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CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST
(Set III)
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Pl ease r ead t he i nst r uct i ons car ef ul l y. You ar e al l ot t ed 5 mi nut es
speci f i cal l y f or t hi s pur pose.
You ar e not al l owed t o l eave t he Exami nat i on Hal l bef or e t he end of
t he t est .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. PartI is Physics, PartII is Chemistry and PartIII is Mathematics.
4. Each part has only one section: SectionA.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
(i) SectionA (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.
Name of the Candidate
Enrolment No.
A
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AITSCRT(SetIII)PCMJEE(Main)/13
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2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
2
Planck constant h = 6.6 10
34
Js
Charge of electron e = 1.6 10
19
C
Mass of electron m
e
= 9.1 10
31
kg
Permittivity of free space
0
= 8.85 10
12
C
2
/Nm
2
Density of water
water
= 10
3
kg/m
3
Atmospheric pressure P
a
= 10
5
N/m
2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
CHEMISTRY
Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K
1
mol
1
= 0.0821 Lit atm K
1
mol
1
= 1.987 2 Cal K
1
mol
1
Avogadro's Number N
a
= 6.023 10
23
Plancks constant h = 6.625 10
34
Js
= 6.625 10
27
ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66 10
27
kg
1 eV = 1.6 10
19
J
Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,
N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56,
Pb=82, U=92.
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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P Ph hy ys si ic cs s PART I
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If a new planet is discovered rotating around the Sun with the orbital radius double that of earth,
then what will be its time period (in earths days)?
(A) 1032 (B) 129
(C) 2920 (D) 45.
2. The air column in a pipe closed at one end is made to vibrate in its second overtone by a tuning
fork of frequency 440 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. End corrections may be
neglected. Let P
0
denote the mean pressure at any point in the pipe and P
0
the maximum
amplitude of pressure variation. The maximum pressure at the closed end of the pipe is
(A) P P
0
+
0
(B)
P
P
0
2
+
0
(C) P P
0
2 +
0
(D) P
0
2
3. A comet moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. It is closest to the sun at a distance
1
d and its
corresponding velocity is
1
v , and if it is farthest from the sun at a distance
2
d , then the
corresponding velocity is
(A)
1
2
1
v
d
d
(B)
1
1
2
d
v
d
(C)
2
1
1
d
v
d
(D)
1
1
2
d
v
d
.
4. In a series LCR circuit the resistance 24 R = while the reactance corresponding to L and C
are 2 and 28 respectively at a certain frequency. The total impedance, if the frequency is
doubled, is
(A) 30 (B) 28.1
(C) 34 (D) 26.
Rough work
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5. A smooth circular table is surrounded by a rim whose interior is vertical. A ball is projected along
the table from a point on the rim in a direction making an angle to the radius through the point
and returns to the point of projection after two impacts. If e be the coefficient of restitution, then
(A)
3
2
e
tan
1 e e
 
=


+ +
\ .
(B)
2
e
tan
1 e
=
+
(C)
1
tan
e
= (D) tan e =
6. The resistor in which the maximum heat is produced is given by
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 12
4
3
6
2
12
7. A parallel combination of two resistors of 1 each, is connected in series with a 1.5 resistor,
and two uncharged capacitances of 1.5F and 3F , also in series. The combination is
connected to a 10 V battery. The initial current flowing in the circuit is (assume that the capacitors
are initially uncharged)
(A) 5 A (B) 0 A
(C) 0.3 A (D) 0.4 A.
8. The current in a coil changes from +5A to +2A in 0.03 s inducing a voltage of 8 V across it. The
initial energy stored in the coil was
(A) 2 J (B) 1 J
(C) 0.4 J (D) none of these
9. A sound wave of frequency 250 Hz covers a distance of 2000 meters in 10 seconds between
points A and B. Then the number of waves between A and B are
(A) 250 (B) 100
(C) 2500 (D) 500
Rough work
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10. Emf induced in coil by a change in the current from 5A to 10A in 0.1s is 10V. Then the change in
the energy of the magnetic field in the coil is
(A) 2.5 J (B) 5.0 J
(C) 7.5 J (D) 10 J
11. A simple pendulum consisting of a mass M attached to a string
of length L is released from rest at an angle . A pin is located
at a distance A below the pivot point. When the pendulum
swings down, the string hits the pin as shown in the figure. The
maximum angle which string makes with the vertical after
hitting the pin is
L
A
(A)
1
Lcos
cos
L
+ (
(
+
A
A
(B)
1
Lcos
cos
L
+ (
(
A
A
(C)
1
Lcos
cos
L
(
(
A
A
(D)
1
Lcos
cos
L
(
(
+
A
A
12. Water rises in a vertical capillary tube to a height 2cm. In another capillary tube whose radius is
onethird of it and which is inclined at 60 with the vertical, the water will occupy a length equal to
(A) 2 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 12 cm
13. A block of wood of relative density 0.5 is placed 10 m inside a vessel containing water. The
vessel is accelerated upward with an acceleration of 10 m/s
2
. If the block is released at some
instant then the time taken by the block to reach the surface of water from that instant is (consider
g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 0.5 s (B) 1 s
(C) 2 s (D) 4 s
14. (M 1) divisions on the main scale of a vernier calipers coincide with M divisions on the vernier
scale. If each division on the main scale is of b unit, then least count of instrument is
(A)
b
M 1 +
(B)
b
M
(C)
b
M 1
(D)
1
M
.
Rough work
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15. A body cools from 85C to 80C in 10 minutes, when the temperature of the surrounding is
32.5C. How much time will it take to cool down by the same amount (i.e. from 85C to 80C) if
the temperature of the surroundings is 57.5C ? Assume that Newtons law of cooling is valid.
(A) 20 min (B) 5 min
(C)
20
3
min (D) 40 min
16. An ideal gas whose , and internal energy U at absolute zero temp. is equal to zero
 
=

\ .
p
v
C
C
undergoes a reversible adiabatic compression. If , , . U p V T represent the internal energy,
pressure, volume and temperature respectively of the ideal gas, then
(A) const. UV
= (B) const. Up
=
(C)
1
1
const. VU
= (D)
1
const. TU
=
17. An automobile travelling at 60 km/hr on a highway stops over a distance of 20 m after brakes are
applied. Traffic is moving on this highway at 72 km/hr. What is the minimum distance at which
one driver should follow the other, if a driver requires a minimum of 1s to decide and apply the
brakes?
(A) 20 m (B) 28.8 m
(C) 48.8 m (D) 8.8 m.
18. A particle is projected from ground with speed u at angle with the horizontal. Radius of
curvature of the trajectory of the particle
(A) is not minimum at highest point
(B) is minimum at the point of projection
(C) is same at all points
(D) varies from
2
u
gcos
to
2 2
u cos
g
where a
N
is the component of acceleration in the direction perpendicular to velocity.
19. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of angle of inclination . The coefficient of friction
between the body and the plane varies as = 0.1 x, where x is the distance moved down the
plane. The body will have the maximum velocity when it has travelled a distance x given by
(A) x = 10 tan (B) x = 5 tan
(C) 2 cot (D)
10
x
cot
=
Rough work
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20. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius R with uniform angular speed . The magnitude
of average velocity of particle during time
2
t
3
(A)
3 R
2
(B)
3 R
2
(C)
3 3 R
2
(D)
2 R
3
21. A charged particle starts moving along the xaxis in a magnetic field which is given by
2
0
B x i =
G
(A) the velocity of particle will decrease
(B) the velocity of particle will increase
(C) the velocity of particle will remain constant
(D) the velocity of particle will change.
22. A long horizontal current carrying hollow conducting cylinder having current along its length is
kept east to west, a compass needle is kept inside the such that it is free to rotate in horizontal
circle then the compass needle will be in a direction (do not ignore earths magnetic field)
(A) 45 north of east (B) 45 south of east
(C) northsouth direction (D) eastwest direction.
23. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from first excited state to ground state. The
equivalent current due to circulating electron
(A) increases 2 times (B) increases 4 times
(C) increases 8 times (D) remains the same
24. In a sample of hydrogen like atoms all of which are in ground state, a photon beam containing
photons of various energies is passed. In absorption spectrum, five dark lines are observed. The
number of bright lines in the emission spectrum will be (assume that all transitions take place)
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
Rough work
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25. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n
1
n
2
where n
1
and n
2
are the principal
quantum numbers of the two states. Assume the Bohr model to be valid. The time period of the
electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible value of n
1
and n
2
are
(A) n
1
= 6, n
2
= 2 (B) n
1
= 8, n
2
= 2
(C) n
1
= 8, n
2
= 1 (D) n
1
= 6, n
2
= 3
26. If an equilateral prism minimum deviation is 30, what will be the angle of incidence ?
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 45 (D) 90
27. In Youngs double slit experiment when wavelength used is 6000 and the screen is 40 cm from
the slits, the fringes are 0.012 cm apart. What is the distance between the slits?
(A) 0.024 cm (B) 2.4 cm
(C) 0.24 cm (D) 0.2 cm
28. A cubical block of wood of specific gravity 0.5 and a chunk of concrete of specific gravity 2.5 are
fastened together. The ratio of the mass of wood to the mass of concrete which makes the
combination to float with its entire volume submerged under water is:
(A) 1/5 (B) 1/3
(C) 3/5 (D) 2/5
29. A steel rod of length 1 m rests on a smooth horizontal base. If it is heated from 0C to 100C. The
longitudinal strain developed in the rod is
(Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.2 10
5
/C)
(A) 1.2 10
3
(B) 1.2 10
7
(C) zero (D) none of these.
30. A string is wrapped several times round a uniform solid cylinder and then the end of the string is
held stationary while the cylinder is released from rest with no initial motion. The acceleration of
the cylinder and tension in the string will be (assume that the cylinder remains horizontal while
falling)
(A)
2 mg
gand
3 3
(B)
mg
gand
2
(C)
g mg
and
3 3
(D)
g mg
and
2 3
Rough work
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C Ch he em mi is st tr ry y PART II
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. 1 amu =
1
12
(mass of 1 carbon atom). If 1 amu is redefined as: 1 amu =
1
3
(mass of 1 carbon
atom) then, the mass of one mole of carbon atoms in grams will
(A) decrease four times (B) decreases two times
(C) remain unchanged (D) increase four times
2. In Balmer series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the second line from the red end corresponds to
which one of the following innerorbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of
hydrogen?
(A) 2 1 (B) 3 2
(C) 4 2 (D) 5 2
3. The successive ionization energy values for an element X are given below:
(I.E. ionization energy)
1
st
I.E. = 410 KJ/mol 2
nd
I.E. = 820 KJ/mol
3
rd
I.E. = 1100 KJ/mol 4
th
I.E. = 2500 KJ/mol
5
th
I.E. = 2900 KJ/mol 6
th
I.E. = 3400 KJ/mol
Number of valence electrons in atoms of X are
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
4.
3 3 2 3
H BO Na CO Borax others + +
3 3
H BO NaCl Borax others + +
Which of these sodium salts is used for large scale production of Na
2
B
4
O
7
?
(A) Na
2
CO
3
because of its larger abundance compared to NaCl
(B) Na
2
CO
3
because CO
2
is released as one of the products other than Na
2
B
4
O
7
(C) Na
2
CO
3
because enthalpy of solution of HCl dominates over that of carbonic acid
(D) Na
2
CO
3
because it is washing soda which in turn, produces colourless borax crystals
Rough work
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5. Which of the following gives paracetamol on acetylation?
(A) OH
NH
2
(B)
OH
NH
2
(C) NH
2
(D) OH
NH
2
6. Natural rubber is not used in making footwear for polar regions because
(A) natural rubber becomes soft at temperature lower than 10C
(B) Natural rubber becomes brittle at temperature lower than 10C
(C) Natural rubber melts at temperature lower than 10C
(D) Natural rubber becomes stronger at temperature lower than 10C
7. Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
(A) Uracil (B) Cytosine
(C) Guanine (D) Thymine
8.
3 2
excess
NH Cl A HCl + +
2
A H O B Y + +
A, B and Y are respectively:
(A) NH
4
Cl, NH
4
OH, HClO
4
(B) NCl
3
, NH
4
OH, HOCl
(C) NH
4
Cl, NH
4
Cl, HCl (D) NH
4
Cl, NH
4
OH, HClO
3
9. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of lanthanides. Which of the following statements about
Cerium is incorrect?
(A) Common oxidation states of Cerium are +3 and +4
(B) +3 oxidation state of Cerium is more stable than +4 oxidation state
(C) +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions
(D) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidising agent
10. Which of the following can be used instead of limestone in Fe extraction?
(A) Glaubers Salt (B) Gypsum
(C) Dolomite (D) Carnallite
Rough work
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11. Following reaction is balanced:
a KMnO
4
+ bH
2
SO
4
+ cH
2
O
2
dK
2
SO
4
+ eMnSO
4
+ fH
2
O + gO
2
What is the value of
a b c
2
+ +  

\ .
?
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
12. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. 40 ml of NaOH (unknown
normalilty) completely neutralises 10 ml of oxalic acid dehydrate solution. What is the normality of
NaOH?
(A) 0.1 N (B) 0.2 N
(C) 0.3 N (D) 0.4 N
13. What is the hybridisation of carbon and oxygen in electronic structure of ether? (Ether is acyclic
and aliphatic)
(A) sp
3
and sp
3
(B) sp
3
and sp
3
(C) sp and sp
(D) sp
2
and sp
2
14. A gas described by Van der Waals equation:
(A) Does NOT behave similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar volumes
(B) Behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large pressures
(C) Is characterised by Van der Waals coefficients that are independent of the identity of the gas
and the temperature
(D) Has pressure that is lower than the pressure exerted by the same gas behaving ideally
15. NH
2
2 4
NaNO HBF
HCl, 278 K
A B
The compounds A and B respectively are:
(A) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
(B) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
(C) Phenol and benzene
(D) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
Rough work
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16. The major product of the following reaction is obtained from A;
PhS Na
dimethyl formamide
A
+
Me PhS
F
NO
2
A is
(A)
Br Me
F
NO
2
(B)
Br Me
SPh
NO
2
(C)
Me Cl
F
NO
2
(D)
SPh Me
SPh
NO
2
17.
OH
CH
2
OH
2 3
3
(i) K CO
(ii) CH I
(A) OH
CH
2
OCH
3
(B)
O
CH
2
OH
CH
3
(C) CH
3
CH
2
OH
(D) OCH
3
CH
2
OH
18. If the boiling point of C
2
H
5
OH (molecular weight = 46) is 78C, What is the boiling point of diethyl
ether (mol. Wt. = 74)?
(A) 373 K (B) 351 K
(C) 340 K (D) 248 K
Rough work
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19. In the depression of the freezing point experiment, it is found that
1. The vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent
2. The vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent
3. Solute molecule do not solidify at freezing point to form solid mixture
4. Only solvent molecules solidify at freezing point
When serial number of CORRECT statements from above are added
(for example, if (1), (2), (3) and (4) are CORRECT, SUM = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10, The SUM is
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
20.
Cl
CH
2
CH
3
O
( ) Na Hg / HCl A
Cl
Cl
CH
2
CH
2
CH
3
(A) Cl
2
(B) Br
2
(C) HCl (D) Cl
2
/FeCl
3
21. In order to find out the electrodes oxidation potencial for an electrode M(s)/M
n+
(aq)
with
concentration at different conditions, following expressions can be used
(1)
0 n
10
2.303RT
E E log M
nF
+
(
=
(2)
0 n
10
2.303RT
E E log M
nF
+
(
= +
(3)
( )( )( )
( )
0 0 n
10
2.303 298 8.314
At 25 C, E E log M
n 96500
+
(
=
(4)
( )( )( )
( )
0 0 n
10
2.303 298 8.314
At 25 C, E E log 1/ M
n 96500
+
(
=
(E
0
= standard oxidation potential of electrode when serial number of CORRECT statements from
above are added, for example
if (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct, SUM = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10, the sum is
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 10
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22.
C
CH
3
CH
3
2
1. O
2. Zn/ H O
A B +
2
NaOH/ I
A Yellow precipitate
What is A?
(A)
CH
2
C CH
3
O
(B)
CH
2
CH
2
C CH
3
O
(C)
CH CH
3
OH
(D)
C CH
3
O
23.
C
OH
H
C CH
2
H / H O
Pr oduct
+
is (3 2) = 6
(2) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells
(3) The length of a unit cell in PQ (rock salt structure) is 552 pm (r
P+
= 95 pm, r
= 181 pm)
When serial number of CORRECT statements from above are added (for examples, if (1), (2) &
(3) are correct, SUM = 1 + 2 + 3 are correct, SUM = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, then SUM is
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
26. Cl
Br
CH CH C C C H
O
3
2
1. O
2. Zn/ H O
products
How many chiral products are formed?
(A) 8 (B) 2
(C) 16 (D) 4
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15
27. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species NH
3
, PCl
5
and
BCl
3
is sp
3
, sp
3
d
2
and sp
2
respectively
(B) The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in
2
NO
+
,
3
NO
and
4
NH
+
are sp, sp
2
and sp
3
respectively
(C) SO
2
molecule has a linear structure like CO
2
molecules
(D) The geometry of H
2
S is linear
28.
C H
3
C CH
2
CH
3
O
4
2 4
LiAlH KCN
H SO
A C H
3
C CH
2
CH
3
OH
CH
2
NH
2
Which of these statements is CORRECT?
(A) One of these chemical substances (reactant, A and product) gives Tollens test
(B)
C CH
3
OH
C H
3
CN
is formed
(C) The final mixture is optically active
(D) The final mixture is racemic and therefore optically inactive
29.
C H
3
Ph NH C Ph
O
(para)
OH
N H
2
CH
3
( )
18
3
1. H
2. CH O H
(C) D
+
+
(C) and (D) are
(A)
COO C O CH
3
O
18
18
(C) (D)
(B)
COO C O CH
3
O
(C) (D)
18
(C)
COO
C O CH
3
O
(D)
(C)
18
(D)
COO
C O CH
3
O
(D)
(C)
30. A solution contains 10 ml, 0.1 N NaOH and 10 ml, 0.05 N H
2
SO
4
((2M) H
2
SO
4
= (1N) H
2
SO
4
),
pOH of this solution is
(A) less than 7 (B) 7
(C) 0 (D) greater than 7
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M Ma at th he em ma at ti ic cs s PART III
SECTION A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. There are two numbers x making the value of the determinant
1 2 5
2 x 1
0 4 2x
+
+
has the value equal to
(A)
3
5050
(B)
1
5050
(C)
1
5050
(D)
1
4950
6. Let ABCDEFGHIJKL be a regular dodecagon, then the value of
AB AF
AF AB
+ is
(A) 4 (B) 2 3
(C) 2 2 (D) 2
7. Number of rectangles with sides parallel to the coordinate axes whose vertices are all of the form
(a, b) with a and b integers such that 0 a, b n, is (n N)
(A)
( )
2
2
n n 1
4
+
(B)
( )
2
2
n 1 n
4
(C)
( )
2
n 1
4
+
(D) n
2
8. Number of roots of the function ( )
( )
3
1
f x 3x sinx
x 1
= +
+
is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) more than 2
9. If p(x) = ax
2
+ bx + c leaves a remainder of 4 when divided by x, a remainder of 3 when divided by
x + 1, and a remainder of 1 when divided by x 1, then p(2) is
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 6
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10. Let f(x) be a function that has a continuous derivative on [a, b], f(a) and f(b) have opposite signs,
and f(x) 0 for all numbers x between a and b, (a < x < b). Number of solutions does the
equation f(x) = 0 have (a < x < b)
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) cannot be determined
11. If x and y are real numbers and x
2
+ y
2
= 1, then the maximum value of (x + y)
2
is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C)
3
2
(D) 5
12. The value of the defined integral
( )( )
( )
a 2
0
dx
a 0
1 x 1 x
>
+ +
is
(A)
4
(B)
2
(C) (D) some function of a
13. Let a, b, c are non zero constant number than
r
a b c
cos cos cos
r r r
lim
b c
sin sin
r r
equals
(A)
2 2 2
a b c
2bc
+
(B)
2 2 2
c a b
2bc
+
(C)
2 2 2
b c a
2bc
+
(D) independent of a, b and c
14. A curve y = f(x) such that f(x) = 4x at each point (x, y) on it and crosses the xaxis at (2, 0) at an
angle of 45. The value of f(1) is
(A) 5 (B) 15
(C)
55
3
(D)
35
3
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15. The minimum value of the function ( )
2 2 2 2
sinx cosx tanx cot x
f x
1 cos x 1 sin x sec x 1 cosec x 1
= + + +
as x varies over all numbers in the largest possible domain of f(x) is
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 2
16. A non zero polynomial with real coefficients has the property that f(x) = f*(x).f(x). The leading
coefficient of f(x) is
(A)
1
6
(B)
1
9
(C)
1
12
(D)
1
18
17. Let z
1
, z
2
, z
3
be complex numbers such that z
1
+ z
2
+ z
3
= 0 and z
1
 = z
2
 = z
3
 = 1, then
2 2 2
1 2 3
z z z + + is
(A) greater than zero (B) equal to 3
(C) equal to zero (D) equal to 1
18. The latus rectum of a conic section is the width of the curve through the focus. The positive
difference between the lengths of the latus rectum of 3y = x
2
+ 4x 9 and x
2
+ 4y
2
6x + 16y =
24 is
(A)
1
2
(B) 2
(C)
3
2
(D)
5
2
19. For some non zero vector V
G
, if the sum of V
G
and the vector obtained from V
G
by rotating it by
an angle 2 equals to the vector obtained from V
G
by rotating it by then the value of , is
(A) 2n
3
(B) n
3
(C)
2
2n
3
(D)
2
n
3
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20. If
2
2
a
1 cosa tan
kcosa b
a w pcosa
sin
2
 

\ .
=
+  

\ .
where k, w and p have no common factor other than 1, then
the value k
2
+ w
2
+ p
2
is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
21. If x and y are real numbers such that x
2
+ y
2
= 8, the maximum possible value of x y, is
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C)
2
2
(D) 4
22. Let u(x) and v(x) are differentiable functions such that
( )
( )
u x
7
v x
= . If
( )
( )
u x
p
v x
and
( )
( )
u x
v x
 


\ .
= q,
then
p q
p q
+
+
=
>
If f(x) is oneone then m must lie in the interval
(A) (, 0) (B) (, 0]
(C) (0, ) (D) [0, )
27.
( ) ( )
3
5/ 6 3
3 3 i + is an integer where i 1 = . The value of the integer is equal to
(A) 24 (B) 24
(C) 22 (D) 21
28. Let n be the smallest positive integer larger than 150 so that number
n
151
C is divisible by
n
150
C
but is not equal to it. The sum of the digits of n, is
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 11
29. Consider the sequence 8A + 2B, 6A + B, 4A, 2A B, which term of this sequence will have
a coefficient of A which is twice the coefficients of B ?
(A) 10
th
(B) 14
th
(C) 17
th
(D) none of these
30. Let F(x) be the primitive of
3x 2
x 9
+