1.

Airway obstruction will often develop in an unconscious patient

when there is a relaxation of the:
A: uvula.

B: tongue.

C: chest wall.

D: diaphragm.

2. For CPR to be effective, the patient must be placed on a firm

surface in what position?
A: Prone

B: Vertical

C: Supine

D: Side-lying

3. Early, effective basic life support measures are NOT likely to

resuscitate a patient who has:
A: dependent lividity.

B: been struck by lightning.

C: a foreign body obstruction.

D: had a near-drowning accident.

4. A patient suddenly stands up from the dinner table and begins to

cough forcefully. He remains conscious as he is coughing. What
is the MOST appropriate action for an EMT-B or bystander to
take?
A: Immediately perform abdominal thrusts.

B: Visualize the patient's mouth for an obstruction.

C: Perform a series of five back blows.

D: Encourage the patient to cough.

5. Adequate artificial ventilation requires giving breaths that last for

about how many seconds?
A: 1
 B: 2

C: 4

D: 6

6. During mouth-to-mask ventilation, without use of supplemental

oxygen, exhaled air from the rescuer contains about what
percentage of oxygen?
A: 16%

B: 21%

C: 26%

D: 35%

7. Gastric distention during artificial ventilation is considered

dangerous because it can:
A: stimulate hyperventilation.

B: result in bacterial pneumonia.

C: cause the patient to vomit during CPR.

D: increase lung volume by elevating the diaphragm.

8. What is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for one-

rescuer adult CPR?
A: 1:5

B: 2:15

C: 5:1

D: 15:2

9. After a patient stops breathing, what is the MAXIMUM period of

time in which brain damage is not likely?
A: 2 minutes

B: 4 minutes

C: 6 minutes

D: 8 minutes
10. As you approach an unconscious adult male, you can hear that
he has snoring respirations. What should you do FIRST?
A: Begin assisted ventilations with a pocket mask.

B: Assess for the presence of a carotid pulse.

C: Open his airway with a head-tilt chin lift.

D: Attach an AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

11. A patient who is pulseless for more than 6 minutes is most likely
to have:
A: angina.

B: a stroke.

C: brain damage.

D: congestive heart failure.

12. For a patient who is not a trauma victim, which of the following
positions facilitates spontaneous breathing and allows
secretions to drain from the mouth?
A: Supine position

B: Recovery position

C: Resuscitation position

D: Trendelenburg's position

13. Which of the following ventilation techniques should be used for

a patient who has had a laryngectomy?
A: Mouth-to-nose

B: Mouth-to-mask

C: Mouth-to-stoma

D: Mouth-to-mouth

14. The jaw-thrust maneuver is best performed when you are

positioned:
A: kneeling above the patient's head.
 B: lying parallel to the patient's body.

C: straddling the patient's hips.

D: squatting next to the patient's knees.

15. The minimum chest compression rate for infants and children is:
A: 60 per minute.

B: 75 per minute.

C: 100 per minute.

D: 125 per minute.

16. When attempting to relieve a complete foreign-body airway

obstruction in an infant, you should:
A: perform blind finger sweeps in between attempts.

B: open the mouth with a tongue-jaw lift to look in the mouth.

C: perform 15 back blows and five chest thrusts without a

finger sweep.
D: administer five abdominal thrusts and five chest thrusts.

17. You are called to a local supermarket for a patient who is not
breathing. Upon arrival, you confirm cardiac arrest and attach an
AED, which states, "no shock advised." Shortly after starting
CPR, a man, who identifies himself as a physician, presents a
valid medical license and assumes responsibility for the patient.
After 5 minutes of CPR, the physician advises you to stop CPR.
What should you do?
A: Politely dismiss the man from the scene and continue
resuscitation efforts.
B: Stop CPR, as he is a licensed physician and has accepted
full responsibility.
C: Advise the physician that you must see a wall-mounted
certificate of his credential.
D: Tell the physician that since he has assumed responsibility,
he must resume CPR.

18. What is one of the most common side effects of artificial

ventilation?
A: Putrefaction
 B: Acute epiglottitis

C: Seesaw breathing

D: Gastric distention

19. What is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for one-

rescuer adult CPR?
A: 1:1

B: 2:1

C: 3:1

D: 4:1

20. Which of the following diseases would the EMT-B be MOST likely
to be infected with while performing mouth-to-mouth without a
barrier device?
A: HIV

B: Hepatitis B

C: Hepatitis C

D: Tuberculosis

21. You are called to a local nursing care facility for a patient who
"has expired." When you assess her, you note that her jaw, arms,
and legs are rigid. As you roll her over, you note the presence of
a purplish color to her upper and lower back. How should you
proceed with this situation?
A: Notify the police and report possible elderly abuse.

B: Call medical control and advise him or her of an obvious

death.
C: Begin CPR and transport the patient to the hospital
immediately.
D: Attach an AED and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm.

22. While sitting on his couch watching television, a man suddenly

loses consciousness. Which of the following would be LEAST
likely to cause his sudden unconsciousness?
A: Sudden cardiac death

B: Foreign-body obstruction
 C: Fainting due to lack of oxygen

D: A cerebrovascular accident

23. Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause an airway

obstruction?
A: Vomitus

B: Blood clots

C: Nasal flaring

D: Loose dentures

24. What are the two manual maneuvers that are recommended for
relieving foreign body airway obstruction in conscious adults?
A: Precordial thumps and back blows

B: Precordial thumps and finger sweeps

C: Abdominal thrusts and back blows

D: Abdominal thrusts

25. The MOST common cause of cardiac arrest in children younger

than the age of 9 is:
A: cardiac arrhythmias.

B: massive trauma.

C: respiratory arrest.

D: accidental poisoning.

26. Sudden foreign body airway obstruction in adults usually occurs

during:
A: meals.

B: nightmares.

C: panic attacks.

D: athletic activity.

27. Which pulse should you palpate in an infant to assess the quality
 of the pulse?
A: Radial

B: Carotid

C: Brachial

D: Popliteal

28. The proper way to perform chest compressions on an infant is

with:
A: two fingers placed on the xyphoid process.

B: two fingers placed on the lower half of the sternum.

C: the heel of one hand placed at midsternum.

D: the heel of one hand placed on the lower sternum.

29. Which of the following maneuvers should be used first in

opening the airway of a patient who does not have a suspected
neck injury?
A: Sellick maneuver

B: Head tilt-chin lift maneuver

C: Recovery maneuver

D: Jaw-thrust maneuver

30. What is the proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-

rescuer adult CPR?
A: 1 : 5

B: 2 : 15

C: 5 : 1

D: 30 : 2

31. You assess a 56-year-old man and find him to be pulseless and
apneic. As you begin CPR, the man's wife presents you with a
living will that has been signed by the patient. How should this
situation be handled?
A: Respect the patient's wishes and cease resuscitative efforts.
 B: Obtain a signed release from the wife and then stop CPR.

C: Continue CPR and contact medical control for advice.

D: Stop CPR if the patient does not respond within 5 minutes.

32. Which of the following is considered a basic life support skill?

A: Starting IV fluids

B: Cardiac monitoring

C: Heimlich maneuver

D: Manual defibrillation

ANSWERS
NO ANS REASON
1. Reason: The tongue relaxes and tends to fall back into the airway
B
when someone becomes unconscious. (ECTSI 8, p. 900)
Reason: The patient should be supine and lying on a firm, flat
2.
C horizontal surface. CPR will not be effective if the patient is face down,
upright, or in a side-lying position. (ECTSI 8, p. 898)
3. Reason: Dependent lividity is a sign of "biological" (or irreversible)
A
death. It is a discoloration of the skin due to the pooling of blood.
Reason: If you attempt FBAO removal techniques on a patient with a
4. partial airway obstruction, the result could be a complete airway
D
obstruction. If the patient is coughing forcefully, you must encourage
the patient to continue to cough
5. Reason: Slow, gentle breaths lasting 2 seconds allow adequate gas
B
exchange to occur.
Reason: Rescue breathing will deliver exhaled gas from you to the
6.
A patient. This gas contains 16% oxygen, which is more than enough to
maintain the patient's life. (ECTSI 8, p. 896)
Reason: Serious gastric distention is dangerous, as it causes the
7.
C patient to vomit during CPR. It can also reduce lung volume by
elevating the diaphragm
8. Reason: The proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for one-
D
rescuer adult CPR is 15:2. (ECTSI 8, p. 902)
Reason: The critical time periods following cardiac arrest are as
9. follows: 0 - 1 minute, cardiac irritability; 0 - 4 minutes, brain damage
B
not likely; 4 - 6 minutes, brain damage possible; and 6 - 10 minutes,
brain damage very likely. After 10 minutes, brain damage is irreversible
Reason: Snoring respirations in an unconscious patient are usually the
10. result of partial airway obstruction by the tongue. Prior to initiating any
C
care, you must first open the airway. This can be quickly accomplished
by performing a head-tilt chin lift maneuver
Reason: Like the heart, the brain is dependent on a continuous supply
11. of oxygen. Permanent brain damage may occur if the brain is without
C
oxygen for 4 to 6 minutes. After 6 minutes without oxygen, some brain
damage is almost certain. (ECTSI 8, p. 895)
Reason: The recovery position provides the patient with natural
12.
B drainage of secretions, it does not block respiratory efforts, and it
allows you to monitor the patient carefully.
13. Reason: Patients who have undergone surgical removal of the larynx
C
often have a permanent tracheal stoma. Therefore, mouth-to-stoma
 ventilations would be necessary. If any of the other techniques listed
were used, the ventilation would enter the stomach with little or no air
reaching the lungs. (ECTSI 8, p. 902)
Reason: Kneeling above the patient's head is the best position from
14.
A which to perform the jaw-thrust maneuver without overexerting
yourself or being uncomfortable. (ECTSI 8, p. 901)
15. Reason: Due to the faster heart rate in infants and children, the
C
minimum compression rate is 100 compressions/min
Reason: Blind finger sweeps are never performed on infants and
children with a foreign body airway obstruction. You should open the
16.
B mouth with a tongue-jaw lift and remove any objects only if you can
easily reach them. Both back blows and chest thrusts are performed
five times each. Abdominal thrusts are not indicated in infants.
Reason: This man has clearly identified himself as a physician,
17. presented a valid license to practice medicine, and has accepted full
B
responsibility for the patient. Therefore; it would be legally acceptable
to cease CPR.
Reason: Artificial ventilation often results in the stomach becoming
18. filled with air, called gastric distention. It is most likely to occur if
D
ventilation breaths are too hard, if several breaths are given rapidly in
a row, or if the patient's airway is obstructed. (ECTSI 8, pp. 902 - 903)
19. Reason: The ratio of chest compressions to relaxations during adult
A
CPR should be 1:1. (ECTSI 8, p. 905)
Reason: Since tuberculosis is transmitted via the droplet route via
aerosol transmission, it would pose the greatest threat to the EMT-B
20.
D while performing mouth-to-mouth without a barrier device. HIV and
hepatitis transmission could occur; however,it is much less likely as
these diseases are usually transmitted via blood. (ECTSI 8, p. 917)
Reason: This patient is displaying signs of obvious death; therefore
CPR should not be started. Signs of obvious death include the
absence of a pulse and breathing plus any one of the following: rigor
21.
B mortis (stiffening of the body after death); dependent lividity, or livor
mortis (a discoloration of the skin due to pooling of the blood);
putrefaction or decomposition of the body; or evidence of
nonsurvivable injury, such as decapitation. (ECTSI 8, p. 987)
Reason: Classically, a patient with a foreign-body airway obstruction
will grasp his or her throat (the universal sign of choking), turn
22.
B cyanotic, and then lose consciousness if the obstruction is not
relieved. All of the other choices could result in a sudden loss of
consciousness.
Reason: Nasal flaring suggests respiratory distress, as the patient
23.
C struggles to get more air. As such, it will not cause an airway
obstruction. (ECTSI 8, p. 900)
Reason: The two ways for you to best manage airway obstruction in a
24.
D conscious adult are by providing abdominal thrusts to dislodge the
foreign body.
Reason: In most cases, cardiac arrest in children younger than 9 years
25.
C of age results from respiratory arrest. If left untreated, respiratory
arrest will quickly lead to cardiac arrest and death. (ECTSI 8, p. 897)
26. Reason: Sudden airway obstruction in adults often occurs during
A
meals.
27. Reason: The brachial pulse is the easiest to access and evaluate in an
C
infant. (ECTSI 8, p. 909)
28. Reason: To perform chest compressions on an infant, place two
B
fingers on the lower half of the sternum. (ECTSI 8, p. 911)
Reason: The head tilt-chin lift maneuver is a simple technique that will
29. sometimes be all that is needed for the patient to begin breathing on
B
his or her own. However, if the patient has experienced traumatic
injuries resulting in a possible cervical spine injury, this movement of
 the head would be contraindicated. (ECTSI 8, p. 900)
30. Reason: The proper ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-
D
rescuer CPR is 30:2. (ECTSI 8, p. 909)
Reason: Advance directives, such as living wills, may express the
patient's wishes, but these documents are not binding for all
31.
C healthcare providers, especially outside of a hospital or nursing home.
The safest course is to assume that an emergency exists and begin
CPR under the rule of implied consent. (ECTSI 8, p. 898)
Reason: Of the interventions listed, only the Heimlich maneuver is a
32. BLS skill performed by EMT-Bs. Starting IV fluids, cardiac monitoring,
C
and manual defibrillation are considered advanced life support (ALS).
(ECTSI 8, pp. 894 - 896)