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JEE - MAIN

CHEMISTRY (Part-A)

1. Consider the following statements :
I. Atomic hydrogen is obtained by passing hydrogen
through an electric arc.
II. Hydrogen gas will not reduce heated aluminium
oxide
III. Finely divided palladium adsorbs large volume
of hydrogen gas
IV. Pure nascent hydrogen is best obtained by
reacting Na with C
2
H
5
OH
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) I alone (2) II alone
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV

2. When ethanal reacts with CH
3
MgBr and C
2
H
5
OH/dry
HCl, the product formed are -
(1) ethyl alcohol and 2-Propanol
(2) ethane and hemi-acetal
(3) 2-propanol and acetal
(4) propane and ethyl acetate

3. How many moles of CH
3
I will react with one mole of
the ethylamine to form a quarternary salt ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

4. 26.8 g of Na
2
SO
4
nH
2
O contains 12.6 g of water .
The value of n s
(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 6 (4) 7

5. The concentration of oxalic acid isx mol litre
1
40
mL of this solution reacts with 16 mL of 0.05 M
acidified KMnO
4
. What is the pH of 'x' M oxalic acid
solution (Assume that oxalic acid dissociates
completely)
(1) 1.3 (2) 1.699 (3) 0.05 (4) 2
6. Which pair of species given below produce bakelite?
(1) phenol, methanol
(2) phenol, NaOH
(3) phenol, urea
(4) phenol, formaldehyde

7. A drug that is antipyretic as well as analgesic is-
(1) Chloroquin
(2) Penicillin
(3) Paracetamol
(4) Chloropromazine hydrochloride

8. Which of the following can possibly be used as
analgesic without causing addiction and
modifications ?
(1) Morphine
(2) N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol
(3) Diazepam
(4) Tetrahydrocatenol

9. Na
2
HPO
4
is used to test -
(1) Ca
+2
(2) Ba
+2

(3) Ni
+2
(4) Mg
+2


10. 1 mole of N
2
& 3 mole of H
2
filled in one litre bulb
were allowed to reaction when the reaction attained
equilibrium, two third of N
2
converted to NH
3
. If a
hole is then made in the bulb, the mole ratio of the
gases N
2
, H
2
& NH
3
effusing out initially would be
respectively -
(1) 1 : 3 : 4 (2) 28 : 2 : 17
(3)
28
1
:
2
1
:
17
1
(4)
28
1
:
2
3
:
17
4


11. Which of the following is not a state function -
(1) q + w (2) Q/T
(3) E + PV (4) Q/W

12. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of
following alcohols would be -


Ph CH CH CH
3
CH
3
OH
{P}



Ph CH CH
2
CH
2
OH
CH
3
{Q}

Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 360

Instructions :
There are three parts in question paper A, B, C consisting of chemistry, Physics & Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted four marks for each correct response.
1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.


Ph C CH
2
CH
3

CH
3

{R}
OH



Ph C CH
2
OH
CH
3

{S}
CH
3

(1) R > P > Q > S (2) P > R > S > Q
(3) R > S > P > Q (4) R > S > Q > P

13. The ether

O CH
2 when treated with
HI produces
[I]

CH
2
I [II]

CH
2
OH
[III]

I [IV]

OH
(1) I and III (2) Only II
(3) I and IV (4) Only III

14. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mole of N
2
and 0.6 mole of
H
2
react to give NH
3
according to the equation, N
2
(g)
+ 3H
2
(g) 2NH
3
(g) at constant temperature and
pressure. Then the ratio of the final volume to the
initial volume of gases are :
(1) 4 : 5 (2) 5 : 4 (3) 7 : 10 (4) 8 : 5

15. G for the reaction, X + Y Z is 4.606 kcal. The
equilibrium constant for the reaction at 227C is
(1) 100 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 0.01

16. According to Bronsted Lowry concept, the correct
order of strength of bases follows the order :
(1) CH
3
COO

> OH

> Cl


(2) OH

> CH
3
COO

> Cl


(3) CH
3
COO

> Cl

> OH



(4) OH

> Cl

> CH
3
COO



17. The element having the highest ionization energy has
the outer shell configuration as -
(1) ns
2
np
3
(2) ns
2
np
6
(3) ns
2
(4) ns
2
np
5
18. Which of the following processes is exothermic ?
(1) EA of N (2) IE of O

(3) EA of Cl (4) IE of Cl

19. Which of the following is not correct ?
(1) XeO
3
has pyramidal shape
(2) The hybrid state of Xe in XeF
4
is sp
3
d
2
(3) In calcium carbide, between carbon atoms one
sigma and two -bonds are present
(4) In silica(SiO
2
), one Si atom is attached with two
oxygen atoms

20. Which of the following contains minimum number of
lone pairs around Xe atom ?
(1) XeF
4
(2) XeF
6

(3) XeOF
2
(4) XeF
2


21. The two isomers X and Y with the formula
Cr(H
2
O)
5
CIBr
2
were taken for experiment on
depression in freezing point. It was found that one
mole of X gave depression corresponding to 2 moles
of particles and one mole of Y gave depression due to
3 moles of particles. The structural formulae of X and
Y respectively are -
(1) [Cr(H
2
O)
5
Cl]Br
2
; [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Br
2
]ClH
2
O
(2) [Cr(H
2
O)
5
Cl]Br
2
; [Cr(H
2
O)
3
CIBr
2
] 2 H
2
O
(3) [Cr(H
2
O)
5
Br]BrCl; [Cr(H
2
O)
4
CIBr] Br H
2
O
(4) [Cr(H
2
O)
4
Br
2
]ClH
2
O; [Cr(H
2
O)
5
Cl]Br
2

22 Rates of addition of Cl
2
/H
2
O of the following alkenes
are

H
2
C=CH
2
(P)
H
2
C=CHCH
(Q)
O

CH
3
CH
2
HC=CH
2
(R)
CH
3
C=CH
2
(S)

CH
3

(1) S > R > P > Q (2) S > P > Q > R
(3) P > Q > R > S (4) P > Q > S > R

23.

(i) Na/ NH3(l)
(ii) C2
H
5
OH
(i) O3
(ii) H
2
O-Zn
(A)

Product
Product will be -
(1) CHOCHO
(2) CHOCH
2
CHO
(3)

CH
3
CCCH
3
O O

(4) CHOCHO & CHOCH
2
CHO

24. In the reaction


CH
3
CHCH
2
Br
(i) X mole NaNH2
(ii) C2H5Br
Br
CH
3
CCC
2
H
5


The value of [X] is
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

25. Relate the following compounds -
C
F
Cl
Br
C
Cl
F
Br
C
F
Br
Cl
C
Br
F
Cl
R
R
R
S

(1) Identical (2) Enantiomer
(3) Diastereomers (4) Meso

26. The correct order of acidic strength of following acid
is -

COOH
OH
(I)
COOH
OH
(II)
HO
COOH
CH
3
(III)
COOH
(IV)
OH

(1) II > I > III > IV (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III (4) II > IV > I > III

27. In the phenomenon of osmosis, the semipermeable
membrane allows the passage of
(1) solute particles
(2) solvent molecules only
(3) both solute and solvent
(4) none

28. What is the contribution of the atom present at the
edge centre to the cubic unit cell ?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/8 (4) 1

29. In the cell, Zn | Zn
2+
| | Cu
2+
| Cu, the negative
terminal is -
(1) Cu (2) Cu
2+

(3) Zn (4) Zn
2+


30. Assign double bond configuration of the following -
COOH
CH
2
OH
NC
H
2
NH
2
C
CN

(1) E, Z (2) Z, Z
(3) E, E (4) Z, E


MATHEMATICS (Part-B)


31. f(x) = log 25
2
x
and g(x) = log
x
5

then f(x) = g(x)
holds for x belonging to -
(1) R (2) (0, 1) (1, )
(3) (4) none

32. The area enclosed by the parabola y
2
= 4ax between
the ordinates x = a and x = 9a is -
(1) 8a
2
(2) 108
3
2
a
(3) 208
3
2
a
(4) a
2

33. If S

0
1
r
r
, then

S
n
1
) 1 ( =
(1)
2
) 1 ( n n
(2)
2
) 1 ( + n n

(3)
2
) 2 ( + n n
(4) none of these

34. If
k
(
(
(
(

|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
|
.
|

\
|
7
2
cos
7
2
sin
7
2
sin
7
2
cos
=
(

1 0
0 1
, Then the least
positive integral value of k is -
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 3 (4) 4

35. The number of 2 digit numbers , which are of the
form xy with y < x are given by
(1) 45 (2) 55 (3) 17 (4) None

36. Let A, B, C be three independent events such that
P(A) =
3
1
, P(B) =
2
1
, P(C) =
4
1
. Then probability of
exactly two events occuring out of three events is -
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3
(3) 1/4 (4) none of these

37. If a variable x takes values x
i
such that a x
i
b, for
i = 1, 2, ---- n, then -
(1) a Var (x) b (2) a
2
Var (x) b
2
(3)
4
2
a
Var (x) (4) (b a)
2
Var (x)

38. A variable line has it's intercepts on the coordinate
axes e, e' where
2
e
,
2
' e
are eccentricies of
hyperbola and it's conjugate hyperbola then the line
always touches the circle x
2
+ y
2
= r
2
, where r = ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) cannot be decided

39. If it is possible to draw a line which belongs to all the
given family of lines y 2x + 1 +
1
(2y x 1) = 0, 3y
x 6 +
2
(y 3x + 6) = 0 and
ax + y 2 +
3
(6x + ay a) = 0 , then -
(1) a = 4 (2) a = 3
(3) a = 2 (4) a = 2

40. If (, 0) is an interior point of ABC formed by the
lines x y = 0, 4x + 3y 12 = 0 and y + 2 = 0 then
integral values of are
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 8
41. ABCD is a square of unit area. A circle is tangent to
two sides of ABCD and passes through exactly one of
its vertices. The radius of the circle is -
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 1
(3)
2
1
(4)
2
1


42. If A, B, C, D are four points in space satisfying
AB . CD = k[| AD|
2
+ | BC |
2
| AC |
2
| BD |
2
] then
the value of k is
(1) 2 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/2 (4) 1

43. Unit vectors a
r
, b
r
and c
r
are coplanar. A unit vector
d
r
is perpendicular to them . If
) ( ) ( d c b a
r
r
r
r
= k j i

3
1

3
1

6
1
+
and the angle between a
r
and b
r
is 30, then c
r
is -
(1)
3
)

( k j i +
(2)
3
)

2 ( k j i +

(3)
3
)

2

2 ( k j i +
(4)
3
)

( k j i +


44. If the shortest distance between the lines
L
1
:
1
1 x
=
1
y
=
2
z
and L
2
:
2
1 + x
=
2
y
=

3 z
is
unity then is equal to -
(1) 20 222 (2) 20 221
(3) 20 224 (4) none of these

45. The direction ratios l, m, n of two lines are connected
by the relations l + m + n = 0 and lm = 0 then angle
between them is -
(1)
3

(2)
4


(3)
2

(4) 0
46. Let f(x) =


<
0 ; ] [
0 ; 5
/ 1
x x
x
x
; R then at x = 0
(1) f is discontinuous
(2) f is continuous only if = 0
(3) f is continuous whatever may be
(4) None

47. If R = {(x, y) : x, y Z} , x
2
+ y
2
4 is relation in Z,
then D
R
is -
(1) {2, 1, 0, 1, 2} (2) {2, 1, 0}
(3) {0, 1, 2} (4) None of these
48. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = { 4, 5, 6} then which of the
following sets are relation from A to B ?
(i) R
1
= {(4, 2) (2, 6) (5, 1) (2, 4)}
(ii) R
2
= {(1, 4) (1, 5) (3, 6) (2, 6) (3, 4)}
(iii) R
3 = {(1, 5) (2, 4) (3, 6)}
(iv) R
4
= {(1, 4) (1, 5) (1, 6)}
(1) R
1
, R
2
, R
3
(2) R
1
, R
3
, R
4

(3) R
2
, R
3
, R
4
(4) R
1
, R
2
, R
3
, R
4

49. If the area of the triangle on the complex plane
formed by the complex numbers z, z, z + z is
100
3
square units then |z + z| equals
(1) 5 (2) 1/5 (3) |z| (4) |z|
50. f (x) = x
2
4 x ax , (a > 0) then f (x) is -
(1) Increasing in (0, 3a), decreasing in
( , 0) (3a, )
(2) Increasing in (a, 4a) decreasing in (5a, )
(3) Increasing in (0, 4a), decreasing in ( , 0)
(4) None of these

51. Let f(x) be a twice differentiable function for all real
values of x & satisfies f (1) = 1, f (2) = 4, f (3) = 9.
then which of the following is true -
(1) f "(x) = 2 for x (1, 3)
(2) f "(x) = f ' (x) = 5 for some x (2, 3)
(3) f "(x) = 3 x (2, 3)
(4) f "(x) = 2 for some x (1, 3)

52.

x
x
6
2
cos
sin
dx is a -
(1) polynomial of degree 5 in sin x
(2) polynomial of degree 4 in tan x
(3) polynomial of degree 5 in tan x
(4) polynomial of degree 5 in cos x

53. The real value of m for which the substitution,
y = u
m
will transform the differential equation,
2x
4
y
dx
dy
+ y
2
= 4x
6
into a homogeneous equation is -
(1) m = 0 (2) m = 1
(3) m = 3/2 (4) no value of m

54. The mirror image of the parabola y
2
= 4x in the
tangent to the parabola at the point (1, 2) is -
(1) (x 1)
2
= 4(y + 1) (2) (x + 1)
2
= 4(y + 1)
(3) (x + 1)
2
= 4(y 1) (4) (x 1)
2
= 4(y 1)

55. Let f(x) = minimum ({x + 1}, {x 1}) x R,
where{.} denotes the fractional part, then

4
5
f (x) d(x) =
(1) 9/2 (2)
2
1
(3) 9 (4) None

Statement based questions : (Q. No. 56 to 60)

Each of these questions contains two statements.
Statement-I and Statement-II. Each of these has four
alternatives choices. You have to select the correct
choice.
(1) If both statement-I and statement-II are true but
statement-II is not the correct explanation of
statement-I.
(2) If both statement-I and statement- II are true,
and statement-II is correct explanation of
Statement-I.
(3) If statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) If statement-I is false but statement-II is true

56. Statement I : Let h(x) =x
m/n
for x R, where m & n
are odd No. & 0 < m < n then y = h (x) has no
Extreme.
Statement II : If h' (x) does not change sign in
neighborhood of x = a then x = a is not an Extreme pt.

57. Statement I : If a
2
x
4
+ b
2
y
4
= c
6
then maximum
value of xy is
ab
c
2
3
.
Statement II : For any + ve f(x), AM GM

58. Let A and B are two independent events in a sample
space.
Statement I : If P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4, Then
P (AB ) = 0.18.
Statement II : P(AB ) = P(A) P(A) P(B)

59. Statement I : If p and q two statements then contra
positive of conditional statement q q p ) ( ~ is
( ) q p q ~ ~ .
Statement II : If ~ (p q) = ~ p ~ q.

60. Let C
1
be the circle with centre O
1
(0, 0) and radius 1
and C
2
be the circle with centre O
2
(t, t
2
+ 1),
t R and radius 2
Statement I : Circle C
1
and C
2
always have at least
one common tangent for any value of t.
Statement II : For the two circles O
1
O
2
|r
1
r
2
|
where r
1
and r
2
are their radii for any value of t.


PHYSICS (Part-C)

These questions of two statements each, printed as
statement-1 & statement-2. While answering these
Questions you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(1) If both statement-1 and statement-2 are true but
statement-2 is not a correct explanation of the
statement-1.
(2) If both statement-1 & statement-2 are true & the
statement-2 is a correct explanation of the
statement-1.
(3) If statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false.
(4) If statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true.

61. Statement1 : Average energy in the interference
pattern is the same as it would be if there were no
interference.
Statement2 : Interference is the only rare
phenomenon in which law of conservation of energy
does not hold good.

62. A light ray is incident upon a prism in minimum
deviation position and suffers a deviation of 34. If the
shaded half of the prism is knocked of, the ray will


(1) suffer a deviation of 34
(2) suffer a deviation of 68
(3) suffer a deviation of 17
(4) not come out of the prism

63. A father (60 kg) and his daughter (20 kg) are both at
rest on a frictionless ice pond. The father lifts a 1 kg
ball and throws it to his daughter with horizontal
speed 5 ms
1
; the daughter catches it. The speeds of
father and daughter are (in ms
1
) is
(1) 1/12, 5/21 (2) 5/59, 1/4
(3) 5/61, 1/4 (4) 5/59, 5/21

64. A large sheet carries uniform surface charge density
. A rod of length 2l has a linear charge density on
one half and on the other half. The rod is hinged
at mid-point O and makes angle with the normal to
the sheet. The torque experienced by the rod is -
+
O

+


(1)
0
2
2
l
cos (2)
0

l
cos
2

(3)
0
2
2
l
sin (4)
0

l
sin
2


65. A body cools from 60C to 50C in 10 minutes. If the
room temperature is 25C and assuming Newton's
law of cooling to hold good the temperature of the
body at the end of the next 10 minutes will be -
(1) 38.5C (2) 40C (3) 42.85C (4) 45C

66. A passenger is at a distance of x from a bus when the
bus begins to move with constant acceleration a.
What is the minimum velocity with which the
passenger should run towards the bus so as to reach it
(1) ax 2 (2) 2ax (3) ax (4) ax

67. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms
1
on a straight
road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s.
If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist,
with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus ?
(1) 40 ms
1
(2) 25 ms
1

(3) 10 ms
1
(4) 20 ms
1

6'8. For a equilateral glass prism the angle of minimum
deviation is 30, then refractive index of prism is -
(1)
2
1
(2) 2 (3)
2
1
(4)
2
3


69. A zener diode is to be used as voltage regulator.
Identify the correct set up -
(1)

R
S



R
L


(2)

R
S



R
L


(3)

R
S



R
L

(4)

R
S



R
L






Passage : (Q. No. 70 to 72)


Bulb 1
Bulb 2
12 volt
+

A 12 volt battery is connected in two light bulbs, as
shown in figure. Light bulb 1 has resistance 3 while
light bulb 2 has resistance 6. The battery has
essentially no internal resistance and all the wires are
essentially resistanceless too. When a light bulb is
unscrewed, no current flows through that branch of
the circuit. For instance, if light bulb 2 is unscrewed,
current flows only around the lower loop of the
circuit, which consists of the battery and light bulb 1.
When two resistance are joined in series, their
equivalent resistances R
eq.
= R
1
+ R
2
but when two
resistances are wired in parallel. Their net resistance
is given by:

2 1 .
1 1 1
R R R
eq
+ =

70. When bulb 1 is screwed in, but bulb 2 is unscrewed, the
power generated in bulb 1 is -
(1) 4 watt (2) 12 watt
(3) 36 watt (4) 48 watt

71. Bulb 2 is now screwed in, as a result, bulb 1 -
(1) turns off
(2) becomes dimmer
(3) stays about the same brightness
(4) becomes brighter

72. When both light bulbs are screwed in, the current
through the battery is -
(1) 1.2 ampere (2) 2 ampere
(3) 4 ampere (4) 6 ampere

73. String 1 has twice the length, twice the radius, twice
the tension and twice the density of another string 2.
The relation between the fundamental frequencies of
1 and 2 is :
(1) f
1
= 2f
2
(2) f
1
= 4f
2

(3) f
2
= 4f
1
(4) f
1
= f
2


74. When a source of sound of frequency f crosses a
stationary observer with a speed v
s
(<< speed of
sound v), the apparent change in frequency f is
given by -
(1)
v
fv
s
2
(2) 2 fv v
s

(3)
s
v
v f 2
(4)
v
v f
s


75. N atoms of a radioactive element, emit n, particles
per second. Half-ilfe of the element is -
(1) n/N (2) N/n
(3) 0.693 N/n (4) 0.693 n/N

76. If M
a
is the mass of an oxygen isotope
8
O
17
, M
p
and
M
n
are the masses of a proton and a neutron,
respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the
isotope is -
(1) (M
a
8M
p
)c
2
(2) (M
0
8M
p
9M
n
)c
2

(3) M
0
c
2
(4) (M
0
17 M
n
)c
2

77. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is 2300 .
the energy of the electrons ejected from the surface
by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1800 is :
(h = 6.6 10
34
J-s)
(1) 0.15 eV (2) 1.5 eV
(3) 15 eV (4) 150 eV

78. In a transistor amplifier, = 62, R
L
= 5000 and
internal resistance of the transistor is 500 . The
voltage amplification of the amplifier will be -
(1) 500 (2) 620 (3) 780 (4) 950

79. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit. If T, V, E
and L represent respectively the kinetic energy,
gravitational potential energy, total energy and
magnitude of angular momentum about the centre of
the orbit, then which of the following is
correct
(1) T is conserved
(2) V is always positive
(3) E is always negative
(4) L is conserved but the direction of

L is
continuously changing

80. The motion of particle executing SHM is given by
x = 0.01 sin (100 t + 0.05), where x is in metre and
time t is in second. The time period is
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.1 s
(3) 0.02 s (4) 0.01 s

81. If the surface tension of water is 0.07 N m
1
, the
weight of water supported by surface tension in a
capillary tube of radius 0.1 mm is
(1) 11 N (2) 22 N
(3) 33 N (4) 44 N
82. A man running has half the kinetic energy of a boy of
half his mass. The man speeds up by 1 ms
1
and then
has KE as that of the boy. What were the original
speeds of man and the boy ?
(1) 2 ms
1
;2 2 1 ms
1

(2) ( 2 1) ms
1
; 2( 2 1) ms
1
(3) ( 2 + 1) ms
1
; 2( 2 + 1) ms
1
(4) None of the above

Passage Based Questions : (Q.83 to Q.84)
The centre of mass of a body is a point at which the
whole mass of the body is supposed to be
concentrated. If the body consists of two particles of
masses m
1
, m
2
with

1
r and

2
r as their position
vectors, then the position vector of the centre of mass
is.
.

CM
r =
2 1
2 2 2 1
m m
r m r m
+
+


Similarly, velocity of centre of mass of two particles
moving with velocities

1
v and

2
v is

CM
v =
2 1
2 2 1 1
m m
v m v m
+
+

, and
Acceleration of centre of mass of two particles
having acceleration

1
a and

2
a is

CM
a =
2 1
2 2 1 1
m m
a m a m
+
+


For an isolated system, where no external force acts,

CM
a = 0 and

CM
v = constant.
Read the above paragraph and answer the following
questions.

83. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving
towards each other with equal velocity 5 m/s. The
velocity of centre of mass is -
(1)
3
5
ms
1
(2)
3
5
ms
1
(3)
5
3
ms
1
(4)
5
3
ms
1

84. An electron and a proton move towards each other
with velocities v
1
and v
2
due to mutual attraction. The
velocity of their centre of mass is -
(1)
2
2 1
v v +
(2)
2

2 1
v v

(3) v
2
(4) zero
85. If the space between the lenses in the lens
combination shown were filled with water, what
would happen to the focal length and power of the
lens combination ?


Focal length Power
(1) Decreased increased
(2) Decreased unchanged
(3) Increased unchanged
(4) Increased decreased

86. If two coils have self-inductances L
1
and L
2
, the
coefficient of mutual induction will be
(1) M
2 1
L L (2) M
2
1
L
L

(3) M
1
2
L
L
(4) None of these
87. Vapour pressure at any temperature is equal to saturated
vapour pressure :
(1) At that temperature (2) At dew point
(3) At boiling point (4) At freezing point

88. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment
M by an angle of 90 from the meridian is n times the
corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of
60. The value of n is given by
(1) 1 (2) 1/4
(3) 4 (4) 2

89. As compared to ordinary diode an zener diode is -
(1) also connected in F.B
(2) also connected in F.B as well as RB
(3) always connected in RB
(4) exactly same

90. There are two identical concentric coils X and Y with
their planes at right angles to each other. The coil X lies
in the horizontal plane while coil Y lies in the vertical
plane. If the coil X carries a current of
1 A then what value of current in coil Y be passed so
that the resultant field at the centre of the coils just
balances the earth's magnetic field of 10
5
tesla inclined
at 30 with the vertical ?
(1) 1 A (2) 3 A
(3) 2 A (4) (1/ 3 )A

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