwidth answer = b What is the best type of data communications test equipment? a. simulator b. protocol analyzer c. DTE d. breakout box answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel? a. 64 kbps b. 16 kbps c. 8 kbps d. 144 kbps answer = c Baudot code uses how many bits per symbol? a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 8 answer = a How many bits are there to present 8 combinations? a. 3

b. 4 c. 2 d. 5 answer = a How many number of equiprobable events are there for 8-bits of information? a. 256 b. 132 c. 2400 d. 512 answer = c Which computer terminal can be programmed to perform new functions? a. dumb terminal b. smart terminal c. intelligent terminal d. super terminal answer = d Which character code is used without parity bit? a. CCITT number 2 b. ASCCII c. CCITT number 5 d. EBCDIC answer = d Which hardware is used when the host computer and the terminal are in separate locations? a. LCU b. FEP c. Muldem d. Modem answer = c _____ is a data communications hardware that assist the host computer in handli ng input and output tasks. a. hub b. cluster controller c. front end processor d. concentrator answer = c ASCII means a. terminals using synchronous transmission in EBCDIC b. terminals using synchronous transmission in ASCII c. terminals using asynchronous transmission in ASCII d. any terminal having an American (dollar-sign) keyboard answer = b A unit of information used in data communications. a. dit b. bit c. byte d. baud answer = b Transmission of binary signals requires a. less bandwidth than analog b. more bandwidth than analog c. the same bandwidth as analog

d. a license from the NTC answer = b What is the modulation rate of the CCITT V.26 modem? a. 56 kbps b. 1200 kbps c. 1560 kbps d. 9600 kbps answer = d The digital-to-analog converter in a synchronous modem sends signal to the ____ _. a. modulator b. transmission line c. terminal d. equalizer answer = c The number of bits that are zeros in each symbol when one is transmitting odd-p arity coded symbols. a. even b. odd c. unknown d. one answer = a A digital modulation technique that results in two difference frequencies repre senting binary 1 and -. a. FSK b. QPSK c. ASK d. DPSK answer = c What is the input to the Digital-to-Analog Converter of a PCM decoder circuit? a. a series of sampled amplitudes b. a parallel binary word c. a series of bits d. a reconstructed intelligence signal answer = b The output of the DAC at a PCM decoder circuit is a _____. a. series of binary-coded digits b. parallel output of binary-coded digits c. fixed analog voltage d. reconstructed intelligence signal answer = c Serial printer a. are used to transmit grain prices b. faster than CRT terminals, and offers more flexibility c. prints one character at a time d. usually uses serial interfaces answer = c Delta modulation is a/an a. 5-bit modulation b. integral PCM system c. 1-bit differential PCM system d. form of PDM

answer = b Alternative way of digitizing analog signals. a. PCM b. Delta modulation c. PPM d. DPCM answer = c One dit is equal to _____ bits. a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 3.32 d. 4 answer = b Redundancy means the _____. a. transmission rate of the system b. symbols are to be repeated c. time between failures d. time between successes answer = b Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation? a. Radio b. Optical fiber c. Coaxial cable d. Twisted pair answer = b _____ is a device used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an appr opriate form. a. Codec b. Transducer c. ADC/DAC d. Modem answer = c The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is a. 2250 kHz b. 2728 kHz c. 2520 kHz d. 2278 kHz answer = c Refers to the combination of digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM sig nals as one composite baseband signal. a. composite data b. data under voice (DUV) c. hybrid data d. Data In Voice (DIV) answer = c Transmit frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial data for distances up to 4000 miles. a. T carrier systems b. A carrier systems c. L carrier systems d. D carrier systems

## answer Level 5 a. 7680 b. 5760 c. 8064 d. 5670

= b of Japanese PCM multiplex hierarchy has channel capacity of VB channels VB channels VB channels VB channels

answer = d The line data rate (in Mbps) for level 4 of CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex hierarchy a. b. c. d. 97.728 400.352 274.176 139.264

answer = b The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is a. 12 kHz b. 56 kHz c. 128 kHz d. 8 kHz answer = a Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (in kHz) of a. 2108 b. 2356 c. 1860 d. 1612 answer = a A radio channel is composed of _____ VB channels. a. 1800 b. 900 c. 10800 d. 8064 answer = a What is the guardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2? a. 12 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 8 kHz d. 6 kHz answer = d CCITT&apos;s supermastergroup has how many voice band channels? a. 600 b. 1800 c. 10800 d. 900 answer = a The transparency mechanism used with SDLC is called a. zero-bit insertion b. modified link test c. beacon test d. invert-on-zero coding answer = a What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? a. 2B + D

b. B + D c. B + 2D d. 2B + 2D answer = d A digital network where voice, video, text and data are multiplexed into a sing le network for processing and are transmitted prior to use. a. frame relay b. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) c. ISDN d. synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH) answer = a T-1 carrier service has _____ digital bit rate. a. 1.544 Mbps b. 2048 Mbps c. 1.644 Mbps d. 9600 Mbps answer = b Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of _____. a. terminal equipment b. terminal adapters c. modem d. network adaptors answer = a What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? a. 312 to 552 kHz b. 60 to 2540 kHz c. 60 to 108 kHz d. 300 to 600 kHz answer = c What is the transmission signal coding for T1 carrier? a. binary b. NRZ c. bipolar d. Manchester answer = d The primary purpose of the data modem. a. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel b. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel c. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel d. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel answer = a The line control unit (LCU) that operates on the data in digital form. a. data terminal equipment (DTE) b. data communications equipment (DCE) c. modem d. UART answer = a SYN character of EBCDIC code. a. 32 H b. 8 H c. 16 H

answer = c What defines how the stations are interconnected in a network? a. topology b. architecture c. topology or architecture d. topology and architecture answer = b _____ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way communicatio ns between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a re latively small geographic area. a. private area network b. local area network c. wide area network d. Ethernet answer = b _____ is the mode of transmission in public data network in which data are tran sferred from source to the network then to the destination in an asynchronous da ta format. a. synchronous mode b. start/stop mode c. packet mode d. circuit mode answer = d A seven-bit character represent one of _____ possibilities. a. 7 b. 14 c. 64 d. 128 answer = d _____ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a channel. a. bit rate b. baud rate c. coding d. channel capacity answer = a Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destination, a reproduction of the original data source output. a. source coding b. channel coding c. inverse coding d. demodulation answer = c Digital modulation technique used in modems. a. ASK b. FSK c. PSK d. MSK answer = b Who developed the fixed-length binary code for telegraphy? a. Samuel Morse b. Emile Baudot c. Alexander Graham Bell

d. Guglielmo Marconi answer = d Inventor of pulse-code modulation for the digital encoding of speech signals. a. R.V.L. Hartley b. J.R. Carson c. H. Nyquist d. Alex Reeves answer = a In what year did computers and terminals start communicating with each other ov er long distance? a. 1950&apos;s b. 1960&apos;s c. 1970&apos;s d. 1980&apos;s answer = c Store-and-forward multiple-access network. a. ARPANET b. ALOHA c. PRNET d. Packet switching answer = d A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete memoryless source. a. prefix code b. source code c. entropy code d. Huffman code answer = b Who promulgates communications-related military standards (MIL-STD)? a. DOD b. DCA c. DOC-STD d. ANSI-MIL answer = b What is the class of probability in error detection techniques that is known as residual error rate? a. P1 b. P2 c. P3 d. P4 answer = a RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE. What is its signal rate? a. 20 kbps b. 30 kbps c. 40 kbps d. 50 kbps answer = d Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels. a. SDS b. TSI c. TDM d. TMS

answer = b What is multiplexing? a. the process of increasing bandwidth on a channel b. a technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a com mon line c. mailing letter at the post office d. the ability to share frequency by time

Which does not affect noise in a channel? a. bandwidth b. temperature c. quantizing level d. resistance answer = b _____ is a character oriented protocol. a. BOP b. Bisync c. ETX d. BCC answer = b ______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync a. ETX b. STX c. SOH d. BCC answer = b In _____ the clock pulse is used to time the sending and receiving of the chara cters. a. asynchronous data b. synchronous data c. bisynchronous data d. isochronous data answer = a All bits in a character are sent and received in _____ in serial port. a. one at a time b. simultaneously c. in groups of 2 bits d. in groups of 3 bits answer = c Bridge can only interconnect LANs having identical protocols at the _____ layer s. a. session and presentation b. network and transport c. physical and data link d. presentation and session answer = c OSI stands for a. Out-of-band Signaling Interconnect b. Organization for System Interconnection c. Open System Interconnection d. Organization System Interconnection answer = b ISO stands for a. International System Organization b. International Standardization Organization c. Interconnection for System Organization d. International Subscribers Organization answer = d Message switching is ______ network. a. hold and forward

b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer = a Packet switching is _____ network. a. hold and forward b. forward c. hold d. store and forward answer = c Polling is an invitation of the primary to a secondary equipment to _____ a mes sage. a. store b. receive c. transmit d. read answer = b Bit rate is _____. a. the rate of change at b. the rate of change at c. the reciprocal of the d. the reciprocal of the

the output of the modulator. the input of the modulator time of one output signaling element time of one input signaling element

answer = c A code that uses three unequal length symbols, dot, dash, and space to encode a character. a. Gray code b. Baudot code c. Morse code d. Hollerith cable answer = b A 5-bit character code a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH answer = a An 8-bit character code. a. EBCDIC b. BAUDOT c. ASCII d. HOLERITH answer = a An equipment that interfaces the data terminal equipment to the analog transmis sion line. a. modem b. muldem c. multiplexer d. codec answer = b Set of rules governing the orderly exchange of data information. a. CCIR recommendation b. protocol

## answer = c Broadband uses a. TDM b. Space multiplexing c. FDM

c. start/stop mode d. circuit mode answer = a IEEE 802.3 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing d. FDDI answer = c IEEE 802.4 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bus topology d. token passing for ring topology answer = d IEEE 802.5 standard is a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. token passing for bus topology d. token passing for ring topology answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access B channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer = b What is the data rate of the ISDN basic access D channel? a. 32 kbps b. 64 kbps c. 144 kbps d. 192 kbps answer = a What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? a. 2B + D b. B + D c. B + 2D d. 2B + 2D answer = d What is the number of channels on which different operations can occur simultan eously on one ISDN basic access line? a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3 answer = a Digital telephone and integrated voice-data workstations are examples of what t ype of ISDN equipment? a. TE b. TA c. NT2

c. V.26 d. V.27 answer = c Binary codes are sometimes transformed in modems into a. octal codes b. Huffman codes c. Gray code d. Hamming codes answer = c A Western Electric 2911 modem operates with a carrier frequency of a. 1400 Hz b. 1200 Hz c. 1800 Hz d. 800 Hz answer = d A special bit pattern used to denote the start and end of a data link layer fra me. a. EBCDIC b. gateway c. fibre d. flag answer = b A bipolar violation a. represents a zero followed by one b. occurs when two successive pulses y a zero level c. occurs when two successive pulses y one level d. represents as one bit followed by

bit have the same polarity and are separated b have the same polarity and are separated b a zero bit

answer = c What is a flow control? a. refers to opening and closing of flood control gates b. the process wherby the modem matches the rate of the receiver c. the process of starting and stopping the terminal output to avoid loss of ch aracters by the receiving device d. the process of switching &quot;on&quot; and &quot;off&quot;. answer = c Buffering refers to a. the storage of data within the transmitting modem until the receiver is read y to receive b. a method of reducing the severity of communications headaches c. temporarily storing data to allow for small variations in device speeds d. the process of isolating critical stages in a communications system answer = b What is the reason why many cables have RS-232 connectors with some wires cross ed? a. RS-232 is the prevalent standard b. asynchronous modems reverse the direction of transmitted and received data f rom the standard c. many computers and peripherals use RS-232 serial interface, but not as DTE o r DCE d. these connectors are readily available and cheaper

answer = c What is the number of bits that are zeros when transmitting odd-parity coded sy mbols? a. odd b. even c. unknown d. four answer = b Standard for the 7-layer model for Open Systems Interconnection a. X.75 b. X.200 c. X.400 d. X.500 answer = c One of the following options is a characteristic of a LAN. a. parallel transmission b. low cost access for low bandwidth channels c. application-independent interfaces d. serial transmission answer = a Not a common LAN medium. a. twin lead b. twisted pair c. fiber optic cable d. coax answer = d Not a local area network (LAN)? a. PBX system b. Hospital system c. Office building system d. cable TV system answer = a CCITT standard concentrating on data communications over the telephone network. a. b. c. d. V-series X-series I-series T-series

answer = b One of the following items cannot be provided in a broadband LAN. a. voice circuits b. fiber optic transmission c. CCTV d. frequency agile modems answer = d A small telephone switching system that can be used as a LAN./ a. ring b. WAN c. UART d. PBX answer = a A LAN architecture that can be expanded to the greatest total system bandwidth.

a. b. c. d.

digital PBX token passing network broadband cable system CSMA/CD baseband system

answer = b Which is considered as the fastest LAN topology? a. ring b. bus c. star d. square answer = c Data communications refers to the transmission of a. voice b. video c. computer data d. facsimile signal answer = b ______ is a procedure or rule that defines how data is to be transmitted. a. standard b. protocol c. data specification d. code answer = b Which of the following is a popular PC protocol? a. parity b. XMODEM c. CRC d. LRC answer = d What is the most widely used data communications code? a. Gray b. EBCDIC c. Baudot d. ASCII answer = d The ASCII code has how many bits? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 answer = c What methods are used in data communications? a. analog methods b. digital methods c. both analog and digital methods d. neither analog nor digital methods answer = b One of the following is not primarily a type of data communications. a. teletype b. telephone c. telegraph

a. b. c. d.

## microwave radio coaxial cable twisted pair optical fiber

answer = b Which of the following refers to the measurement of an uncertainty? a. probability b. entropy c. feasibility d. all of these answer = c Not an important characteristic of the physical layer. a. electrical b. mechanical c. logical d. all of these answer = c The bit rate of B-channel is _____ kbps. a. 16 b. 8 c. 64 d. 32 answer = a Defines a 2400-bps, PSK, half-duplex modem operating at 1200 baud. a. V.26bis b. V.26terbo c. V.27 d. V.28 answer = a Which of the following ITU standards describe the interconnection techniques be tween PDNs and PSTNs? a. V.100 b. V.200 c. V.300 d. V.400 answer = d Founded the wave theory of light a. Francesco Grimaldi b. Edward Appleton c. James Clerk Maxwell d. Christian Huygens answer = c Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as dielectric waveguide. a. Karpon and Keck b. Karpon and Bockham c. Bockham and Kao d. Kao and Keck answer = b Developed the first laser. a. Charles Townes b. Theodore Maiman c. Gordon McKenzie

The bandwidth of optical fiber. a. 900 MHz b. 900 PHz c. 900 THz d. 900 EHz answer = c If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is _____ as the incident angle. a. smaller b. larger c. the same d. independent answer = a What is the specific path the light takes in an optical fiber, corresponding to a certain angle and number of reflection? a. mode b. grade c. numerical aperture d. dispersion answer = c Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source. a. bandwidth b. chromatic dispersion c. spectral width d. beamwidth answer = d Which theory states that light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny part icles? a. Huygen&apos;s theory b. Wave theory of light c. Nyquist theory d. Quantum theory answer = d Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near a. 20 MHz b. 200 MHz c. 2 GHz d. 800 THz answer = c When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not ch ange? a. direction b. speed c. frequency d. wavelength answer = a Dispersion is used to describe the a. splitting of white light into its component colors b. propagation of light in straight lines c. bending of a beam when it goes from one medium to another d. bending of beam light when it strikes a mirror answer = d

Luminance efficiency is minimum for a a. fluorescent tube b. high wattage light bulb c. mercury vapor lamp d. low wattage light bulb answer = a An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _ ____ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. virtual d. smaller size answer = d An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ____ _ image. a. inverted b. the same in size c. smaller d. virtual answer = d The real image formed by a spherical mirror is _____ relative to its object. a. erect b. inverted c. smaller d. larger answer = c The wavelength of light has no role in a. diffraction b. interference c. polarization d. reflection answer = a Longitudinal waves do not exhibit a. polarization b. refraction c. reflection d. diffraction answer = c ______ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different paths down a fiber. a. material dispersion b. wavelength dispersion c. modal dispersion d. delay dispersion answer = a What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics? a. 0.09 dB b. 0.9 dB c. 0.19 dB d. 0.009 dB answer = d What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber op

## tics? a. 0.51 b. 0.31 c. 0.49 d. 0.38

dB dB dB dB

b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer = a Which laser emits light in visible range, 400 to 700 nm? a. argon-ion b. nitrogen c. carbon-dioxide d. neodymium-YAG answer = b Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser? a. energy x time b. pulse energy x repetition rate c. pulse energy / repetition rate d. peak power x pulse length answer What is a. 10.6 b. 6.63 c. 6.63 d. 10.6 = c the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10^12 Hz? x 10^34 joules x 10^-34 joules x 10^-22 joules x 10^22 joules

answer = d A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 cm away from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens? a. 5 cm b. 10 cm c. 15 cm d. 20 cm answer = a Which of the following does not harm laser efficiency? a. atmospheric absorption b. excitation energy not absorbed c. problems in populating the lower laser level d. inefficiency in populating the upper laser level answer = a Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidt h? a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules b. amplification within the laser medium c. coherence of the laser light d. optical pumping of the laser transition answer = a The first laser emitted a. pulses of 694-nm red light b. a continuous red beam c. pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp d. spontaneous emission answer = c What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? a. liquid b. gas c. molten

d. hot answer = d Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter in the Fiber Optical C ommunications? a. APD b. LSA diode c. PIN diode d. LED answer = a Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communica tions? a. APD b. Tunnel diode c. Laser diode d. LED answer = b The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is a. 0.17 b. 0.26 c. 0.50 d. 0.75 answer = d The inner portion of the fiber cable is called a. cladding b. coating c. inner conductor d. core answer = a Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excita tion? a. semiconductor b. ruby c. helium-neon d. neodymium-YAG answer = a The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is a. 375 x 10^12 Hz b. 475 x 10^15 Hz c. 375 x 10^9 Hz d. 375 x 10^18 Hz answer = d Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable? a. computer networks b. long-distance telephone systems c. closed circuit TV d. consumer TV answer = b Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what relationship to the crucial angle? a. less than b. greater than c. equal to

d. zero answer = b The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of a. refraction b. reflection c. dispersion d. absorption answer = c Which of the following is not a common type of the fiber-optic cable? a. single-mode step-index b. multimode graded-index c. single-mode graded-index d. multimode step-index answer = b Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of a. loss per foot b. dB/km c. intensity per mile d. voltage drop per inch answer = b Which cable has the highest attenuation? a. 1 km b. 2 km c. 95 ft d. 5500 ft answer = d The upper pulse rate and information-carrying capacity of a cable is limited by a. b. c. d. pulse shortening attenuation light leakage modal dispersion

answer = b The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of a. air b. glass c. diamond d. quartz answer = c The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by a. wire braid shield b. Kevlar c. cladding d. plastic insulation answer = a The speed of light in a plastic component to the speed of light in air is a. slower b. faster c. the same d. either lower or faster

answer = b Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable? a. immunity from interference b. no electrical safety problems c. excellent data security d. lower cost answer = c The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwave or any other commu nications media is a. lower cost b. better security c. wider bandwidth d. freedom from interference answer = d Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum? a. infrared b. ultraviolet c. visible color d. X-rays answer = b The wavelength of visible light extends from a. 0.8 to 1.6 m b. 400 to 750 nm c. 200 to 660 nm d. 700 to 1,200 nm answer = d The speed of light is a. 186,000 mi/h b. 300 mi/h c. 300,000 m/s d. 300,000,000 m/s answer = a Refraction is the a. bending of light waves b. reflection of light waves c. distortion of light waves d. diffusion of light waves answer = c The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substan ce is called the a. speed factor b. index of reflection c. index of refraction d. dielectric constant answer = b A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is a. 0.7 m b. 1.3 m c. 1.5 m d. 1.8 m answer = a Which type of fiber optic cable is the most widely used?

a. b. c. d.

c. ultraviolet d. X-ray answer = a Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with a. forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither a or b d. either a or b answer = d Single-frequency light is called a. pure b. intense c. coherent d. monochromatic answer = c Laser light is very bright because it is a. pure b. white c. coherent d. monochromatic answer = b Which of the following is NOT a common light detector? a. PIN photodiode b. photovoltaic diode c. photodiode d. avalanche photodiode answer = d Which of the following is the fastest light sensor? a. PIN photodiode b. photovoltaic diode c. phototransistor d. avalanche photodiode answer = b Photodiodes operate properly with a. forward bias b. reverse bias c. neither A or B d. either A or B answer = c The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/ s. What is the maximum rate at 5 km? a. 100 Mbits/s b. 200 Mbits/s c. 400 Mbits/s d. 1000 Mbits/s answer = a Which fiber-optic system is better? a. 3 repeaters b. 8 repeaters c. 11 repeaters d. 20 repeaters

a. b. c. d.

answer = a Helium laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell Labs in a. 1960 b. 1962 c. 1963 d. 1964 answer = b What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can be achieved for a given wavelength? a. transit time b. spectral response c. dark current d. responsitivity answer = a Dark current in light detectors is caused by a. thermally generated carriers in the diode b. the absence of light input c. small leakage current d. its imperfection answer = b What is the unit of responsitivity? a. ampere/volt b. ampere/watt c. watt/ampere d. volt/ampere answer = d One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors? a. responsitivity b. spectral response c. transit time d. dispersion answer = d What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs? a. 840 nm b. 490 nm c. 480 nm d. 940 nm answer = b SONET stands for a. System Optical Network b. Synchronous Optical Network c. Silica Optical Network d. System Optical Fiber Net answer = c Bend loss is a. a reduction in transmitter power caused by earth&apos;s surface curvature b. a reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends c. an attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber

answer = c Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss? a. impurities b. glass attenuation c. stepped index operation d. microbending answer = b The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the mater ial used. a. S/N ratio b. refractive index c. intermodal dispersion d. monomode ratio answer = d Splicing fibers means a. fusion b. butt c. glue d. both fusion and butt answer = a An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications system. a. optoisolator b. insulator c. multivibrator d. optical IC answer = b When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of a. 14 % b. 4 % c. 10 % d. 1 % answer = b When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced can be reduced by a. splicing b. antireflection coating c. insulation jacket d. all of these answer = a In fiber optics, higher-order mode refers to a. cladding boundary at high angle b. backscaterring electromagnetic materials c. defracting signals d. all of these answer = c The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except: a. backscattering b. absorption c. refraction d. microbends answer = a Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics?

a. b. c. d.

it it it it

## high losses short wave low attenuation weak signal

answer = b Optical cable testers are used for a. checking refractive index b. light power out of a fiber c. non-calibrated light into a fiber d. checking maximum distance covered answer = a A function of an optic isolator. a. cancels reflected waves b. amplifies signal transmitted c. filters unnecessary signals d. all of these answer = b An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to a. increase in index of glass b. amplification of optical signal c. high gain d. photoconductivity answer = d Light traveling in an optical fiber allows which of the following principles. a. Huygen&apos;s principle b. reflection theory c. light theory d. Snell&apos;s law answer = a Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and consist of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of refraction, and a pr otective coating. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 answer = a Material dispersion is caused by the a. wavelength dependence of the index of refraction b. wavelength independence of the index of refraction c. dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number d. independence of the propagation constant on the mode number answer = d Modal dispersion a. dependence of b. dependence of c. dependence of d. dependence of is caused by the wavelength on index of refraction propagation constant on index of refraction the propagation constant on the wavelength the propagation constant on the mode number

answer = b The dominant loss mechanism in silica fiber are a. absorption and radiation losses b. absorption and Rayleigh scattering

c. coupling and radiation losses d. radiation and modal dispersion answer = c The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by a. mode b. wavelength c. dispersion d. frequency answer = a Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the a. product of the bandwidth and distance b. sum of the bandwidth and distance c. difference of bandwidth and distance d. quotient of bandwidth and distance answer = d The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a phot oelectron or electron-hole pair. a. responsitivity b. photon efficiency c. aperture d. quantum efficiency answer = b In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the soli d by a. holes and protons b. holes and electrons c. anion and cation d. protons and photons answer = c One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector. a. APD b. PIN c. PMT d. phototransistors answer = a Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather t han amplitude. a. intensity b. light c. density d. photon answer = c The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the elec tron charge. a. intensity b. optical power c. photocurrent d. responsitivity answer = a Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required ? a. PMT

b. APD c. PIN d. phototransistor answer What is a. 0.10 b. 0.15 c. 0.20 d. 0.25 = b the average loss in fiber splice? dB dB dB dB

answer = b Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum? a. red b. white c. orange d. yellow answer = c What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber? a. 20 GHz b. 30 GHz c. 40 GHz d. 50 GHz answer = a The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less. a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.001 d. 1 answer = d _____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber. a. insulation b. fiber insulation c. silica d. polymer jacket answer = b The energy of the photon is a. directly proportional to its bandwidth b. directly proportional to the Planck&apos;s constant c. directly proportional to Boltzmann&apos;s constant d. inversely proportional to the Planck&apos;s constant answer = d Refractive index of glass a. 1.0 b. 1.2 c. 1.4 d. 1.5 answer = d Refractive index of diamond. a. 1.0 b. 1.4 c. 1.8 d. 2.0

answer = b What is the unit of light wavelength? a. micrometer b. angstroms c. mils d. fathom answer = b How much is the power loss of the fusion splice? a. 0.1 dB or less b. 0.01 dB or less c. 1 dB or less d. 10 dB or less answer = c Used to test a fiber optics splice. a. spectrum analyzer b. oscilloscope c. optical power meter d. field strength meter answer = a A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface. a. b. c. d. beam-splitting coupler reflective star coupler fused coupler none of these

answer = a Reflections in many directions. a. diffuse reflection b. diffraction c. scattering d. dispersion answer = a Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation. a. lithium niobate b. tourmaline c. sodium chlorate d. sphalerite answer = d Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems? a. phase and frequency modulations b. polarization modulation and phase modulation c. intensity modulation and phase modulation d. intensity modulation and polarization modulation answer = b Is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance. a. radiation b. attenuation c. modulation d. propagation answer = a Calculate the effective earth&apos;s radius if the surface refractivity is 301.

a. b. c. d.

## 8493 8493 6370 6370

km mmi km mi

Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band? a. Thyratron tube b. Tunnel diode c. Klystron tube d. Both B and C answer = c Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of a. 1 to 500 MHz b. 1,000 to 10,000 GHz c. 1 to 100 GHz d. 10 to 1,000 GHz answer = d The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not limited by the a. electron transit time b. distributed lead inductance c. inter-electrode capacitance d. degree of emission from the cathode answer = b As the electron beam moves through a klystron&apos;s interactivity drift space a. frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity b. velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the ou tput cavity c. density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the ou tput cavity d. phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the outp ut cavity answer = d The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined by a. the flux density of the external magnet b. the ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density c. the number of the cavity resonators d. the dimension of each cavity resonator answer = a If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are o f opposite polarity, the operation is in the a. pi mode b. pi/2 mode c. 2pi mode d. pi/4 mode answer = d The Gunn diode oscillator a. is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt s b. generates frequencies which are below 100MHz c. operates over a positive resistance characteristic d. depends on the formation of charge domain answer = d What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer to isolate a microwave tran smitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? a. isolator

d. excessive radiation answer = d Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with a. coax b. parallel wires c. twisted pairs d. PCBs answer = d The most common cross section of a waveguide is a a. square b. circle c. triangle d. rectangle answer = c A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cuto ff frequency is a. 2.54 GHz b. 3.0 GHz c. 5.9 GHz d. 11.8 GHz answer = a A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the following signals w ill not be passed by the waveguide? a. 15 GHz b. 18 GHz c. 22 GHz d. 255 GHz answer = c Signal propagation in a waveguide is by a. electrons b. holes c. electric and magnetic fields d. air pressure answer = c When the electric field in waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, the mode is said to be a. vertical polarization b. horizontal polarization c. transverse electric d. transverse magnetic answer = b The dominant mode in most rectangular waveguides is a. TE (0,1) b. TE (1,2) c. TM (0,1) d. TM (1,1) answer = a A magnetic field is introduced in a waveguide by a a. probe b. dipole c. stripline d. capacitor

answer = b A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonan t circuit is known as a(n) a. half-wave section b. cavity resonator c. LCR circuit d. directional coupler answer = b Decreasing volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to a. increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. drop to zero answer = c _____ is a popular microwave mixer diode. a. Gunn b. varactor c. hot carrier d. IMPATT answer = c Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit? a. amplifier b. oscillator c. frequency multiplier d. mixer answer = b Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator? a. IMPATT b. Gunn c. varactor d. Schottky answer = d Which type of diode does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias? a. varactor b. IMPATT c. snap-off d. tunnel answer = a Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing a. reflex klystrons b. TWT&apos;s c. magnetrons d. varactor diodes answer = b Which of the following is not a microwave tube? a. traveling-wave tube b. cathode-ray tube c. klystron d. magnetron answer = d In a klystron amplifier, the velocity modulation of the electron beam is produc

answer = b A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two differen t frequencies over the same path. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer = d A wire used to reduce the skin effect. a. AWG # i4 b. AWG # 15 c. copper wire d. Litz wire answer = c Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more a. different frequencies b. antennas operating on two different frequencies c. antennas operating on the same frequencies d. identical frequencies answer = b The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading in microwave system over the water. a. space diversity b. frequency diversity c. polarization diversity d. wavelength diversity answer = a When the value of k increases, the effective result is _____ of the equivalent curvature. a. flattening b. bulging c. sharp curvature d. all of these answer = b A traveling wave tube consists of a. electron gun, helix and repeller b. electron gun, helix and collector c. electron gun, repeller and collector d. buncher cavity and catcher cavity answer = c Advantage of periscope antenna in microwave. a. reduce tower height b. minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations c. shorten waveguide length d. easy to install answer = b What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide? a. the highest frequency the waveguide operates b. the lowest frequency the waveguide operates c. the same as the operating frequency d. the only frequency the waveguide operates

answer = b When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel zones at the point of reflection, the RSL is a. increased b. decreased c. constant d. above the threshold answer = a What is the wavelength of a wave a. greater than in free space b. depends only on the waveguide c. inversely proportional to the d. inversely proportional to the in a waveguide? dimensions and the free-space wavelength phase velocity group velocity

answer = a Attenuator used in the traveling wave tube to a. prevent oscillation b. increase gain c. prevent saturation d. all of these answer = b Is a method of diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading. a. b. c. d. frequency diversity space diversity polarization diversity wavelength diversity

b. Buffer c. Separator d. Mixer answer = b The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is a. modulating frequency b. center frequency c. carrier frequency d. deviation frequency answer = b The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called a. carrier swing b. deviation ratio c. modulation factor d. modulation index answer = b A carrier signal has a. constant amplitude b. a frequency of 20 kHz and above c. a varying amplitude d. the information content answer = d The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation index? a. 0.47 b. 0.68 c. 0.32 d. 1.47 answer = a An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 45 V.. The modulation factor is a. 0.56 b. 0.65 c. 1.78 d. 1.25 answer = b What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz w hen the modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz? a. 25 b. 12.5 c. 0.04 d. 0.08 answer = a In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by halving the modulating freque ncy, what will be the effect on the maximum deviation? a. No effect b. Maximum deviation doubles c. Decreases by 1/2 d. Increases by 1/4 answer = d Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM? a. Reactance modulator

a. b. c. d.

answer = b ________ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal. a. Hall effect b. Capture effect c. Image frequency d. Homing answer = c What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM? a. 50 % b. 75 % c. 100 % d. 80 % answer = c In FM, the Carson&apos;s Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the s um of the modulating frequency and _______. a. carrier signal b. modulating index c. frequency deviation d. image frequency answer = d What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modulated by 75 %? a. 53.2 kHz b. 48 kHz c. 56.25 kHz d. 112.5 kHz answer = b The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise. a. Single sideband suppressed carrier b. Frequency modulation c. Pulse-position modulation d. Amplitude shift keying answer = a Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with some frequency space between them is known as a. guard bands b. AM bands c. band gap d. void band answer = d Modulation of an RF carrier results in a. multiple channels b. smaller antennas c. directional propagation d. all of the above answer = b A process which occurs in the transmitter. a. Mixing b. Modulation

c. remain constant d. decrease exponentially answer = c An increase in transmitter power from 25 W to 30 W will cause the antenna curre nt to increase from 700 mA to a. 800 mA b. 750 mA c. 767 mA d. 840 mA answer = b A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to the first at the input to the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of a. square root of 3 b. square root of 2 c. 2 d. 3 answer = c A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500 Hz tone. One frequency component of t he modulated signal is a. 1200 Hz b. 5000 Hz c. 1002.5 kHz d. 2500 Hz answer = b A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Wh ich one is a frequency component of the modulated wave? a. 1195 kHz b. 1199.3 kHz c. 1199.7 kHz d. 1205 kHz answer = d Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a common-emitter configurat ion. a. Base modulation b. Emitter modulation c. Collector modulation d. Both A and C answer = b The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10 MHz and the modulating f requency is 1 kHz. Which frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the outpu t? a. 9.999 MHz b. 10 MHz c. 10.0001 MHz d. both A and B answer = d Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the fol lowing methods. a. Phasing method b. Filter method c. Decoder method d. Both A and B

answer = d Envelope detection is concerned with the process of a. mixing b. heterodyning c. modulation d. rectification answer = a Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in a. distortion b. phase reversal c. reduced sensitivity d. amplitude damage answer = b Product detection requires the process of a. rectification b. heterodyning c. decoding d. phase shifting answer = d A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical a. amplitude b. frequency c. phase angle d. both B and C answer = b Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as a. stereo b. angle modulation c. high fidelity modulation d. FCC modulation answer = c In FM the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what attribute of the modulating signal? a. angle b. frequency c. amplitude d. tone answer = d A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for FM, will cause a gr eater a. carrier amplitude b. angle amplitude c. distortion at the receiver d. frequency deviation answer = b If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mV will cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz, what will be the frequency deviation for a negat ive change of 100 mV in the level of the modulating signals? a. 0 b. -5 kHz c. +5 kHz d. +0 kHz

answer = a A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz. What is the modulation index? a. 5 b. 15 c. 75 d. 3 answer = d A 15 kHz sine wave frequency-modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency will be found at a. 87.970 MHz b. 87.985 MHz c. 88.015 MHz d. All of these answer = a A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the applied voltage. a. Varactor diode b. UJT c. SAW d. Variable capacitor answer = b A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining a. indirect FM b. direct FM c. demodulation d. low frequency filtering answer = c A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct FM and as one element in the phase-locked loop. a. AFC b. AGC c. VCO d. LPF answer = b ________ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase deviation and frequen cy deviation are multiplied by some fixed constant. a. Translation b. Multiplication c. Division d. Addition answer = d A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal. a. b. c. d. AFC Envelope detector Decoder Foster-Seeley discriminator

answer = d The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because a. it is less sensitive to phase modulation b. it is less sensitive to noise spikes

answer = c Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? a. Audio signal b. Video signal c. RF carrier d. Binary coded pulses answer = c If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in and AM signal, th e percent modulation is ___________. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 answer = a Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equipment suppresses the ______ ___. a. carrier b. upper sideband c. lower sideband d. baseband signal answer = d The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power sav ing is _________. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 83 % d. 66.66 % answer = b If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also d oubled, the AM system being used is a. H3E b. J3E c. C3F d. A3E answer = b 100 % modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by _______ __. a. 100 % b. 50 % c. 75 % d. 25 % answer = b A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _________. a. 2 components b. 3 components c. 4 components d. 2n + 1 components answer = a A carrier signal has ____________. a. constant peak amplitude b. frequency range of 20-20,000 Hz c. a varying amplitude

d. the information answer = c The modulating system is ___________ if the modulating frequency is doubled, th e modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant. a. amplitude modulation b. phase modulation c. frequency modulation d. pulse modulation answer = d What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating frequency is dou bled? a. No effect b. Twice the original index c. Four times the original index d. One-half the original index answer = b An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100 % modulation. How much power required for the carrier? a. 1000 W b. 666.6 W c. 333.3 W d. 866.6 W answer = a Standard way of designating AM. a. A3E b. B3E c. AHE d. C3F answer = a __________ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal. a. Discriminator b. Modulator c. Modem d. Detector answer = c __________ is an information signal that is sent directly without modulating an y carrier. a. C-band b. Q-band c. Baseband d. Broadband answer = d Both frequency and phase modulation utilize __________ modulation. a. digital b. phase c. amplitude d. angle answer = b It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and use d by the signal for conveying information. a. Band b. Bandwidth

c. Electronic spectrum d. Frequency band answer = a Which transmit only one sideband? a. H3E b. C3F c. A3E d. B8E answer = b __________ is a kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always presen t. a. Carrier modulation b. Continuous modulation c. Log-periodic modulation d. Square-wave modulation answer = a A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. a. Pulse modulation b. FSK c. QAM d. PAM answer = d What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform? a. Percent modulation b. Modulation constant c. Envelope of modulation d. Coefficient of modulation answer = c __________ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and n egative alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal. a. Envelope distortion b. Spurious emission c. Carrier shift d. Johnson noise answer = d What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation? a. Multipliers can be used b. The deviation is smaller c. Simplicity and practicality d. The oscillator is crystal-controlled answer = d If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as a. b. c. d. frequency multiplication sideband movement baseband reorientation frequency translation

answer = b A device which is capable of causing frequency translation a. High-Q tank circuit b. Balanced modulator c. Low-Q tank circuit

a. b. c. d.

## behaves as limits the behaves as behaves as

a low-pass filter amplitude of the IF signal to the required level a high-pass filter a bandstop filter

a. b. c. d.

installing a filter at the receiver using a filter at the receiver increasing the receiver&apos;s RF gain while decreasing the AF adjusting the pass-band tuning

a. b. c. d.

prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages corrects any deviation in carrier frequency

b. SSB c. Television d. Modulated CW answer = a What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage i n an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W? a. Approximately 1000 W b. Approximately 800 W c. Approximately 250 W d. Approximately 600 W answer = d Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically reducing the effect of static noise during the reception of a signal? a. De-emphasis circuit b. Mixer stage c. Squelch circuit d. Limiter stage answer = d The letters &quot;SSSC&quot; stand for a. single sideband, single carrier b. suppressed sideband, single channel c. suppressed sideband, single carrier d. single sideband, suppressed carrier answer = d For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average power during a mo dulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? a. Approximately 1.0 to 1 b. Approximately 25 to 1 c. Approximately 100 to 1 d. Approximately 2.5 to 1 answer = a In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the carrier frequency o f he input signal. a. higher b. lower c. the same d. 10 kHz above answer = c Features of a transmitter&apos;s buffer stage include a. high gain b. harmonic generation c. improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator d. low input impedance answer = d Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal. a. F3F b. A3C c. F3C d. A3F answer = d A pi-network is

a. b. c. d.

a network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors a power incidence network an antenna matching network that is isolated from ground a network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors

## demodulated by an FM the only demodulated demodulated by an AM the only demodulated

answer = b A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by a. feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter b. modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier c. using a balanced modulator followed by a filter d. detuning a Hartley oscillator answer = a Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of a. high modulating frequencies b. low modulating frequencies

b. SSB and TV c. FM and double sideband AM d. SSTV and CW answer = c In an FM-phone signal, _______ is the ratio between the actual frequency deviat ion to the maximum frequency deviation. a. FM compressibility b. modulation index c. percentage of modulation d. quieting index answer = a __________ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal. a. Capture effect b. Desensitization c. Cross-modulation interference d. Frequency discrimination answer = d A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type o f signals? a. SSB voice b. Facsimile c. FM d. Double-sideband AM answer = c If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this means a. zero beat b. under-modulation c. zero-modulation d. over-modulation answer = b What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? a. 20 kHz b. 270 kHz c. 250 kHz d. 45 kHz answer = a Amplitude modulation is the same as a. linear mixing b. analog multiplication c. signal summation d. multiplexing answer = a The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _________ in a diode modul ator. a. the tuned circuit b. transformer c. capacitor d. inductor answer = a One of the following can produce AM.

a. b. c. d.

Having the carrier vary a resistance Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance Varying the carrier frequency Varying the gain of an amplifier

answer = c Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of a. rectification b. amplification c. variable resistance d. absorption answer = d Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? a. Varactor diode b. Thermistor c. Cavity resonator d. PIN diode answer = c A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak am plitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation? a. 24 V b. 48 V c. 96 V d. 120 V answer = b What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal? a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer = a What is most commonly used amplitude demodulator? a. Envelope detector b. Balanced modulator c. Mixer d. Crystal set answer = d What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier ? a. b. c. d. Amplitude moderator Diode detector Class C amplifier Balanced modulator

answer = c _________ is a widely used balanced modulator. a. Diode bridge circuit b. Full-wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer = b In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. variable resistors

b. switches c. rectifiers d. variable capacitors answer = d The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer = a The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a a. Differential amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge d. Constant current source answer = c The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses a. LC networks b. Mechanical resonators c. Crystals d. RC networks and op amps answer = a In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to a. phase shifting b. sharp selectivity c. carrier suppression d. phase inversion answer = b A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is called a/an a. transponder b. product detector c. converter d. remodulator answer = d Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a a. summer b. multiplier c. divider d. mixer answer = c Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as a. Rectification b. AM c. linear summing d. filtering answer = d Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM? a. Greater efficiency b. Noise immunity c. Capture effect d. Lower complexity and cost

answer = b The primary disadvantage of FM is its a. higher cost and complexity b. excessive use of spectrum space c. noise susceptibility d. lower efficiency answer = a Noise is primarily a. high-frequency spikes b. low-frequency variations c. random level shifts d. random frequency variations answer = c The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the a. modulator b. demodulator c. limiter d. low-pass filter answer = c The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of a mplifier? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. All of these answer = SSB means a. Single b. Single c. Double d. Single a sideband sideband sideband sideband with with with with suppressed carrier carrier no carrier reduced carrier

answer = c A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer a. Transformer b. Resonant circuit c. Filter d. Phase-shift circuit answer = b What is the output of a balanced modulator? a. AM b. DSB c. SSB d. ISB answer = c The acronym SSSC refer to a. Suppressed sideband, single carrier b. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier c. Single sideband, suppressed carrier d. Single sideband, single carrier answer = a Which process occurs in the receiver? a. Demodulation

b. Reception c. Modulation d. Recreation answer = b What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal? a. PLL b. BFO c. Ratio detector d. All of these answer = a Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator? a. Diode detector b. PLL circuit c. VCO d. All of these answer = c Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator? a. Full-wave bridge circuit b. Balanced bridge modulator c. Lattice modulator d. None of these answer = b The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the a. Crystal b. resistor c. transformer d. diode answer = b What is a non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of short duration with high amplitudes? a. Wander b. Jitter c. Hits d. Singing answer = c What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noi se level? a. Nyquist theorem b. Hartley law c. Shannon-Hartley theorem d. Shannon theorem answer = a Quantizing noise occurs in a. PCM b. PLM c. PDM d. PAM answer = b Noise always affect the signal in a communications systems at the _____________ _. a. transmitter b. channel

c. information source d. destination answer = d ________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both internal and external to the system. a. Interference b. Attenuation c. Distortion d. Noise answer = d Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle ov er a specified total frequency band. a. Gaussian noise b. White noise c. Thermal noise d. All of the above answer = b Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system? a. Serial transmission errors b. The approximation of the quantized signal c. The synchronization between encoder and decoder d. Binary coding techniques answer = d A particular circuit that rids FM of noise. a. Detector b. Discriminator c. Phase shifter d. Limiter answer = a What is the reference noise temperature? a. 290 K b. 30 degrees C c. 70 degrees F d. 25 degrees C answer = c Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency. a. Splatter b. RFI c. Noise d. EMI answer = b What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics? a. b. c. d. Thermal agitation noise Noise factor Noise margin Signal-to-noise

answer = a ________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any traffic. a. White noise b. Galactic noise

c. Impulse noise d. Atmospheric noise answer = c Which standard recommends crosstalk limits? a. CCITT G. 152 b. CCITT G. 150 c. CCITT G. 151 d. CCITT G. 161 answer = b Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels ? a. b. c. d. CCITT CCITT CCITT CCITT Rec. Rec. Rec. Rec. G. G. G. G. 151 172 190 190

answer = a What is the reference frequency of CCITT phosphometric noise measurement? a. 800 Hz b. 1000 Hz c. 1500 Hz d. 3400 Hz answer = c Reference temperature used in noise analysis. a. 75 K b. 250 K c. 290 K d. 300 K answer = d Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms? a. White noise b. Extraterrestrial noise c. Industrial noise d. Atmospheric noise answer = a Man-made noise is usually from ___________. a. transmission over power lines and by ground wave b. sky-wave c. space-wave d. troposphere answer = b nif stands for a. Non-intrinsic figure b. Noise improvement factor c. Narrow intermediate frequency d. Noise interference figure answer = c Industrial noise frequency is between ________________. a. 0 to 10 kHz b. 160 MHz to 200 MHz c. 15 to 160 MHz d. 200 to 3000 MHz

answer = d External noise fields are measured in terms of ____________. a. rms values b. dc values c. average values d. peak values answer = a Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms. a. Precipitation static b. Shot-noise c. Galactic noise d. Impulse noise answer = b At 17 degrees C, the noise voltage generated by 5 k ohms resistor, operating ov er a bandwidth of 20 kHz is a. 1.3 nV b. 1.3 uV c. 1.3 pV d. 1.3 mV answer = c ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in con ductor and semiconductor a. External noise b. Internal noise c. Thermal noise d. Flicker answer = a Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are conn ected in tandem with each other, what is the overall S/N? a. 5.23 dB b. 14.77 dB c. 30 dB d. 40 dB answer = c The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its power gain is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB? a. 11.59 dB b. 11.23 dB c. 10.79 dB d. 10.5 dB answer = b Is the interference coming from other communications channels. a. Jitter b. Crosstalk c. RFI d. EMI answer = d What is the reference noise level? a. 10 pW b. 0 dBm c. 1 mW d. -90 dBm

d noise in what frequency range? a. dc b. low c. intermediate d. high answer = c Atmospheric noise a. at frequencies b. at frequencies c. at frequencies d. at frequencies or static is not a great problem below 20 MHz below 5 MHz above 30 MHz above 1 MHz

er three? a. Solar noise b. Cosmic noise c. Atmospheric noise d. Galactic noise answer = c Indicate the false statement. a. Industrial noise is usually of the impulsive type b. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electric disturbances occurring in the atmosphere c. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise d. Fluorescent lights are another source of man-made noise answer = b Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise? a. Automobile ignition b. Sun c. Electric motors d. Leakage from high voltage line answer = c Indicate the false statement. a. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any impeda nce is random b. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which it is measure d c. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist d. All formula referring to a random noise are applicable only to the value of such noise answer = d The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power ge nerated is therefore a. halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. unchanged answer = b Indicate the false statement. a. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers b. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth c. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured d. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type answer = b An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 k o hms input resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient temperature is 17 degrees C? a. 40 uV b. 4.0 uV c. 400 uV d. 4.0 mV answer = b The 1st stage of a 2-stage amplifier has a voltage gain resistor, a 1600 ohms equivalent noise resistance &amp; stor. For the 2nd stage, these values are 25, 81 k ohms, ohm, respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise of 10, a 600 ohms input a 27 k ohms output resi 10 k ohms, &amp; a 1 M resistance of this two

answer = d The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a a. MOSFET b. Dual-gate MOSFET c. JFET d. MESFET answer = c What is the noise voltage across a 300 ohms input resistance to a TV set with a 6 MHz bandwidth and the temperature of 30 degrees C? a. 2.3 uV b. 3.8 uV c. 5.5 uV d. 6.4 uV answer = d Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequ encies? a. Shot noise b. Random noise c. Impulse noise d. Transit-time noise answer = a The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximatel y every a. 11 years b. 10 years c. 9 years d. 8 years answer = d The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to a. its resistance b. its temperature c. the bandwidth over which it is measured d. all of the above answer = a Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact value of an analog signal and the closest available quantizing step in a digital coder. a. Quantizing noise b. Thermal noise c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer = c Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high ampl itude. a. Quantizing noise b. Tone interference c. Impulse noise d. Crosstalk answer = a Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable a. Crosstalk b. Quantizing noise

c. Reference noise d. Tone interference answer = d Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels. a. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility b. Transients due to relay operation c. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems d. All of these answer = d Crosstalks due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or more frequency-multiplexed channels which are unintelligible is classifie d as a. impulse noise b. thermal noise c. quantizing noise d. miscellaneous noise answer = a __________ is a device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an eq uivalent noise generator having an impedance of 600 ohms and delivering noise po wer to a 600 ohms load. a. Psophometer b. Barometer c. Reflectometer d. Voltmeter answer = a External noise originating outside the solar system. a. Cosmic noise b. Solar noise c. Thermal noise d. Lunar noise answer = a A noise whose source is within the solar system. a. Solar noise b. Thermal noise c. Cosmic noise d. Johnson noise answer = a The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth. a. Noise density b. Noise figure c. Noise limit d. Noise intensity answer = d Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise? a. Use redundancy b. Increase transmitted power c. Reduce signaling rate d. Increase channel bandwidth answer = b What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise? a. Thunderstorm b. Lightning

c. Thunderstorm and lightning d. Weather condition answer = b What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars? a. Black-body noise b. Space noise c. Galactic noise d. All of these answer = a The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are a. thunderstorms b. airplanes c. meteor showers d. all of these answer = c Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave freq uencies? a. MOSFET b. GASFET c. MESFET d. JFET answer = a Which of the following is most affected by knife-edge refraction? a. Very high and ultra high frequencies b. High frequency c. Medium frequency d. Low frequency answer = d Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225 km at night? a. D layer b. E layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer = c __________ is the amount of voltage induced in a wave by an electromagnetic wav e. a. Receive voltage b. Magnetic induction c. Field strength d. Power density answer = a An electromagnetic wave consists of _________. a. both electric and magnetic fields b. an electric field only c. a magnetic field only d. non-magnetic field only answer = d What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere? a. F1 b. F2 c. E d. D

answer = b Who profounded electromagnetic radiation theory? a. Sir Edward Appleton b. James Clerk Maxwell c. Christian Huygens d. Sir Isaac Newton answer = c The D, E and F layers are known as ________. a. Mark-Space layers b. Davinson-Miller layers c. Kennely-Heaviside layers d. Appleton layers answer = a Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum. a. Band b. Bandwidth c. Channel d. Group answer = b What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an elect romagnetic wave? a. 180 degrees b. 90 degrees c. 270 degrees d. 45 degrees answer = a A changing electric field gives rise to ________. a. a magnetic field b. sound field c. electromagnetic waves d. near and far fields answer = d Frequencies in UHF range propagate by means of a. ground waves b. sky waves c. surface waves d. space waves answer = b In electromagnetic waves, polarization _________. a. is caused by reflection b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium answer = a Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they _________. a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane answer = a What is the highest layer of the atmosphere?

a. b. c. d.

## Ionosphere Stratosphere Troposphere Ozone layer

al is diffracted down the far side of the mountain. The phenomenon is called a. discontinuity scattering b. tropospheric ducting c. knife-edge diffraction d. space-wave refraction answer = a The index of refraction of a material medium a. is greater than 1 b. is less than 1 c. is equal to 1 d. may be any of the above answer = c At what speed do a. Approximately b. Approximately c. Approximately d. Approximately answer What is a. 6370 b. 7270 c. 7950 d. 8500 electromagnetic waves travel in free space? 468 million meters per second 186300 feet per second 300 million meters per second 300 million miles per second

## = d the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, Ns equals 300? km km km km

answer = a If Ns = 250, what is the earth radius k-factor? a. 1.23 b. 1.29 c. 1.33 d. 1.32 answer = a Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earth&apos;s surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Horizontal polarization c. Circular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer = b Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earth&apos;s surface. a. Vertical polarization b. Horizontal polarization c. Circular polarization d. Elliptical polarization answer = b Indicate which one of the following terms applies to troposcatter propagation. a. SIDs b. Fading c. Atmospheric storms d. Faraday rotation answer = c VLF waves are used for some types of services because a. of the low power required b. the transmitting antennas are of convenient size c. they are very reliable

answer = c Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength? a. red b. yellow c. blue d. green answer = d The quality in sound that corresponds to color in light is a. amplitude b. resonance c. waveform d. pitch answer = b All real images a. are erect b. can appear on a screen c. are invalid d. cannot appear on a screen answer = b When a beam of light enters one medium from another, a quality that never chang es is its a. direction b. frequency c. speed d. wavelength answer = d Relative to the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction a. is smaller b. is larger c. is the same d. either A or B above answer = d A light ray enters one medium from another along the normal. The angle of refra ction is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. equal the critical angle d. dependent on the indexes of refraction of the two media answer = a What layer aids MF surface-wave propagation a little and reflects some HF waves in daytime? a. E layer b. D layer c. F1 layer d. F2 layer answer = a Dispersion is the term used to describe a. the splitting of white light into its component colors in refraction b. the propagation of light in straight lines c. the bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another d. the bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror answer = a

The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid a. always seems less than its actual depth b. always seems more than its actual depth c. may seem more than its actual depth, depending on the index of refraction of the liquid d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the angle of view answer = a Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to anothe r a. b. c. d. that has a lower index of refraction that has a higher index of refraction that has the same index of refraction at less than the critical angle

answer = b When a light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side at the cr itical angle, the angle of refraction is a. 0 b. 90 degrees c. 45 degrees d. equal the angle of incidence answer = a The brightness of light source is called its luminous intensity, whose unit is a. candela b. lux c. lumen d. footcandle answer = a Luminous efficiency is least for a a. low-wattage light bulb b. mercury vapor lamp c. high-wattage light bulb d. fluorescent tube answer = b The minimum illumination recommendation for reading is a. 8000 cd b. 8000 lx c. 8000 lm d. 800 W answer = a Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction is 1.6 at an angle of inci dence of 30 degrees. The angle of refraction is a. 18 degrees b. 48 degrees c. 19 degrees d. 53 degrees answer = a Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2.0 at an angle of refraction of 0 degree. The angle of incidence is a. 0 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 90 degrees

answer = b The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range? a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz b. 3 to 30 MHz c. 30 to 300 MHz d. above 300 MHz answer = d The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communication by multiple skips is the a. ground wave b. direct wave c. surface wave d. sky wave answer = c Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range? a. VHF b. UHF c. HF d. Microwave answer = d A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft. high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft. high. The minimum transmission distance is a. 20 mi b. 33.2 mi c. 38.7 mi d. 53.2 mi answer = b To increase uld be done? a. increase b. increase c. increase d. increase the transmission distance of UHF signal, which of the following sho antenna gain antenna height transmitter power receiver sensitivity

answer = b States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its so urce. a. Principle of Reciprocity b. Inverse Square Law c. Huygen&apos;s Principle d. Faraday&apos;s Law answer = b _________ gets in contact with the ionosphere and reflected by it. a. Space wave b. Sky wave c. Surface wave d. Satellite wave answer = c Highest layer in the ionosphere. a. F1 b. D c. F2 d. E

b. SID c. Duct d. Huygen&apos;s principle answer = a Corresponds to voltage. a. electric field b. magnetic field c. gyro d. direction of propagation answer = c Absence of reception. a. Skip distance b. Maximum usable c. Shadow zone d. Twilight zone answer = b Each point on a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary spherical wave front. a. Snell&apos;s law b. Huygen&apos;s principle c. Rayleigh&apos;s principle d. De Morgan&apos;s theorem answer = b Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? a. Stratosphere b. Troposphere c. Ionosphere d. Ozone layer answer = a When is the E region most ionized? a. At midday b. At midnight c. At dusk d. At dawn answer = b Transequatorial propagation is best during a. night time b. afternoon or early evening c. noontime d. morning answer = d Which of the following is the first active satellite? a. Echo 1 b. Telstar 1 c. Early Bird d. Sputnik 1 answer = a Which of the following is the first commercial satellite? a. Early Bird b. Telstar c. Explorer d. Courier

a. b. c. d.

## zone beam hemispheric beam Spot beam Global beam

c. C-band d. Ku-band answer = a The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite have how many channels? a. 30 b. 24 c. 48 d. 50 answer = a The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transponders? a. 36 b. 48 c. 24 d. 12 answer = c How many satellite orbital satellites are requested by the Philippine Governmen t form ITU? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 answer = a The location of AsiaSat I. a. 105.5 degrees East b. 151.5 degrees East c. 115.5 degrees East d. 170.5 degrees East answer = a AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia? a. 38 b. 10 c. 28 d. 15 answer = c The owner of AsiaSat 2 is a. Asia Satellite Telecommunication Company (ASTC) b. Japan Satellite System (JSAT) c. China Great Wall Industry Corporation d. Singapore Satellite Commission answer = d What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station? a. 100 dB b. 150 dB c. 175 dB d. 200 dB answer = c INTELSAT stands for a. Intel Satellite b. International Telephone Satellite c. International Telecommunications Satellite d. International Satellite

In a typical mobile satellite array antenna of three elements are activated, ho w many elements are deactivated? a. 3 b. 11 c. 5 d. 9 answer = a What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna ele ments in a mobile satellite array? a. Radial divider b. Divider/combiner c. Radial combiner d. Radial multiplexer answer = c Most mobile satellite array uses _____ in transforming 50 to 150 ohms impedance . a. b. c. d. stub balun quarter-wavelength transformer microstrip tapers

answer = d The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satelli te array. a. series b. radial c. matrix d. shunt answer = d A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided in to smaller frequency band. a. CDMA b. ANIK-D c. TDMA d. FDMA answer = a What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to ea rth receiver? a. 0.5 s b. 1 s c. 5 ms d. 0.25 s answer = a As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. none of the above answer = a The main function of a communications satellite is a/an a. repeater b. reflector c. beacon d. observation platform

answer = d The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the a. Telemetry equipment b. on-board computer c. command and control system d. transponder answer = b A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an a. elliptical orbit b. geostationary orbit c. polar orbit d. transfer orbit answer = b A satellite stays in orbit because the following two factors are balanced. a. satellite weight and speed b. gravitational force and centrifugal force c. centripetal force and speed d. satellite weight and the pull of the moon and the sun answer = c What is the height of a satellite system in a synchronous equatorial orbit? a. 42,000 mi b. 6,800 mi c. 22,300 mi d. 35,860 mi answer = c Most satellites operate in which frequency band? a. 30 to 300 MHz b. 300 MHz to 3 GHz c. 3 GHz to 30 GHz d. Above 300 GHz answer = b The main power sources of a satellite are a. batteries b. solar cells c. fuel cells d. thermoelectric generators answer = d The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the a. perigee b. apex c. zenith d. apogee answer = c Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems a. at all times b. only during emergencies c. during eclipse periods d. to give the solar arrays a rest answer = d The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the a. propulsion subsystem

b. power subsystem c. communications subsystem d. telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem answer = b What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite? a. gravity-forward motion balance b. spin c. thruster control d. solar panel orientation answer = a The jet thrusters are fired to a. maintain altitude b. put the satellite into the transfer orbit c. inject the satellite into the geosynchronous orbit d. bring the satellite back to earth answer = b Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which bands (2)? a. L b. C and Ku c. X d. S and P answer = a How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies? a. frequency reuse b. multiplexing c. mixing d. frequency hopping answer = d What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band? a. 36 MHz b. 40 MHz c. 70 MHz d. 500 MHz answer = c Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder? a. LNA b. Mixer c. Modulator d. HPA answer = b The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the a. LNA b. bandpass filter c. mixer d. input signals answer = a The HPAs in most satellite are a. TWTs b. Klystrons c. Vacuum tubes d. Magnetrons

a. b. c. d.

## 278 239 300 250

ms ms ms ms

ansmit it to a receiving station located elsewhere a. communications satellite b. repeater c. relay station d. transponder answer = a The signal path from satellite to earth based receiver. a. downlink signal b. uplink signal c. incident signal d. reflected signal answer = a A satellite position is measured by its _____ angle with respect to the horizon . a. b. c. d. elevation depression azimuth critical

answer = a The _____ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true north. a. azimuth b. elevation c. depression d. critical answer = a Incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940 s. a. Arthur Clarke b. Carl Friedrich Gauss c. Samuel Morse d. Stephen Gray answer = a When the satellites are spaced 4 deg of the 360 deg complete circle, how many p arking spaces or orbit slots are available. a. 90 b. 85 c. 95 d. 80 answer = a The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as a. station keeping b. station tracking c. station monitoring d. station maintaining answer = a Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth a. satellite altitude b. satellite position c. satellite location d. satellite orbit

answer = a The first Intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named a. Early Bird I b. Echo c. Telstar I d. Courier answer = a The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during orbit injection. a. Syncom I b. Telstar I c. Sputnik I d. Early Bird I answer = a When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 degrees and the tra nsmitting frequency is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB? a. 196 dB b. 200 dB c. 150 dB d. 100 dB answer = a What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitted by an earth station to a geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above the earth&apos;s equator and then received by the same earth station? a. 256 msec b. 128 msec c. 300 msec d. 400 msec answer = a What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operati ng at 36,000 km above the earth at 5.0 GHz? a. 198 dB b. 202 dB c. 142 dB d. 138 dB answer = c Which of the following is the most common application of satellite? a. surveillance b. military application c. communications d. newscasting answer = a Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from a. North to South b. South to North c. East to West d. West to East answer = b Geostationary stationary satellites are located _____ with respect to the equat or. a. 0 deg longitude b. 0 deg latitude c. 90 deg latitude

d. 45 deg latitude answer = d Known as The Philippine Public Telecommunications Policy Act. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 211 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 7925 answer = a Effectivity of the Philippine Telecommunications Policy Act. a. March 22, 1995 b. April 21, 1995 c. May 21, 1995 d. June 21, 1995 answer = b An act to promote and govern development of the Philippine Telecommunications a nd the delivery of public telecommunications services. a. R.A 467 b. R.A 7925 c. R.A.546 d. R.A. 5734 answer = a E.O. no. 59, prescribing the guidelines of compulsory interconnection of author ized public telecommunications carrier took effect on a. Feb 24, 1993 b. April 23, 1993 c. March 24, 1993 d. May 24, 1993 answer = b Effectivity of Executive Order 59. a. Feb 14, 1993 b. Feb 24, 1993 c. June 21, 1993 d. June 24, 1993 answer = d The Electronics and Communications Engineering Act of the Philippines. a. E.O. 59 b. R.A. 7453 c. R.A. 5743 d. R.A. 5734 answer = d When was the effectivity of the ECE Act of the Philippines? a. June 21, 1964 b. June 21, 1965 c. June 21, 1966 d. June 21, 1969 answer = c Decree created the Professional Regulations Commission (PRC). a. P.D. 322 b. P.D. 232 c. P.D. 223 d. P.D. 323

answer = b Effectivity a. July 21, b. June 22, c. June 28, d. June 12,

## of the Presidential Decree creating PRC 1973 1973 1973 1973

answer = d A law prescribing the functions of the National Telecommunications Commission. a. E.O. 543 b. E.O. 544 c. E.O. 545 d. E.O. 546 answer = b When was E.O. 546 promulgated? a. July 23, 1978 b. July 23, 1979 c. July 23, 1980 d. July 23, 1981 answer = a Rules and regulations requiring the services of a duly registered ECE in the pl anning and designing, installation or construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations, and in the manufacture and/or modification of radio communicati ons equipment. a. D.O. No. 88 b. D.O. No. 11 c. D.O. No. 68 d. R.A. No. 3864 answer = d What law provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Ph ilippines and other purposes? a. D.O. No. 88 b. P.D. 223 c. R.A. 5734 d. R.A. 3846 answer = a The institutionalization of the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) program s of the various regulated professions under the supervision of the Professional Regulations Commission. a. E.O. 266 b. E.O. 286 c. E.O. 622 d. E.O. 626 answer The CPE a. July b. July c. July d. July = d program was institutionalized through an executive order dated 25, 1994 25, 1997 25, 1996 25, 1995

answer = b Otherwise known as the Municipal Telephone Act. a. R.A. 6984 b. R.A. 6849 c. R.A. 8694

d. R.A. 6984 answer = a Municipal Telephone Act was approved on a. Feb. 8, 1990 b. Feb. 8, 1992 c. Feb. 8, 1991 d. Feb. 8, 1993 answer = b An order providing for a national policy on the operation and use of internatio nal satellite communications in the country. a. E.O. 486 b. E.O. 467 c. E.O. 576 d. E.O. 567 answer = b When was the effectivity of the national policy on the operation and use of int ernational satellite communications in the Philippines? a. February 17, 1998 b. March 17, 1998 c. April 17, 1998 d. June 17, 1998 answer = d Policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service. a. E.O. 59 b. E.O. 69 c. E.O. 88 d. E.O. 109 answer = b Effectivity of the Executive Order 109 a. June 15, 1993 b. July 15, 1993 c. August 15, 1993 d. September 15, 1993 answer = a The implementing rules and regulations governing the practice of ECE in the Phi lippines on MATV, CATV, CCTV, Paging and Background Music System, Telephone and Computer installations are embodied in a. BECE Resolution No. 3 b. BECE Resolution No. 2 c. BECE Resolution No. 4 d. BECE Resolution No. 5 answer = b Under R.A. 5734, the minimum age of a registered ECE to become a member of the ECE Board is _____ years old. a. 21 b. 31 c. 35 d. 40 answer = c Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after ____ _ days. a. 10

a. b. c. d.

60 90 105 75

b. Region 2 c. Region 3 d. Region 4 answer = a What does NTC stand for? a. National Telecommunications Commission b. National Telephone and Telegraph Commission c. National Telecommunications Council d. National Telecommunications Corporation answer = c A private radio communications system in the Land Mobile Service limited to por table transceiver for short range communications. a. Short Range Land Service b. Short Range Mobile Service c. Short Range Radio Service d. all of these answer = b An authority issued by the NTC to individuals and/or entities for the possessio n and operation of radio station under the SRRS. a. SRRS Type Approval b. SRRS Special Permit c. SRRS Operating Permit d. SRRS Acceptance Approval answer = a SRRS means a. Short Range b. Short Range c. Short Radio d. none of the

## Radio Service Receiving Service Receiving Service above

answer = a A certification issued by the NTC for SSRS radio equipment complying to the SSR S technical standards and specifications, where equipment has already been type approved by the administration whose certification is acceptable and whose proce ss does not require laboratory testing. a. type acceptance b. type certification c. type approval d. all of the above answer = c A certification issued by the commission for SRRS equipment complying to the te chnical standards and specifications whose process requires laboratory testing. a. type acceptance b. type certification c. type approval d. all of the above answer = c The radio transceiver in the SRRS in the Philippines is of what type emission. a. FM only (12KOF3E) b. FM only (10KOF3E) c. FM only (11KOF3E) d. FM only (13KOF3E) answer = a

answer = a The frequency band allocated for SRRS shall be _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channel ing plan _____ MHz using 12.5 kHz channeling plan. a. 325 - 325.4875

b. 325 - 352.4875 c. 325 - 325.25 d. 325 - 342.25 answer = a Satellite communications services provided by a satellite carrier to a carrier, usually a terrestrial-based carrier. a. Satellite Carrier&apos;s Carrier Services b. Satellite Carrier Services c. Terrestrial Satellite Services d. Satellite Services answer = b Any entity authorized by NTC to lease space segment capacity. a. space segment occupant b. space segment lessee c. space occupant d. space segment player answer = c A data network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is a uthorized to provide data and other related telecommunications services to the p ublic. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communications Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer = a A telephone network operated by an enfranchised telecommunications carrier that is authorized to provide telephony and other related telecommunications service s to the public. a. Public Switched Telephone Network b. Public Switched Communications Network c. Public Switched Data Network d. none of these answer = b A non-exclusive facility at which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls or a telegram or other messages. a. b. c. d. Public Public Public Public Toll Toll Toll Toll Service Station Calling Station Carrier Station Bus Station

answer = d An entity which, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of the local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carr iers, offer enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers. a. b. c. d. Value-added Value-added Value-added Value-added exchange carrier tax service provider (VAS)

answer = d A wider area mobile radio telephone system with its own switch base stations an d transmissions by utilizing radio frequencies. a. Mobile Telephone System

answer = a Any entity primarily engaged in the business providing transmission and switchi ng of any telecommunications service between the Philippines and any other point of the world to which it has an existing corresponding or prospective interconn ection agreement. a. international carrier b. load carrier c. inter-exchange carrier d. national carrier answer = b An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network opera tor, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which connect local excha nges within the Philippines and to engage in the business of inter-exchange nati onal long distance services. a. international carrier b. inter-exchange carrier

c. local exchange carrier d. national carrier answer = b Any entity providing transmission and switching of telecommunications services, primarily but limited to voice-to-voice service in geographical area in the Phi lippines. a. local exchange franchise b. local exchange operator c. local exchange provider d. local exchange entity answer = a Any person, firm, partnership or corporation, government or private, engaged in the provision of telecommunications services to the public for compensation. a. Public Telecommunications Facility b. Public Telecommunications Provider c. Public Telecommunications Franchise d. all of these answer = a Refers to facilities consisting of but not limited to equipment, devices, mater ials, required to make two telecommunications systems or networks interwork with each other. a. interface b. exchange c. interconnection d. none of these answer = a Refers to the defined area as determined by the NTC within a municipality or ci ty or combination of two or more cities and/or municipalities under a common loc al exchange rate schedule. a. Local Exchange Service Area b. Local Network Area c. Local Exchange Area d. Local Exchange Network Area answer = d Refers to the local exchange service area where the telephone density is 1 per 100 inhabitants and shall be based on the telephone density target from the appr oved National Telephone Development Plan (NTDP), expressed as main station per 1 00 persons. a. provincial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer = c Refers to local exchange service area where the telephone density is less than 1 per 100. a. provincial b. metro c. rural d. urban answer = c Refers to the local exchange service area within the Philippines where there is no existing telephone exchange service. a. undeserved area

earth stations such as a. GMPSC b. Fixed Satellite Service and Mobile Satellite Service c. Mobile Satellite Service Only d. Fixed Satellite Service Only answer = c Foreign news media organizations wanting to bring SNG earth stations to the Phi lippines shall secure a special NTC permit. What does SNG mean? a. Satellite Newscasters Group b. Satellite News Group c. Satellite Newsgathering d. Satellite Network Group answer = d CDMA means a. Code Division Mobile Access b. Cellular Division Mobile Access c. Cellular Device Mobile Access d. Code Division Multiple Access answer = b CMTS means a. Cellular b. Cellular c. Cellular d. Cellular

## Motion Mobile Mobile Mobile

Telecommunications System Telephone System Telecommunications System Telephone and Telegraph System

## Professional Education Program of Education Program of Education Professional Education

answer = c CPCN means a. Certificate of Private Comfort and Necessity b. Certificate of Public Communications Network c. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity d. Certified Public Communications Network answer = b IXC means a. International Exchange Carriers b. Inter-Exchange Carrier c. International Exchange Center d. none of these answer = c The first symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier c. the type of modulation of the main carrier d. none of these answer = b The second symbol of emission is a. the type of information to be transmitted b. the nature of signals modulating the main carrier

b. c. d. ula

conduct hearing especially homicide cases of ECE administer professional oath for new ECEs study, examine and prescribe in cooperation with CHED with regards to curric development and facilities of schools offering ECE course.

c. 175 km d. 200 km answer = b One of the requirement for a new broadcast radio station is the filing of petit ion for certificate of _____ with NTC. a. franchise b. public convenience c. permit d. authority answer = c Authorized international gateway operators shall be required to provide local e xchange service in unserved and underserved areas within _____ years from the gr ant of authority from NTC. a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 answer = b Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _____ local exchange li nes per international switch termination. a. 150 b. 300 c. 600 d. 500 answer = b At least one rural exchange line shall be provided for every _____ urban local exchange lines installed. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 answer = a No permit for international gateway facility shall be granted to an applicant f or local exchange carrier service unless there is a clear showing that it can es tablish the necessary _____. a. foreign correspondenceship b. franchise c. international agreement d. treaty answer = d Which of the following stations does not require a franchise from the Congress of the Philippines? a. an experimental station b. a training station c. a station on board a mobile vessel d. all of these answer = a _________ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish operating on channel 3. a. Adjacent channel interference b. Ghost c. Co-channel interference d. Crosstalk

answer = a Dithering (in TVRO communications) is a process for a. reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal b. centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels c. moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle d. moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam answer = b A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the net work is ______________. a. -40 dB b. 40 dB c. 40 dBm d. -40 dBm answer = c Important useful quantities describing waveforms. a. Time and frequency b. Voltage and current c. Frequency and voltage d. Power and frequency answer Halving a. 6-dB b. 3-dB c. 3-dB d. 6-dB = b the power means gain loss gain loss

answer = b One neper (Np) is how many decibels? a. 8.866 b. 8.686 c. 8.688 d. 8.868 answer = a A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is a. 20 dB b. 119 dB c. 15 dB d. 25 dB answer = b Which of the following is used to measure SWR? a. Spectrum analyzer b. Reflectometer c. Oscilloscope d. Multimeter answer = d 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristics i mpedance of a. 52 ohms b. 75 ohms c. 600 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = b

What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load? a. 300.04 ohms b. 324.04 ohms c. 310.04 ohms d. 320.04 ohms answer = a What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an out put of 10 kW through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB? a. 85 dBW b. 955 dBW c. 90 dBW d. 80 dBW answer = d A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an a. unbounded medium b. transmission channel c. non-metallic medium d. bounded medium answer = b If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180ohms load to a transmiss ion line w/ an impedance of 300ohms, what should be the char. impedance of the m atching transformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected dir ectly to the load a. 180 ohms b. 232 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 480 ohms answer = d A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. Determin e the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thick ness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). a. 1.0 in b. 0.9 in c. 0.7 in d. 0.5 in answer = a A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The oute r conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). In the problem, calculat e the line current. a. 1.7 A b. 1.3 A c. 1.5 A d. 1.0 A answer = b A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a freque ncy of 169 MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cabl e 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. The oute r conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1). Determine the total atten

uation of the line in the problem. a. 2.0 dB b. 1.5 dB c. 2.5 dB d. 1.0 dB answer = b What is the max. subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system if the s ignaling resistance is 1800 ohms using a tel. cable pair of gauge # 26 with a lo op resistance of 83.5 ohms per 1000 ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is e qual to 200 ohms. a. 15,161.7 feet b. 19,161 feet c. 15,300 feet d. 20,000 feet answer = d If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the s ame gauge # 26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7 dB loss per mile. a. 20,000 ft b. 13,900 ft c. 15,280 ft d. 11,733 ft answer = a The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is a. 2.0 W b. 2.5 W c. 1.5 W d. 1.8 W answer = d Known as one-tenth of a neper. a. dB b. dBm c. dBp d. dNp answer = b The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its r esonant frequency is a. 0 ohms b. infinite or an open circuit c. ohms d. 70 ohms answer = c The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called a. SWR b. ISWR c. VSWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer = c An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the len gth of the dipole

a. b. c. d.

20 m 7.5 m 15 m 25 m

c. they depend on straight line propagation d. no generators are powerful enough to excite them answer = c The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is a. 1 mW b. 3 mW c. 2 mW d. 4 mW answer = d A combiner has two inputs + 30 dBm and + 30 dBm, what is the resultant output? a. + 36 dBm b. + 30 dBm c. + 60 dBm d. + 33 dBm answer = c The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called a. SWR b. VSWR c. ISWR d. Coefficient of reflection answer = d If the ratio of the maximum current to the minimum current in a transmission li ne is 2:1 then the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage is a. 4:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:4 d. 2:1 answer = c Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a nu mber 12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length. a. 0.05 dB b. 0.55 dB c. 0.44 dB d. 0.35 dB answer = a Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a nu mber 12 wire (81 mils). Determine the spacing between wires from center to cent er. a. 6 in b. 4 in c. 5 in d. 3 in answer = d A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series i nductance of 4 mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance? a. 500 ohms b. 400 ohms c. 300 ohms d. 200 ohms answer = b A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to

a. b. c. d.

10 dBm 10 dB 20 dB 100 dB

answer = b A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required. a. Balun b. Parallel-wire line c. Coaxial line d. Quarterwave line answer = a What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacit ance of 40 nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft a. 111.8 ohms b. 110.8 ohms c. 112.8 ohms d. 109.8 ohms answer = a The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident power, the output power to the load is a. 4 W b. 5 W c. 6 W d. 7 W answer = a To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 2 answer = c A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic impe dance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner diameter. a. 2.09 cm b. 2.09 in c. 2.09 mm d. 2.09 mm answer = a If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does the gain of 50 dB represent? a. 316.2 b. 325.2 c. 320.1 d. 315.0 answer = d What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft a nd a characteristic impedance of 60 ohms? a. 0.167 H/ft b. 0.178 H/ft c. 0.19 H/ft d. 0.18 H/ft

answer = b The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by the surface. a. Reflection coefficient b. Absorption coefficient c. Linear coefficient d. Thermal coefficient answer = d When the diameter of the conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held const ant, the effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is a. increase the surge impedance b. increase the radiation resistance c. decrease the SWR d. decrease the impedance answer = b The higher the gauge number of a conductor a. the bigger the diameter b. the higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter c. the higher the resistance d. none of these answer = c A short length of transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main transmission line. a. Stub b. Balun c. lambda/4 transformer d. Slot answer = b Ratio of reflected power to incident power? a. Incidence b. Reflectance c. Reflection index d. None of these answer = c A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line o f 52 ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is a. b. c. d. 200 150 176 300 ohms ohms ohms ohms

answer = a What is the capacitance of 55 miles # 44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wir e tables, # 44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in. a. 0.476 F b. 0.476 nF c. 0.476 pF d. 0.476 fF answer = d A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distanc e between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?

a. b. c. d.

## ohms ohms ohms ohms

When VSWR is equal to zero, this means a. that no power is applied b. that the load is purely resistive c. that the load is a pure reactance d. that the load is opened answer = c ___________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward traveling voltage. a. b. c. d. SWR VSWR Reflection coefficient ISWR

answer = c What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide? a. The air dielectric filling the guide b. The coating of silver inside c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide d. Radiation loss answer = d A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line. a. Hybrid

c. Varistor d. Induction coil answer = c Pulse dialing has __________ rate a. 20 pulses/min b. 10 pulses/min c. 10 pulses/sec d. 80 pulses/sec answer = b ___________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices. a. 2-wire circuit b. Trunk line c. Leased line d. Private line answer = a The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has c ellular processor and cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call processing and handle billing activities. a. MTSO b. Cell Site c. PTSN d. Trunk line answer = b ___________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site. a. Switching system b. Base station c. Operation and support system d. Mobile station answer = a A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system. a. Frequency re-use b. Cell splitting c. TDM d. FDM answer = b If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean? a. Completed calls of 5% b. Lost calls of 5% c. Lost calls of 95% d. Lost calls of 105% answer = b ___________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell Sys tem Standard) a. 3,825 Hz b. 3700 Hz c. 2,600 Hz d. 800 Hz answer = b In a telephone system, the customer&apos;s telephone directory numbering is fro m 000 to 999, what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 9

99? a. b. c. d.

## 100 lines 1000 lines 10,000 lines 100,000 lines

answer = a If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has? a. Purely reactive b. Purely resistive c. Purely capacitive d. Purely inductive answer = d Not more than _________ digits make up an international telephone number as rec ommended by CCITT REC. E. 161. a. 8 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 answer = b One (1) Erlang is equal to _________. a. 360 CCS b. 36 CCS c. 3.6 CCS d. 100 CCS answer = a Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area. a. WATS b. OTLP c. TIP d. DTWX answer = a The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth a. 300-3400 Hz b. 1200 Hz c. 200-3200 Hz d. 300-3000 Hz answer = b Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator. a. Crossbar switching b. Manual switching c. Electronic switching d. Step-by-step switching answer = a Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the ___________ state. a. b. c. d. on-hook off-hook busy spare

a. b. c. d.

1 2 3 6

dB dB dB dB

answer = b Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of ___________. a. 300-400 Hz b. 300-3400 Hz c. 300-3000 Hz d. 300-2700 Hz answer = c The first strowger step-by-step switch was used in ____________. a. 1875 b. 1890 c. 1897 d. 1913 answer = a What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degr ees? a. 52 sec b. 1.25 sec c. 83.33 sec d. 26 sec answer = d What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable los s plans and a fixed loss plan? a. G.133 b. G.141 c. G.132 d. G.122 answer = b What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km? a. 0.838 mm b. 0.465 mm c. 1.626 mm d. 2.159 mm answer = d What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and l ow-usage areas? a. Pico cells b. Micro cells c. Nano cells d. Umbrella cells answer = a In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are replaced by __________ __. a. adaptive array b. flat plate antenna c. dipole array d. focused antenna

a. b. c. d.

## transversely transversely in the metal in the metal

across the narrow dimension of the waveguide across the wide dimension of the waveguide walls parallel to the direction of propagation walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation

answer = c For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instanta neous consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of the waveguide) is referred to as half of the a. free-space wavelength b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension c. guide wavelength d. group wavelength answer = d The guide wavelength, lambda g, in a rectangular waveguide is a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency answer = d Using the TE(10) mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangu lar guide provided a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free spac e c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space answer = d If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dom inant mode is employed a. the free space wavelength, lambda, is increased b. the phase velocity, Vphi, increased c. the guide wavelength is increased d. the group velocity, Vg is increased answer = b If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angl e, theta, is 20 degrees, what is the value of the guide wavelength, lambda g? a. 6.10 cm b. 5.32 cm c. 4.78 cm d. 5.00 cm answer = c The inner dimensions of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cut off wavelength for the dominant mode is a. 1.75 cm b. 3.5 cm c. 7.0 cm d. 0.4375 cm answer = b A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose inn er dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength, lambd a g? a. 3.12 cm b. 3.89 cm

c. 3.57 cm d. 6.30 cm answer = c The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the domina nt mode is limited to a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle, theta, is 90 degrees and the frequency for which theta is zero. b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the narrow dimension. d. none of these answer = b If a rectangular hould be inserted a. at the sealed b. at a distance c. at a distance d. at a distance waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe s end of one quarter-wavelength from the sealed end of one-half wavelength from the sealed end of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end generator and is shorted out at the f line generator? in the value to the line&apos;s surge to the value to the line&apos;s surge

answer = b A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF ar end. What is the input impedance to the a. a low value of resistance b. a high value of resistance c. a capacitive resistance which is equal impedance d. an inductive resistance which is equal impedance

answer = a If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load. b. that the line is nonresonant c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load d. that the load is matched to the line answer = b If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end a. there is minimum current at the shorted end b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end. answer = a A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohms res istive load. To shorten the line, the length must be a. any convenient value b. an odd multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength answer = a The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable c. only at the end of the cable

answer = c What circuit connects a balanced line to an unbalanced line? a. Stub b. Hybrid c. Balun d. Directional coupler answer = b To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _________ is used. a. hybrid circuit b. balun c. directional coupler d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit answer = b What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line w ith an attenuation of 6 dB/km? a. 1.5 km b. 0.5 km c. 63 km d. 2 km answer = a What is the wavelength in the waveguide with 4.5 GHz cut-off frequency excited by 6.7 GHz? a. 0.196 m b. 0.336 m c. 0.136 m d. 0.136 cm answer = b A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant mod e cut-off frequency? a. 2 GHz b. 3 GHz c. 2.5 GHz d. 3.5 GHz answer = d __________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only i n higher order modes? a. Coaxial cables b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire c. Power cables d. Waveguides answer = c The amount of uncertainly in a system of symbols is also called a. bandwidth b. loss c. entropy d. quantum answer = a The twists in twisted wire pairs a. reduced electromagnetic interference b. occur at a 30-degree angle c. eliminate loading d. were removed due to cost

answer = d An example of bounded medium is a. coaxial cable b. waveguide c. fiber-optic cable d. all of the above answer = d Loading means to the addition of a. resistors b. capacitors c. bullets d. inductance answer = d What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency application ? a. b. c. d. Two-wire balance line Single wire Three-wire line Coaxial

answer = a The characteristic impedance of a transmission does not depend upon its a. length b. conductor diameter c. conductor spacing d. dielectric material answer = c One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance. a. 50 ohms b. 75 ohms c. 120 ohms d. 300 ohms answer = a For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the ch aracteristic impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance Zl should be a. Zo = Zl b. Zo &gt; Zl c. Zo &lt; Zl d. Zo = 0 answer = d The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be correcte d for by a. using LC matching network b. adjusting antenna length c. using a balun d. adjusting the length of transmission line answer = c ____________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmissio n line not terminated in its characteristic impedance. a. an electric field b. radio waves c. standing waves d. a magnetic field

answer = b Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. infinity answer = c A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73-ohms antenna. What is the SWR? a. 0.685 b. 1 c. 1.46 d. 2.92 answer = a What is the most desirable reflection coefficient? a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. infinity answer = c What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line? a. Velocity factor b. Standing-wave ratio c. Reflection coefficient d. Line efficiency answer = d The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 39 0 V sub 1. The SWR is a. 0.67 b. 1.0 c. 1.2 d. 1.5 answer = c One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of a. 150 MHz b. 164 MHz c. 300 MHz d. 328 MHz answer = b At very high frequencies. Transmission lines act as a. tuned circuits b. antennas c. insulators d. resistors answer = d A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. capacitor b. inductor c. series resonant circuit d. parallel resonant circuit answer = c A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an

a. b. c. d.

## capacitor inductor series resonant circuit parallel resonant circuit

answer = d A medium least susceptible to noise? a. Shielded pair b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer = b A medium most widely used in LANs? a. Parallel-wire line b. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Coaxial answer = b The most commonly used transmission line in television system. a. Parallel-wire line b. Coaxial cable c. Waveguide d. Open-wire with ceramic supports answer = b The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is no t one of those factors? a. Diameter b. Length of the wire c. Dielectric material d. Separation between conductors answer = d DC blocks are a. passing DC b. passing AC c. preventing d. preventing itter used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of while blocking AC voltage but prevent DC AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band spl

answer = a Typical speech power a. 10 to 1000 W b. 100 to 1000 mW c. 10 to 1000 nW d. 100 to 1000 pW answer = b The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer = a The maximum voice energy is located between a. 250 and 500 Hz b. 1000 and 3000 Hz

c. 500 and 1000 Hz d. 3000 and 5000 Hz answer = c A device used to measure speech volume. a. speech meter b. volume meter c. volume unit meter d. speedometer answer = a By definition, for a sine wave a. 0 dBm = 0 V.U. b. 0 dBW = 0 V.U. c. 0 dBa = 0 V.U. d. 0 dBf = 0 V.U. answer = c Presently, this is the &quot;standard&quot; frequency bandwidth for voice trans mission a. 0 to 4000 Hz b. 100 to 3400 Hz c. 300 to 3400 Hz d. 300 to 3000 Hz answer = a Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design? a. AWG # 19 b. AWG # 18 c. AWG # 30 d. AWG # 33 answer = a The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is a. 1300 ohm(s) b. 2000 ohm(s) c. 1250 ohm(s) d. 1200 ohm(s) answer = d AWG # 26 has a typical loss of a. 0.21 dB/1000 ft. b. 0.32 dB/1000 ft. c. 0.41 dB/1000 ft. d. 0.51 dB/1000 ft. answer = c What is the standard voice channel spacing? a. 44 MHz b. 40 kHz c. 4 kHz d. 40 MHz answer = d Which tester is used to measure SWR? a. Multimeter b. Oscilloscope c. Spectrum analyzer d. Reflectometer

A digital identification associated with a cellular system. a. SAT b. SID c. ESN d. MIN answer = d How many seconds does facsimile transmit a standard page? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 answer = a A kind of recording is used in facsimile. a. Electrolytic recording b. Electrothermal recording c. Electropercussive recording d. Electrostatic recording answer = c A type of distortion a facsimile produces when it becomes out of synchronizatio n. a. Pincushion b. Barrel c. Skewing d. Fattening answer = b What is an acoustic coupler? a. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna b. A device that converts electric signal signals into audio signals, enabling data to be transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional tele phone handset c. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequenci es d. A transducer answer = b Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile. a. Single-frequency interference b. Crosstalk c. Phase jitter d. Noise answer = a The _________ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a wea ker signal on the same frequency. a. capture effect b. flywheel effect c. hall effect d. skin effect answer = b A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit. a. RS-232 interface b. Hybrid circuit c. Balun d. Stub

answer = c __________ theory is deciding between a set of hypotheses when given a collecti on of imperfect measurements. a. Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d. Nyquist answer = a __________ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the f orm of an underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data. a. Jaynes maximum entropy principle b. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination c. Minimum discrimination d. Maximum entropy answer = a __________ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possi ble values when given a collection of imperfect measurements. a. Estimation b. Traffic c. Decision d. Nyquist answer = d Combination of modulator, channel, and detector. a. Transceiver b. Transponder c. T/R channel d. Discrete channel answer What is a. 1.88 b. 1.68 c. 1.48 d. 1.28 = a the frequency band of DECT? - 1.90 GHz - 1.70 GHz - 1.50 GHz - 1.30 GHz

answer = b How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support? a. 96 b. 12 c. 24 d. 49 answer = a How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any giv en time? a. 120 b. 240 c. 480 d. 960 answer = b The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always ________. a. present before adjustments can me made b. DC, but may have either polarity c. positive DC d. negative

answer = c The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment i s called the a. trunk line b. link c. subscriber loop d. leased line answer = a What is the local loop of a telephone system? a. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer&apo s;s premise and the central office. b. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem. c. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer. d. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber&apos;s telephone set to another set in an adjacent room. answer = d Which of the following equipment is used in long loop design? a. Dial long lines b. Voice repeater c. Loop range extender d. All of the above answer = a What is a two-wire circuit? a. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the local central office. b. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instanta neous voltage. c. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a common ground. d. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines. answer = a 1 mW is equal to a. 90 dBrn b. 0 dBrn c. -30 dBrn d. 120 dBrn answer = b Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dia l tone? a. Line finder b. First selector c. Connector d. Line equipment answer = b The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan. a. Primary center b. Section c. Regional center d. Toll points answer = b A cell in the cellular telephone system means a. a power source b. small area

c. large area d. service area answer = d What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone? a. Base station b. Control office c. C.O. d. MTSO answer = d What is the typical power output of a cellular phone? a. 5 W b. 10 W c. 1 W d. 3 W answer = a When a single cell is subdivided into smaller cells the process is called a. cell splitting b. cell division c. reuse d. cell sharing answer = b The first cell shape is a a. square b. circle c. rectangle d. triangle answer = d In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone system ca n use a. hexagon cell shape b. triangle c. rectangular d. all of the above answer = d What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base sta tion? a. 20 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 50 degrees d. 60 degrees answer = b A cellular phone operates on a. half duplex b. full duplex c. echoplex d. lincomplex answer = a Cellular phones transmit in the band from a. 825 to 845 MHz b. 835 to 855 MHz c. 825 to 855 MHz d. 825 to 865 MHz

answer = b Cell phone receives in the band from a. 860 to 880 MHz b. 870 to 890 MHz c. 870 to 880 MHz d. 860 to 890 MHz answer = b What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels? a. b. c. d. 30 45 55 40 MHz MHz MHz MHz

answer = c For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is a. 825.030/870.030 MHz b. 835.03/880.03 MHz c. 825.015/870.015 MHz d. 825.15/870.15 MHz answer = d The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is a. 625 b. 645 c. 655 d. 666 answer = a The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about a. 80 km b. 65 km c. 160 km d. 16 km answer = b When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cells ite transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary _________ process takes place. a. shifting b. hand off c. give off d. turn over answer = c What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver? a. 20 dB b. 40 dB c. 50 dB d. 60 dB answer What is a. 15 b. 30 c. 12 d. 75 = c the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system? kHz kHz kHz kHz

d. light variation answer = d What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modem fax machine? a. Phototube b. Phototransistor c. Liquid-crystal display d. Charge couple device answer = a In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are ____________ respectively. a. 1500 and 2300 Hz b. 2300 and 1500 Hz c. 1300 and 2400 Hz d. 1070 and 1270 Hz answer = d Which resolution produces the best quality fax? a. 96 lines per inch b. 150 lines per inch c. 200 lines per inch d. 400 lines per inch answer = c Group 2 fax uses which modulation? a. SSB b. FSK c. Vestigial sideband AM d. PSK answer = c The most widely used fax standard is a. Group 1 b. Group 2 c. Group 3 d. Group 4 answer = a Group 3 fax uses which modulation? a. QAM b. FSK c. Vestigial sideband AM d. FM answer = b Most fax printers are of which type? a. Impact b. Thermal c. Electrosensitive d. Laser xerographic answer = c Facsimile standards are set by the a. FCC b. DOD c. CCITT d. IEEE answer = d What type of graphics are commonly transmitted by radio fax?

a. b. c. d.

## Newspaper text Architectural drawings Cable movies Satellite weather photos

c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer = b A touch-tone telephone generates how many different tones. a. 10 audio-frequency tones b. 8 audible tone frequencies c. 4 VHF signals d. 16 audio-frequency tones answer = d The base-to-mobile frequency assignment of a GSM system. a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 825 - 845 MHz c. 870 - 890 MHz d. 935 - 960 MHz answer = d A voice-grade channel is suitable for transmission of a. VHF signals b. UHF signals c. VHF and UHF signals d. signals with a frequency ranging from 300 to 3400 Hz answer What is a. 1.23 b. 1.23 c. 1.23 d. 1.23 = a the bandwidth of cellular CDMA system? MHz GHz kHz THz

answer = b What is a communication link? a. It is a piece of wire that is connected to ground terminals of all communica tions equipment in one establishment. b. It is a channel or circuit intended to connect other channels or circuits. c. It is a cable connecting a transmitter to the antenna d. It refers to a radio link. answer = d Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equa l to an average holding time. a. Erlang B b. Erlang C c. Erlang D d. Poisson answer = b What is an echo? a. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the origina l signal and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible output signal. b. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with sufficient magnit ude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from th at directly transmitted. c. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth by a passive satellite. d. A reflected signal. answer = b

c. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange d. Public Automatic Branch Exchange answer = a What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA? a. Digital AMPS b. GSM c. CDMA d. TACS answer = b What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS? a. 832 b. 416 c. 666 d. 888 answer = a The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is a. 890 - 915 MHz b. 935 - 960 MHz c. 870 - 890 MHz d. 825 - 845 MHz answer = a The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system. a. 13 b. 30 c. 45 d. 20 answer = d In a cellular system, ____________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency. a. radio efficiency b. diversity c. frequency reuse d. radio capacity answer = c Which of the following echo is completely out of control? a. Worst echo b. Reverberation c. Singing d. Feedback answer = a Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and exten ds its signaling range? a. Loop extender b. VF repeater c. VF amplifier d. All of these answer = d Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that the number of circuits in tandem must not exceed a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12

answer = c The communications medium causes the signal to be a. Amplified b. Modulated c. Attenuated d. Interfered with. answer = a Which of the following is not a source of noise? a. Another communications signal b.Atmospheric effects c. Manufactured electrical systems d. Thermal agitation in electronic components answer = d One - way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = b Simultaneoues two-way communications is called a. Half Duplex b. Full Duplex c. Monocomm d. Simplex answer = c The original electrical information signal to be transmitted is called a. b. c. d. Modulating Signal Carrier Baseband Signal Source Signal

answer = d The process of modifying a high frequency carrier with the information to be transmitted is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer = a The process of transmitting two or more information signals simultaneo usly over the same channel is called a. Multiplexing b. Telemetry c. Detection d. Modulation answer = b Continuous voice or video signals are referred to as being a. Baseband b. Analog c. Digital d. Continuous waves answer = c

b. Kamehame Waves c. Shortwaves d. Millimeter waves answer = c Television broadcasting ocurs in which ranges? a. HF b. EHF c. VHF d. SHF answer = a Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are called a. Infrared rays b. Microwaves c. Shortwaves d. X-rays answer = b A micron is a. One - millionth of a foot b. One - millionth of a meter c. One - thousandth of a meter d. One ten-thousandth of an inch answer = d The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 30 to 300 GHz b. 4000 to 8000 Angstrom c. 100 to 10,000 A d. 0.7 to 10 microns answer = b The wavelength of infrared rays is approximately a. 1000 microns b. 7000 Angstrom c. 3500 A d. 4000 A answer = a Which of the following is not used for communications? a. X - rays b. Millimeter waves c. Infrared d. Microwaves answer = b A signal occupies the spectrun space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The band width is a. 0.007 MHz b. 7 MHz c. 237 MHz d. 700 MHz answer = c In the United States, the elecromagnetic spectrum is regulated and man aged by a. NBA b. ITU c. FCC

d. NTC answer = d For a given bandwith signal, more channel space is available for signa ls in the range of a. VHF b. UHF c. SHF d. EHF answer = b Having an information change some characteristic of a carrier signal i s called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Duplexing d. Linear Mixing answer = c Which a. The b. The c. The d. The of the following is not true about AM? carrier output varies. carried frequency remains constant. carrier frequency changes. information signal amplitude changes the carrier amplitude.

answer = d The opposite of modulation is a. Reverse moduation b. Downward Modulation c. Unmodulation d. Demodulation answer = a The circuit used to produce modulation is called a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Variable Gain Amplifier d. Multiplexer answer = c A modulator performs what mathematical operation on its two inputs? a. Addition b. Square Root c. Multiplication d. Division answer = c The ratio of the peak modulating signal voltage to the peak carrier vo ltage is referred to as a. The voltage ratio b. Decibels c. The modulation index d. The mix factor answer = d If m is greater than 1, what happens? a. Normal Operation b. Carrier drops to zero. c. Carrier frequency shifts d. Information signal is distorted

answer = b For a. m b. m c. m d. m

## ideal AM, which of the following is true? = 0 = 1 &lt; 1 &lt; 1

answer = c The outline peaks of a carrier has the share of the modulating signal and is called the a. Trace b. Waveshape c. Envelope d. Carrier variation answer = a Overmodulation occurs when a. Vm &gt; Vc b. Vm &lt; Vc c. Vm = Vc d. m = Vc = 0 answer = d The new signals produced by modulation are called a. Spurious emissions b. Harmonics c. Intermodulation products d. Sidebands answer = d A display of signal amplitide versus frequency is called the a. Time Domain b. Frequency spectrum c. Amplitude spectrum d. Frequency domain answer = a Most of the power in an AM signal is in the a. Carrier b. Upper sideband c. Lower sideband d. Modulation signal answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer = b A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave. The LSB and U SB are, respectively, a. 873 and 887 kHz b. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz c. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz d. 887 and 873 kHz

answer = c The values of Vmax and Vmin as read from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8 and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is a. 10.7 percent b. 41.4 percent c. 80.6 percent d. 93.3 percent answer = b An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W. The percentage of modulation i s 80 percent. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5 W d. 4.0 W answer = a For 100 percent modulation, what percentage is in each sideband? a. 25 percent b. 33.3 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent answer = a An AM transmitter has a percentage of modulation of 88. The carrier po wer is 440W. The power in one sideband is a. 85 W b. 110 W c. 170 W d. 610 W answer = b An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no modulation and f ound to be 2.6 amperes. With no modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. Th e percentage of modulation is a. 35 percent b. 70 percent c. 42 percent d. 89 percent answer = d In an AM signal, the transmitted information is contained within the a. Modulating signal b. Carrier c. Envelope d. Sidebands answer = c An AM signal without the carrier is called a(n) a. Vestigial Sideband b. FM Signal c. SSB d. Uncarried Signal answer = c What is the minimum AM signal needed to transmit information? a. Carrier plus sidebands b. Carrier only c. One sideband d. Both sidebands

answer = a The main advantage of SSB over standard AM or DSB is a. Less spectrum space is used b. Simpler equipment is used c. Less power is consumed d. A higher modulation percentage answer = c In SSB, which sideband is the best to use? a. Upper b. Lower c. Neither d. Depends upon the use answer = b Distortion of the modulating signal produces harmonics which cause an increase in the signal a. Carrier Power b. Bandwidth c. Sideband Power d. Envelope Voltage answer = a It refers to the sending, receiving and processing of information by e lectronic means. a. Communications b. Telemetry c. Broadcasting d. Telephony answer = a What services uses HF CW communications? a. Police b. Telephony c. Broadcasting d. Sattelite system answer = b The signal which is superimposed on a high frequency sinewave is calle d a. b. c. d. Carrier Information Sideband Squarewave

answer = c What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator(BFO) a. Aids in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals b. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the inter mediate frequency c. Generates a 1kHz tone to Morse reception d. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the interm idiate frequency by 1kHz answer = a A type of information signal which is made up of rapid and unpredictab le variations in amplitude frequency. a. Speech b. Digital

c. Pulses d. Bits answer = c He was the one who developed the mathematical solution to a complex re petitive waveform. a. Carson b. P.H. Smith c. J. Fourier d. Y. Uda answer = b The process of impressing information signals to a high frequency carr ier is called a. Multiplexing b. Modulation c. Detection d. Scrambling answer = d A diagram which shows the relationship between RF signal phase and max imum bunching of the electron beam in velocity-modulated devices. a. Smith chart b. Venn Diagram c. S-parameter Diagram d. Applegate Diagram answer = a It is the liberation of electrons by thermionic means used as the prin cipal source of electron emission in microwave vacuum tube devices. a. Edison Effect b. Miller Effect c. Bunching d. Secondary Effect answer = d It is the representation of a complex waveform in such a way that the sinusoidal components are displayed as a function of time a. Wave Representation b. TDR c. Frequency Domain d. Time Domain answer = a An Adjustable resonant cavity calibrated in frequency and which underg oes some power absorption at resonance. a. Frequency Meter b. Cavity resonator c. Ferrite isolator d. Auto Coupler answer = a What is the amount of power lost in a device due to its presence in th e path of energy flow? a. Insertion loss b. Gain c. Wave attenuation d. Phase shift answer = b

It is the representation of a waveform in such a way that its amplitud e is displayed as a function of frequency. a. Wave Shape b. Frequency Domain c. OTDR d. Time Domain answer = c The big breakthrough in electronic communications came with the invent ion of the _____ in 1844. a. Transistor b. Phonograph c. Telegraph d.Telephone answer = a In 1877, he invented a method of making a permanent record of sound wi th his invention of the phonograph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = b He was the one who developed the wireless telegraph. a. Edison b. Marconi c. Morse d. Bell answer = a Which came first, the invention of the telephone or the invention of t he phonograph? a. Telephone b. Phonograph c. Either d. Neither answer = d What is a device such as the microphone and headset sometimes called? a. b. c. d. Receiver Transmission medium Converter Reproducer

answer = c What distinguishes one electromagnetic wave from another? a. Phase b. Energy c. Frequency d. Amplitude answer = a The entire range of _____ of electromagnetic radiation is called the f requency spectrum. a. Frequencies b. Phases c. Energies d. Amplitude

answer = a What a. To b. To c. To d. To

a. b. c. d.

## HPF LPF Duplexer Diplexer

answer = d What does AFC mean? a. All Filipino Conference b. Anti Firing Countermeasure c. Audio Frequency Control d. Automatic Frequency Control answer = b Amplitude Modulation is the same as a. Linear Mixing b. Analog Multiplication c. Signal Summation d. Mutliplexing answer = a In a diode modulator the negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a (n) a. Tuned Circuit b. Transformer c. Capacitor d. Inductor answer = a Amplitude modulation can be produced by a. Having the carrier vary a resistance b. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance c. Varying the carrier frequency d. Varying the gain of an amplifier answer = c Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulati ng signal by passing it through an attenuator work on the principle of a. Rectification b. Resonance c. Variable resistance d. Absorption answer = a The component used to produce AM at very high frequencies is a a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. Cavity Resonator d. PIN diode answer = b Amplitude modulation generated at a very low voltage or amplification is known as a. High level modulation b. Low Level Modulation

c. Collector Modulation d. Minimum Modulation answer = b The circuit that recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal is known as a a. Modulator b. Demodulator c. Mixer d. Crystal Set answer = c The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the a. Diode mixer b. Balanced modulator c. Envelope Detector d. Crystal Filter answer = d A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(n) a. Amplitude Modulator b. Diode Detector c. Class C Amplifier d. Balanced Modulator answer = c A widely used balanced modulator is called the a. Diode Bridge Circuit b. Full Wave bridge rectifier c. Lattice Modulator d. Balanced bridge modulator answer = b In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like a. Variable resistors b. Switches c. Rectifiers d. Variable Capaitors answer = d The output of a balanced modulator is a. AM b. FM c. SSB d. DSB answer = a The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator i s a a. Differential Amplifier b. Rectifier c. Bridge

A major advantage of the vacuum tube is its need for a _______ to give energy to the electrons. a. Voltage source b. line equalizer c. limiter d. heater answer = c Keyed AGC is AGC that: a. Works only on Morse code b. Is activated when keyed by the transmitting signal c. Is used is TV receivers so that transmitted picture brightness does not affect the AGC d. Is used in color TV receivers so that the transmitted color has no e ffect on the AGC answer = a What is the main disadvantage of a single-tube transmitter a. Frequency instability b. Low gain c. High resistivity d. High attenuation answer = b What is the name of the operation that uses an antenna changeover swit ch? a. Duplex b. Simplex c. Crossover d. Switching answer = a Which of o spectrum? a. 8.2345 b. 150.50 c. 2.4555 d. 35.535 the following falls under the high frequency band of the radi MHz MHz MHz MHz

answer = c What is reduced by rounding off square-wave emissions? a. Amplitude b. Phase c. Bandwidth d. Energy answer = b What is gained by operating an oscillator on some subharmonic of the tr ansmission frequency? a. Frequency sensitivity b. Frequency stability c. High sensitivity d. Good selectivity answer = d What type of coupling discriminates against harmonic transmission? a. Capacitive b. Direct c. Transformer d. Inductive

a. b. c. d.

## SB filtered Carrier transmitted Lower sideband transmitted Both sideband transmitted

answer = d If two signals are in quadrature, what is their phase relation? a. 0 b. 45 c. 180 d. 90 answer = d What method can be used to invert speech? a. Frequency multiplier b. Inverter c. AGC d. Frequency translation answer = b In SSB, voice compression is better in the AF or RF section? a. AF b. RF c. Intermediate d. SB answer = a What is the circuit that changes modulated RF to AF? a. Demodulator b. Modem c. Synthesizer d. Modulator answer = a What kind of crystal is used in oscillator? a. Quartz b. Galena c. Carborundum d. Salt answer = b Power is always _____ a. A definite amount of energy b. All of these c. The rate at which energy is used d. Expressed in watts answer = c Which of the following services would use crystal local oscillators? a. b. c. d. AM FM Aircraft Shortwave listeners

answer = b What does VOX mean? a. Very Onward circuit b. Voice-operated transmission c. Voice Onward transmission

b. 220 V c. 500 V d. 1000 V answer = c it is the maximum swing of the sound carrier in tv system. a. 5 kHz b. 15 kHz c. 25 kHz d. 35 kHz answer = c The pre-emphasis and de-emphasis networks have a time constant of__ a. b. c. d. 65 70 75 80 s s s s

answer = " 2 " which of the following is not a product of overmodulation? a. splatter b. image c. buck shot d. spurious signal answer = c it is the range of short-wave frequency. a. 30 - 300 kHz b. 300 - 3000 kHz c. 3 - 30 MHz d. 30 - 300 MHz answer = " 2 " One angstrom is equivalent to___ a. 10 b. 10 c. 10 d. 10 answer = b An FM signal has a deviation of 10 KHz and a modulating frequency of 2 KHz. Calculate the modulation index. a. 20 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 answer = c A modulation technique wherein the modulations index is directly proport ional only to the intelligence amplitude. a. AM b. FM

c. d.

PM CM

answer = b How many RF amplifiers are there in a tuned radio frequency receiver? a. b. c. d. 1 2 3 4

answer = a Noise due to random motion of the free alectrons in a conductor. a. b. c. d. thermal noise shot noise harmonic distortion intermodulation distortion

answer = a determine the shot noise current for a diode with a forward bias of 1mA over a 100 Khz Bandwidth. a. 0.00566 A b. 0.00400 A c. 0.00455 A d. 0.00500 A answer = b indicate the false staement: Bandwidth a. ia a portion of electromagnetism spectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source infor mation through the system. c. must be sufficiently large to pass all significant information frequenie s d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit answer = c what a. 2122 b. 2122 c. 2122 d. 2122

is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network? GHZ KHZ HZ MHZ

answer = c Band limiting a signal a. is independent of its frequency content b. is independent of itswaveform shape c. may remove necessary in its information capacity d. is independent of its information capacity answer = b desired harmonics are referred to as: a. frequency distortion

b. c. d.

## frequency multiplication modulation cross products intermodulation distortion

answer = c indicate the false staement: Flickers a. were commonly found in transistors b. are inversely proportional to frequency c. are very serious at frequencies above 500 HZ d. are also referred to as modulation noise. answer = b having a temperature of 17 C at MHZ BW the noise voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifier, using a device has a 200 O equivalent noise resistance and a 300 O input resistor will be a. 3.692 V b. 6.932 V c. 6.902 V d. 6.293 V answer = d the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise pow er generated is therfore a. Halved b. quadrupled c. doubled d. none of the above answer = d _____________ transmissionare employed for low or medium density traffic a. b. c. d. SSBSC DSBCS SSBRC ISB

answer = c An Fm signal with a deviation ratio 8 is passed through a mixer, and has its frequency reduced 5 fold. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a. b. c. d. 5 d d / 5 d none of the above

answer = a a typical squelch circuit cut off a. an audio amplifier when carrier is absent b. R interference when the signal is weak c. An IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum d. all of the above answer = c

a 68 KHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the band of frequencies 300-3400 Hz. Determine the Bandwidth. a. 38.3 KHz b. 71.4 KHz c. 6.8 KHz d. 3.1 KHz answer = b A 400W carrier is modulated to a depth of 75%. Calculate the total power in the C3F with 10% of 1SB transmission. a. 56.25 W b. 461.86W c. 512.5W d. 112.5W answer = a which of the following has the best sensitivity? a. -60 dBm b. 0 dBm c. 30 dBm d. -30 dBm answer = a which of the following has the best sensitivity? a. 10 KHz b. 10 MHz c. 100 MHz d. 20 KHz answer = b a modulation frequency range from 30-15000 Hz is permitted in an Fm syst em together with a maximum deviation of 50KHz. What will be the maximum index in this system? a. 1.11 b. 1.66 c. 3.33 d. 0.3 answer = b calculate the image rejecytion of the receiver having an RF amplifier an d If of 450 KHz if the Q of the relevant coil is 65 at anincoming frequency of 1200 KHz. a. 75.28 b. 76.6 c. 890.78 d. 90 answer = d calculate the S/N in ratio and dB form of a receiver which output is 40V and 0.48V noise. a. 6944.4 , 38.5 dB b. 6499.4 , 38.42 dB c. 83.33 , 19.21 dB d. 6944.4 , 38.42 dB

answer = d which of the following is NOT a major benefit of FM over Am? a. greater efficiency b. noise immunity c. capture effect d. lower complexity and cost answer = c most internal noise comes from a. shot noise b. transit-time noise c. thermal agitation d. skin effect answer = b noise can be reduced by a. widening the BW b. narrowing the BW c. increasing the temperature d. increasing transistor current level answer = b the heart of all methods of single sideband modulation and demodulation a. b. c. d. modulator balanced modulator modulation demodulation

answer = c "front end" is also called _____ a. IF stage b. AF stage c. RF stage d. none of these answer = c this is the system so far referred to as "SSB" in which the carrier is s upressed by at least 45 dB in the transmitter. a. A3E b. R3E c. J3E d. B8E answer = b a micron is a. one-millionth of a foot b. one-millionth of a meter c. one-thousandth of a meter d. one-thousandth of an inch

answer = d the frequency range of infrared rays is approx. a. 30-300 GHz b. 4000-8000 A c. 1000-10000 A d. 0.7-100 m answer = b an AM signal has a carrier power of 5w. The percentage of modulation is 80%. The total sideband power is a. 0.8 W b. 1.6 W c. 2.5W d. 4.0W answer = c as SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 KW.the average output is in ran ge of a. 150-450 W b. 100-300 W c. 250-333 W d. 3 - 4 kW answer = d if the unmodulated carrier current is 4A and the percentage modulation i s 70%. The total output current is a. 4.64 A b. 0.5 A c. 2.8 A d. 4.46 A answer = d the process of translating a signal, w/ or w/o modulation, to a higher o r lower frequency for processing is called_____ a. frequency multiplication b. frequency division c. frequency shift d. frequency conversion answer = d if the sideband power is 50% of the carrier power, what is the modulatio n index? a. 50A% b. 75% c. 90% d. 100% answer = c which of the following is he most correct? a. Vm should be greater then Vc b. Vc should be greater than Vm c. Vm should be equal to or less than Vc d. Vc should be equal to or less than Vm

answer = a the output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 KHz s ine wave modulating tone is a. 3.8485 MHZ sine wave b. 3.85 MHz sine wave c. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine wave d. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine wave answer = b the maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in TV is 25 KHz. Th e actual % modulation is 18 KHz, the % modulation is a. 43% b. 72% c. 96% d. 139% answer = a the phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a weaker signal on a com mon frequency is reffered to as the ______ a. capture effect b. biot out c. quieting factor d. denomination syndrome answer = c both FM and PM are types of what kind of modulation? a. amplitude b. phase c. angle d. duty cycle answer = c in SSB, w/c sideband is the best to use? a. upper b. lower c. neither d. depends upon the use answer = a Which of the following is NOT another name for modulation index? a. b. c. d. modulation reciprocal modulation factor degree of modulation modulation coefficient

answer = c receiving electromagnetic emissions from the stars is called_____ a. b. c. d. astrology optical astronomy radio astronomy' space surveillance

answer = c a widely used balanced modulator is called _____ a. diode bridge circuit b. full-wave bridge amplifier c. lattice modulator d. balanced bridge modulator answer = d a display of signal amplitude vs. frequency is called the ____ a. time domain b. frequency spectrum c. amplitude spectrum d. frequency domain answer = b indicate the false staement: BW a. is a portion of electromagnetic spectrum occupied by a system b. is the maximum range of frequency in order to propagate the source infor mation through the system c. must be sufficiently large / wide to pass all significant information fr equencies d. is the difference between the upper and lower frequency limit answer = c indicate the false statement: attenuators a. are passive network used to reduce the power level w/o introducing appre ciable distortion b. consist of numerous resistors arranged in various configurations that ac t as voltage divides while maintaining a constant input and output impedances c. d. introduces a fixed loss usually used over wide frequency range

## answer = c what a. 2122 b. 2122 c. 2122 d. 2122

is the cut off frequency of a deemp or preemp network GHz KHz Hz MHz

answer = b which of the following waveform responses produce the fastest transition a. b. c. d. chebysher elliptic bessel filter butterworth

answer = d which of the following waveform responses produce the slowest transition a. bessel filter

b. c. d.

## elliptic chebysher maximally flat filter

answer = c bandlimiting a signal : a. is independent fo its frequency content b. is independent of its waveform shape c. is independent in its information capacity d. may remove necessary informations in the signal answer = c indicate the false statement: roll-off rate a. can be expressed in dB/octave b. can be expressed in dB/decade c. is a change in frequency by a factor of 2 d. is a rate of transition from passband to stopband and vice versa

answer = b desired harmonics are reffered to as: a. frequency distortion b. frequency multiplication c. modulation cross products d. intermodulation distortion answer = b ______was the first fixed-length charactered code a. morse code b. telex code c. ASCII code d. EBCDIC code answer = c indicate the false statement: flicker a. were commomnlyfound in transistors b. are inversely proportional to frequency c. are very serious at frequency above 500Hz d. are also known as modulation noise answer = b having an amplifier BW of 6 MHz at temperature 17c, the noise voltage at the input of a TV RF amplifier, using a device that has a 200O equivalent noise resistance and a 300O input resistor will be ___ a. 6.392 MV b. 6.932 MV c. 6.902 MV d. 6.293 MV answer = d the value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise pow er generated is therefore a. halved

b. c. d.

## quadrupled doubled none of the above

answer = d _____ transmissions are employed for low or medium density traffic a. b. c. d. SSBSC DSBSC SSBRC ISB

answer = c an FM signal w/ a deviation d is passed through a mixer , and has its f requency reduced fivefolds. The deviation in the output of the mixer is a. b. c. d. 5d d/5 d none of the above

answer = a a typical squelch circuit cuts off a. an audio amplifier when the carrier is absent b. RF interference when the signal is weak c. an IF amplifier when the AGC is maximum d. an IF amplifier when the AGC is minimum answer = c if the color signals are mixed in the correct proportion, the result is ____ a. red b. frame rate c. standard luminance d. sync pulse answer = a selectivity is usually obtained with a special filter known as _____ a. b. c. d. surface acoustic wave filter bandpass filter chebysher filter active filter

for cable TV companies, the main building or facility is called the ____ __ a. b. c. d. main station headend monitoring station transmitter and receiver station

answer = c which has the lowest luminance? a. cyan b. green c. blue d. magenta answer = a determine the net receiver gain for an AM receiver with a RF input power of -87dBnm a. 97dB b. 77dB c. 87dB d. -97dB answer = a it is the safe operating power for the receiver. a. dynamic range b. output power c. threshold d. breakdown answer = b for an AM band with range of 535 - 1605 kHz and Q = 53.5, find the bandw idth when fc = 535kHz. a. 15 kHz b. 10 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 5 kHz answer = b what is the type of emission for monophonic FM? a. A3E b. F3E c. F8E d. none of these answer = b find the maximum number of channels for FM transmission FM BC band: 88.1 08MHz FM BC channel width: 200kHz a. 25 channels b. 100 channels c. 150 channels d. none of the above answer = d

for an I=0.4 and Q=0.7, find the value of the chrominace signal voltage. a. b. c. d. 1.1 0.6 0.3 0.8 V V V V

answer = b what percent is the reference black level of a horizontal sync pulse? a. b. c. d. 12.50% 70% 75% 50%

answer = d numerical frequency band designation of channel 9. a. 488-494 MHz b. 530-536 MHz c. 632-638 MHz d. 186-192 MHz answer = b part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise. a. dawntime b. nighttime c. daytime d. experimental period answer = c which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13 )? a. b. c. d. high pass filter low pass filter band stop filter band pass filter

answer = b the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750 c. 15575 d. 17570 answer = c what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MHz answer = a

how long is the toatl vertical time in a standard television transmissio n? a. b. c. d. 16.66 ms 63.5 ms 53.3 ms 15.32 ms

answer = c what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz b. 10 KHz c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer = a requency. a. AM b. FM c. FM d. AM b band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center f broadcast broadcast broadcast broadcast band channel band channel

answer = c frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class AB answer = d it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency u nrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer = c Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF ga in as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the above. answer = d ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/ stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback

answer = c Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light. c. d. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal

answer = c _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in betwe en the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional answer = c the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal. c. high selectivity d. high sensitivity answer = a frequency conversion si produced by a circuit called a _____. a. mixer b. modulator c. multiplexer d. filter answer = c what is the instantaneous voltage produced by an AM signal 10 sec from w hen it was transmitted if the modulating signal voltage is equal to the RMS valu e of the carrier voltage signal is 16V? The carrier frequency is 777kHz and the modulating frequency is 60Hz respectively. a. 1 eV8.947 V b. 27.314 V c. 0.182 mV d. 1.43 mV answer = a how long does ot take to horizontally scan 40 pixels? a. 5 s b. 0.125 s c. 53.5 s d. 2.140 ms answer = d the signal from color camera has R=0.75, G=0.5, and B=0.15, where 1 repr esents the maximum signal possible. Find the chrominance voltage?

a. b. c. d.

## 0.5365 0.262 -0.056 0.2679

answer = d the purpose of a final amplifier in a radio frequency transmitter is to _________. a. isolate the carrier oscillator from its load. b. generate an accurate and stable carrier frequency c. apply the generated signal to the antenna. d. increase RF power level of transmitter answer = c how far Is the visual carrier from the aural carrier in a monochrome tel evision broadcast channel? a. 5.75 MHz b. 3.58 MHz c. 4.5 MHz d. 1.25 MHz answer = a determine the percentage of the primary colors used in colored TV needed to produce the brigthest white. a. 30% red, 59% green, 11% blue b. 60% red, 28% green, 32% blue c. 21% red, 52% green, 31% blue d. 30% red, 52% green, 22% blue answer = b what is the maximum number of medium frequency broadcast stations? a. b. c. d. 131 32 100 25

answer = b ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission? a. b. c. d. 14% of horizontal scanning time 10% of horizontal scanning time 8% of horizontal scanning time 92% of horizontal scanning time

answer = a the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is deter mined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. regional tropospheric

answer = c additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue, b. red , yellow, blue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer = a the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW a. b. c. d. class class class class A B C D

answer = b short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer = c the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 k m in the horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna inp ut power to 137.6 in V/m. a. injection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gain answer = d a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which freque ncy modulates the main carrier. a. subchannel signal b. main channel signal c. SCA subcarrier d. composite baseband signal answer = b as applied to facsimile broadcasting is the product of the number of lin es per inch, the available length in inches. a. Line-use ratio b. index of cooperation c. available line d. scanning line answer = a in Tv broadcasting, the pilot of the free space radiated field intensity versus azimuth at a specified vertical angle with respect to vertical plane pas sing through the center of the antenna. a. Azimuthal pattern b. spherical pattern c. vertical pattern

d.

polar pattern

c. d.

## shot noise man made noise

answer = d it usually occurs when oscillating mechanical stresses applied across a crystal lattice structure generale electrical oscillations and vice versa a. b. c. d. skin effect flywheel effect doppler effect piezoelectric effect

answer = b ________ is the ability of an oscillator to remain at a fixed frequency and is of primary importance in communication system? a. sensitivity b. frequency stability c. selectivity d. addictus effect answer = a what do you call the noise reduction ratio achieved by reducing the band widths? a. BW improvement b. S/N ratio c. noise figure d. differential reduction answer = a how many phons are there in 8 sons? a. 70 b. 107.88 c. 95.56 d. 40 answer = a what is the carrier power for an AM with an unmodulated voltage of 10V a nd a load resistance of 10ohms? a. 5W b. 10W c. 15W d. 20W answer = c or an AM DSBFC transmitter with an unmodulated carrier power, 100W, that is modulated simultaneously by three modulating signal with coeffecients of mod ulation of 0.2, 0.4, 0.5. calculate for the total transmitted power? a. 0.67 b. 22.445 W c. 122.445 W d. can not be solved answer = a

answer = a in odd symmetry what coefficient(s) are valued to be zero? a. A b. B c. B and A d. none of the above answer = a ________ is the ratio of active time of the pulse to the period of the w aveform. a. dynamic range b. deviation ratio c. duty cycle d. deflection ratio answer = c phenomenon in which a displaced molecules tends to pull back to its orig inal position after its initial momentum has caused it to displace nearby molecu les. a. malleability b. ductility c. elasticity d. lifetime answer = c a 4x4 announceer booth is 4m high, its walls are covered with curtains h aving an absorption coefficient of 0.500 while the ceiling and flooring have an absorption coefficient of 0.050 and 0.30, respectively. Determine reverberation time. a. 1.334 b. 0.274 c. 0.2159 d. 0.256 answer = a what is the resonant air cavity absorber in hertz of a loudspeaker enclo sure with an internal volume of 84950cm a thickness of 19mm with a small opening of 323 cm? a. approx. 235 b. approx. 520 c. approx. 665 d. approx. 110 answer = a refers to the microphone's variaation in sensitivity at various angles o f incidence with respect to the on-axis of the microphone. a. directional response b. sensitivity factor c. angular reaction d. perception aspect answer = b

a. b. c. d.

part of broadcast day from local sunset to sunrise. dawntime nighttime daytime experimental period

answer = c which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2-13 )? a. b. c. d. high pass filter low pass filter band stop filter band pass filter

answer = b the number of scanning times is _______ per second. a. 15570 b. 15750 c. 15575 d. 17570 answer = d what is the intermediate frequency used for the picture on a television receiver? a. 3.58 MHz b. 1.25 MHz c. 45.75 MHz d. 41.25 MHz answer = a how long is the total vertical time in a standard teelvision transmissio n? a. b. c. d. 16.66 ms 63.5 ms 53.3 ms 15.32 ms

answer = c what is the color frequency tolerance in a TV receiver? a. 1 KHz b. 10 KHz c. 10 Hz d. 1 Hz answer = a requency. a. AM b. FM c. FM d. AM b band of frequencies 200 kHz wide is and is designated by its center f broadcast broadcast broadcast broadcast band channel band channel

a. b. c. d.

## frequency multipliers are usually _______amplifiers. class A class B class C class AB

answer = d it is a situation wherein the circuit oscillates at a higher frequency u nrelated to the tuned frequency. a. parasitic frequency b. parallel oscilaation c. resonant frequency d. parasitic oscillation answer = c Automatic gain control circuits are used to ___________. a. control the gain of Rf amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. b. controls the level of the Local Oscillation to maintain a constant IF ga in as the strength of incoming signals varies. c. control the gain of IF amplifiers to maintain a constant IF gain as the strength of incoming signals varies. d. none of the above. answer = d ina TV unit, it is a horizontal output transistor that drives a step-up/ stepdown transfomer called______. a. flywheel b. AFC c. Director d. Flyback answer = c Aspect ratio is the _________ a. ratio of the output IF signal to the IF input signal. b. ratio of the time it takes to transmit a signal to the speed of light. c. d. ratio of the width and height of a TV picture. ratio of the luminance of the received signal from the output signal

answer = c _________ scanning is a method of super-imposing a second field in betwe en the first field. a. progressived b. dual c. interlaced d. Bi-directional answer = c the primary requirement of a filter when it is used in SSB generation is ______ a. high gain b. input and output impedances are equal.

c. d.

## high selectivity high sensitivity

b. c. d.

32 100 25

answer = b ho wlong is the horizontal retrace in NTSC standard TV transmission? a. b. c. d. 14% of horizontal scanning time 10% of horizontal scanning time 8% of horizontal scanning time 92% of horizontal scanning time

answer = a the service area of a TV transmitter for satisfactory reception is deter mined by ______ zone. a. line-of-sight b. diffraction c. tropospheric d. regional tropospheric answer = c additive primary colors are a. red , white, blue, b. red , yellow, blue c. blue, red, green d. R-Y, B-Y, G-Y answer = a the station with an authorized effective radiated power of 125 KW a. b. c. d. class class class class A B C D

answer = b short wave broadcasting uses what kind of propagation? a. ground wave b. sky waves c. space waves d. direct waves answer = c the ratio of the effective free space field intensity produced at 1.61 k m in the horizontal plane expressed in millivolts per meter for 1 km antenna inp ut power to 137.6 in V/m. a. injection ratio b. RF protection ratio c. Antenna field gain d. Antenna power gain answer = d a signal in FM broadcasting which is the sum of all signals which freque