Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 7

CRIMINOLOGY LICENSURE EXAMINATION SAMPLE QUESTIONNAIRE LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION 1.

The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examination is; a. RA 2260 c. RA 6040 b. RA 4864 d. RA 6141 ANS. C 2. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is; a. 4 years c. 6 years b. 5 years d. 7 years ANS. A 3. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is ; a. 4 years c. 6 years b. 5 years d. 9 years ANS. C 4. The end product resulting from evaluation analysis, integration and interpretation of information is called a. Police Intelligence c. Intelligence b. Military Intelligence d. Undercover Intelligence ANS. C 5. The Law that provides for the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police. a. RA 6975 c. RA 8551 b. RA 4864 d. RA 6141 ANS. C 6. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of the regional Trial Court? a. Inquest proceeding c. Preliminary conference b. Preliminary investigation d. Search and Seizure ANS. B 7. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law enforcement agencies? a. the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office b. the moment that it is filed with the court c. the moment that the trial or the case begins d. the moment that the parties presents their evidence ANS. B 8. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by law is the protection against self-incrimination and right is found on the grounds of ; a. public policy and morality d. humanity and conscience b. public policy and humanity e. all of the above c. humanity kindness ANS. B 9. What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory pre-interrogation warnings concerning self-incrimination and the right to counsel of the suspect. a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence c. Rule of Law d. Miranda Doctrine e. Due Process Law ANS. D 10. Miranda Law is a law that is applied to every citizen. This is otherwise known also as; a. RA 6975 d. The Philippine 1987 Constitution b. RA 8551 e. The Rules of Court c. RA 7438 ANS. C 11. What is the Latin term for criminal intent? a. Mens Rea d. Magna Culpa b. Inflagrante Deleto e. Mala Vise c. Gamacta

ANS. A

12. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action. a. operations c. management b. planning d. administration ANS. B 13. A standard operating procedures, that is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field. a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures b. field procedures d. characteristics of plans ANS. B 14. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual. a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures b. field procedures d. operational plans ANS. A 15. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency control. a. Policies or procedures c. tactical plans b. Operational plans d. extra-office plans ANS. B 16. A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations, such plans for dealing with an attack against building with alarm systems and an attack against. Headquarters of the PNP. a. tactical plans c. management plans b. extra-office plans d. operational plans ANS. A 17. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization, management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money, etc. a. management of plans c. operational plans b. extra-office plans d. characteristics of plans ANS. A 18. A step in planning, that calls for identification of the problem, understanding both records and its possible solution; a situation must exit for which something must and can be done. a. collecting all pertinent facts c. analyzing the facts b. clarifying the problems d. developing alternative plans ANS. B 19. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it have been gathered. a. collecting all pertinent facts c. developing alternative plans b. analyzing the facts d. selecting the most appropriate alternative ANS. A 20. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved. a. developing alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate alternative b. developing the facts d. selling the plan ANS. B 21. One of the steps in planning, where a careful consideration of facts usually leads to the selection of a best alternative proposals. a. analyzing the facts b. selecting the most appropriate alternative a. selling the plan b. arranging for the execution of the plan. ANS. B 22. One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was chosen, whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was poorly implemented, and whether additional planning may be necessary. a. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan b. arranging for the execution of the plan c. selecting the most appropriate alternative d. selling the plan ANS. A

23.What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law enforcement agencies of the government? a. Police Executive Training c. Business like Activity b. Coordination and Cooperation d. Socialization ANS. B 24. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community through protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections is; a. Traffic Division c. Theft and Robbery Division b. Patrol Force d. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division ANS. B 25.The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely; a. motor vehicles and traffic way c. motor vehicle and victim b. victim and traffic way d. victim and traffic unit ANS. A 26. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is; a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic ANS. D 27. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to; a. permit the promote issuance of new plate b. prevent cards from being stolen c. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use d. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates. ANS. D 28. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to; a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes b. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as a cause d. look for the key event that cause the accident ANS. D 29. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is a. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement b. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours c. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations d. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future violation ANS. A 30. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how the accident happened? a. hole on the road pavement b. the driver under the influence of liquor c. point of impact d. vehicle has break failure ANS. C 34.A system of coordinated activities, group of people, authority and leadership and cooperation towards a goal is called: a. Formal Organizations b. Informal Organizations c. Administration d. All of the above ANS. A 35.An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite subdivision and comprised of unconscious group feelings, passions and activities of individuals is referred to as: a. Formal Organizations b. Informal Organizations c. Administration d. None of the above ANS. B 36. The structured group of trained personnel that deals with achieving police goals and objectives of an organization is called: a. Police Management b. Police Organization c. Organizational Structure d. Police Administration ANS. B

37. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement pillar that is also called police in action: a. Police Management b. Police Organization c. Organizational Structure d. Police Administration ANS. D 38. The ability of police administrators in winning support for departmental programs from people with in the department as well as the citizens is called: a. Community relation b. Police Leadership c. Police planning d. Community Policing ANS. B 39. The performance of task that deals with commensurate authority to fulfill the responsibility is known as: a. Policy formulation b. Supervision c. Direction d. Execution ANS. D 40. The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is called: a Unity of Direction b. Centralization c Scalar of Chain d. Unity of Command ANS. B 41. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy is; a. Chain of Command b. Unity of Command c. Span of Control d. Delegation of Authority ANS. A 42. The principle of organization that results from the division of force into separate units to perform individual task is called: a. Specialization b. Chain of Command c. Organizational Structure d. All of the above ANS. A 43. The section or territorial division of a large city which comprises of designated districts is referred as: a. District b. Section c. Unit d. Area ANS. D 44. The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service knowledge is known as: a. Line and Staff Organization b. Functional Organization c. Line Organization d. Structural Organization ANS. B 45. A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of direct line authority and discipline is easily administered is called: a. Line and Staff Organization b. Functional Organization c. Line Organization d. Functional and Staff Organization ANS. B 46. A personnel of the police department who has taken oath of office and possess the power to arrest is called: a. Arresting officer b. Commanding Officer c. Sworn Officer d. Superior Officer ANS. C 47. The nature of task primarily performed according to organized force is called delegation of task according to: a. Place of Work b. Time Frame c. Level of Authority d. Function ANS. D 48. The placement of subordinate into the position for which their capabilities best fit them is referred to as: a. Staffing b. Organizing c. Directing d. Planning ANS. A 49. The structural changes to be made when need arises to provide a more effective medium of work that can be performed and distributed is called: a. Staffing b. Directing c. Organizing d. Planning ANS. C

50. The nature of service in which an employee shall receive order from only one superior is called: a. Scalar Chain b. Unity of Command c. Chain of Command d. Unity of Direction ANS. B 51. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is: a. 15 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 20 years ANS. D 52. The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called; a. Individual Complaint b. Public Complaint c. Citizens Complaint d. Administrative Complaint

ANS. C

53. The consequence of an act, which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of performing his duty, is referred to as: a. Dismissal b. Retirement c. Resignation d. Suspension ANS. D 54. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the administration of the PNP is referred to as: a. Personnel Administration Service b. Planning and Research Service c. Legal Affairs Service d. None of the above ANS. C 55. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length of service is called: a. Retirement b. Dismissal c. Demotion c. AWOL ANS. A 56. The following are considered minor offenses that may be committed by a PNP member except: a. Neglect of Duty b. Extortion c. Habitual Drunkenness d. Gambling while on Duty ANS. B 57. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is: a. 6 years b. 5 years c. 4 years d. 9 years ANS. A 58. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners and one a. Ex-officio Chairman b. Secretary c. Ex-officio Commissioner d. Ex- officio Chairperson ANS. C 59. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and promotional examination is the: a. Civil Service Commission b. NAPOLCOM c. PNPA d. Qualifications Upgrading Program ANS. B 60. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the: a. NAPOLCOM b. Internal Affairs Service c. PLEB d. Inspectors Office ANS. D 61. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise of discretion as well as to achieve: a. Reformation and rehabilitation b. Efficiency and effectiveness c. Organization and Administration d. None of the above ANS. B 62. The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the: a. Chief of the PNP b. Secretary of DILG c. Commissioner from the civilian sector d. None of the above 63. The four regulars and fulltime Commissioners shall appointed for a term of: a. 4 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. 9 years

ANS. A

ANS. C

64. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by: a. DILG Secretary b. Congress c. C/PNP d. President ANS. B 65. The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in the PNP is: a. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age b. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age c. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age d. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age ANS. B 66. Anybody who will enter the PNP service with out a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum period of: a. 3 years to comply with the education qualification; b. 4 years to comply with the education qualification; c. 5 years to comply with the education qualification; d. 6 years to comply with the education qualification. ANS. B 67. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non promotion gained with in: a. 20 yrs b. 10 yrs c. 18 months d. none of these ANS. B 68. The body within the PNP organization tasked to take charge on investigation of complaints filed against a PNP member is the: a. IAS b. PLEB c. NAB d. RAB ANS. A 69. A PNP member may also be dismiss from service if he/she will go on absence with out official leave for a continuous period of: a. 30 days or more b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 6 months ANS. B 70. The power to direct or oversee the day to day functions of police investigation of crime, crime prevention activities and traffic control in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission is; a. Employment b. Planning c. Operational Supervision d. All of the above ANS. C 71. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the: a. NAPOLCOM b. DND c. PLEB d. None of the above ANS. C 72. As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to others. This statement is part of the: a. PNP Code of Covenant b. Policemans Code c. Police Officers Creed d. All of the above ANS. C 73. Cadets in the PNPA are classified above the Senior Police Officer IV and below the Inpector rank in the PNP. This statement is: a. True b. False c. Neither true or false d. Doubtful ANS. A 74. The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to: a. Master Sergeant in the Military rank b. Captain in the Military rank a. Lieutenant in the Military rank b. None of the above

ANS. A

75. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following ground: a. offense committed is serious b. bringing the person to your custody c. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation d. if the person is under the imminent danger ANS. D

76. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except: a. bring the suspended person before the court b. detention of the arrested person may take place c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed ANS. D 77. The delay resulting from traffic congestion affect not only the time of travel but also the productivity of individual is part of: a. traffic engineering c. traffic environment b. traffic economy d. traffic congestion ANS. B 78. The method of training where the student is placed in the real life of driving is known as: a. simulated training c. traditional training b. comprehensive training d. commentary training ANS. B 79. The traffic enforcement action that does not contemplate possible assessment of penalty by the court? a. traffic arrest c. traffic citation b. traffic warning d. traffic violation ANS. B 80. The law which expedite the methods of prescribing, refining, or modifying the lines and modes of operations of public utility vehicle is: a. P.D. 96 c. P.D. 101 b. P.D. 207 d. P.D. 612 ANS. C 81. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces unintended injury, property damage or even death is called: a. accident c. key event b. damage d. fatal ANS. A 82. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red colored border is known as: a. information sign c. instruction sign b. direction sign d. caution sign ANS. D 83. The systematic examination of all the facts relating to condition, actions and physical features associated with motor collision or accident is called: a. traffic engineering c. reckless driving b. traffic accident investigation d. hit and run ANS. B 84. The combination of simultaneous and sequential circumstances without anyone of which accident could not occur is; a. key event c. cause b. reason d. chain event ANS. C 85. That event which characterizes the manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident is; a. accident c. key event b. chain of accident d. all of these ANS. C