Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 1: Water irrigating devices are

are most useful in (MAN 98, PGI - 2K) a) Removing plaque b) Preventing plaque formation c) Diluting bacterial products d) Reducing periodontal pockets.

6: Use of floss in healthy mouth is recommended (AIPG - 93, 00, PGI - 97) a) Not recommended b) Once daily c) Each time after meats d) Twice daily.

2: Chlorhexidine on tooth causes (MAN - 97) a) No stain b) Brownish yellow stains c) Greenish yellow stain d) Blue back stains.

7: Gingival massage increase blood supply in(AIIMS 95) a) Epidermis b) Basal layer c) Lamina propria d) All of the above

3: Sodium lauryl sulphate used in the toothpaste is (MAN - 01) a) Humectants b) Abrasive c) Flavouring agent d) Surfactant 8: The agents used to stain plaque on tooth, gingiva and other soft tissues is called (AP - 03) a) Staining agent b) Disclosing agent c) Mordent d) All 4: Which tooth brushing technique should be used in a patient with severe gingival recession and loss of gingival contour (MAN, KAR - 01) a) Bass b) Stillman c) Charter d) Multitufted 10: Chlorhexidine mouth rinsing (AIIMS - 91) 5: Minimum amount of chlorhexidine required in mouthwash for plaque prevention' (PGI - 98, 2K) a) 0.10 % b) 0.12 % c) 0.2 % d) 0.22 % 11: If the maxillary right second molar is treated successfully the distal furcation involvement can best a) Specifically inhibits gram negative bacteria b) Can inhibit subgingival plaque c) May disturb taste sensation. d) Can only be obtained on prescription 9: The use of dental floss will prevents (AIPG - 92) a) Caries at interproximal area b) Calculus formation c) Plaque formation d) All of the above

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 be kept plaque free by using (AIGP - 01, 02) a) Dental floss b) Perio aid c) Stimudent d) Rubber tip stimulator

16: To maintain good oral hygiene, brushing of teeth should be done (AIPG - 95) a) Daily b) Twice a day c) Thrice a day d) Four times a day

12: Effect of chlorhexidine on long terms use can? (AP01) a) Suppress organisms b) Suppress all microbial flora c) Does not cause tongue discoloration d) Has systematic effect gram negative and gram positive 17: Desensitizing paste has (AP - 01, COMEDK, MCET 07) a) NaCl b) KnO3 (Potassium Nitrate) c) HnO3 d) KCl

13: The most preferred type of dental floss is (AP - 98, KAR- 2 K) a) Unwaxed thin floss b) Unwaxed thick floss c) Waxed thin floss d) Waxed thick floss

18: Most failures in maintaining adequate plaque removal results from failure in patient (AP - 98, AIPG 92) a) Recalls b) Training c) Education d) Motivation

14: The active ingredient present in Tartar control tooth paste is (KAR- 03) a) Pyrophosphate b) Metaphosphate c) Carboxy methyl d) Bi-carbonate 19: The first reference to mouth wash used for the treatment of disease of the gum is (KAR - 99) a) Saline gargle b) Hexidine c) Listerine d) Urine of a child. 15: After periodontal surgery, the method of brushing recommended is (AP- 2K, 04) a) Charters method b) Bass method c) Modified Stillman's method d) Scrub method 20: Which of the following is not a disclosing agent? (PGI - 95) a) Erythrocin b) Cetyl pyridinium chloride c) Mercurochrome d) Two tone solution.

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 d) Amylase 21: Proxa brushes are recommended to be used in (COMEDK - 04) a) Type I embrasure b) Type II embrasure c) Type III embrasure d) Any of the above

26: Choose the most effective mechanical device for cleaning interdental surface of teeth (AP - 08) a) Conventional tooth brush b) Powered tooth brush c) Triangular tooth picks (TTP) d) Interdental brush

22: Action of dentifrice is (AP - 02) a) Remove calculus b) Remove stains c) Remove plaque. d) Cleaning of teeth and polishing of teeth. 27: Tooth brush abrasions are more common on the (AIIMS - 08) a) Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch b) Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch c) Maxillary teeth, on the right half of the arch 23: Which of the following is used as a thickening agent in dentifrices? (AIPG - 06) a) Calcium carbonates, calcium phosphate and 28: Which one of the following tooth brushing techniques is most likely to clean the gingival sulcus? Or the indicated tooth brushing technique in a patient lauryl where usage of disclosing agent reveals that the patient has plaque accumulation only at the cemental third of the teeth a) Bass method b) Characters method c) Modified Stillman's method d) Rolling stroke method d) Maxillary teeth, on the left half of the arch

calcium sulphate b) Sodium bicarbonate, aluminium oxide c) Sodium succinate d) Carboxymethyl cellulose, alginate amylase lauryl sulphate and sodium

24: Soft tooth brush is recommended in periodontal patients because soft bristles are (AP - 05) a) More flexible allowing easy access to all areas b) Less abrasion of tooth structures than hard brush c) Fraying is less with soft bristles d) None of the above

29: Which of the following may cause cervical abrasion of a tooth? a) Bass method of sulcular brushing b) Still man's method c) Crevicular fluid activity d) None of the above

25: Which one of the following is not used as an abrasive in the dentifrice (AP - 08) a) Calcium carbonate b) Silica c) Sodium chloride

30: Important aspect of tooth brushing a) Design of brush head

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) Method of tooth brushing c) Thoroughness on the part of patient d) Frequency of brushing 36: Bass Method is especially suitable for 31: Maintenance of oral health is best achieved by a) Hard bristle tooth brush b) Mouth washes c) A soft bristle brush and tooth paste d) A soft bristle brush and dental floss 37: Disclosing solutions have 32: This is ideal to arrest putrefaction and destroy odors in mouth a) Chlorine b) Iodine c) Phenol d) Cresols 38: Sodium lauryl sulphate in the tooth paste acts as a) Binder 33: Plaque below contact point can be best removed by a) Waxed floss b) Unwaxed floss c) Unitufted brush d) Proxa brush b) Antiseptic c) Detergent d) Coloring agent a) Hydrogen peroxide b) 10 % sodium benzoate c) 6 % basic fuschin d) Essential oils a) Denuded roots b) Gingival recession c) Senile atrophic gingival d) Gingival massage c) Unitufted brush d) Stim - U - dent

39: Which of the following is most effective agent for plaque control?

34: Distal surfaces of upper 3rd molars can be effectively cleaned by a) Toothbrush b) Rubber stimulator c) Dental floss d) Stim - u - dent

a) Chlorhexidine b) Phenol c) Povidine Iodine d) Cetylpyridinium

40: For type-I embrasures which interdental cleansing aid is commonly used:

35: Recommended aid for plaque removal in type II embrasures a) Proxabrush b) Floss

a) Dental floss b) Unituft brush c) Proxa brush d) Stimudent

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 d) Ciprofloxacin 41: The recommended dose of Doxycycline applied to root surface for root biomodification is a) 100 mg/ml b) 50 mg/ml c) 150 mg/ml d) 25 mg/ml 46: Periostat is a) 20 mg capsule of Doxycycline hydrate b) 40 mg capsule of Doxycycline hydrate c) 100 mg capsule of Doxycycline hydrate d) 200 mg capsule of Doxycycline hydrate

42: Concentration of stannous fluoride required for direct pocket lavage in advanced periodontitis is a) 0.64 percent b) 1.64 percent c) 2 percent d) 2.64 percent

47: Macrolide antibiotic active against gram positive organism excreted in high concentration in saliva is a) Spiramycin b) Erythromycin c) Roxithromycin d) Streptomycin

43: Which of the following drugs is most frequently used in treating refractory periodontitis including localized juvenile periodontitis? a) Metronidazole + Amoxicillin b) Tetracycline c) Ciprofloxacin d) Penicillin

48: Drug of choice for antibiotic prophylaxis of the prevention of infection during periodontal therapy in diabetic patient is a) Amoxicillin b) Erythromycin c) Penicillin d) Ampicillin

44: The recommended dose of amoxicillin for the treatment for refractory or juvenile periodontitis is a) 250 mg tid b) 500mg bid c) 500mg tid d) 250mg qid

49: The

electronic

probing

system

"Foster-miller

probe"detects a) Only the pocket depth b) Only the CEJ c) CEJ and pocket depth d) Furcation involvement

45: The drug of choice for the treatment of refractory periodontitis in which associated micro flora primarily consists of black pigmented bacteria and spirochetes is a) Tetracycline b) Metronidazole c) Azithromycin

50: Furcation is measured by (MAHE-2K, AIPG-04) a) Naber's probe b) Florida probe c) Miller's probe d) CPITN probe

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 be least detected by 51: DNA probe is used for a) Detection of periodontal disease progression b) Detection of special microorganism c) Detection of type of nucleic acid d) Detection of abnormal nucleic acid a) Periodontal probes b) Hoe scalar c) Explorer d) Radiographs

57: With which of the following instrument stability is 52: Which of the following instruments have two point contact with the tooth (MAHE - 02) a) Hoe b) Sickle c) Curette d) Cumin scaler 58: Cross-section of curette is 53: Which of the following is a magnetized instrument? a) Schwartz periotrievers b) Hu-Friedy after five curette c) Morse sickle scaler d) Modified Gracey curette 59: Instrument designed for two point contact is 54: Instrument used for removal of broken curette tips from the periodontal pocket is (KAR - 02, TNPSC - 99) a) Schwartz periotrievers b) Barnhart instruments c) EVA system d) Prophy - jet 60: Process by which process calculi are removed from both supragingival and subgingival tooth surface is 55: The instrument best suited for root planning is (AIPG - 91) a) Hoe b) Scaler c) File d) Curette 61: Pushing stroke is used during scaling to remove 56: Caries and deposition of subgingival calculus can calculus from which area: known as a) Scaling b) Root planning c) Curettage d) All of the above a) Scaler b) Curette c) Morse scaler d) Hoe scaler a) Circular b) Triangular c) Semicircular d) All of the above highest during scaling and root planning a) Files b) Hoe scaler c) Chisel d) Sickle scaler

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 a) Labial surface b) Lingual surface c) Interdental area d) Distal surface of last erupted tooth an angle of (MAN - 95) a) > 15 but < 45 b) > 30 but < 60 c) > 45 but < 90 d) > 90 but < 190 62: Kirkland knife is used for: a) Gingival curettage b) Gingivectomy c) Root planning d) Scaling 67: Ultrasonic scaler can be used in (PGI - 2003) a) AIDS patients b) Asthmatics c) Pacemaker d) Heavy calculus 63: Which of the following sickle scalers is used in mandibular anterior area if there is little interproximal space a) Jaquette scaler b) U 15/30 scaler c) Ball scaler d) Morse scaler 68: Prophyjet utilizes water with air powder of a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Sodium chloride c) Calcium carbonate d) Calcium bicarbonate

69: Instrument zone in periodontal therapy is (KAR 64: Gracey curettes number 11-12 are used for (AIPG 05, MCET - 10) a) Anterior teeth b) Posterior teeth facial surface c) Posterior teeth distal surface d) Posterior teeth mesial surface 03) a) The portion of the tooth where calculus or necrotic cementum is found b) C.E junction c) Exposed root surface d) Deep periodontal pocket

65: Stroke used for the removal of booth supragingival and subgingival calculus should be a) Light to moderate pull stroke b) Short, powerful pull stroke c) Short, moderate push stroke d) Powerful push stroke

70: Which of the following is not an instrument grasp during scaling procedure? (KAR - 04) a) Pen grasp b) Thumb grasp c) Modified pen grasp d) Palm and thumb grasp

66: During activation of a scaling instrument, the facial surface of the blade and the tooth surface should form

71: Which part of the instrument should be remain parallel (whenever possible) to the long axis of the

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 tooth a) Blade b) Cutting degree c) Handle d) Shank 76: Proximal surface calculus is removed by a) Push motion with scales b) Short gentle with chisel c) Pull motion with file 72: To maintain adaptation when instrumenting the line angle region of tooth dental should a) Use only vertical stroke direction b) Roll the instrument handle between the fingers of the grasp c) Place the shank perpendicular to tooth surface d) All of the above 77: The ultrasonic scaler dislodges only calculus that a) Has been formed recently b) Is already loose c) Is in direct contact with the tip d) Is located on the interproximal surfaces d) Pull motion with scales. d) Long swift stroke

73: Most effective way to remove tenacious ledge of sub gingival calculus is to a) Remove it in sections b) Remove it layer by layer c) Remove ensure mass in one stroke d) Use a file to remove it.

78: Which ultrasonics?

one

of following

is

not true about

a) Oscillates between 1500-3000Hz b) Release energy known as cavitation c) Acoustic streaming d) Implosion

74: Efficient way of calculus removal is a) A relaxed instrument grasp and light lateral working strokes b) A tight instrument grasp and light lateral working strokes c) A tight instrument grasp and firm lateral working strokes d) Relaxed instrument grasp and firm lateral working stroke

79: The ultrasonic scaler dislodges only calculus that (MAN - 95) a) Has been formed recently b) Is already loose c) Is in direct contact with the tip d) Is located on the interproximal surfaces

80: Which one of the following is not true about ultrasonics (MAN - 02)

75: Scaling stroke used for removal of supragingival calculus. a) Short powerful pull stroke b) Short gentle pull stroke c) Short powerful with file

a) Oscillates between 1500 to 3000Hz b) Releases energy known as cavitation c) Acoustic streaming d) Implosion

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 81: The optimal flow rate of coolant for sonic and ultrasonic subgingival scaling is (COMEDK - 07) a) 1-11 ml/min b) 14-23 ml/min c) 24-32 ml/min d) 34-40 ml/min

86: Which part of the instrument should remain parallel (whenever possible) to the long axis of the tooth? (MAN - 95) a) Blade b) Cutting edge c) Handle d) Shank

82: Instrument selection for scaling depends upon at all of the following factors except a) Location of calculus deposits b) Composition of calculus c) Area of the mouth to be instrumented d) Depth of pockets. 87: Ideal angle the sharpening stone must form with the face of the blade is (KCET - 10) a) 70 - 80 degrees b) 90 - 100 degrees c) 100 - 100 degrees d) 120 - 130 degrees 83: The final evaluation of the root surface smoothness after root planning is done by? (PGI - 08) a) Probe b) Explorer c) Scaler d) Curettes 88: Kirkland and Orban knives are used for (PGI - 97) a) Curettage b) Gingivectomy c) Root planning d) Scaling

84: Shrinkage of inflamed gingival after scaling and root planing primarily depends on a) Type of gingivitis b) Type of scaling c) Amount of edema d) Depth of pocket

89: In which of the following procedures, periodontal pack is not given a) Gingivectomy b) GTR procedures without osseous transplants c) Osteoplasty procedure d) Osteoimplants with reattachment procedures

85: Arkansas stones is lubricated with light mineral oil to (MAHE-94) a) Prevent heat build up b) Remove metal particles c) Prevent it from drying up d) All of the above

90: Periodontal pack is least effective in a) Providing Splinting Action b) Haemostatic Mechanism c) Pain Elimination d) Antimicrobial action

91: After curettage, reepithelization of sulcus occurs in

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 a) 2-7 days b) 1-2 weeks c) 2-3 weeks d) 4-5 weeks b) Gingivectomy c) Gingival curettage d) Subgingival curettage

10

97: Gingivectomy is contraindicated in which of the 92: Gingivoplasty is more likely to be useful in a) ANUG b) Juvenile periodontitis c) Desquamative gingivitis d) All of the above following conditions? a) Elimination of suprabony periodontal abscesses b) Elimination of gingival enlargement c) Elimination of suprabony pockets d) Elimination of pocket located apical to

mucogingival junction 93: In gingivectomy wounds 98: Complete repair of connective tissue after surgical a) The healing of the interproximal area lags behind that of the buccal tissue b) The healing of the interproximal area occurs faster than buccal tissue c) Healing of equal all round the teeth d) None of the above a) 5 to 14 days b) 4 weeks c) 7 weeks d) 10 weeks gingivectomy takes about

94: Unintentional curettage that is done during scaling and root planning is known as: a) Gingival curettage b) Inadvertent curettage c) Subgingival curettage d) Automatic curettage

99: The reshaping process of gingiva in the absence of periodontal pocket is(AP - 03) a) Curettage b) Gingivoplasty c) Gingivectomy d) Flap operation

95: Gingivectomy is a) Removal of gingiva b) Cutting of gingiva c) Excision of gingiva d) Incision of gingiva

100: Gingival deformities due to fixed orthodontic treatment can be corrected by (AIPG - 91) a) Gingivectomy b) Gingivoplasty c) Soft tissue curettage d) All of the above

96: Removal of inflamed soft tissue lateral to the gingival pocket wall is known as a) Coronoplasty 101: Electrocoagulation is used for (AP - 2K) a) Gingivectomy

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) Flap surgeries c) Mucogingival surgeries d) All of the above

11

b) Intermingling of fibres from recipient and donor sites c) Epithelium of previously denuded root surfaces began to grow over

102: In which of the following conditions gingivectomy is contraindicated (AIPG - 04) a) Gingival sulcus beyond mucogingival junction b) Enlargement of the gingiva c) Papillary enlargement. d) Enlargement due to acute systemic disease

d) All of the above

107: If pre-treatment pocket depth is 6mm and width of attached gingival is 2mm what will be the estimated width of attached gingiva after treatment a) 2 mm b) 4 mm c) 5 mm

103: Soft tissue curettage is used for (AIIMS - 97) a) Shallow pockets with gingivitis b) Deep pockets with gingivitis c) Infrabony pockets d) Edematous gingiva

d) 6 mm

108: Which one of the following clinical findings has greatest effect on the type of incision to be given in periodontal flap surgeries? a) Frenum attachment

104: Soft tissue curettage is indicated in (AIPG - 98) a) Periodontal pockets b) Edematous gingival pockets c) Fibrous gingival pockets d) Supragingival calculus deposits

b) Amount of attached gingiva c) Width of attached vestibule d) Probing depth

109: When osseous defects amenable to regeneration are present the technique of choice in order of first preference is

105: Epithelialisation completed by a) 4 days b) 1 month c) 4 months d) 2 months

of

gingivectomy

wound

is

a) Modified Widman flap b) Apically displaced by c) Scaling and root planning d) Papilla preservation flap

110: Which of the following flap techniques does not eliminate pocket depth and hence cannot increase the width of keratinized gingiva a) Modified Widman flap b) Undisplaced flap c) Apically displaced flap

106: Which of the following tissue relationships is most likely to occur after placing a lateral sliding graft on denuded root surfaces? a) Periodontal fibres from graft penetrating cementum of recipient site

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 d) All of the above b) Removes the keratinized tissue completely c) Is a vertical incision 111: Which of the following is most appropriate form of therapy if periodontal surgery is needed in mandibular anterior region? a) Gingivectomy b) Gingivoplasty c) Periodontal flap for access d) Apically displaced flap. 116: Internal bevel gingivectomy is a) Apically displaced flap b) Distal molar surgery c) Widman flap d) Undisplaced flap of all periodontal flap d) Remove the lining of the pocket wall

12

112: The

common

goal

procedures is to (AIPG - 90) a) Correct mucogingival inadequacies b) Remove diseased granulation tissue c) Provided access for instrumentation d) Add bone support where it has been lost

117: Best position for apically displaced flap is (AIPG 02) a) At the alveolar crest b) At 2mm apical to alveolar crest c) At 1mm apical to alveolar crest d) At 1mm coronal to alveolar crest

113: Infra-bony pockets are treated by (KAR - 98) a) Gingivectomy b) Gingivoplasty c) Flap operation d) Vestibuloplasty

118: Which is not true regarding internal bevel incision? a) It is also known as reverse bevel incision b) Objective of this incision is to excise gingiva c) It is usually first incision in periodontal flap surgery d) It removes the pocket imaging

114: If periodontal surgery is necessary in case of horizontal bone loss in upper anterior region. Which of the following procedure is the most appropriate? (AIPG - 04, 06, AIIMS - 07) a) Papilla preservation flap b) Widman flap c) Coronally displaced flap d) Gingivectomy 119: The flap technique involving an internal bevel incision about 0.5 to 1 mm from the gingival margin for surgical treatment of periodontitis is known as a) Papilla preservation flap b) Modified Widman flap c) Apically displaced flap d) None of the above

115: The internal bevel incision of a periodontal flap (COMEDK - 05) a) Is directed to the base of the pocket

120: The incision made from base of the pocket to the crest of the bone known as a) Internal bevel incision

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) Reverse bevel incision c) Crevicular incision d) Interdental incision c) Periodontometer d) Explorer

13

126: Root conditioning with citiric acid helps in (MAN 121: Which of the following is a major contraindication to resection of crestal bone? (AIPG - 03) a) Gingival recession b) Post surgical infection c) Removal of healthy bone d) Weakening 127: Biobrane is a commercially available (KAR - 03) 122: Craters in interseptal bone are best eliminated by (AIIMS - 89) a) Gingivectomy b) Supragingival curettage c) Interseptal massage with stimulators d) Osseous recontouring 128: The best way to fill a bony defect will be with which of the following? (AIIMS - 94) 123: If interdental bone is apical to interradicular bone (AP - 01) a) Positive architecture b) Negative architecture c) Plateau d) None 129: Hydroxyapatite (1.67) CaPO4 (PGI - 96) a) Osteoinducative 124: Ramping can be done for a (COMEDK - 04) a) One wall defect b) Two wall defect c) Three wall defect d) Four wall defect 130: Decalcified freeze-dried bone graft is an example of (KAR - 99) 125: Underlying bony topography can be revealed to some extent by a) Radiographs b) Transgingival probing a) Xenograft b) Autograft c) Alloplast b) Osteoconductive c) Both A and B d) None of the above a) Hydroxyl apatite b) Donor graft c) Xenograft d) Autograft a) Root matrix protein b) Biodegradable membrane c) Bone graft material d) Non-bone graft material 01) a) Removal of endotoxin b) Removal of smear layer c) Regeneration of bone d) All the above

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 d) Allograft a) Disto buccal root of upper first molar b) Mesio buccal root of upper first molar 131: What do you understand by isograft? (AIPG - 06) a) Bone taken from same individual b) Bone taken from generally similar individual c) Bone taken from identical twin d) Bone taken from the same individual 137: Odontoplasty is indicated in (PGI - 99) a) Grade I furcation involvement b) Grade II furcation involvement 132: Osseous coagulum contains a) Bone dust and blood b) Bone and fibrogen c) Dehydrated bone and NaCl d) Bone and alum and albumin c) Grade III furcation involvement d) Grade IV furcation involvement c) Palatal root of upper first molar d) Both mesio buccal and disto buccal root

14

138: Furcation involvement with no radio graphic evidence is (KAR - 95) a) Grade II

133: All of the following are autografts except a) Iliac crest graft b) Rib graft c) Maxillary tuberosity graft d) Calcium phosphate

b) Advance grade II c) Grade I d) Early grade III

139: Treatment of advanced grade II or grade III furcation involvement of a mandibular molar can be a) Extraction b) Bicuspidization c) Odontoplasty d) Osseous coagulum

134: Bio-Oss is a) A mixture of bone and blood b) A mixture of bone and normal saline c) A powder of autogenous cancellous bone d) A power of autogenous cortico-cancellous bone

140: GTR is used for treatment of which type furcation involvement

135: All of the following are used for conditioning of root surface for new attachment procedure, except a) Gore-Tax membrane b) Fibronectin c) Citric acid at pH 1 d) Tetracycline

a) Type-I b) Type-II c) Type-III d) Type-IV

141: Guided tissue regeneration technique for root coverage is indicated when the recession is more than

136: For root resection the choice of therapy is (KAR 99)

a) 3.98 mm apicocoronally

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) 2.498 mm apicocoronally c) 4.98 mm apicocoronally d) 4.08 mm apicocoronally a) A shallow vestibule b) Insufficient attached gingiva c) Infrabony pockets d) A high frenum attachment 142: Which is an example of non graft associated regenerative technique? (COMEDK - 07) a) HTR polymer b) Bioactive glass c) Osseous coagulum d) GTR

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147: In Tarnow's technique, the method described for denuded root surface is a) Semilunar coronally repositioned flap b) Split thickness coronally respositoned flap c) Free soft tissue autograft d) Subepithlial connective flap

143: A frenum is problematic if its attached close to a) Marginal gingiva b) Attached gingiva c) Muscle fibers d) Alveolar mucosa 148: Langer technique is used in a) Subepithelial connective tissue grafts b) Free soft tissue autografts c) Fenestration operation d) Vestibular extension operation 144: In a free gingival graft, what happens to epithelium of the graft? It (AIIMS - 92, 00, AIPG - 91) a) Remains as such b) Proliferates c) Degenerates d) Has to be removed by the surgeon 149: Vestibular extension procedure results in a) Increases in width of keratinized attached gingiva b) Decrease in width of keratinized attached gingiva c) Increase in width of non-keratinised attached gingiva d) Decrease in width of non-keratinised attached 145: The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the following (AIPG - 97) a) The graft being immobilized at the recipient site b) The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum c) A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue d) Periosteal fenestration being present 150: The best way to prevent exposure of dehiscence during surgical procedure is to a) Elevate a double flap b) Elevate full thickness flap c) Elevate partial thickness flap d) Elevate coronally repositioned flap gingiva

146: Indications for mucogingival surgery include the following except: (AIPG - 10)

151: Free gingival graft is indicated in all of the following except

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 a) Recession due to inflammation with no pockets b) Along with gingival extension procedures if soft friable pocket is present c) Root coverage, denuded on single tooth d) Absence of attached gingiva with no pocket. Connective tissue graft is indicated in this condition

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156: Ideal requisites of barrier membrane include all of the following except a) Cell occlusivity b) Tissue compatibility c) Space making d) Biodegradable

152: After placement of a free gingival graft, first it undergoes a) Metaplasia b) Hyperplasia c) Degeneration d) Dysplasia

157: Biobrane is a commercially available a) Root matrix protein b) Biodegradable membrane c) Bone graft material d) Non-bone graft material.

158: Graft taken from different individuals of same 153: One week after placement of free gingival graft the epithelium of free graft is lost. Reason may be a) Improper nutrient supply b) Improper mobilization c) Improper suturing d) None of the above 159: Which 154: The tissue preferred for free gingival graft in order of preferences is a) Alveolar mucosa b) Attached gingiva c) Edentulous mucosa d) Unattached gingiva. 160: Which of the following is alloplastic material 155: Guided tissue regeneration (GTR) is used mainly in the treatment of a) Class I furcations b) Class II furcations c) Class III furcations d) All of the above a) Iliac crest graft b) Freeze dried bone graft c) Bone blend d) Tricalcium phosphate of the following materials has species a) Alloplast b) Xenograft c) Autograft d) Allograft

osteoconductive property a) Autogenous graft b) Hydroxyapatite c) Plastic materials d) Cartilage

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 161: Identify the correct statement regarding junctional epithelium a) Lines the gingival sulcus b) Is permeable to bacterial toxins c) Attached to enamel by desmosomes d) Keratinized and derived from outer enamel epithelium d) All of the above

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166: The least effect on the prognosis of a periodontal disease is a) Suppuration from the pocket b) Furcation involvement c) Alveolar bone loss d) Co-operation and motivation of the patient

162: Bluish red or deep blue linear pigmentation of the gingival margin is due to a) Bismuth b) Arsenic c) Mercury d) Lead 167: Which of the following is/are the symptoms of periodontal pocket? a) Gingival bleeding b) Tooth mobility c) Localized pain d) Diastema formation 163: Histological changes in chronic gingivitis (Stage III gingivitis) is characterized by a) Degeneration of fibres, infiltration of plasma cells and lymphocytes b) Oedematous infiltration of connective tissue with no cellular infiltration c) Elongation of retepegs with localized abscess formation d) Degradation predominance of fibres, infiltration of PMN 169: Identify the wrong statement regarding true pocket 164: Gingival recession is a) More common on labial than lingual side b) More common on children compared to adults c) Always results from orthodontic tooth movement d) Always results from high frenal attachment a) Associated with gingivitis b) Associated with periodontitis c) Loss of epithelial attachment with base of pocket apical to cementoenamel junction d) May not cause bleeding on probing 168: A pathologically deepened gingival sulcus is known as a) Pocket b) Gingival abscess c) Periodontal abscess d) Presenile atrophy

165: A compound PDL pocket is a) Spiral type b) Present on 2 or more surfaces c) Infrabony in nature

170: Periodontitis is/are a a) Inflammatory disturbance b) Atrophic disease c) Hyperplastic disease

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 d) Degenerative disease case of juvenile periodontitis a) Tetracycline 171: Periodontitis is basically a disease of a) Bone b) Cementum c) Periodontal ligament d) All of the above b) Erythromycin c) Sulfadiazine d) Cephalexin

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177: Which of the following disease is/are associated with prepubertal periodontitis

172: Tires of actinomycetem comitans are increased in; a) Gingivitis b) Trauma from occlusion c) Juvenile periodontitis d) Cyctic neutropenia

a) Blood dyscrasias b) Papillon Lefevre syndrome c) Hypophosphatasia d) All of the above

178: Periodontitis is basically a disease of 173: Rapid progressive juvenile periodontitis is seen usually at which age a) 6 - 10 years b) 10 - 20 years c) 30 - 40 years d) At any age 179: A cup - like resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is indicative of 174: Which is not true regarding juvenile periodontitis: a) Common in males b) Common in incisors and 1st molars c) Microorganisms are anaerobic rods d) Is a rapidly progressing disease of periodontium 180: Radiographs in case of periodontal diseases show 175: "Mirror image"type of bone loss pattern is seen in (or) Arc shaped bone loss around molars is seen in a) Localized juvenile periodontitis b) Rapidly progressive periodontitis c) Prepubertal periodontitis d) Adult periodontitis 181: Teeth least affected by periodontitis a) Upper molar 176: Which of the following antibiotics prescribed in a) Depth of pockets b) Bone loss c) Fenestrations and dehiscenes d) All of the above a) Gingivitis b) Trauma from occlusion c) ANUG d) Early periodontitis a) Bone b) Cementum c) Periodontal ligament d) All of the above

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) Lower incisors c) Lower molar d) Upper canines b) Juvenile periodontitis c) Rapidly progressive periodontitis d) Chronic adult periodontitis

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182: Which microorganisms have 90% presence in localized aggressive periodontitis? a) Spirochetes b) P.Gingivalis c) P.intermedia d) A.actinomyecetemcomitans

187: Which of the following bony defects cannot be classified as Infrabony? a) Trough b) Crater c) Hemiseptum d) Ledge

183: Which is not true about Juvenile periodontitis a) Rate of bone loss is faster than normal periodontitis b) There is predilection for female patients c) The inflammatory process starts about

188: Concavities in facial and lingual alveolar walls are called a) Trough b) Crater c) Hemiseptum d) Ledge

simultaneously as the bone loss d) Frequently bilateral symmetrical patterns of bone loss occur

189: The pattern of bone destruction in periodontitis is 184: Which of the following is said to be a factor responsible for juvenile periodontitis: a) Neutrophil chemotactic defect b) Decreased neutrophil phagocytosis c) Increased neutrophil phagocytosis d) Defect in lysozymes of neutrophil 190: A shift in the position of the tooth way occur due 185: Which is not true regarding juvenile periodontitis: a) Common in males b) Common in incisors and 1st molars c) Microorganisms are anaerobic rods d) Is a rapidly progressing disease of periodontium to a) Pathologic migration b) Trauma from occlusion c) Pressure from the tongue d) All of the above determined by a) Depth of the pockets b) Suppuration c) Pathway of inflammation d) Composition of plaque

186: Type of periodontitis which does not respond to therapy is a) Refractory periodontitis

191: In absence of inflammatory cells prostaglandin injected over a bone surface induces a) Vasoconstriction

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com

Weekly Subjectwise Test-201403 Periodontics 03 (Chapters: 37 50); Periodontics 01, 02 Question Paper Code 01 b) Bone resorption c) Bone apposition d) Pigmentation a) To prevent MPDS b) To improve esthetics c) To achieve a favorable direction of forces

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d) Increase the occlusal surface area for proper 192: Occlusal trauma may be best defined as a condition caused due to a) The pressure on teeth due to lack of proper arch alignment b) Failure of occlusal balance bilaterally c) The force or the pressure beyond the physiological limits to the periodontium d) The force or the pressure within the physiological limits of the periodontium 198: Gradual physiologic attrition is characterized by 193: Secondary occlusal trauma is seen when a) Lack of inflammatory changes on the alveolar bone a) Abnormal forces acting on normal periodontium b) Normal forces acting on normal periodontium c) Normal forces acting on diseased periodontium d) All of the above surfaces b) Severe inflammatory changes on the alveolar bone surfaces c) Resorption of the alveolar bone d) None of the above 194: Gingival clefts are caused by a) Trauma from occlusion b) Faulty brushing technique c) Normal frenal pull d) Improper use of floss 199: Facets generally represent a) Only functional wear b) Only parafunctional wear c) Both functional wear d) Both functional and parafunctional wear 195: Trauma from occlusion in the absence of 200: Trauma from occlusion refers to a) Occlusion which causes trauma b) Abnormally of the periodontium c) Changes in periodontium due to occlusal forces d) Inflammation of periodontium inflammation causes a) Only reversible changes in periodontium b) Always irreversible changes in periodontium c) No changes in periodontium d) Such condition does not exist 197: Major disadvantage of temporary intracoronal splinting is a) Not esthetic b) Less rigid c) Enhanced gingival irritation d) Commitment to a permanent splinting mastication

196: The objective in adjusting natural dentition by coronoplasty

*****

Bengaluru: No. 75, Apoorva Complex, Next to Vijaya Bank, Behind Police Station, R T Nagar, Bengaluru 560032 Hyderabad: H. No: 3-4-758, LBK Nivas, Opp. Andhra Yuvathi Mandali, Barkatpura Main Road, Hyderabad 500 027 Quick Contact: (0) 97422 32037 drpnnreddy@brihaspathiacademy.com www.brihaspathionline.com