Permanences reading of Porneia and Moicheia in Matthew By Charlie Albright Introduction In this article I want to explore the claims

made by Permanence holders about Matthews usage of Porneia and Moicheia. The reason for this is because this is a very important part of the discussion on divorce and remarriage. Is Matthew giving exceptions which allow divorce and remarriage or is he not? The answer has big ramifications about how Christians think and teach about this pertinent issue with real people in our churches. Let me define the discussion which is going on. The traditional evangelical under standing of divorce and remarriage is that there is no legitimate divorce and remarriage except in two conditions. Number one, that the person committed adultery and number two, if the person wanting out of the marriage is an unbeliever. Outside of these there are no biblical reasons for a divorce. Now there is a more conservative take that is coming up into the discussion. What has been called the Permanence view holds to the belief that there are no reasons for divorce and one cannot get remarriedno exceptions. Thesis This is not going to be a full on discussion about the two views. Instead this is going to be a focus on one particular part of the discussion. We are going to be focusing on Matthews usage of two Greek words Porneia () and Moicheia (). Even more specifically we are going to be looking at particular claims about how we are to understand these words in Matthew. The full arguments are going to be given below but sufficient for now to say now that the possible exception clauses in Matthew are important verses in the discussion. Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 can seem to state that there are exceptions to the condemnation of divorce that allow situational divorces and remarriages. We translate the Greek word for Porneia as sexual immorality and the word Moicheia as adultery. So in these two verses the interpretation of those two words is important. If one finds that the words mean something different then it would affect how we read Jesus teaching on divorce and remarriage. So there is a big discussion about those two verses.1 Greek Language Before we get into that I do want to say a word about working in the Greek language for those that dont really know a lot about linguistic studies. When we enter the world of Greek we should not think that we are entering into a mysterious world of enchantment. The language of
1

It does need to be stated that these are not unclear verses. Just because people have written a lot about them doesnt mean that the verses are confusing to understand like Pauls mention the Corinthians baptizing for the dead (1 Corinthians 15:29). Paul, here, mentions something in passing where there is no way to determine what exactly he meant. Unlike that, the verses in Matthew are clear in what they communicate. The problem comes is the difficultly in fitting them in ones views. Thus the problem is in the interpreters, not the verse.

Greek has consistent patterns just like we do in English. It is just that we dont think how we use the English language most of the time. We just do what we have absorbed from the use of the language around us without thinking about it. But when we enter into the Greek world we have to think about why people did what they did with the language. That is the difference. Now they were consistent in the use of their language in different ways than we are consistent with ours. But the principle of needing to understand the consistency applies for both. This is not, as I stated before, some grand adventure into the mystical world of the Greek language. It is looking at the language to find consistent uses of words and grammar so we can get the most probable meaning from the author we are studying. It is like in English where you may come across a word or phrase that you dont understand. If you dont have a dictionary to explain it to you, you can go through the authors work and see how he uses it. And you can then think about how the word is used in other books you have read such far. If the word is used frequently in books written during the same time or around you can get a good guess at how the author probably uses it. This is what we are doing with the Greek language. We do not have a Greek dictionary to simply look up how people used words. We have to study other usages of it and use that information to get the most probable meaning.2 Body With all that said let use dive into the discussion at hand. We are going to be looking into how we should interpret the word meanings of Porneia () and Moicheia () in the book of Matthew. More specifically, we are going to be looking at claims made by the Permanence holders about consistence patterns which shape our understanding of how the words are used. So, by looking at the Greek language we can ask the question, are there patterns to how we see the words used which gives us a picture of how Matthew used the words? Here is the information we have and how the Permanence holders understand it. We have four texts where Matthew uses (5:27, 28, 23; 19:18), two times where he uses (5:32; 19:9), and once where he uses (15:19). Then there are three times Matthew uses (5:32; 15:19; 19:9). The Claim by Permanence Holders When the Permanence holder work through the verses about divorce and remarriage in Matthew (5:32, 19:9) they come away saying that Matthew has a usage of the words which has Moicheia speaking to martial adultery only and Porneia is speaking to extra-marital sexual immorality only. Then the step is made that the extra-marital sexual immorality the word in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 is speaking to is that of sexual immorality within the betrothal period of Jewish marriage customs.3
2

This is not to deny that an author can have a special usage that goes against the consistent pattern of what we would find else where. But, for the most part people are consistent with the language.
3

Full articulations of the Permenance readings of these verse can be found in, Daryl Wingerd, Jim Elliff, Jim Chrisman, and Steve Burchett, Divorce & Remarriage: a Permanence View (Kansas City, MO: Christian Communicators Worldwide, 2009) 38-39.

How do they get here? There are two linguistic points. First, they observe that each time Matthew uses Porneia it is used in close proximity to Moicheia, Notice that each time Matthew uses Porneia (fornication), he also uses either moichiea (adultery) or a verb form.4 (None of them mention the issue that Matthew use two different words to refer to adultery). Second, the point is made that in 15:19 he places the words, both in noun form right next to each other.5 What they do is construct a grid about how we should see Matthew using these terms. To refer back to what we talk about before they are claiming we see a pattern of consistency by which we can interpret the words. They say that since it is the case that Porneia happens in close proximity to words that mean adultery (though they only acknowledge one) each time it is used then each word has to have separate, non-overlapping meanings. So this grid creates what I would call separate meanings (SM) category for how Matthew uses the words. Each word has a separate meaning that should not be blended on any occasion of use. An example of this in English would be table and chair. Even though they could be under the category of furniture one would never call a chair a table. They have separate meanings. We could illustrate the usage like this:

Porneia

Moicheia

Here we see two words with separate meanings that should not be blended. So this is what is being claimed by the Permanence holders. Like how one would not look at a table and say chair so Matthew would not look at an adulterous act and say Porneia. From here they say that Porneia in Matthew should be seen as referring to immorality before or in the betrothal period in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9. That is the exception that Matthew is giving in those contexts. So we have a claim about how we should understand Matthews use of Porneia and Moicheia. Based upon how he uses the terms in other places we can come to conclude that he has a SM for each of the words.

Wingerd , Divorce & Remarriage, 39. Compare also John Piper, The only other place besides Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 where Matthew uses the word porneiais in 15:19 where it is used alongside of moicheia. Therefore, the primary contextual evidence for Matthew's usage is that he conceives of porneia as something different than adultery. John Piper, Divorce & Remarriage: A Position Paper, http://www.desiringgod.org/resourcelibrary/articles/divorce-remarriage-a-position-paper.
5

Wingerd , Divorce & Remarriage, 39.

Now this is all interesting and good. There is no problem in observing trends and suggesting different theories about how we should translate things. But just because we observe a trend does not mean that was what the author intended to communicate. We have to look at the evidence to see if what they say is the most plausible and will fit with what we see in other places. Specifically we can look at the claims being made about how the language works. First, that if Porneia and Moicheia are used in close proximity to one another then it is evidence that the words have SM for the author. Second, that if the words are used in a list together then it is conclusive evidence that the words have SM for the rest of the usages in the work.

So what we will be doing is testing the grid they construct. Does those two points in list above match what we see in other places in the relevant literature? Is that a consistent pattern as to see Matthew following it? Going Through the Literature So what we can do is go through the relevant literature to test these claims. What we will be looking at from first are examples with in the Old Testament Septuagint, Apocrypha, and Apostolic Fathers that run contrary to the Permanence holders claims. Once again, if there are any examples that go contrary to their claims the credibility of the claims become very weak or disproven. Now, it should be stated up front that the Permanence holders present no evidence for their view. Outside their claims about Matthew there is no reference to any work within or outside the bible where an author is treating Porneia and Moicheia in the same way they are claiming Matthew is using them. This means that they are in a hole to begin with. As stated before Greek is not a mysterious language where mystical things happen. Like any language things do happen consistently with how people use the language. People want to communicate with one another and being consistent with a language is an essential way of doing it. If there is no example of anyone else doing what the Permanence people do with Matthew then it does speak against the credibility of their claims. And it can make it a very easy task to disprove the claims. If there are any examples of the language being used in a way contrary to the claims the credibility of the claims becomes very weak or completely disproven. The Septuagint. The first place we can go is the Old Testament. We would get the usages from the Septuagint (LXX) as the translators made decisions about which Greek words to use for the Hebrew words. Now word usage in the Old Testament is important. The LXX was the bible of the readers of the letters of the New Testament. Just think about how you can easily associate bible words and phrases that people may use in every day life with the meanings they have in the bible. The ancient readers would have the same ability. Also, the New Testament writers themselves quote and allude to the Old Testament Septuagint extensively. They expect their readers to be well acquainted with the Old Testament. Thus, the LXX would have been a strong influence upon how early Christians would have understood meanings of words and phrases.

For this discussion the question we are exploring is, Did the translators of the LXX ever use Porneia to refer to adultery? If they did then it would point very strongly to the fact that Porneia can encapsulate adultery in its meaning in the New Testament. And within this we are looking if the words are used in close proximity to one another and if they are used in lists. All in all Porneia is used 45 times in the Old Testament LXX and its verb form is used 18 times. There are actually several places where Porneia speaks to acts of adultery while being used very closely with the words for adultery. The first example we will look at is Jeremiah 3:6-9 where Porneia () is used to speak of adulterous acts while being used right along side of Moicheia () and Moicheu (). The LORD said to me in the days of King Josiah: Have you seen what she did, that faithless one, Israel, how she went up on every high hill and under every green tree, and there played the whore?( ) And I thought, After she has done all this (in the LXX is included here that the translators translate as this to smooth out the translation) she will return to me, but she did not return, and her treacherous sister Judah saw it. She saw that for all the adulteries () of that faithless one, Israel, I had ) s sent her away with a decree of divorce. Yet her treacherous sister Judah did not fear, but she too went and played the whore (). Because she took her whoredom() lightly, she polluted the land, committing adultery() with stone and tree. (Jer. 3:6-9) What we have in this section is God condemning Israel for her unfaithfulness and Judah following after such unfaithfulness. The unfaithfulness of these nations is spoken of in the terms of adultery. For our purposes it relevant to see that Porneia (and its verbal form ) and Moicheia and Moicheu, in different forms, are used in close proximity with one another (even in the same verse in 3:9) but refer to adultery. Porniea is used to refer to Israels unfaithfulness at the end of verse 7 while the same unfaithfulness is described as Moicheia at the beginning of verse 8. Porneia clearly refers to adultery then second, both words are used in close proximity to each other. So close that both words are used in verse 9. The argument is made from the Permanence holders that the since in Matthew both Porneia and Moicheia are used in close proximity to each other then they have to have SM meanings. However, to apply the same rule to Jer. 3:6-9 would not work. The words are clearly speaking of the same sinful act of adultery. And what was displayed in the Jeremiah passage is a major theme throughout the Old Testament prophets where they speak of Israels unfaithfulness of their marital covenant to God as Porneia with Moicheia and Moicheu being used in close proximity to refer to the same acts. In the book of Ezekiel in chapter 16 God calls Israel out of the blood of its birth, grows her, and then enters into marital covenant with her (16:6-14). The next verse however has Israel playing the whore (). But you trusted in your beauty and played the whore because of your r renown and lavished your whorings () on any passerby; your beauty became his. For 6 a more verses (22, 25, 33, 34, 36, and 41) God, through Ezekiel, calls Israels adulterous acts Porneia (translated as whore). Then in verse 32 God calls Israel, after denouncing her whoring, an adulterous wife ( ).

Then in chapter 23 a similar denouncing happens upon Samaria and Jerusalem. Their unfaithfulness of the marital covenant they had with God in spoken of in terms of Porneia. In verse 7 God states through Ezekiel, She bestowed her whoring() upon them, the choicest men of Assyria all of them, and she defiled herself with all the idols of everyone after whom she lusted. For 9 more verses Samaria and Jerusalems adulterous acts are labeled as Porneia. Then in verse 37 the these actions of Porneia are called adultery, For they have committed adultery (), and blood is on their hands. With their idols they have committed adultery (), and they have even offered up to them for food the children whom they had borne to me. The next big section where we see the same thing happening is in Hosea. The prophet Hosea is called to take a wife of whoredom to represent Israels whoredom against God, When the Lord first spoke through Hosea, the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take to yourself a wife of whoredom() and have children of whoredom(), for the land commits great whoredom by forsaking the Lord(1:2). Israels unfaithfulness to their marriage to the Lord is a main theme of Hosea. Throughout the book their unfaithfulness is labeled with Porneia (2:4-6, 4:11-12, 4:11, 5:4, and 6:10). An important use for this discussion is found in 2:4, Plead with your mother, pleadfor she is not my wife, and I am not her husbandthat she put away her whoring() from her face, and her adultery() from between her breasts. Here is another example of Porneia and Moicheia being used to speak to the same act in the same verse. There are other places where the Prophets use Porneia to speak of Israels marital unfaithfulness to God. In chapter 43 Ezekiel there are two usages of the word in verse 7 and 9. It is also used in Jeremiah 2:20, 3:2, and 13:27 in the same fashion. And Jeremiah 13:27 in another example of not only Porneia and Moicheia being in the same verse but also in a list to refer to the same act, I have seen your abominations, your adulteries () and neighings, your lewd whorings (), on the hills in the field. Woe to you, O Jerusalem! How long will it be before you are made clean? And to make a note about the verbal form of Porneia, it follows the same pattern of the noun form. It can be found in the very same major sections discussed in Ezekiel 16 and 23, Jeremiah 3:6-9, and Hosea. Other usages in the Old Testament that follow this line are found in Numbers 14:33 and 2 Kings 9:22. In fact 31 of the 45 noun usages and 13 of the 18 verb usages of Porneia in the LXX follow this pattern. What does this tell us? The LXX spoke of Israels acts of unfaithfulness to the marital covenant by saying they committed Porneia against Him. Thus, we see a situation where marriage is the context and an act of unfaithfulness to the marriage is called Porneia. What does this prove? There is no direct evidence that Jesus was drawing on this as the context of his statements. So these verses do not speak definitively as to what Jesus said. But they do give us look into the usage of Porneia and Moicheia in situation that is related to the one Jesus is speaking about (marital) and which is a major theme throughout the Old Testament. Thus from looking at the Old Testament, particularly the prophets, the SM meaning seems to be in complete contradiction

to what we find. Porneia can be used for an act of adultery and is used right along side of Moicheia and Moicheu to convey its meaning. And such a major theme in the Old Testament of Israels unfaithfulness would not have been foreign to the readers of Matthew. The Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha. Next we turn to usages of the word in Jewish works that predate the New Testament. These are works that come between the Testaments. They are important because they give us a picture of how Jews were using words before and right after we get to the New Testament times. For our purposes I believe Friedrich Hauck and Seigfried Schulz in The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament do a good job in summing up what we find.
Later Judaism shows us how the use of etc. gradually broadened as compared with the original usage. In the first instance is mostly harlotry, extra-marital intercourse, Pirqe Abot 2, 8, often with adultery, The Greek-Slavic Apocalypse of Baruch 4:17; 8:5; 13:4; Ascension of Isaiah 2:5; Treasure Cave, 12 (Riessler, 956 f.). Materially, however, it often means adultery,6

For examples of the final statement two works can be looked at The first and most important is found Sirach 23:23 which states For first, she hath disobeyed the law of the most High; and secondly, she hath trespassed against her own husband; and thirdly, she hath played the whore () in adultery (), and brought children by another man. Here are the two words happening again in the same verse with the same action clearly in view. Also, in verse 17 of the same chapter Porneia is used to describe an adulterous man, All bread is sweet to a whoremonger ( ), he will not leave off till he die. The context makes clear that the verse is speaking about an adulterous man. The next one comes from The Testament of Joseph found in the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs from the second century B. C. 7 The context of the verse is Joseph talking about Potiphers wife about how she was trying to commit adultery with him, and for a time she would embraced me as a son, but then I realized later that she was trying to lure me into a sexual relationship () (The Testament of Joseph 3:8-9). Here as well the author uses Porneia to refer to the act of adultery that the wife is trying to get Joseph to commit. Post New Testament Literature. The last section we will look at is early Christian Writings. This would be works from the people that came after the New Testament. The one verse that is important for our question is in the Shepherd of Hermas written either at the end of the first century or the beginning of the second century.8 In the Shepherd of Hermas we find once again
6

Theological dictionary of the New Testament. 1964-c1976. Vols. 5-9 edited by Gerhard Friedrich. Vol. 10 compiled by Ronald Pitkin. (G. Kittel, G. W. Bromiley & G. Friedrich, Ed.) (electronic ed.) (6:587). Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans.
7

Information and translation from H. C. Kee, Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs: A New Translation and Introduction in The Old Testament Pseudepigrapha: Apocalyptic Literature and Testaments, vol. 1, ed. James H. Charlesworth (Doubleday: New York, NY, 1983) 820.
8

Both date and translation taken from Michael W. Holmes, The Apostolic Fathers: Greek Texts and English Translations, 3rd ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Academic, 2007), 442-685.

Porneia referring to an adulterous act while Moicheia in the same proximity. I said to him, Sir, allow me to ask you a few more questions. Speak, he replied. Sir, I said, if a man has a wife who believes in the Lord, and he finds in her some adulterous situation (), does the man sin if he continues to live with her? As long as he is unaware of it," he said, "he does not sin; But if the husband knows about her sin and the wife does not repent, but persists in her immorality (), and the husband continues to live with her, he becomes responsible for her sin and an accomplice in her adultery.9 Even after the writings of the Testaments a writer can use Porneia and Moicheia close to one another while referring to the same action. Distinct Usages. Now, are there usages in all the categories we looked at where Porneia is distinct from Moicheia? Yes there is. Take for example this verse from the Shepherd of Hermas, "Sir, I respond, what are the kinds of evils over which it is necessary for us to exercise selfcontrol? Listen, he said: adultery () and fornication (), lawless drunkenness, wicked luxury, many kinds of food and the extravagance of wealth10. However, far from adding the claims of Permanence holders these speak directly against the claims. For take a notice that the last two quotes are from the same work, The Shepherd of Hermas. The author can easily have Porneia refer to something other than adultery in one verse, yet have Porneia refer to an act of adultery earlier in the work. And another important example is in comes from Hosea 4:14 where the Lord says, I will not punish your daughters when they play the whore (), nor your brides when they commit adultery (); We have already seen that Porneia and Moicheia can refer to the same action while in close proximity to one another in Hosea. And here Hosea can have the words take a distinct meaning for each word. Porneia refers to the sexual sin when the woman is unmarried and Moicheu to speak of the sexual sin of the married woman. Within the same book the author can switch usages from a distinctive usage of the words to a synonymous usage of the words. Summary of Relevant Literature. So what can we gather from all this. As stated above the Permanence holders assert that since Porneia and Moicheia are used in close proximity to each other in Matthew then a SM understanding has to be used when translating them. So that Porneia cannot refer to what Moicheia is referring. However, we have seen by looking over the Old Testament and literature that surrounds the New Testament that the assertion does not work with the language. Porneia and Moicheia can easily be used in the same verse to refer to the same adulterous action. Then there is evidence that an author can switch usages of the words within the same book. This evidence add with the fact that they present no evidence to back up their claims, makes the claims of Permanence holders seem to loose all credibility. To claim that since Matthew uses the words in close proximity and in a list completely against the evidence shown here. A consistent use of the language would not demand that Porneia in Matthew has to refer to a sexual act other than adultery. A distinct and synonymous use of Porneia, Moicheia and Moicheu can work quiet well within Matthew. Matthew can use Porneia to refer to adultery in 5:32 and 19:9 and to other sexual immoralities in 15:19 and be very consistent with the Greek language.

Shepherd of Hermas, Commandment IV, I, 5.

10

Shepherd of Hermas, Commandment VIII, I, 3.

New Testament Usages. Now we turn to the New Testament. What about other authors? Did the way they use the words tell us anything? When considering the linguistic rules the Permanence holders assert there is nothing that corresponds to it exactly. There is no example of the words happening in close proximity to one another outside the debated passages in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9. There is only one place where Moicheia comes in a list with Porneia: Mark 7:22 which is a parallel passage with Matthew 15:19. The claim is made, however, that the New Testament writers follow the a SM pattern in the use of Porneia and Moicheia as found in Matthew, even outside the Gospels, pornos (fornicator, one who engages in porneia) is plainly distinguished from moichos (adulterer, one who engages in Moicheia) as two different categories of sinners (e.g., 1 Cor. 6:9; Heb. 13:4)11 Now we can put this claim to the test. Porneia is used 25 times in the New Testament. But the question we are exploring is if the word encapsulates adultery in any of its usages? Or does it take a SM usage in every use? Now for the SM understanding to make sense we have to see it used in every or most cases in the New Testament in an SM way to establish the claim. This is because language is consistent in its usage. If an author wants to communicate his ideas (Matthew in our case) he will use the language how everybody else is using it. And so when coming to the New Testament are there usages of Porneia consistently pointing to a SM understanding, namely that it never includes adultery? And since it is a claim about an absolute usage of a word (Matthew has to do it this way) the only thing that is needed to make the claim dubious is to find some examples where the claimed pattern does not work. Here are several usages of Porneia where the SM understanding does not seem to work, For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you abstain from sexual immorality (1 Thess. 4:3). Now the works of the flesh are evident: sexual immorality (), impurity, sensuality, (Gal 5:19) Put to death therefore what is earthly in you: sexual immorality (), impurity, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry (Col 3:5). But sexual immorality () and all impurity or covetousness must not even be named among you, as is proper among saints. Let there be no filthiness nor foolish talk nor crude joking, which are out of place, but instead let there be thanksgiving. For you may be sure of this, that everyone who is sexually immoral () or impure, or who is
11

Wingerd , Divorce & Remarriage, 43.

covetous (that is, an idolater), has no inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God (Eph 5:3-5). According to an SM understanding Paul does not have adultery encapsulated in any of these commands or lists. That seems like a very hard claim to understand. To see Porneia encapsulating adultery makes a lot more sense in reading these lists and commands. A very interesting point can be made about the Ephesians 5 passage. There is a parallel saying from 1 Corinthians where Paul says close to the same thing, Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral (), nor idolaters, nor adulterers (), nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God (1 Cor. 6:9-10). Paul uses a list of things which characterize those who will not inherit the kingdom of God. If there is the SM between the sexually immoral person and the adultery why is there no mention of adultery in the Ephesians passage? Is Paul only talking to those who are not in any position to be tempted by adultery or see what adultery is? That does not seem to make sense. However, if Porneia and its different forms and relations can encapsulate adultery then there is no problem. So what can be gathered from all this? A SM understanding of Porneia is very difficult to read in some usages of Paul and there is no evidence that would support the two linguistic patterns from Permanence holders. From an evidential stand point it seems much better to understand the usage of the word as it has appeared in the Old Testament, Apocrypha, and Apostolic writings. Conclusion This has not been a study of every usage of Porneia or Moicheia in the relevant literature. We are, instead, studying the claims made about usages of Porneia and Moicheia in Matthew. The claims being that (1) since Matthew uses the terms in close proximity whenever he uses Porneia and (2) those words appear in the same list of vices in 15:19 that they have to take on Separate Meanings. We have taken these claims to the relevant literature to test them. Does the close proximal usage mean that Porneia cannot be used to refer to an adulterous act? Does the use of the word within lists mean that they have to take on SM in every other usage? Does an SM use of the words stand up with the other usages within the New Testament? We have seen very clear usages of Porneia in the LXX, Apocrypha, and Apostolic Fathers where the first claim is proved clearly false. Porneia can be used in the same verse at Moicheia and refer to an adulterous act. To the second point we have seen a few examples which cast high doubt upon this claim in two ways: first, with authors being able to use the terms both distinctly and synonymously within the same work then second, an author using the terms distinctly in a list and then synonymously earlier in his work. Thus, the claim that Matthew has to follow a SM is disproven. There are examples which prove that Matthew does not have to. What does this mean for the discussion?

We do have to say that this does not confirm the traditional evangelical interpretation of Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 as giving exceptions. It does give support to the idea that the usages of Porneia and Moicheia in the traditional evangelical interpretation are consistent with what we find elsewhere. But it does not give the final verdict. There might be a possibility that Matthew has a special usage of the words that do not correspond to what we find anywhere else. This would, however, require substantial evidence to validate from within the text itself. It does, though, remove the only linguistic argument from the Permanence holders for their interpretation of Matthew. The two patterns presented as evidence for the special reading do not hold up under scrutiny. With the evidence presented here there is no linguistic reason to take the Permanence position on Matthew. Nothing with Matthews usages of Porneia, Moicheia and Moicheu should suggest that he has to have a SM usage in mind. This means the argument that Matthew has to be speaking to the betrothal period in 5:32 and 19:9 in the exceptions has no support from the usages of Porneia and Moicheia.