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[Q1] 1 knot is equivalent to a _______. A. distance of 1 statute mile B. distance of 1.151 statute mile C. speed of 1.151 statute mile per hour [Q2] The gauge pressure of a hydraulic reservoir is 3 psi. If the ambient pressure is 14 psi, what is the absolute pressure? A. 17 psi B. 14 psi C. 11 psi [Q3] Choose the correct statement. A. Water vapour is heavier than air. B. On a humid day, an aircraft can produce more thrust. C. Moist air is less dense than dry air. [Q4] An increase in static air pressure causes density to _______. A. increase B. decrease C. stay the same [Q5] An increase in humidity causes air density to _______. A. increase B. decrease C. stay the same [Q6] The wind speed affects _______. A. airspeed B. ground speed C. neither airspeed nor ground speed [Q7] Lapse rate refers to _______. A. decrease of density as altitude increases B. decrease of pressure as altitude increases C. decrease of temperature as altitude increases [Q8] Bernoullis Principle for an ideal fluid motion through a venturi states that total energy _______. A. is constant at all points B. increases at the throat C. decreases at the throat

[Q9] EAS is equal to _______. A. IAS corrected for instrument error, static source error and compressibility error B. CAS corrected for density error C. ground speed and wind component [Q10] As the density decreases in the atmosphere, an aircrafts takeoff distance _______. A. is not affected B. increases C. decreases [Q11] Pitot static tube senses _______. A. static pressure B. dynamic pressure C. static and total pressure [Q12] A flow is said to be steady when _______. A. its velocity, pressure and density remain invariant with time B. its pressure and velocity is constant C. its pressure is zero [Q13] Static pressure is equal to the pressure _______. A. at stagnation point B. around an aircraft that is stationary C. on the upper surface of an aerofoil [Q14] Static pressure is _______. A. the same as the stagnation pressure B. the pressure of undisturbed air around the aircraft C. measured by the pitot tube [Q15] In the troposphere, as one climbs to a higher altitude, _______ remains constant. A. atmospheric pressure B. percentage of gases in the atmosphere C. barometric pressure [Q16] At low speeds, what happens to air flowing towards the throat of a venturi? A. Velocity increases, pressure decreases. B. Velocity decreases, pressure increases. C. Both velocity and pressure decrease. [Q17] Absolute pressure is _______. A. Gauge pressure minus Atmospheric pressure B. Pressure at ISA condition plus Gauge pressure C. Gauge pressure plus Atmospheric pressure

[Q18] Atmospheric pressure _______. A. decreases more rapidly at low altitudes B. is constant at high altitude in the Troposphere due to the Earths rotation C. decreases uniformly with an increase in altitude [Q19] The amount of water vapour in the air will _______. A. be unaffected by air temperature B. decrease with an increase in air temperature C. decrease with a decrease in air temperature [Q20] As the altitude increases up to 50 miles, composition of the atmosphere _______. A. changes according to altitude B. remains constant C. changes according to latitude [Q21] As air becomes hotter its viscosity _______. A. remains constant B. increases C. decreases [Q22] The viscosity of a liquid _______. A. decreases when it is heated B. decreases when it is cooled C. increases when it is heated [Q23] Relative humidity on a Standard Day is _______. A. 0% B. 15% C. 100% [Q24] When the speed of a fluid increases, its _______. A. static pressure increases B. dynamic pressure increases C. total pressure increases [Q25] Absolute pressure of 250 psi is approximately equal to a gauge pressure of ______. A. 235.3 psig B. 250 psig C. 264.7 psig [Q26] When the weight of the aircraft is reduced to half during flight, what is the new airspeed in order to remain at level flight? A. 0.25 times original airspeed B. 0.50 times original airspeed C. 0.71 times original airspeed

[Q27] The corrections that must be made to Indicated airspeed (IAS) in order to obtain Calibrated airspeed (CAS) are _______. A. position error and compressibility error B. instrument error and density error C. instrument error and position error [Q28] The IAS at a certain altitude will be _______. A. lower than the TAS B. higher than the TAS C. equal to the TAS [Q29] The proportional decrease in temperature as altitude increases is called the ______. A. barometric lapse rate B. temperature lapse rate C. atmospheric lapse rate [Q30] Bernoullis theorem states that for an ideal, streamlined fluid flow, _______. A. pressure energy is constant B. kinetic energy is constant C. the sum of pressure energy and kinetic energy is constant [Q31] What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level? A. 10.1 kN/m2 B. 101 kN/m2 C. 1011 kN/m2 [Q32] What is the pressure at sea level on a Standard Day? A. 101325 N/m2 B. 1013.25 N/m2 C. 101.325 N/m2 [Q33] At which layer of the atmosphere does the temperature drop constantly? A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere 11 km to 20 km C. Ionosphere [Q34] What is the temperature lapse rate up to 36000 feet (11000 metres)? A. 1C per 1000 feet B. 2C per 1000 feet C. 10C per 1000 feet [Q35] The standard (ISA) sea level temperature is _______. A. 15C or 59F B. 30C or 86F C. 20C or 68F

[Q36] The pressure at 6000 metres (20000 feet) above sea level is approximately ______. A. one-tenth (1/10) the pressure at sea level B. half (1/2) the pressure at sea level C. twice the pressure at sea level [Q37] In the troposphere, as altitude increases, the temperature will decrease at a rate of _______. A. -2C / 1000 feet B. -1C / 10000 feet C. -10C / 1000 feet [Q38] The largest component of the atmosphere is _______. A. nitrogen B. carbon dioxide C. oxygen [Q39] The temperature, pressure and density of a standard day are _______. A. 25C, 10132 mb, 1.225 kg/m3 B. 15C, 1013.2 mb, 12.25 kg/m3 C. 15C, 1013.2 mb, 1.225 kg/m3 [Q40] The atmospheric layer where temperature is constant with altitude is _______. A. Troposphere B. Stratosphere 11 km to 20 km C. Ionosphere [Q41] The dynamic pressure is an indication of the airflows _______. A. pressure energy B. potential energy C. kinetic energy [Q42] From the sea level, as altitude increases, the temperature keeps decreasing constantly until approximately at _______. A. 200 metres B. 3000 metres C. 11000 metres [Q43] For an aircraft travelling at constant true airspeed, if the outside air temperature increases, the Mach number will _______. A. increase B. remain the same C. decrease

[Q44] The airflow past a wing can be considered incompressible at _______. A. all speeds B. low speed only C. high speed only [Q45] Density ratio is defined as _______. A. the proportion of the ambient air density to standard sea level air density B. ratio of relative air density to standard sea level air density C. density at altitude corresponding to a particular air density [Q46] The International Standard Atmosphere provides _______. A. assumed standard for atmosphere conditions B. conditions prevailing at sea level C. conditions prevailing at 40 degrees latitude [Q47] The velocity of sound is proportional to the square root of _______. A. absolute temperature B. pressure C. density [Q48] A pressure of 150 psi expressed in absolute is: A. 135.3 psi Absolute B. 150 psi Absolute C. 164.7 psi Absolute [Q49] On a humid day, an aircraft requires: A. Longer take-off rolling B. Shorter take-off rolling C. Lesser power to take-off due to the cooling effect of the water vapour in the air [Q50] On an ISA day, the ambient temperature, pressure and density at sea-level under the metric system is: A. 15 oC, 1013hPa, 1.225 kg/m3 B. 15 oC, 1000hPa, 1.225 kg/m3 C. 25 oC, 1013hPa, 12.25 kg/m3 [Q51] Density of air _______. A) decreases when temperature decrease B) has no effect on aircraft performance C) is defined as mass per unit volume [Q52] As altitude increases, _______. A) both pressure and density decrease B) pressure increases, density decreases C) pressure decreases, density increases

[Q53] Increase in velocity of airflow? A. Increases kinetic energy B. Increases potential energy C. Increases air pressure

[Q1] Transition point is the point on the surface of the aerofoil where _______. A. flow separates from the aerofoil B. laminar boundary layer becomes turbulent C. flow becomes supersonic [Q2] On an aircraft wing, the region with the highest pressure is _______. A. at the centre of pressure B. near the trailing edge C. near the leading edge [Q3] All other things being equal, the rougher the surface area, _______. A. the thinner the boundary layer B. the thicker the boundary layer C. does not affect the thickness of the boundary layer [Q4] An increase in camber and effective wing area is associated with _______. A. Split flap B. Zap flap C. Fowler flap [Q5] Stall angle of a particular aerofoil _______. A. increases with wing loading B. decreases with wing loading C. is constant and not dependent on wing loading [Q6] For a _______ aerofoil, the value of the coefficient of lift is zero at small negative AOA. A. cambered B. symmetrical C. thin and long [Q7] Which stall pattern is desirable for a wing operating at a high angle of attack? A. Wing tip stalling occurring first, and progressing towards the root. B. Wing leading edge stalling occurring first, and progressing towards the trailing edge. C. Wing trailing edge stalling occurring first, and progressing towards the leading edge. [Q8] The induced drag is greatest during _______. A. high speed flight with long wing span B. low speed flight with long wing span C. low speed flight with low aspect ratio

[Q9] Level flight at different speeds is _______. A. possible by varying AOA B. achieved by altitude change C. not possible [Q10] Aspect ratio of a wing with non-rectangular planform can be calculated by ______. A. (Span)2 / Area B. Span / (Area)2 C. (Span / Area)2 [Q11] Angle between the chord line and longitudinal axis of an aircraft is called the angle of _______. A. incidence B. pitch C. attack [Q12] For a flat plate, as AOA increases, the CP moves _______. A. forward B. backward C. towards the AC. [Q13] Higher Reynolds number means _______. A. turbulent airflow B. higher airflow around the leading edge C. higher altitude [Q14] Which type of drag decreases with an increase in speed? A. Skin friction drag. B. Induced drag. C. Form drag. [Q15] When an aircraft stalls, it descends in nose down attitude and increase in speed. This characteristic is considered _______. A. undesirable B. impossible C. desirable and safe [Q16] The purpose of having a slot at the leading edge of the wing is to enable the aircraft to fly at a speed _______ that of an aircraft with an unslotted wing. A. slower than B. equal to C. higher than

[Q17] Total drag on an aircraft will _______. A. equal to the sum of induced drag of various components B. lesser than the sum of induced drag of various components C. greater than the sum of induced drag of various components [Q18] Stall angle of attack for a given aerofoil _______. A. increases with decrease in weight B. does not vary with weight C. increases as the weight increase [Q19] Which type of drag can be reduced by streamlining? A. Induced drag. B. Skin friction drag C. Form drag [Q20] An aircraft's wing is designed to create an area of low pressure _______ the wing. A. above B. below C. in front of [Q21] Laminar flow changes to turbulent flow after the _______. A. Stagnation point B. Transaction point C. Transition point [Q22] An aerofoil always stalls at the same _______. A. angle of attack B. viscosity C. velocity [Q23] A swept wing will start to stall from the _______. A. wing root B. wing tip C. trailing edge [Q24] Which statement is TRUE when an aerofoil is about to stall? A. Angle of attack is highest B. Drag is highest C. Lift coefficient is highest [Q25] Which of the following describes the changes to airflow over the upper surface of a wing? A. Velocity increases, pressure decreases B. Velocity increases, pressure increases C. Both velocity and pressure decrease

[Q26] If the AOA of a cambered aerofoil is gradually increased, its centre of pressure ______. A. moves forward B. moves backward C. remains stationary [Q27] The components of drag on an aerofoil with zero lift are ________. A. skin friction drag, form drag, interference drag and induced drag B. skin friction drag, form drag and interference drag C. parasite drag and induced drag [Q28] A symmetrical aerofoil at zero AOA will only have _______. A. form drag B. parasite drag C. skin friction drag [Q29] Flying at maximum lift to drag ratio is good because _______. A. glide angle is largest B. range is furthest C. induced drag is lowest [Q30] Which is a method to reduce interference drag? A. Adding fairings to the wing-fuselage junctions. B. Polishing the wing surfaces. C. Increasing the wing span [Q31] Which of the following high lift device, when used, will increase the wing area? A. Fowler flap B. Plain flap C. Split flap [Q32] When slots are used, _______. A. both CL(max) and stall angle increases B. CL(max) increases and stall angle decreases C. CL(max) decreases and stall angle increases [Q33] When flaps are used, _______. A stall angle increases B. camber increases C. L/D ratio increases [Q34] Which flap is found on the leading edge? A. Zap flap B. Fowler flap C. Krueger flap

[Q35] At which speed will the induced drag be the greatest? A. 580 knots B. 340 knots C. 180 knots [Q36] At which velocity will an aircraft have the least induced drag? A. 180 knots B. 360 knots C. 540 knots [Q37] The induced drag of an aircraft may be reduced by _______. A. streamlining the fuselage B. using high aspect ratio wings C. increasing the angle of attack [Q38] The resultant aerodynamic force on the wing acts at the _______. A. centre of pressure B. aerodynamic centre C. centre of gravity [Q39] The angle of attack is the angle between the chord of the aerofoil and the _______. A. fuselage centre line B. relative airflow C. horizontal line [Q40] To maintain straight and level flight with an increase in airspeed, the pilot must increase thrust and _______. A. push the control stick to put the aircraft nose down and reduce AOA B. pull the control stick to put the aircraft nose up and increase AOA C. keep the control stick in a neutral position [Q41] If a pilot wants to fly an aircraft straight and level but at a faster speed, he would increase engine thrust and _______. A. gradually lower the nose of the aircraft to reduce AOA B. gradually raise the nose of the aircraft to increase AOA C. deploy the flaps to increase camber [Q42] Which AOA is likely to produce the highest L/D ratio? A. -4 to 0 B. 3 to 4 C. 15 to 20 [Q43] In order to maintain lift as altitude increases, an aircraft should be flown with ___. A. higher TAS at any AOA B. same TAS regardless of AOA C. decreasing TAS and increasing AOA

[Q44] To generate the same amount of lift as altitude increases, a pilot must fly the aircraft with _______. A. a higher TAS at any given AOA B. the same TAS at the same AOA C. a lower TAS at any given AOA [Q45] Which of the following high-lift devices will increase the wing area? A. Plain flap B. Fowler flap C. Split flap [Q46] Decreasing the aspect ratio of a wing will _______. A. reduce the induced drag B. not affect the induced drag C. increase the induced drag [Q47] Which of the following is a factor affecting the amount of lift on a wing? A. Centre of pressure B. Centre of gravity C. Airspeed [Q48] Form drag is most affected by _______. A. surface smoothness B. shape C. thickness [Q49] Decreasing the aspect ratio will increase _______. A. induced drag B. parasitic drag C. lift/drag ratio [Q50] Increasing the angle of attack up to the stall angle will increase _______. A. lift B. velocity C. angle of incidence [Q51] The aerodynamic lift force is affected by _______ A. velocity B. drag C. stall angle [Q52] The angle of attack refers to the angle made by the chord with the _______. A. relative airflow B. fuselage C. longitudinal axis

[Q53] Increasing the aspect ratio will increase _______. A. stall angle B. induced drag C. lift [Q54] The maximum lift coefficient is obtained _______. A. when the angle of attack is equal to the stall angle B. at the maximum L/D ratio C. when induced drag is at a minimum [Q55] When AOA increases, how does the CP change? A. CP moves forward B. CP moves backward C. CP remains in a fixed position [Q56] The point where laminar flow changes to turbulent flow is called _______. A. Transition point B. Separation point C. Stagnation point [Q57] Turbulent flow occurs after the _______. A. Transaction point B. Transition point C. Resistance point [Q58] In which of the following stages of flight will an aircraft have the highest L/D ratio? A. Takeoff B. Cruise C. Landing [Q59] When the frontal area of a wing increases, which of the following is the outcome? A. Form drag increases B. Form drag decreases C. Induced drag decreases [Q60] When an aircraft increases its AOA, _______. A. induced drag increases B. form drag increases C. form drag decreases [Q61] An increment in the frontal area of an aircraft wing will result in increased ______. A. form drag B. parasite drag C. induced drag

[Q62] How should the aircraft be designed in order to reduce induced drag? A. Increase aspect ratio and fly faster B. Decrease aspect ratio and fly slower C. Decrease aspect ratio and fly faster [Q63] When flaps are used, stalling speed _______. A. decreases B. increases C. remains unchanged [Q64] Stalling speed increases at higher altitudes because _______. A. air density decreases B. air temperature decreases C. CL(max) increases [Q65] What is the movement of centre of pressure for a cambered aerofoil? A. Position of CP is unchanged when AOA increases B. CP moves forward when AOA increases C. CP moves backward when AOA increases [Q66] What is the drag found mostly on the tip of the wings? A. Induced drag B. Form drag C. Skin friction drag [Q67] A wing with washout will have _______. A. a higher angle of incidence at the root compared to the tip B. a lower angle of incidence at the root compared to the tip C. a decreasing angle of incidence along the chord [Q68] When an aircraft increases its speed from 100 knots to 200 knots, its parasite drag increases by _______. A. 2 times B. 4 times C. 6 times [Q69] A Fowler flap _______. A. increases the wing camber and the angle of attack B. increases the wing camber and reduces the effective wing area C. decreases the lift coefficient and stalling angle [Q70] All types of trailing edge flaps _______. A. decrease CL(max) and increase CD B. increase CL(max) and decrease CD C. increase both CL(max) and CD

[Q71] If air is blown over the top surface of an aerofoil, the effect is to _______. A. reduce surface friction drag B. increase the boundary layer and reduce form drag C. re-energize the boundary layer and delay flow separation [Q72] As the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure for a given aerofoil will _______. A. move forward B. does not move C. move backward [Q73] The lift for a given aerofoil is _______. A. perpendicular to the relative wind B. perpendicular to the aerofoils chord C. equal to drag [Q74] The stalling angle of attack for a given aerofoil _______. A. is always the same B. increases with increase in wing loading C. decreases with increase in wing loading [Q75] Aspect ratio of the wing is the ratio of _______. A. aerofoil thickness to camber B. aerofoil thickness to MAC C. square of wing span to its planform area [Q76] Other factors being equal, an aircraft with a low wing loading will have a minimum speed _______ one with high wing loading. A. equal to B. lower than C. higher than [Q77] Drag reduced by streamlining is _______. A. skin friction drag B. form drag C. induced drag [Q78] Level flight at different speeds is _______. A. possible by varying AOA B. achieved by altitude change C. not possible [Q79] Increasing wing loading has _______. A. no effect on the stall speed B. results in an increase on the stall speed C. results in a decrease on the stall speed

[Q80] Which of the following does not contribute to parasite drag? A. form drag B. skin friction drag C. induced drag [Q81] The purpose of leading edge flaps are to _______. A. increase wing area B. decrease wing area C. increase camber [Q82] An aerofoil with positive camber produces zero lift at _______. A. zero AOA B. positive AOA C. small negative AOA [Q83] Which statement best describes Fowler flaps? A. The hinge of the flap moves backwards when lowered so as to keep the trailing edge of the wing and flap on a line normal to the chord. B. Both the camber and wing area are increased when the flap is lowered. C. A special type of leading edge flap designed to prevent flow separation. [Q84] As Reynolds number increases to a value above its critical, the flow will be _____. A. supersonic B. turbulent C. laminar [Q85] Lift is a force which acts in a direction _______. A. perpendicular to direction of the relative wind B. parallel to chord line of the wing C. perpendicular to upper surface of the aerofoil [Q86] Wing tip vortices are formed by _______. A. higher pressure air beneath the wing flowing into the lower pressure region above the wing B. higher pressure air at the top of the wing flowing to the lower surface of the wing C. the wing when it is moving at high AOA [Q87] The riggers angle of incidence is chosen such that L/D ratio is _______. A. zero B. minimum C. maximum

[Q88] At what stage will the wing of the aircraft experience the highest coefficient of lift? A. Final approaching and landing B. Taking-off and climb C. Turning and maneuvering [Q89] The difference between the parasite drag and induced drag is: A. Induced drag is caused by skin friction of the wing and parasite drag is created by the downwash at the trailing edge. B. Parasite drag increased when the airspeed is increased whereas induced drag decreased when the airspeed is decreased. C. Parasite drag decreased when the airspeed is decreased whereas induced drag decreased when the airspeed is increased. [Q90] If the planform area of the wing is increased by 2 times, the lift and drag will increase by a factor of: A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 [Q91] The center of pressure is: A. On the upper surface of the wing where lowest pressure is most evidence B. Always fixed at 50% of the chord where the resultant force acts. C. A point on the chord of the aerofoil where the resultant force of the pressure distribution acts [Q92] To maintain straight level flight, if the airspeed is increased, the pilot: A. Has to fly with nose down to reduce the angle of attack B. Has to fly with nose up to increase the angle of attack C. does not need to do anything [Q93] A general aerofoil is usually designed to have maximum lift to drag ratio at the angle of incidence of: A. -5o to -2o B. 0 to 3 o C. 3o to 4o [Q94] An aircraft will have the highest coefficient of lift during ________. A. takeoff B. cruise C. landing [Q95] As the aerofoil increases to the stalling angle, the lift_______. A) increases B) remains constant C) decreases


[Q1] Load factor is a ratio of _______. A. lift / drag B. lift / weight C. thrust / drag [Q2] In a steady climb, _______. A. Thrust > Drag B. Lift > Drag C. Thrust < Drag [Q3] In a turn, the aileron movement creates _______. A. increased camber on the upgoing wing B. decreased camber on the upgoing wing C. increased camber on the downgoing wing [Q4] During a constant radius and altitude turn, an aircraft's "G" meter shows a steady reading of 2G. Which of the following is the aircraft's bank angle? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 [Q5] The force that opposes forward motion of an aircraft is known as _______. A. thrust B. weight C. drag [Q6] When an aircraft is flying from low altitude to high altitude, its thrust will _______. A. increase B. decrease C. remain constant [Q7] An aircraft is designed with its CG located in front of its CP _______. A. to have a pitching up tendency B. to have a pitching down tendency C. to increase the longitudinal stability [Q8] What affects the radius of a turn for an aircraft cruising in level flight? A. Bank angle and speed B. Weight and altitude C. Speed and thrust

[Q9] Why is the Lift located aft of the CG? A. So that the aircraft can assume nose down flying if its engines fail. B. So that the aircraft can assume nose up flying if its engines fail. C. So that the aircraft can resume level flight if its engines fail. [Q10] What factors affect the bank angle? A. The speed and weight of the aircraft. B. The velocity and radius of turn. C. The height and size of the aircraft. [Q11] Why is the lift axis behind the weight axis? A. The aircraft nose pitches down when it glides. B. The aircraft will maintain level flight. C. The aircraft nose pitches up when it glides. [Q12] Which of the following correctly describes the location of the forces on a conventional aircraft? A. Lift is behind the weight while drag is above the thrust. B. Lift is in front of the weight while drag is below the thrust. C. Lift is in front of the weight while drag is above the thrust. [Q13] Where should the weight be positioned on an aircraft? A. In front of the lift. B. Behind the lift. C. Above the lift. [Q14] For equilibrium, the forces on a conventional aircraft should be arranged such that _______. A. lift is behind weight, thrust is below drag B. weight is behind lift, thrust is below drag C. centre of pressure is behind centre of gravity [Q15] When an aircraft performs a level turn at constant speed and bank angle, _______. A. lift is equal to weight B. lift is greater than weight C. thrust is greater than drag [Q16] In a steady climb, _______. A. Lift = Weight B. Lift > Weight C. Lift < Weight [Q17] The flattest glide of the aircraft is possible if _______. A. drag is more than weight B. CL is substantially large C. L/D is at a maximum

[Q18] Load factor is defined as the ratio of _______. A. lift to drag B. lift to weight C. thrust to weight [Q19] An increase in aircraft weight will affect _______. A. gliding speed B. gliding range C. gliding angle [Q20] The flattest glide of the aircraft is possible if _______. A. IAS is equal to TAS B. the AOA produces the best lift to drag ratio C. the engine thrust is reduced to zero [Q21] The turning radius and level turn is dependent on: A. Bank angle and speed B. Speed and weight C. Weight and thrust [Q22] If the aircraft is registering 2G, what is the bank angle? A. 30o B. 60o C. 90o


[Q1] If the pilot of a correctly trimmed aircraft rotates the control wheel to the left, the left wing aileron _______ and the right wing aileron will _______. A. move down; move up B. move up; move down C. move down; move down [Q2] Better stability during roll is attributed to the _______. A. fineness ratio of the wing B. high aspect ratio of the wing C. wing dihedral [Q3] Dutch roll occurs when the static directional stability is _______ the static lateral stability. A. much less than B. much more than C. equal to [Q4] The behaviour of an aircraft such that when a slight roll takes place, the forces acting on it tends to restore it to an even keel, is known as _______. A. directional stability B. longitudinal stability C. lateral stability [Q5] An aileron which is specially shaped to increase the drag of the wing when deflected upwards is called _______. A. Frise aileron B. Differential aileron C. Balance aileron [Q6] An aircraft which, when disturbed, remains at a new position, is said to have _______. A. neutral static stability B. positive static stability C. neutral dynamic stability [Q7] The tail fin of an aircraft provides _______. A. static stability B. longitudinal stability C. directional stability

[Q8] If an aircraft recovers to its original position after encountering a disturbance, it is said to have _______. A. positive static stability B. negative static stability C. positive dynamic stability [Q9] Lateral stability is achieved by _______. A. wing dihedral B. longer fuselage C. tapered wings [Q10] When a pilot pitches his aircraft downwards, after some time, the aircraft pitches itself back to its original path. What type of stability is involved here? A. Positive static stability B. Neutral static stability C. Negative static stability [Q11] Yawing motion is controlled by the _______. A. ailerons B. elevators C. rudder [Q12] Elevators control the aircraft _______. A. rolling B. pitching C. yawing [Q13] Which of the following helps the aircraft achieve lateral stability? A. Swept wings. B. Elliptical wings. C. Anhedral wings. [Q14] Which type of stability involves the pitching of the aircraft? A. Longitudinal stability. B. Lateral stability. C. Directional stability. [Q15] Lateral stability is _______. A. stability about the lateral axis B. stability about the longitudinal axis C. stability about the directional axis [Q16] Which of the following types of wings has the least lateral stability? A. Dihedral wings. B. Straight wings. C. Anhedral wings.

[Q17] Which of the following affects the directional stability of an aircraft? A. Aileron. B. Tail fin. C. Elevator. [Q18] To correct an aircrafts tendency to pitch down during flight, the elevator must be moved _______. This can be done by moving the elevator trim tab _______. A. upwards; downwards B. downwards; upwards C. upwards; upwards [Q19] A suitable device to help the pilot to move the control surface is _______. A. an anti-servo tab B. a horn balance C. a mass balance [Q20] An anti-servo tab is designed to _______ the effort of the pilot to move the control surface. A. reduce B. cancel C. increase [Q21] For a given input, the control system moves the up-going aileron through a greater angle than the down-going aileron. This arrangement is known as _______. A. Frise aileron B. Aileron drag C. Differential aileron [Q22] If the aircraft remained in the nose down position after the pilot had pushed the elevator control stick forward and released, the aircraft is said to have: A. Neutral static stability B. Positive static stability C. Neutral dynamic stability [Q23] If the aircraft is able to return to its original position after a disturbance had occurred during its steady flight, the aircraft is said to have positive static and dynamic: A. Stability B. Controllability C. maneuverability [Q24] Lateral stability can be achieved by: A. Wing dihedral B. Tapered wing from the wing root at the fuselage to the wing tip C. Low mounted wing

[Q25] Rotation about the longitudinal axis is ________. A. yawing and controlled by the rudder B. rolling and controlled by the aileron C. pitching and controlled by the elevator


[Q1] A double wedge aerofoil _______. A. is the most efficient subsonic aerofoil B. is a supersonic aerofoil C. produces a large net lift and small drag at zero angle of attack [Q2] Compressibility effects become more significant for an aircraft flying at _______. A. supersonic speed B. subsonic speed C. supersonic and high subsonic speed [Q3] The purpose of waisting the fuselage is to _______. A. save weight B. follow the Area rule C. accommodate the wing root [Q4] At Mach 1, the entire aerofoil is supersonic except _______. A. upper surface of the stagnation area B. lower surface of the stagnation area C. leading edge of the stagnation area [Q5] Vortex generators serve to _______. A. delay separation B. delay transition C. raise critical Mach number [Q6] What does vortex generator accomplish? A. They invigorate the boundary layer at low speed only. B. Effective in breaking up normal shock wave. C. Both a & b. [Q7] Supersonic flow around a convex corner results in _______. A. an increase in velocity and decrease in pressure and density B. a decrease in velocity and increase in pressure and density C. no changes in either velocity, pressure or density [Q8] Airflow behind an oblique shock wave _______. A. accelerates and is supersonic B. slows down but is still supersonic C. is always subsonic

[Q9] For an oblique wave, airflow over the aerofoil is supersonic, airflow behind the wave is _______. A. accelerate to supersonic B. slow down but still in supersonic C. always subsonic [Q10] The direction of airflow remains unchanged after passing through a _______. A. normal shock wave B. oblique shock wave C. expansion wave [Q11] The Mach wave angle _______. A. is constant at any speed B. increases as airspeed increase C. decreases as airspeed increase [Q12] The Force divergence Mach number is _______. A. 5% below MCRIT B. same as MCRIT C. slightly above MCRIT [Q13] The purpose of Area Rule design is to _______. A. raise MCRIT B. reduce wave drag C. break up formation of shock waves [Q14] MCRIT for an aircraft can be raised by using _______. A. sweepback B. leading edge flaps C. vortex generators [Q15] Drag divergence Mach number is a Mach number where the coefficient of drag _______. A. is zero B. is minimum C. rapidly increases [Q16] What is the difference between a shock stall and a low speed stall? A. shock stall does not cause buffeting B. shock stall occurs at a lower AOA C. shock stall does not reduce lift [Q17] Mach trim system is provided to take care of _______. A. dutch roll B. tuckunder C. buffeting

[Q18] Shock stall occurs at_______. A. any speed B. constant speed C. small AOA