IIT-JEE 2009 STS VII/MPC/P(II)/QNS

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IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2009

PAPER II MATHEMATICS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 243

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PART A : MATHEMATICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. If is an imaginary fourth root of unity 4m 3 12 m 2
1
0.5

s=1

ls

is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)
1 5
2

4l 1

(D)

10 a

log

1 5
3

2. The value of 0.25 (A) 1 4 (B) 5 8

2

... to

is 1 16
2

(C)

(D)

3 4

3. If the equations x x 1 = 0 and x + x = 0 have a common root, then the value of = ..... ( 0) (A) 1 (B) 1
215

(C) 2 is divided by 29 is (C) 1 integral value of n

(D) 2 (D) 18 such that x

n

4. The remainder when 17 (A) 12 5. The a

2

(B) 7 positive ac x bc
2

maximum x
2

divides

ab b
2 2

ab ac (A) 3

bc c x
2

is

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 4

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6. A bag contains four tickets numbered as 223, 231, 322 and 333. One ticket is drawn at random from the bag. If Ei is the event that the ith digit on the ticket is 3, then (A) E1 and E2 are independent (B) E1 and E2 are mutually exclusive (C) E2 and E3 are mutually exclusive (D) E1, E2, E3 are independent 7. Number of solutions of the equation x + 3x + 20x + sin x = 0 in [0, 2] is (A) 2 (B) 1
2

(C) 4

(D) infinite

8.

5x

6x dx is equal to

(A)

9 4

(B) 3

(C)

16 3

(D)

37 12

9. In a right-angled ABC, C = 90 and AB = p. Then, AB AC (A) p

2

BC BA
2

CA CB is equal to (C) 2 p
2

(B) p

(D) 4 p

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SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 10 to 13. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 10. Statement 1: and Statement 2: The number k lies between the roots of the equation f(x) ax + bx + c = 0 if the discriminant > 0 and f(k) < 0 11. Statement 1: 2 4 1 2 3 6 5 1 4 = 0
2

The number 6 lies between the roots of the equation x 18x + 9 = 0

and Statement 2: The value of a determinant is zero, if two rows or two columns coincide. cos
1

12. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

cos

cos

(cos ) = for all SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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13. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

The function f(x) = 2x + 6x + 7x + cos x is one-one An strictly increasing or strictly decreasing function is one-one

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16 Four letters of the word EARTHQUAKE are to be permuted. 14. The maximum number of different ways of the above permutation is (A) 5040 (B) 2694 (C) 1938 (D) 2190 15. The number of ways of the above permutation if the first and the last letters are respectively A and E, is (A) 56 (B) 70 (C) 420 (D) None of these 16. The number of ways of the above permutation if the end letters are E and T (A) 168 (B) 84 (C) 24 (D) 86 Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19 y A hyperbola passes through the focus of the ellipse x = 1 and its 25 4 transverse and conjugate axes coincide with the x and y coordinate axes respectively. Also the eccentricity of the hyperbola is the reciprocal of the eccentricity of the ellipse. 17. The equation of the hyperbola is (A) x 25 (C) x 21
2 2 2 2

21 y
2

=1

(B) x 4

= 1
2

21 y = 1

= 1

(D) x 25

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18. Focus of the hyperbola is (A) (2, 0) (B) (5, 0) (C) (0, 5) (D) (0, 5) 19. The equation of the director circle of the hyperbola is (A) x + y = 17 (B) x + y = 29 (C) x + y = 25 (D) x + y = 21 SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 20. Column I (A) sec (tan (B) cosec
2 1 2 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

q q q q q

r r r r r

s s s s s Column II 13 (p) 5 (q) 45 2 14 5

p p p p

3) + cosec (cot
1

2)

cos

12 13

(C) 45 sin

sin

3 2

2 cos tan
1

(r)

(D) 3

sin

2 tan

1 3

(s) 15

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21. The function in Column I is the solution of the differential equation in Column II. Column I Column II (A) 4xy = y
4

c
x
2

(p) x
2x 2

x dy
2

y dx dy y

= x

y
2

y
2

dx

(B) c y

1 = e

(q) x (r) x (s) dy dx

y =
3

(C) y = x tan (c x) (D) x = c + 2cy 22. (A) Column I The Cartesian equation of the plane through P i 2j 4k perpendicular to the line joining P and Q 3 i j 2 k is The equation of the plane through 2i j k passing through the line of intersection of the planes r i 3j k = 0 and r j 2 k = 0 is The equation of the plane containing the line r = 2i j k and perpendicular to the plane r i k = 3 is The equation of the plane making intercepts OA, OB, OC on the x, y, z axes where the centroid of the ABC is i 2j 3 k is
2 2

dy dx

y = 0 x y 1

= xy

Column II (p) 6x + 3y + 2z 18 = 0

(B)

(q) 2x + 3y + 6z + 28 = 0

(C)

(r) x + 9y + 11z = 0

(D)

(s) x y z 2 = 0

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PART B : PHYSICS SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 23 to 31. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 23. Two wires are bent (shown as joint-circle) with radius r (in xy plane). The upper half has resistance of 2R and the lower half of R . A current I is passed into circle as shown. The magnetic field at centre is I
0

I z (B)
0

(A)

r (C) zero

2r I
0

(D)

12 r

24. A sample is kept in a strong neutron-flux to make it temporarily radioactive. Two different decay processes are observed with equal activity when the incident flux is removed and with activities that differ by a factor of e = 2.718 one hour later. The difference in the decay rates of the two radioactive species is (A) e seconds (B) 1 e s
1

(C) one hr

(D) 1 s

25. The electronic energy of helium atom is 79 eV. Its first ionisation potential is (A) 79 eV (B) 13.6 eV (C) 54.4 eV (D) 24.6 eV

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26. A person of weight W1 is in an elevator of weight W1. The elevator accelerates vertically up at a rate a and at a certain instant has speed v1. The person climbs a vertical ladder within the elevator at a speed v2 relative to the elevator. The person s rate of expenditure of energy is (A) W1 (C) W a g (B) W
1

a g

(D) W
2

a g

27. An alternating voltage is applied to the circuit shown. The circuit has resonant angular frequency (or C 1 frequencies) given by (where r = ) C
2

(A)

1 LC 1
1

only

(B)

1 LC
2

only

(C)

and
1

1 LC
2

LC

(D)

1 LC
2

and

1 LC
2

1 r
3

28. In an Young s double slit experiment, the two slits are spaced by 3 10 m and fringe pattern is formed on a screen at a distance 150 cm. The light used was of wavelength 6667 . The third fringe is at 1 mm from central fringe. Then, screen is moved 0.5 m away from source. The distance between central fringe to eighth dark fringe will be (A) 1.5 10
2 4

m m

(B) 3.3 10 (D) 0.05 m

(C) 6.6 10

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29. The graph in Figure shows stress - strain curves I, II and III for three different materials taken to fracture limit. Which of them will be for a copper (Cu) wire and which of them is for glass fibre (G)? (A) (Cu I) (G II) (B) (Cu III) (G I) (C) (Cu II) (G I) (D) (Cu I) (G III) 30. In an experiment (such as being conducted at Large Hadron Collider i.e., LHC in Europe), a proton of energy 10 GeV theoretically acquires a velocity v c (i.e., velocity of light). The guiding magnetic field is 1.5 T. The radius of the accelerating machine called Proton-Synchrotron is (given that 10 GeV is equivalent to 1.95 10
26

kg) (nearly)

(A) 9 m (B) 1.5 m (C) 24 m (D) 18 m 31. The angular separation between two distant stars is 1 arc-second. The effective wavelength of light is 5500 . If the stars are to be just resolved, the diameter of the objective of a telescope is to be (A) 8.84 cm (B) 13.76 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 5.5 cm SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 32 to 35. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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32. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 33. Statement 1: and Statement 2: 34. Statement 1:

For supersonic waves also, Doppler-formula is applicable

In case of supersonic waves, source advances more than the wave. Heat loss due to friction is irreversible Reversible process must be extremely slow. In the circuit shown, the value of I will be minimum if the circuit elements have the following values: = 10 V, f = 50 Hz, R = 10 , L = 0.2 H and C = 50.7 F

and Statement 2: 35. Statement 1: and Statement 2: Work functions are much smaller than accelerating potentials in X-ray tubes. SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 to 38 A particle of mass m is acted upon by a resistive force (in N) given by FR = bv in the following situations. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK The circuit will be purely resistive in those conditions. Except for the peaks in the Intensity versus Wavelength graphs, X-ray production can be regarded as inverse photoelectric effect

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Here, b = constant v = velocity of object (in m/s). The ratio b m is denoted by a symbol .
1

36. In one-dimension, the initial speed of particle is 100 m/s. The value of is 2 s . Then, the distance moved in t = 2.5 s is (Given that e (A) 2.5 m (B) 49.7 m (C) 9.8 m
5

= 3.268 10

(D) 100 m

37. The particle m is projected with a velocity v0 upward near the surface of earth, where the given force FR is also present. The time taken to reach the maximum height is (A) 1 l n (C) 1 l n v 1
0

v (B)

g v 1
0

g 2v
0

(D) g

38. A spherical mass m is dropped off a building from rest. If the mass experiences F also, and if starting R point is y = 0, then the expression for y(t) will be: (A) y = 1 2 g
2 2

gt

(B) y =
t

gt gt g
2

(C) y =

(D) y =

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Millikan s oil drop experiment provides experimental evidence for the quantisation of charge.

The drops are charged by X-ray ionisation of air. They normally fall under the action of gravity but an electric field can be applied to the horizontal plates A and B to monitor the movement of the drops. The terminal velocity of the drop can be measured by suitable means. Given that is the coefficient of viscosity of air and r is the radius of the oil drop. 39. In Millikan s apparatus, a negatively charged oil-drop is observed to be falling at uniform speed for a period of 4 s, after which time, the electric field is applied vertically downwards. Which of the following is correct variation (qualitatively) of velocity v of oil drop with time t? (A) (B)

(C)

(D)

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40. In a Milliken experiment, a positively charged oil-drop is observed to fall at a uniform speed of 4v when the electric field between the plates is zero. On applying an electric field 0, the drop rises at a uniform speed of 2v. On changing the electric field, the drop is observed to fall at a uniform speed of v. If the change on the drops remained same, the magnitude and direction of final field are (neglect the upthrust from air) (A) , vertically upwards 0 (C) (B) , vertically upwards (D)
0

, vertically downwards

2
0

, vertically upwards

41. A negatively charged drop is held stationary between the plates with upper plate as positive. The drop acquires additional negative charge. In order to keep the drop stationary: (A) reverse the charges on plates. (B) give positive plate more positive charge. (C) decrease the potential difference between plates. (D) move plates closer to each other. SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s

42. In Figure shown, S1 and S2 are two infinite sheets of mass density . The regions are marked as R1, R2 and R3. (Given that G is universal gravitational constant) Column I (Case) (A) When a single sheet only is present (B) For two sheets in region R1 (C) For two sheets in region R2 (D) For two sheets in region R3 Column II (Gravitational field I )
g

(p) zero (q) 2 G (r) 4 G (s) G

43. Two large plane metal electrodes P and P are arranged parallel to each other in 1 2 an evacuated tube with separation d. P1 is given positive potential with respect to P2. An electron starts from rest from mid point of P2 and moves perpendicular to the plates towards P1.

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Column I (Quantity on y-axis) (A) Speed of electron (p)

Column II (graph)

(B) de Broglie wavelength of electron

(q)

(C) Potential energy of electron

(r)

(D) Kinetic energy of electron

(s)

44. The quantities given in Column I below are as follows about different mechanical systems. n = number of equations relating masses and initial velocities in an elastic collision between two particles in three dimensions m = number of equations needed to find final velocities in above collision l0 = length (in metre) of an open pipe if its second overtone has same frequency f= as first overtone of a 2 m long closed pipe possible number of linear vibrations in system shown below having three springs S1, S2, S3 and two masses P1, P2 Column I (A) (B) (C) m n l0 Column II (p) 6 (q) 1 (r) 4 (s) 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

(D) f

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PART C : CHEMISTRY SECTION I Straight Objective Type This section contains 9 multiple choice questions numbered 45 to 53. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 45. A sample of hard water contains 244 ppm of HCO mass of CaO required to remove HCO sample? (A) 112 mg (B) 56 mg (C) 224 mg
1 1
3 3

ions. What is the minimum

ions completely from 1 kg of such water

(D) 100 mg
1

46. Specific heat of certain elementary gas at constant volume is 315 J kg

and

that at constant pressure is 441 J kg K . 7.0 g of the gas is found to occupy a volume of 4.1 L at 27C and 1 atm pressure. The atomic mass of the gas is (A) 42 (B) 21 (C) 63
3

(D) 100
3 1

47. How many mol of butane must be burnt to heat 10 dm of water from 30C to 100C? Given: Hcombustion of butane is 2.879 10 kJ mol , density of water is 1.0 g cm , specific heat of water is 4.184 JK (A) 1.017 mol (C) 3.017 mol
3 1 1

g .

(B) 2.017 mol (D) 2.034 mol

48. Among the following the incorrect statement is (A) Calamine and siderite are carbonates. (B) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides. (C) Argentite and cuprite are oxides. (D) Malachite and azurite are the ores of copper. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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49. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are (A) two sigma, two pi (C) one sigma, one pi (B) two sigma, one pi (D) one sigma, two pi

50. A certain diatomic molecule AB has a dipole moment 1.6 D and the internuclear distance is 100 pm. The fraction of electronic charge existing on the more electronegative atom is (A) 10% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 33%

51. The incorrect IUPAC name is (A) 2-Methyl-3-butanone

(B)

2, 3-Dimethyl pentane

(C) CH3 C C CH(CH3)2 (D)

4-Methyl-2-pentyne 2-Bromo-3-chlorobutane

52. In the reaction

. Z is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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53. In the reaction CH3CHO + HCN CH3CHOHCN, a chiral centre is produced. The product is (A) meso compound (B) laevorotatory (C) dextrorotatory (D) racemic mixture SECTION II Reasoning Type This section contains 4 questions numbered 54 to 57. Each question contains STATEMENT 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT 2 (Reason). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (A) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1. (B) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is True; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is True, statement 2 is False. (D) Statement 1 is False, statement 2 is True. 54. Statement 1: All aldehydes in presence of aluminium ethoxide can be simultaneously oxidised to acid and reduced to alcohol to form ester. and Statement 2: 55. Statement 1: and Statement 2: Aldehydes contain CHO group. Chloroform is always stored in brown bottles to cut off light. O2 CHCl3 COCl2 + HCl light Phosgene With the passage of time, the rate of radioactive disintegration decreases.

56. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

Radioactive disintegration follows zero order kinetics. SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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57. Statement 1: and Statement 2:

Cu(I) and Ni(II) do not form coloured complexes.

8

Ni(II) is 3d Cu(I) is 3d

10

SECTION III Linked Comprehension Type This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60 Halogenated hydrocarbon, commonly termed as alkyl halide, consists of an alkyl group and a halogen. The physical properties of haloalkanes are strongly affected by the polarization of the C X bond and the polarizability of X. The SN2 reaction is stereospecific and proceeds by backside displacement, thereby producing inversion of configuration at the reaction centre. 58. The reactivity order of halides for dehydro-halogenation is (A) R F > R Cl > R Br > R I (B) R I > R Br > R Cl > R F (C) R I > R Cl > R Br > R F (D) R F > R I > R Br > R Cl 59. Compound C4H8Cl2 (A) on hydrolysis gives a compound C4H8O (B) which reacts with hydroxylamine and does not give any test with Tollen s reagent. A and B are (A) 1, 1-dichlorobutane and butanal (B) 2, 2-dichlorobutane and butanal (C) 1, 1-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one (D) 2, 2-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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60. Which of the following is an example of exclusively SN2 reaction? (A) CH3Br + OH CH3OH + Br (B)

(C)

(D)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63 For the galvanic cell AgAgCl(s), KCl (0.2 M)KBr(0.001 M), AgBr(s)Ag Ksp of AgCl = 2.8 10
10 13

and at the same temperature, 298 K. (log 4.24 = 0.6275)

Ksp of AgBr = 3.3 10

61. For the above combination, (A) Ecell = 0.059 log Ag Ag (B) Ecell = 0.059 log Ag Ag Ag (C) Ecell = 0.059 log Ag (D) none of the above SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
cathode anode anode cathode anode cathode

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62. Ecell value for the given combination is (A) + 0.037 V (B) 0.0 V (C) 0.037 V (D) 0.05 V

63. The permitted cell to have spontaneous reaction is (A) Ag | AgCl(s), KCl (0.2 M) || KBr (0.001 M), AgBr(s) | Ag (B) Ag | AgBr(s), KBr (0.001 M) || KCl (0.2 M), AgCl(s) | Ag (C) both A and B (D) none of the above SECTION IV Matrix-Match Type This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in Column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in Column II. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4 matrix should be as follows: p A B C D 64. Column I (A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Magnesium p p p p q q q q q r r r r r s s s s s Column II (p) Halide ore (q) Sulphide ore (r) Oxide ore (s) Carbonate ore SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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65.

Column I (A) KMnO4 (B) H3PO4 (C) KClO4 (D) N2O5

Column II (p) + 1

(q) + 7 (r) 2

(s) + 5

66.

Column I

Column II

(A) CH3Br + OH CH3OH + Br

(p) II order

(B) (CH3)3CBr + H2O (CH3)3C OH + H + Br

226 +

(q) I order

(C) 88Ra

86 Rn

222

+ 2He

(r) SN1 reaction (s) SN 2 reaction

OH (D) CH3COOC2H5 + H2O CH COONa + C H OH 3 2 5

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Name: .

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format: 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A : Mathematics, Part B: Physics and Part C: Chemistry). Each part has 4 sections. 14. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 15. Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Bubble (A) Bubble (B) Bubble (C) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation of STATEMENT-1. if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE.

Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE. 16. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct. 17. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section. D. Marking scheme: 18. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 20. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 21. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken ALL the bubbles corresponding ONLY to the correct answer. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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IIT/STS VII/MPC/P(II) - 26