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OPENDEN (II) Entrance Test for

Dental Programmes 2010 PG Certificate in Endodontics PG Certificate in Oral Implantology


Total No. of Questions : 90

Time : 120 Minutes

All questions are


Use of calculator is not allowed. Rough work may be done in the space provided at the back of the Test Booklet. Read the instructions given on the OMR Response Sheet carefully before you start.



How to fill up the information on the OMR Response Sheet (Examination Answer Sheet)

Write your complete enrolment no. in 9 digits. This should correspond to the enrolment number indicated by you on the OMR Response Sheet . Also write your correct name, address with pin code in the space provided. Put your signatures on the OMR Response Sheet with date. Ensure that the Invigilator in your examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Response Sheet at the space provided.

On the OMR Response Sheet student's particulars are to be filled in by pen. However use HB pencil for writing the Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code as well as for blackening the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question.

Do not make any stray remarks on this sheet.

Write correct information in numerical digit in Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code Columns. The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.

Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB pencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of the question. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives given under the question, you should darken the circle with '0'.

If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by using a good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer number. If incorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased circle and the question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.

No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, you should select the most appropriate answer.

You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular question difficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions, you may go back to the unanswered ones. Thre is no negative marking for wrong answers.



No cell Phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, note-books or written notes, etc. will be allowed inside the examination hall.

You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent and by the Invigilator at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be disqualified.

Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be disqualified.

The Test Booklet and the OMR Response Sheet (Answer Sheet) would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination is over, you should hand over the OMR Response Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Response Sheet will be disqualified and the University may take further action against him/her.

All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. Scrap paper is not permitted. For arriving at an answer you may work in the margins, make some markings or underline in the test booklet itself.

The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates or uses/ adopts other malpractices or uses any unfair means. The examination is conducted under uniform conditions. The University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel your score.


In the event of your qualifying the Entrance Test, the hail ticket should be enclosed with your admission form while submitting it to the University for seeking admission in Dental programmes along with your testimonials and programme fee. Admission forms received without hall ticket in original will be summarily rejected.



Patient gives history of brittle bones and you notice blue sclera. What is likely to be the condition ? (1) (3) Paget's Disease Osteopetrosis (2) (4) Osteoporosis Fibrous Dysplasia

Which type of epithelia is the normal lining of the Maxillary Antrum ? (1) (3) Ciliated columnar Transitional stratified (2) (4) Columnar Keratinised stratified squamous

Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause foetal defect ? (2) Mumps (1) Herpes Simplex (4) Papilloma (3) Rubella

Dosage of I.V Diazepam in a Dental Chair is influenced by :


Tinel's sign Battle's sign

(2) (4)

Verril's sign Bell's sign

Which of the following drugs is used in the management of Haemophilia ? (1) Tranexamic Acid (2) Heparin (3) Calcium gluconate (4) Thrombin

Antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following condition of the heart :


Ischemic heart Congestive cardiac failure

(2) (4)

Hypertension Congenital heart disease


Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of : (1) (3) Symphysis Bilateral condyles (2) (4) Bilateral angles Unilateral condyle


In a patient suffering from liver disease, the main complication encountered during extraction : (1) Syncope (3) Prolonged bleeding (2) Post - operative infection (4) Convulsions

For Reimplantation of avulsed tooth : Curettage of socket is done Curettage of root surface is done Mild debridement of socket with saline Root surface is treated with antibiotics

Advantage of NiTi over stainless steel file is : (2) Flexible (1) Resistance to fracture (4) All (3) Cutting efficiency

Black's classification of class II caries is : Single proximal surface on posteriors Mod cavity Single proximal surface of anteriors Both (1) and (2)

Pain in cracked tooth syndrome is : (1) Continuous in nature (3) Elicited on pressure application (2) Variable as name indicates (4) Elicited on relieving pressure

All of them are for infection control except : (1) Surface disinfection (2) Patient screening (3) Septic technique (4) Personal protection



The chelating action of EDTA lasts for : (3) (2) 1 Hour (1) 15 Min

1 Week

(4) 1 Day

Recommended splint period for avulsed tooth is : (2) 8 - 12 wks (3) 1 wk (1) 2 - 8 wks

(4) 3 - 4 wks

Broach is used in : (1) Pecking motion (3) 360 Rotation (2) (4) Watch winding motion 3 th 4 Turn

In an endodontically treated tooth, the resorption rate is : (1) More than normal tooth (3) More after 2 years (2) (4) Less than normal tooth Same

Frozen slab technique of mixing zinc phosphate is used for : (1) cementing crowns (2) temporary dressing (3) base (4) cementing orthodontic bands

When white opacities are more extensive but do not involve more than 50% of the surface dean's fluorosis index and grade is :

(1) 0.5 - Questionable

(3) 2.0 - Mild

(2) (4)

1.0 - Very mild 3.0 Moderate

20. Anterior cross bite occurs due to all of the following except :
Labially Positioned Supernumerary Trauma to primary anterior tooth Arch length deficiency Low tongue position OPENDEN (II)/10

21. Paraplegia is characterised by involvement of : Both legs only One half of the body All 4 limbs One limb 22. Acyanotic congenital heart disease includes Patients with left to right shunt Patients with right to left shunt Tricuspid valve atresia Tetralogy of fallot 23. Endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended during following dental procedures except : Dental extractions Initial placement of orthodontic bands but not brackets Intracanal endodontic treatment Periodontal procedures 24. One of the following conditions causes speculated new bone formation at right angles to the outer cortical plate in the jaws. Inflammatory lesions Primary Intra - osseous carcinoma Langerhan's cell histiocytosis Metastatic lesions of prostate malignancy Characteristic 'Tram - Line' calcifications in skill radiographs is observed in : (1) Cleidocranial dysostoses (3) Paget's Disease (2) Struge - weber syndrome (4) Mc Cline - Albright syndrome

Uremic stomatis in a patient with chronic renal failure usually manifest when : Bun levels are higher than 150mg/dL Bun levels are lower than 150mg/dL Normal Bun levels Not related to bun levels



27. The head TILT procedure while dealing with an unconsious patient in dental chair is done to ensure : Patent airway Blood circulation to the brain To clear the foreign body obstacle To relieve spasm of respiratory muscles

28. One of the following is drug of choice for acute allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis). (1) Chloram Pheniramine (3) Epinephrine (2) Diphen Hydramine (4) Nitroglycerin

Following gland is removed in surgery for a ranula. (1) Submandibular gland (2) Sublingual gland (4) Lacrimal gland (3) Parotid gland

Commonest site for a tuberculous sinus : (1) Axilla (3) Inguinal region (2) Neck (4) Foot

Causative organism for gas gangrene is : (1) Streptococcus (2) Staphylococcus (3) Fusiform (4) Clostridia

Golden period for treating wounds is upto : (1) 2 hrs (2) 4 hrs (3) 6 hrs

(4) 8 hrs

33. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid is treated by : (1) Surgery (2) Radiotherapy (3) Chemotherapy (4) None of the above OPENDEN (H)/10 8

Calcified masses present in periodontal ligaments is known as : (1) Denticles (3) Cementicles (2) Cementum (4) Laminin

Predominant inorganic component of supragingival calculus is : (1) Magnesium phosphate (2) Calcium carbonate (4) Carbon dioxide (3) Calcium phosphate 36. High prevalence and increased severity of periodontal destruction associated with Down Syndrome is due to : Poor PMN chemotaxis and phagocytosis Mental retardation Malocclusion Poor oral hygiene 37. Glycosylated hemoglobin assay (HbAic) level of 4% 6% indicates (1) Normal value (2) Good diabetes control (3) Moderate diabetes control (4) Poor diabetes control Which scaling instrument makes two point contact on tooth surface : (1) Hoe scalers (2) Sickle scalers (3) Chisel scalers (4) Curette Following statement is true regarding apically displaced flap It eliminates the pocket Widens the zone of attached gingiva It can be full thickness/split-thickness flap All of the above 40. Bioactive glass (Perio glass) bone graft material is a type of : (1) Autograft material (3) Xenograft material

(2) Allograft material (4) Non bone graft material

9 P.T.O.

The most common odontogenic cyst is : (1) Keratocyst (2) (3) Radicular cyst (4) Oral mucosa is lined by : Stratified squamous epithelium Transitional epithelium Simple columnar epithelium

Dentigerous cyst Lateral periodontal cyst

Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium The cells that secrete dentinal matrix : (1) Ameloblast (2) Odontoblast (3) Chondroblast (4) Osteoblast

The periodontium does not include : (1) Cementum (3) Periodontal ligament Actinomycosis is an infection caused by (1) Virus (3) Bacteria

(2) (4)

Dentin Bone lining the socket

(2) (4)

Fungus Parasite

The "Starry sky" appearance is seen in : (2) (1) Burkitt's lymphoma (4) (3) Eosinophilic granuloma Cusp of carabelli is seen in : (1) Permanent maxillary first molar (3) Deciduous maxillary first molar (2) (4)

Ewing's sarcoma Rhabdomyosarcoma

Permanent mandibular first molar Deciduous mandibular first molar

Tongue deviates to right side on protrusion because of paralysis of : (1) Right hypoglossal nerve (3) Lingual nerve (2) (4) Left hypoglossal nerve Right facial

49. Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is : (1) Carbamazepine (3) Chlorpromazine OPENDEN (II)/10 (2) (4) 10 Phenobarbitone Indomethacin

50. Most important triad of symptoms in portal hypertension : Splenomegaly, Hepato Megaly, Ascites Splenomegaly, Esophageal varices and ascites Piles, splenomegaly and generalised anasarla Esophageal varices, piles and generalised anasarla 51. Anemia, splenomegaly and structural defects are seen in : (2) Thalassemia minor (1) Thalassemia major (4) Polycythemia (3) Mediterranean anemia All are true about angina except : (1) Pain commonly retrosternally (3) Pain mainly stabbing in nature

(2) (4)

Pain reduces by rest Pain radiates

Tanaka-Johnston analysis, predicts the width of un-erupted canines and premolars based on sum of : (1) The width of upper incisors (2) The width of lower incisors (4) None of the above (3) The width of molars Development of palate begins at the age of : (2) 6 weeks (3) 13 weeks (1) 4 weeks Growth of child in height and eruption of teeth is more in : (2) Afternoon hours (1) Early morning hours (4) Night hours (3) Evening hours 56. The term Hollywood smile refers to : Generalised. spacing in permanent dentition Generalised spacing in deciduous dentition Lack of spacing in deciduous dentition Prosthesis to close anterior spacing 57. Which is type II hypersensitivity ? (1) Anaphylaxis (3) Immune complex mediated 58. Rheumatic fever is associated with : (1) Heart (2) Liver OPENDEN (H)/10 11

(4) 18 weeks

(2) (4)

Delayed hypersensitivity Cytotoxic / cytolytic type

(3) Bone

(4) Kidney P.T.O.

Bacterial cell does not possess : (1) DNA (2) Ribosome (3) Mitochondria (4) Cell wall

Which organism causes dental caries ? (1) (3) Candida tropicalis Streptococcus mutans (2) (4) Staphylococcus pyogenes Bacillus anthracis

Rubber Gloves and glove powder are sterilised by : (1) (3) Auto clave Uv rays (2) (4) Hot-air Formaldehyde

Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin by : (1) (3) Thrombin Prothrombin (2) (4) Prothrombin activator Calcium

Normal Tidal volume is : (1) 500 ml (2) 700 ml (3) 300 ml (4) 1000 ml

Structural and functional unit of nervous system : (1) Neuron (2) Nephron (3) Neuroglia (4) Giant cell

Hormone responsible for milk ejection : (1) Oxytocin (2) Estrogen (3) Progesterone (4) Prolactin

The hormone that lowers blood Glucose level : (1) Cortisol (2) Growth hormone (3) Glucagon (4) Insulin

Number of ATP produced by complete aerobic oxidation of glucose is : (1) 8 ATP (2) 12 ATP (3) 32 ATP (4) 38 ATP

Lingual plating should be supported : By the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors With Bracing Arms With the rests With minor connector OPENDEN (II)710 12

The optimum degree of taper for a maxillary molar as an abutment for fixed partial denture is : (1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 17 (4) 19 Electrolyte used for plating copper dies is : (1) Ionic copper (2) (4) (3) Silver cyanide

Copper cyanide Acidic copper sulphate

Denture acrylics contain cross-linking agents, mainly to improve their : (1) Internal color (2) Tissue compatibility (4) Craze resistance (3) Surface hardness Separating the roots of a maxillary molar without removing a root is known as : (1) Skyfurcation (2) Trifurcation (3) Bifurcation (4) Bicuspidation

In mandibular guide flange prosthesis, flange extension should be preferably in the region of : (1) (3) Maxillary IInd molar Anterior to maxillary premolar (2) (4) Maxillary IInd premolar On any tooth

RPI stands for : Occlusal rest, proximal guide planes, I BAR Occlusal rest, proximal plate, I BAR Occlusal rest, proximal plate, Indirect Retainer Cingulum rest, proximal guide plane, I BAR In gothic arch tracing, the apex indicates : (1) Centric relation (2) (3) Protrusive relation (4) Tripoding is done : To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor To get the desired path of insertion To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator.

Centric occlusion Physiologic rest position




77. Beyron point is located at : 11 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line parallel to and 7 mm below Frankfurt horizontal plane 13 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus. 13 mm anterior to tragus on a line from base of tragus to outer canthus (4) 10 mm anterior to posterior margin of tragus on a line from center of tragus to outer canthus.

78. The following statements about verpamil are true except : It does not produce reflex tachycardia It is less potent as a coronary vasodilator It is contraindicated in patients with supraventricular tachycardia It can cause constipation

79. Use of morphine is contraindicated in the following conditions except : Head injury Acute myocardial infardation Acute abdominal pain before diagnosis Bronchial asthama

80. Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except : (1) Tannic acid (2) Gelatin foam (3) Adrenaline (4) Vitamin-K

Therapeutic uses of calcium salts include the following except : (1) Osteoporosis (3) Laryngospasm (2) (4) Disorders of coagulation Extreme hyper-kalemia

Mode of action of sulphonyl ureas include all the following except : Activating receptors on beta cells of pancreas to release insulin Inhibiting Gluconeogenesis in liver Enhancing insulin mediated post receptor enzyme reaction Decreasing Glucose absorption from the gut.



Facial palsy involves : (1) 5th nerve Parotid duct opens : (1) Lower 2nd molar (3) Lower anteriors Ist arch artery is : (1) Maxillary artery (3) Carotid artery (2) (4) Mandibular artery Stapeded artery (2) (4) Upper 2nd molar Lower premolars (2) 6th nerve (3) 7th nerve (4) 9th nerve

As transverse venous sinus continues as : (2) (1) Straight sinus (4) (3) Sigmoid sinus Ascending palatine is branch of artery : (1) Maxillary (2) Facial

Cavernous sinus Ethmoidal sinus

(3) Lingual

(4) Pharyngeal

A most unsanitary method that creates public health hazards, nuisance and severe pollution of the environment is : (1) Incineration (3) Dumping (2) (4) Controlled tipping Composting

89. The global monitoring age for caries for international comparison and monitoring disease trends. (1) 7 years (2) 11 years (3) 12 years (4) 14 years

90. The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmes on parents : (1) Side effect (3) Ripple effect (2) Secondary effect (4) String effect