APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I ME

ACE
Engineering Academy
APPSC 2012 (Model Exam (PAPER III))
SUB: Mechanical Engineering Subjects
Branch: Mechanical Engineering
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
01. The definition of 1 K as per the internationally accepted temperature scale is
(a) 1/100
th
the difference between normal boiling point and normal freezing point of
water
(b) 1/273.15
th
the normal freezing point of water
(c) 100 times the difference between the triple point of water and the normal freezing
point of water
(d) 1/273.16
th
of the triple point of water
02. The specific heats of an ideal gas depend on its
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure
(c) Volume (d) Molecular weight and structure
03. For reversible adiabatic compression in a steady flow process, the work transfer per unit
mass is
(a)
}
pdv (b)
}
vdp (c)
}
TdS (d)
}
dT S
04. Heat and work are
(a) intensive properties (b) extensive properties
(c) point functions (d) path functions
05. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being
5000 kj. During the process, heat interaction of 2000 kj causes the surroundings to the
heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is
(a) 7000 kj (b) 3000 kj (c) + 3000 kj (d) +7000 kj
06. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while its
compressor consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the system
would be
(a) 1/4 (b) 4 (c) 1/3 (d) 3
07. During throttling of a gas
(a) internal energy increases. (b) enthalpy increases.
(c) entropy increases. (d) entropy decreases.
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A B C D
25kJ
60kJ
75kJ
50kJ
50kJ 25kJ 75kJ 40kJ
100kJ
100kJ 100kJ
100kJ
Q
A
Q
R
1000k
HB
CB
500K
08. Among the four hypothetical cycles A, B, C and D shown below, the two possible
cycles are :
(a) A, B
(b) A, D
(c) A, C
(d) B, C
09. In Carnot cycle with gas as working substance,
(a) W (isothermal expansion ) = W ( isentropic compression)
(b) W (isentropic expansion ) = W (isothermal expansion)
(c) W (isothermal compression) = W (isentropic compression)
(d) W (isentropic compression) = W (isentropic expansion)
10. At the critical point
(a) the specific volume of liquid is equal to the vapor
(b) the latent and vaporizartion is maximum
(c) both liquid and vapor phases can not co exist
(d) liquid and vapor have the same density, but specific heats might differ
11. The Clausius inequality is
(a)
}
= 0
T
dQ
(b)
}
> 0
T
dQ
(c)
}
s 0
T
dQ
(d)
}
= 0
T
dQ
12. A steam calorimeter is used to determne
(a) latent heat of evaporation (b) specific heat of steam
(c) dryness fraction of steam (d) sensible heat of steam
13. Water walls are used in,
(a) fire tube boilers burning lump coal
(b) fire tube boilers burning oil
(c) water tube boilers burning lump coal
(d) water tube boilers burning oil or pulverized coal
14. Balanced draught uses,
(a) FD only (b) ID only (c) both FD and ID (d) chimney only
15. A regenerative cycle gives,
(a) larger output and drier exhaust steam
(b) lower output and drier exhaust steam
(c) lower output with no change in quality of exhaust steam
(d) higher thermal efficiency and larger output
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16. When flow through a C D nozzle is maximum, the critical pressure ratio is the ratio of
(a) exist pressure to throat pressure (b) throat pressure to exist pressure
(c) exit pressure to inlet pressure (d) throat pressure to inlet pressure
17. Which fuel releases the most energy per kg on complete combustion
(a) Carbon (b) Sulphur (c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
18. A cycle consisting of two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric
processes is known as
(a) Atkinson cycle (b) Strirling cycle
(c) Brayton cycle (d) Ericsson cycle
19. A p-v diagram has been obtained from a test on a reciprocating compressor. Which of the
following represents that diagram?
20. For air with a relative humidity of 80%
(a) the dry bulb temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature
(b) the dew point-temperature is less than wet bulb temperature
(c) the dew point and wet bulb temperatures are equal
(d) the dry bulb and dew point temperatures are equal
21. During chemical dehumidification process of air
(a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease
(b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases
(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases
(d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase
22. For a given set of operating pressure limits of a Rankine cycle the highest efficiency
occurs for
(a) Saturated cycle (b) Superheated cycle
(c) Reheat cycle (d) Regenerative cycle
23. Which among the following is the boiler mounting?
(a) Blow of cock (b) Feed pump
(c) Economizer (d) Super-heater
P
P
out
P
in
V
(a)
p
P
out
P
in
V
c
V
(c)
p
P
out
P
in
V
c
V
(b)
p
P
out
P
in
V
c
V
(d)
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24. If V
N
and o are the nozzle exit velocity and nozzle angle in an impulse turbine, the
optimum blade velocity is given by
(a) o 2 cos V
N
(b) o 2 sin V
N
(c)
2
cos V
N
o
(d)
2
sin V
N
o
25. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reaction stage in a steam turbine are example
(a) different types of impulse stages
(b) different types of reaction stages
(c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity compounded impulse stage and reaction stage
(d) a velocity compounded impulse stage, a simple impulse stage and a reaction stage
26. A gas turbine cycle with heat exchange and reheating improves
(a) Only the thermal efficiency
(b) Only the specific power output
(c) Both thermal efficiency and specific power output
(d) Neither thermal efficiency nor specific power output
27. A dummy activity is used in PERT network to describe
(a) Precedence relationship (b) necessary time delay
(c) Resource restriction (d) resource idleness
28. If the demand for an item is doubled and the ordering cost halved, the economic order
quantity
(a) remains unchanged (b) increases by factor of 2
(c) is doubled (d) is halved
29. The most commonly used criteria for measuring forecast error is
(a) Mean absolute deviation (b) Mean absolute percentage error
(c) mean standard error (d) Mean square error
30. Which one of the following forecasting techniques us not suited for making forecasts
for planning production schedules in the short range ?
(a) Moving average (b) Exponential moving average
(c) Regression analysis (d) Delphi
31. Most commonly used refrigeration system is
(a) air refrigeration (b) thermo electric cooling
(c) vapour compression refrigeration (d) vapour absorption refrigeration
32. For the same cooling effect a closed system air refrigeration
(a) requires less airflow (b) requires more power
(c) gives higher COP (d) works with higher pressure ratio
33. For saturated air water mixtures
(a) the wet bulb temperature is equal to the dry bulb temperature
(b) the relative humidity is less than 100%
(c) the dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature
(d) the degree of saturation zero
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34. In case the wet bulb depression is zero, it can be concluded that
(a) rain is likely to occur (b) storm is likely to hit the place
(c) relative humidity is zero (d) relative humidity is 100%
35. In a reciprocating air compressor, the air undergoes a
(a) nonflow process (b) flow process
(c) cycle (d) nonflow adiabatic or polytropic process.
36. Work required to compress and deliver a given amount of air from p
1
and p
2
is minimum
when the process is
(a) isothermal (b) reversible adiabatic
(c) irreversible adiabatic (d) polytropic
37. Reciprocating air compressors are provided with clearance space to
(a) reduce the work of compression (b) keep delivery temperature low
(c) improve volumetric efficiency (d) provide space for the valves
38. Cut off ratio Diesel cycle is the ratio of the volume,
(a) after heat addition to the volume before heat addition
(b) before heat addition to the volume after heat addition
(c) before compression to the volume after compression
(d) after expansion to the volume before expansion
39. For same p
max
and T
max '
(a) Diesel cycle has more Q
R
(b) Otto cycle has more Q
R
(c) Diesel cycle has more Q
A
(d) Otto cycle has more Q
A
40. For a four stroke IC engine running at 2000 rpm, the camshaft rpm is
(a) 4000 (b) 2000 (c) 1000 (d) 500
41. In four stroke Diesel engines the exhaust valve opens
(a) after BDC and closes at TDC (b) before BDC and closes after TDC.
(c) before BDC and closes before TDC (d) after BDC and closes after TDC
42. The anti knock quality of S.l engine fuel is best in
(a) aromatic (b) olefin (c) paraffin (d) naphlthene
43. Morse test gives
(a) indicated mep. (b) brake mep. (c) indicated power (d) brake power
44. In a steam power plant, feed water heater is a heat exchanger to preheat feedwater by
(a) live steam from steam generator
(b) hot flue gases coming out of the boiler furnace
(c) hot air from air preheater
(d) extracting steam from turbine
45. The main aim of compounding steam turbine is to
(a) improve efficiency (b) reduce steam consumption
(c) reduce motor speed (d) reduce turbine size
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46. Economizer is generally placed between
(a) last superheater/reheater and air preheater
(b) air preheater and chimney
(c) electrostatic precipitators
(d) induce draft fan and forced draft fan
47. For a closed system, the difference between he heat added to the system and the work
done by the system is equal to the change in
(a) enthalpy (b) entropy
(c) temperature (d) internal energy
48. A good refrigerant should have:
(a) High latent heat of vaporization and low freezing point
(b) High operating pressure and low freezing point
(c) High specific volume and high latent heat of vaporization.
(d) Low COP and low freezing point.
49. For the two shafts connected in parallel, find which statement is true?
(a) Torque in each shaft is the same
(b) Shear stress in each shaft is the same
(c) Angle of twist of each shaft is the same
(d) Torsional stiffness f each shift is the same
50. In Bedaux skill and effort rating, a normal worker is rated at
(a) B (b) 60B (c) 100B (d) 144B
51. The force required for piercing a round hole when the die and punch are not provided
with any shear is given by
(a) L S T (b) tD S (c) D L S T (d) t D S T
Where L = length of die land, D = diameter of hole, T = thickness, S = sham strength
52. Which of the following is true about following specifications Hex Bolt M 16 NL IS:
1363
(a) 16 eye bolts used on electric motors
(b) a stress relieved blot for connecting rod
(c) a bolt with a nut
(d) a bolt with a nut and a lock nut
53. What does symbol imply in work study
(a) Operation (b) Inspection (c) Transport (d) Permanent storage
54. Work study is done with the help of
(a) Process chart (b) Material handling
(c) Stop watch (d) All of the above
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55. Gnatt chart provides information about the
(a) Material handling (b) Proper utilization of manpower
(c) Production schedule (d) Efficient working of machine
56. The term value in value engineering refers to
(a) Total cost of the product (b) Selling price of the product
(c) Utility of the product (d) Manufactured cost of the product
57. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(a) Bacth production (b) Job production
(c) Mass production (d) All of the above
58. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
(a) Creep (b) Fatigue (c) Endurance (d) Plastic deformation
59. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha
iron is
(a) 770
0
C (b) 910
0
C (c) 1050
0
C
(d) Below recrystallisation temperature
60. In malleable iorn, carbon is present in the form of
(a) Cementite (b) Free carbon (c) Flakes
(d) Nodular aggregates of graphite
61. Connecting rod is usually made of
(a) Aluminium (b) Low carbon steel
(c) Medium carbon steel (d) High carbone
62. The following element cant impart high strength at elevated temperature
(a) Manganese (b) Magnesium (c) Nickel (d) Silicon
63. Which of the following is used for bearing liner
(a) Gun metal (b) Bronze (c) Bell metal (d) Babbit metal
64. Neutral solution is one which has pH value
(a) Greater than 7 (b) Less than 7
(c) Equal to 7 (d) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
65. The binding material for cementite car bide tools is
(a) Iron (b) Chromium (c) Nickel (d) Cobalt
66. Conversion of an octal number 20
8
to its binary number is
(a) 10000
2
(b) 10111
2
(c) 10110
2
(d) 11110
2
67. Which of the following can be output by a computer?
(a) Graphics (b) Voice (c) Text (d) All of the above
68. A half byte is know is
(a) Data (b) Bit (c) Half byte (d) Nibble
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69. Which company is the biggest player in the microprocessor industry?
(a) Motorola (b) IBM (c) Intel (d) AMD
70. A medium for transferring data between two locations is called
(a) Network (b) Communication Channel (c) Modem (d) Bus
71. A program language:
(a) Defines the form of the instruction (b) Is always machine dependent
(c) Is never machine dependent (d) All of the above
72. CAD/CAM is the inter-relationship between:
(a) Manufacturing and Marketing (b) Marketing & Decision
(c) Engineering and Marketing (d) Engineering Manufacturing
73. Which of the following is a graphical input device?
(a) Light Pen (b) Keyboard (c) Mouse (d) Track ball
74. Resistance is measured in ?
(a) Volts (b) Amps (d) Watts (d) Ohms
75. Process is
(a) Program in High level language kept on disk
(b) Contents of main memory
(c) a program in execution
(d) A job in secondary memory
76. In are welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by
(a) Flow of current (b) Voltage
(c) Material characteristics (d) Contact resistance
77. Following gases are used in tungsten inert gas welding
(a) Hydrogen and oxygen (b) CO
2
and H
2
(c) Argon and neon (d) Argon and helium
78. Seam welding is
(a) Multi spot welding process (b) Continuous spot welding process
(c) Used to form mesh (d) Used for welding cylindrical objects
79. Preheating is essential in welding
(a) High speed steel (b) Stainless steel
(c) Cast iron (d) German silver
80. The brazing metals and alloys commonly used are
(a) Copper (b) Copper alloys
(c) Silver alloys (d) All of the above
81. In arc welding, temperature of the following order may be generated
(a) 1000
0
C (b) 1500
0
C (c) 5500
0
C (d) 8000
0
C
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82. In reverse polarity welding
(a) Electrode holder is connected to the negative and work to positive
(b) Electrode holder is connected to the positive and work to negative
(c) Work is positive and holder is earthed
(d) Holder is positive and work is earthed
83. Moulding sands can contain following percentage of maximum quantity of moisture
(a) 2.5% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 12%
84. Cope in foundry practice refers to
(a) Bottom half of moulding box (b) Top half of moulding box
(c) Middle portion of the moulding box (d) Coating on the mould face
85. Which of the following materials has more shrinkage allowance
(a) Cast iron (b) Brass (c) Lead (d) Aluminium alloy
86. In a permanent mould casting method
(a) Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity
(b) Metal is poured into die cavity, and after a predetermined time the mould is inverted
to permit a part of metal still in molten state to flow out of cavity
(c) Cavity is filled with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or plunger is
inserted to force the metal into cavity
(d) Metal is forced into mould under high pressure
87. Centrifugal method of casting is used to
(a) Ensure purity and density at extremities of a casting
(b) Cast symmetrical objects
(c) Obtain high density and pure castings
(d) Use heavy cast iron mould to act as chill
88. In die casting process
(a) Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity
(b) Metal is poured into die cavity, and after a predetermined time the mould is inverted
to permit a part of metal still in molten state to flow out of cavity
(c) Cavity is filled with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or plunger is
inserted to force the metal into cavity
(d) Metal is forced into mould under high pressure
89. Blanking and piercing operation can be performed simulataneously in
(a) Simple die (b) Progressive die
(c) Compound die (d) Combination die
90. The workpiece motion and tool motion respectively in a horizontal boring machine are
(a) Stationary and rotational (b) Rotational and translational
(c) Translational and rotational (d) Stationary and rotational with translation
91. Internal or external tapers on a turret lathe can be turned by
(a) Face turning attachment (b) taper turning attachment
(c) Sliding attachment (d) Morse taper attachment
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92. To clean a file, it is
(a) Dipped in water (b) Dipped in dilute alcohol
(c) Rubbed on stone (d) Rubbed on stone
93. Tool life is said to be over if
(a) A poor surface finish is obtained
(b) Sudden increase in power and cutting force with chattering take place
(c) Overheating and fuming due to friction start
(d) All of the above
94. A left hand tool on lathe cuts most efficiently when tool travels
(a) From left to right end of lathe bed (b) From right to left end of lathe bed
(c) Across bed (d) At angular position
95. In the electro discharge machining process, the workpiece and the electrode are
submerged in
(a) A dielectric fluid (b) An abrasive slurry
(c) An electrolytic solution (d) Vacuum
96. If the diameter of a job being machined on lathe is doubled and speed is halved, the
cutting time will be
(a) Same (b) Half (c) Double (d) Four time
97. Electron beam machining process is suitable for the following type of material
(a) Low melting point and high thermal conductivity
(b) low melting point and low thermal conductivity
(c) High melting point and high thermal conductivity
(d) High melting point and high thermal conductivity
98. The angle between the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of the cutting
tool is called
(a) Rake angle (b) Cutting angle (c) Clearance angle (d) Lip angle
99. Trepanning operation is performed for
(a) Finishing a drilled hole (b) Truing a hole for alignment
(c) Producing large hole (d) Sizing a small hole
100. In the Taylor equation VT
n
= C, value of index n is closely related to
(a) Workpiece material (b) Cutting tool material
(c) Working conditions (d) Temperature at chip tool interface
101. The relationship between the shear angle |. Friction angle | and cutting rake angle o,
and the machining constant C for the work material is
(a) C 2 = o | + | (b) C 2 = | | + o
(c) C 2 = | o + | (d) C 2 = | o + |
102. Drilling is an example of
(a) simple cutting (b) uniform cutting
(d) orthogonal cutting (d) oblique cutting
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103. A grinding wheel is completely specified by the following elements taken in order
(a) type of abrasive, grain size, grade, structure, bond
(b) grain size, grade, structure, type of abrasive, bond
(c) structure, bond, grain size, type of abrasive, grade
(d) bond, structure, grain size, type of abrasive, grade, bond
104. The instruction on the tape of NC machine is prepared in the form of following system
(a) numeric (b) alpha-numeric
(c) binary numbers (d) binary coded decimal
105. Plug gauges are used to
(a) measure the diameter of the workpieces
(b) measure the diameter of the holes in the workpieces
(c) check the diameter of the holes in the workpieces
(d) check the length of the holes in the workpieces
106. A mechanism is an assemblage of
(a) two links (b) three links
(c) four links or more than four links (d) all of the above
107. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of turning and sliding pairs
(a) 1, 3 (b) 2, 2 (c) 3, 1 (d) 4, 0
108. The tendency of a body to resit change from rest or motion is known as
(a) mass (b) friction (c) inertia (d) resisting
109. flexible coupling is used because
(a) it is easy to disassemble
(b) it is easy to engage and disengage
(c) it transmits shocks gradually
(d) it prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress reversals.
110. With single Hokkes joint it is possible to connect two shafts, the axes of which have an
angular misalignement upto
(a) 10
0
(b) 20
0
(c) 30
0
(d) 40
0
111. The Hooks joint consists of :
(a) two forks (b) one fork (c) three forks (d) four forks
112. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile is by means of
(a) compound gears (b) worm and wheel method
(c) Hookes joint (d) crown gear
113. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is
(a) less (b) more
(c) equal (d) may be less or more depending on efficiency
114. The moment on the pulley which products rotation is called
(a) inertia (b) momentum
(c) moment of momentum (d) torque
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115. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor
interesting, use
(a) spur gear (b) spiral gear (c) bevel gear (d) worm gear
116. The function of balancing a prime mover is to
(a) keep speed constant
(b) keep power output constant
(c) overcome and minimize inertia force
(d) eliminate partially or completely the effects due to resultant force and couple
117. The type of teeth provided on a gear used in sugar crushing machinery is
(a) involute (b) paraboloid (c) hyperboloid (d) cycloidal
118. 389.Under the condition of resonance for a vibrating body, the displacement would lag
behind the disturbing force, i.e., phase angle would be
(a) 0
0
(b) 45
0
(c) 90
0
(d) 180
0
119. In SHM, the product of periodic time and frequency is equal
(a) zero (b) unity (c) t (d) 2t
120. A shaft carrying two rotors at ends will have following number of nodes
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
121. A shaft carrying three rotors will have following number of nodes
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
122. In vibration isolation system, if
n
e
e
> 1, then the phase difference between the
transmitted force and the disturbing force is
(a) increases linearly (b) increases exponentially
(c) decreases linearly (d) decreases exponentially
123. For steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance condition is
(a) 0
0
(b) 45
0
(c) 90
0
(d) 180
0
124. The frequency of damped oscillations in the dry friction damping, as compared to
undamped vibration is
(a) equal (b) less (c) more (d) independent
125. For a vibrating body under steady state forced vibrations, if ratio e/e
n
is very low, the
phase angle would tend to approach
(a) 0
0
(b) 90
0
(c) 180
0
(d) 270
0
126. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by
(a) conduction (b) convection (c) radiation (d) (a) & (c)
127. Which of the following has least value of conductivity
(a) glass (b) water (c) plastic (d) air
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128. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon
(a) its temperature (b) nature of the body
(c) kind and extent of its surface (d) all of the above
129. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is
(a) higher (b) lower (c) same (d) all of the above
130. A perfect black body is one which
(a) is black in colour
(b) reflects all heat
(c) transmits all heat radiations
(d) absorbs heat radiations of all wave length falling on it
131. The heat transfer equation
4
AT Q o = is known as
(a) Fourier equation (b) Laplaces equation
(c) Poisson equation (d) Stefan-Boltzmann equation
132. All radiations in a black body are
(a) reflected (b) refracted
(c) transmitted (d) absorbed
133. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperature is largely in the range
of
(a) shorter wavelength (b) longer wavelength
(c) remains same at all wavelengths (d) none of the above
134. When a shaft transmits power through gears, the shaft experiences
(a) Torsional stresses only
(b) Bending stresses alone
(c) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses
(d) Varying bending and constant torsional stresses
135. The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice that of its inside diameter. The torque-
carrying capacity of this shaft is Mt
1
. A solid shaft of the same material has the diameter
equal to the outside diameter of the hollow shaft. The solid shaft can carry a torque of
Mt2. The ratio Mt1 / Mt2 is
(a) 15/16 (b) 3/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/16
136. A member is subjected to the combined action of bending moment 400 Nm and torque
300 Nm. What respectively are the equivalent bending moment and equivalent torque?
(a) 450 Nm and 500 Nm (b) 900 Nm and 350 Nm
(c) 900 Nm and 500 Nm (d) 400 Nm and 500 Nm
137. What is the efficiency of a self-locking power screw ?
(a) 70% (b) 60% (c) 55% (d) < 50%
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138. The frictional torque for square thread at mean radius while raising the load is given by
(W = load, R = mean radius, = angle of friction, = helix angle )
(a) WR tan( ) (b) WR tan( + )
(c) WR tan (d) WR tan
139. A spur gear transmitting power is connected to the shaft with a key of rectangular
cross section, the type of stresses developed in key is/are
(a) Shear stress alone (b) Bearing stress alone
(c) Both shear and bearing stress (d) Bearing stress alone
140. Which key is preferred for the condition where a large amount of impact type torque is
to be transmitted in both direction of rotation
(a) Woodruff key (b) Feather key
(c) Gib-head key (d) Tangent key
141. With regard to belt drives with given pulley diameters, center distance and coefficient
of friction between the pulley and the belt materials, which of the statements below are
FALSE?
(a) A crossed flat belt configuration can transmit more power than an open flat belt
configuration.
(b) A V- belt has greater power transmission capacity than an open flat belt.
(c) Power transmission is greater when belt tension is higher due to centrifugal
effects than the same belt drive when centrifugal effects are absent.
(d) Power transmission is the greatest just before the point of slipping is reached.
142. In multiple V belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the
complete set to
(a) Reduce vibration (b) Reduce slip
(c) Ensure uniform loading (d) Ensure proper alignment
143. Consider the following:
V-belts are specified by their
1. nominal inside length in mm 2. nominal pitch length
3. belt cross section symbol 4. weight/unit length of the belt
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
144. Spur gears are used for
(a) connecting intersecting shafts to transmit power
(b) connecting two parallel shafts to transmit power
(c) connecting skew shafts
(d) any orientation of shafts
ACE :: 15 :: ACE
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I ME
145. Twenty degree full depth involute profile 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gears are in
mesh.
The center distance between the gear wheel pair is 140 mm, then module is
(a) 10 mm (b) 5 mm (c) 2.5 mm (d) 8 mm
146. A spur gear transmits 10 kw at a pitch line velocity of 600 meters per minute driving a
gear has a diameter of 100 mm. Find the tangential force between the driver and the
driven, and the transmitted torque respectively
(a) 1 KN and 1 KN m (b) 1 KN and 50 N-m
(c) 10 KN and 5Kn-m (d) 10 KN and 500 N-mm
147. The number of effective surfaces with 5 steel and 4 bronze plates in multiple plate
clutch is
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 4
148. Torque transmitted by friction clutch
(a) is more on the assumption of uniform pressure as compared to uniform wear
(b) is less on the assumption of uniform pressure as compared to uniform wear
(c) is same on the assumption of uniform pressure and uniform wear
(d) is more or less on the assumption of uniform pressure as compared to uniform wear
depends on material of frictional surfaces
149. Life of the roller bearing is given in million number of cycles by
(a)
3
W
C
|

(b)
10/3
W
C
|

(c)
2.5
W
C
|

(d)
2
W
C
|

150. Tapered roller bearing is preferred for

(a) radial loads only (b) axial loads only
(c) both axial and Radial loads (d) thrust loads only
END OF THE PAPER