General Knowledge Questions

1. How many flashlights are on board? One (on pilots side) 2. What does black A-NA on IAP mean? Alternate not applicable unmonitored Navaid, No weather reporting facilities available, GPS or radar required approaches only 1. What is the definition if CFL, CEFS, RS, Max Brake Critical Engine Failure Speed: Is the speed at which one engine can fail and the same distance is required to either accelerate to lift-off speed, or to abort and decelerate to a stop. That distance is defined as Critical Field Length. Refusal Speed: Is the maximum speed that can be attained, with normal acceleration, from which a stop may be completed within the available runway length Max Brake: Is the maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum brake energy limit (14.8 Million Foot Pounds Total) 2. What is reference zero and is it the same for T&G data as initial T/Off data? How do you know? The point in space at the end of the takeoff flare distance at which the aircraft reaches 50 feet above the runway elevation. Reference zero will occur no later than the departure end of the runway. Yes it is the same for T&G? How? Performance Restrictions per IMC 96-01 11-202? 3. What is MCA? MCG? Minimum Control Speed Air (Vmca): (89KIAS), is the minimum controllable speed in the takeoff configuration out of ground effect with one engine inoperative and the remaining engine at TRT. Determined at the most critical combination of asymmetrical thrust, light weight, and aft center of gravity. The aircraft is trimmed for T/O, 5 degrees of bank into the good engine and no more than 180 lb. of rudder control force by the pilot with the rudder boost on. Minimum Control Speed Ground (Vmcg): (88 KIAS), is the minimum controllable speed during the takeoff run, at which, when an engine failed, it is possible to maintain directional control using only primary aerodynamic controls without deviating more than 25 feet laterally with all three wheels on the runway. The remaining engine is at TRT, the aircraft is loaded at the most unfavorable weight and CG, and the aircraft trimmed for T/O, without exceeding 180 lb. of rudder force by the pilot with the rudder boost on. Crosswind and RCR may increase Vmcg. 4. How is S1 derived? Why, if S1 is a range of airspeeds, do we use the heighest airspeed in that range? Can it be lower number (Vmcg or Vcef)? S1 is the go/no-go speed. S1 is equal to or greater than the higher of Vmcg, Vcefs. However, S1 must not be higher than the lowest of Vr, Vrot, Vmb. We use the higher of the range to keep a bad jet on the ground as long as possible. Technically, you could use Vmcg or Vcefs, however if you had a malfunction at that S1 you would be taking a jet into the air that could be safely brought to a stop on the ground already. 5. What are 11-206 fuel reserves for T-1A? 10% (up to 45 mins) or 20Min, whichever is greater. Use a fuel consumption rates that provide max endurance at 10,000 feet. 510lbs or 40 mins? 6. What is emergency fuel for dual/team sorties? 300 lbs

7. What altitude to perform TP Stalls and all other transition maneuvers? TP Stalls and Slow Flight between 8,000ft AGL and 20,000 MSL. Vertical-S, Steep Turns and Unusual Attitudes must be accomplished 5,000 AGL 8. What is the minimum runway length for TO and Landing? The minimum runway length for T/O is 6,000 or critical field length, whichever is greater. Performance restrictions apply. (See below) The minimum for landing is 6,000 feet or computed landing distance, whichever is greater. Performance Restrictions: Minimum climbout factor for all takeoffs is 2.5, reference zero will occur no later than the departure end of the runway for all initial takeoffs and touch and go departures. 9. What are the minimum runway length for touch an gos, what are the assumptions, how does RCR affect this, explain Go/No-Go decision, explain stop/go options. The minimum usable runway length for T&G landing must be equal to or greater than computed landing distance(corrected for flap configuration and RCR) plus reconfiguration distance, but never, less than 6,000 feet. Performance data restrictions apply. Reconfiguration distances for all landing configurations will be 3,000 ft. This total distance assumes a 3-degree glide path, idle thrust at 50 feet, and the aircraft is in a three point attitude by completion of the landing flare distance (approximately 1500 feet past the threshold) See separate attachment for explanation of Go/No-Go and Full Stop options 10. Explain fire detection systemhow it works, and the switches associated with it Engine fire detection is provided by a semi-conductor, coaxial cable sensor element that forms a closed loop around all vital engine components. Should a fire or overheat condition occur, the rise in temperature will be detected by the sensor element which illuminates the respective left or right engine fire warning light and activates an audible fire warning. 11. What items do we need to carry on all rides? -1, -1-1. Operational flashlight (night + outside local area), Nav computer, suitable terrain chart if flying outside the local area. Carry the FLIP as prescribed by local regulations. 12. What are the taxi clearances, and the special situations at home field? Do not proceed onto parallel taxi way until in contact with ground. There will be no more than 4 T-1 and T-38s between 13R and 13C. T-1s will not stagger. Take on yellow lines in the parking area. Wing walkers are not required if equipment are parked between the lines. Marshaller and wing walker: <25 ; Need both 10 - 25 ; Dont taxi < 10 13. What is max power during ground ops? Limit power during ground ops to aprox 70% N2 in congested areas. 14. What are the weather restrictions in regards to turbulence and icing and thunderstorm avoidance? The T-1A will not be flown in areas of forecast or reported severe turbulence or icing. Do not cruise or conduct multiple pattern operations in actual moderate icing conditions. All aircrews will attempt to avoid T-Storms by at least 10NM when flying below FL230, and at least 20NM when flying at or above FL230. 15. What are the restrictions on crossfeeding? I HAVE NO IDEA 16. Whats on the AGB? And how are the associated items powered? HMU, Starter Generator, N2, Oil Pump, Fuel Pump, and a Hydraulic Pump are all driven by a tower shaft from the bevel gear to the outer turbine shaft. 17. What systems use bleed air?

HMU, Cabin Pressurization (+ entrance door seal), environmental system, and hydraulic reservoir system pressurization, hot air for anti-icing protection for inlet cone, and the low pressure compressor inner stator ring and the T1 probe as well as cooling air for the engine. 18. What are the EFCs and what do they take into account? What probe does the EFC get its information from? Helps better establish fuel scheduling to the engines as functions of engine inlet air temperature, ambient pressure and temperature (Static system?) and throttle demands (throttle angle from HMU). T0 (static) and T1 (temperature) probes give data to EFC 19. How long is a preflight good for? 48 hours or until next flight whichever comes first 20. What are the tire condition restrictions? Main tire: max of 3 cords showing No Red. Nose: None cords showing Max Ground speed is 165KIAS 21. What do you do with the lavatory knife valve and why? Ensure it is out of an inch because of trapped gasses 22. What are single generator limits? Up to 32,500 feet: 400 Amps 32,500 - 41,000: 280 Amps 23. Know how to figure out min COF from a climb gradient to a certain altitude? See pages Appendix 3-13 24. What are cross-wind/tailwind limitations? 25 X-Wind (Dry), 15 (wet), 10 (ice), 10 Kt Tailwind 25. Does clearance for a STAR mean clearance for all altitudes or just clearance for the routing? You are cleared the altitudes and routing as published 26. What Wx is required to practice emergencies 1500 and 3 (day), 3000 and 3 (night), VMC to pull engine 27. What is holding airspeed? 180 28. How much is landing distance increased with Flaps 10, flaps O? No hydraulics? Anti-Skid off: 15% No Hydraulics: 90% of 30 Flap 10 Flap: 20% 0 Flap: 35% 29. Is the AHRS battery test performed on both P and CPs side? No, just one side 30. What strut extensions for nose and main, and are there minima maxima or just general guidance? Nose: 3.5inches (120+/-5psi) Main: 1.1inches minimum (125+/-5psi) 31. What does the wing-tip vent scoop do? Creates Venturi effect for bled air wing anti-ice 32. What does the gear unlock light indicate? Landing Gear is in transit - One or more of the landing gear is not locked - Main fuselage doors are not closed and locked 33. When do the ignition come on automatically? When should the ignition be turned on? Starting, engine anti-ice switch, Stall Warning Stick Shaker. Should be on for Takeoff, and Landing 34. Does wing anti-ice produce a rise in ITT? Does turning engine anti-ice OFF produce a

drop in ITT? Yes, No 35. Can a popped fuel CB be reset? No 36. What 4 times does the Boost Pump come on automatically? Starting, Fuel Crossfeed, Pressure below 5 +/-.5 in fuel line, Fuel Feed Chamber less than full 37. How does the motive flow work? Low pressure device that transfers energy from a high velocity, low mass, fluid stream to induce a low velocity, high mass, fluid stream (motive flow). 38. Under what conditions in anti-ice required? Visual Moisture and RAT of less then 8C 39. How many static wicks can we fly without? 0 40. How to perform an oxygen mask pre-flight? Flow indicator, 100% first then switch to Emergency to test positive pressure, check goggle/Vent Valve operation, intercom operation. Stow mask on 100% with vent valve closed 41. What is minimum altitude for setting the flap configuration during landing? 300 AGL 42. How long for gear retraction/extension? 7 seconds under normal conditions -- 10 seconds with gravity 43. How many crew members required to be on board with power supplied to aircraft? 1 44. How long can we use TRT? 5 Mins 45. What is zero fuel weight? 11,000lbs 46. What is maximum tire speed? 165KIAS 47. What kind of engines do we have? Light weight, twin spool, front turbofan jet propulsion engine with a full length annular bypass duct. Advantages: Better fuel consumption, etc? 48. Thrust limitations at TRT/MCT and their associated definitions? At sea level and up to 27C the engines installed will develop 2,900 lbs of takeoff rated thrust. The rating is limited to 5 mins (maximum thrust available). MCT is maximum thrust that may be used continuously and corresponds to 2,900 pounds at sea level up to 15C ambient temperature. 49. Which engine drives the engine synchronization? Maximum spool down? When NOT to have it on? Left (Master)limited range of 1.5% of fan or turbine rpm. Maximum of 1.5% spool down. Turned off during T/O and Landing 50. Microswitches installed in the throttle quadrant control actuation of what 8 things? Engine Ignition Switches actuate + Engine Fuel Control Switches actuate = Out of cutoff Pressurization Control switches actuate + A/C and Bleed Air Switches + Engine Anti-Ice switches actuate = 65%? Landing Gear Warning Switches Actuate, Wing Anti-ice Switches Actuate = 70%? Speed Brake Auto Retract Switch Actuate + T/O out of Trim Actuates = 90%?

51. What are the Specs for the 2 fire bottles in the tail? Halon Type, Single discharge unit, 86 Cubic Inches, 3lbs, Each bottle is charged at 600psi at 70F. Operational limit: -65F - 160F 52. Will you receive the fire bell with an engine overheat? Yes 53. Why do we turn ON the boost pump after an engine shutdown not due to a fire? To ensure lubrication of the engine driven high pressure pump 54. What types of generators do we have? Power and limitations from Sec V? 28VDC, 400Amp generators. Red Arc from 32-35VDC 55. Why do we perform a battery feed test before flight? What happens specifically? Checking to ensure Battery Feeder Protection Unit is working. Check FDR fail light STBY power on Left ITT Standby Instruments RTU#1 EMER: Flood lights AC Bus Shed Left N1+N2 RTU #1 BATT CUT OFF INV1FAIL AOA Indexer Copilots Clock 56. What is the flange around the outside of the nose tire rim called and designed for? I HAVE NO IDEA? 57. What is the wing root inlet scoop designed to do? Provides Ambient air for wing-anti ice 58. What is the limit for the power brake accumulator? What does it do for the brakes? 900+/- 50 psi. Stabilizes hydraulic pressure during actuation 59. How do weight, winds, PA effect CEFS? Increases CEFS: + weight, tailwind, + PA 60. What are the 6 calls the co-pilot must make? Control of the Aircraft is being transferred Repositioning fuel control switches A crew member leaves position or goes On or Off interphone A crew member goes On or Off O2 Any electrical power source is changed The PF intends to perform any critical maneuver (T/O, Abort, Go-Around, Landing, T&G) 61. What is the max VVI for landing? 600VVI 62. When does the stick shaker go off during the Master Test System test .4 - .5 first time then .7 the second 63. When will S1 be predicated on something other than Vrot. How? If it is Wet our S1 might be based on Refusal Speed After an aborted T/O we might use Vmb 64. What is the wing span and length of the T-1? Wingspan: 43ft 6in Length: 48ft 5 inches 65. How many stages are there in the low & high compressors/turbines? High Compressor has one stage while Low Compressor turbine has 2 66. Why cant we crossfeed during landing? I have no idea? 67. What are the different modes of the GPWS system? Which one(s) does the T-1 have? Mode 1: Excessive Decent Rate Warning Mode 2: Excessive Closure rate to terrain

Mode 3: Decent after takeoff warning Mode 4: Insufficient Terrain Clearance Mode 5: Inadvertent decent below glideslope warning Mode 6: Descent below decision height Mode 8: Excessive Bank Angle Alert/Warning 68. What are the prohibited maneuvers? Aerobatics Maneuvers (bank angle exceeds 60 degrees or pitch attitude exceeds 30 degrees) Spins Takeoff and Landing from unprepared surfaces 69. How can we turn off the Wx radar? Pull the Circuit Breaker? 70. How do you set up split markers? PF sets: Vco PNF sets: S1 Both memorize Vrot 71. What are the fuels the T-1 can use? Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B, JP-4, JP-5, JP-8

Additional add-ons by Dan Fehl

1. What is the accuracy of the localizer at 18 and 10 NMs? 18NM: 10o of centerline 10NM: 35o of centerline What is the optimum length of the localizer final approach? Max? 5 NM, 10 NM What is the maximum final approach glide path? 400 ft/NM When must the radar controller include ceiling and visibility conditions along with the altimeter? a. Ceiling is below 1500 ft (military airports) b. Ceiling is below 1000 ft (civil airports) c. Ceiling is below the highest circling minimums d. Visibility is less than 3 SM When must you provide the controller with your aircraft category? When you plan to circle out of an ASR. What are the approach speeds associated with Cat B & C aircraft? Cat B: 91 airspeed < 121 Knots Cat C: 121 airspeed < 141 Knots What is the circling radius for Cat B & C aircraft? Cat B: 1.5 NM Cat C: 1.7 NM

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