1. The maximum length allowed between main and traverse bulkheads on a vessel as referred to as: A. Permissible length B.

Floodable length C. Factor of Subdivision D. Compartment standard

2. The term "scantlings " refers to the: A. draft of a vessel B. measurements of structural members C. requirements for ship's gear D. placement of a vessel's loadline

3. A welded joint's effectiveness is considered: A. 48% B. 90% C. 100% D. 121%

4. The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the: A. film speed B. penetrometer C. exposure reading D. time of exposure

5. While in drydock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves: A. Measuring the thickness of the tail shaft liner. B. Taking the vessel's offsets to check for hull deformation C. Testing and examining the anchor cables for defective links. D. Drilling or sonic-testing the hull to determine the plate thickness

6. A large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for drydocking of ships is known as a: A. Slip way - SPACE IN SHIP BUILDING YARD. B. Graving dock - A MANILA & WIRE ROPE/IN C. Ground warp FRENCH RIGGED TRAWL NET D. Caisson DockCHAMBER FOR WORKING UNDER
WATER

7. Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is true? A. Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level. B. When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dry dock. C. The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the support of the keel blocks. D. As the dock begins to support the weight of the vessel, stability calculations are based on the ship and dock as a single unit.

8. The purpose of inclining experiment on a vessel is to determine: A. Lightweight center of gravity location B. The position of the center of buoyancy C. The position of the metacenter D. The maximum loadline

9. When making a turn on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if: A. A vessel has very little draft B. G is above the center of lateral resistance C. G is below the center of lateral resistance D. The vessel is deeply laden

10. Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is: A. list B. heel C. trim D. floatation

11. If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will: A. increase the righting moment B. increase the righting arm C. increase list or trim D. decrease list or trim

12. If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may: A. increase the righting moment B. cause an increase in the righting arm C. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position D. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle

13. GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because: A. M is not fixed at large angles B. There is no M at large angles C. G is not fixed at large angles D. There is no G at large angles

14. On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, there are two slack deep tanks of palm oil (S.G. 0.86). Each tank is 40' long and 30' wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (S.G. 1.025)? A. 0.24 ft FSC = r l b3 B. 0.48 ft 420 = (.839)(40)(30)3 C. 0.57 foot 420 (9,000) D. 0.74 ft r = spec. grav. of liquid in tk. = .2397 spec. grav. where vsl float x 2 = 0.86 .4794
1.025 = 0.839

15. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half-full tank on board a vessel? A. Corrosion from the shifting liquid B. Rupturing of the bulkhead from the shifting liquid C. Loss of stability due to free surface effect D. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid

16. A ship is lying at the mouth of the river in water density 1024 kgs/m3 and the displacement is 12,000 tonnes. The ship is to proceed up river and to berth in dock water of density 1008kgs/m3 with the same draft as at present. Find the amount of ballast to be discharge: N DISPL. = N DENS. A, 195.7 T O DISPL O DENS B. 193.0 T N DISPL = O DISPL X N DENS O DENS C. 187.5 T = 12,000 X 1008 1024 D. 189.6 T
= 11,812.5 () 12,000 = 187.5

17. Relative density of a substance is the number of times that any volume of the substance is heavier than an equal volume of pure fresh water at a temperature of: A. 0 C B. 4 C C. 0 F D. 4 F

18. In accordance with the international load line convention (1966), which became effective in July 1968, loadlines were established for all new vessels of what gross tonnage? A. 150 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage B. 300 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage C. 400 gross tons or over if they engaged in foreign voyage D. Less than 400 G.T

19. It means a special load line assigned to ships complying with certain conditions related to their construction set out in the international convention on load lines and used when the cargo complies with the stowage and securing conditions of this code. A. Summer load line B. Timber load line C. Winter North Atlantic load line D. Tropical fresh load line

20. Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from odorous cargo is called _____. A. clean cargo B. delicate cargo C. dry cargo D. immune cargo

21. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a ( n ) _________. A. delicate cargo B. dirty cargo C. toxic cargo D. odorous cargo

22. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens; and lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the: A. gross tonnage B. deadweight space C. bale cubic D. stowage area

23. Which term describes goods having a stowage factor below 40? A. deadweight cargo B. full and down cargo C. heavy-lift cargo D. measurement cargo

24. If you want to lift small particles, which of the following would you use? A. Pallet B. Cargo hook C. Sling D. Cargo net

25. When two-leg sling attached to one hoist line is used to lift a load, a sling of 40 ft in length is better than one of 30 ft because the: A. tension in the sling legs is less B. load can be lifted higher C. sling will be easier to attach D. sling will be easier to remove

26. A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition? A. none B. 10% C. 25% D. 100%

27. All wire rope used in shipboard cargo gear must be identified and described in a certificate. The certificate shall certify all of the following except? A. date of the test B. load at which a test sample broke C. name of the vessel D. number of strands and of wires in each strand

28. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom? A. maximum angle of elevation permitted B. date of the last quadrennial test C. safe working load D. maximum load when doubled up

29. Which of the following statements about the carriage of solid hazardous materials in bulk is true? A. A special permit issued by the coast guard is required before the cargo is loaded. B. The loading of cargo must be conducted under the direction and observation of a person employed or assigned for that purpose. C. A certificate issued y ABS will be accepted as evidence that the vessel complies with all applicable loading regulations. D. The shipping papers must indicate the primary hazardous characteristics or property of the material.

30. It means that a piping on venting system, for example, is in no way connected to another system and that there are no provisions available for the potential connection to other system. A. segregated B. self-contained C. independent D. separate

31. This is a cargo ship constructed or adapted and used for the carriage in bulk of any liquid product. A. Product tanker B. Crude carrier C. Chemical tanker D. LPG tanker

32. A tank vessel propelled by power is a A. tank ship B. tank vessel C. tank barge D. any of the above

33. A flammable liquid with a reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 psi or less and a flash point of 80F and below is grade. A. B B. C C. A D. All of the above

34. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off vapors that will burn when ignited but will stop burning once the source of ignition is removed, is called its: A. flash point B. anti-ignition temperature C. fire point D. lower explosive limit

35. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air that can form an explosive mixture is referred to as the: A. auto- ignition temperature B. flash point C. lower explosive limit D. fire point

36. The vapor pressure of a gas is a pressure necessary to keep it in a(n): A. soluble state B. solid state C. liquefied state D. inert state

37. Coast guard regulations that electric and electro hydraulic steering gear motors shall be. A. served by two electric power feedercircuits B. provided with a motor-running over current protection device C. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device D. served by a single two-conductor cable

38. The warning sign used on tank vessels when moored or anchored and transferring a petroleum cargo says: A. "danger, do not approach, do not board" B. "warning, no smoking, no open lights, no visitors C. " dangerous cargo" D. all of the above

39. Smoking is not permitted on the weather decks of tank vessels: A. a except when sand pails are provided and are filled B. except when water is being used to cool the decks C. when loading cargo through open hatches D. under any circumstances unless the vessel is gas free and is not alongside

40. The minimum protective clothing outfit to wear when taking cargo samples of a hazardous cargo on a tank ship includes: A. hood or hard hat B. face mask or goggles C. boots D. chemical resistant gloves

41. Stop loading grade A, B or C cargo immediately if: A. another ship or tug comes alongside near the area of the transfer B. a fire starts on the dock on your vessel or on nearby ship C. any electrical storm approaches D. any of the above happens

42. If an oil hose leaks a very small amount through its fabric: A. reduce pressure in the hose and continue pumping B. "quick patch" the leak and use a drip pan if the leak is small C. clamp the leak using two hose clamps and a section of inner tube and equivalent D. shut down and replace the hose

43. It means filling the ullage space with a moisture free gas ( dew point <-40): -FILLING & MAINTAINING CARGO TANKS & A. padding B. purging- MAKE CLEAN / PURIFY C. drying D. ventilation

ASSO. PIPING SYS. W/ LIQUID,(INERT GAS) OR VAPOR W/C SEPERATES CARGO FROM AIR.

44. Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a: A. wooden plug B. soft rubber plug C. mechanical means of closing D. none of the above

45. How much space must you leave in a topped off tank for liquid expansion? A. No space is permitted: the tank must be pressed up to reduce free surface effect B. Generally 1% to 3% of the tank volume C. The amount specified on the certificate of inspection D. None of the above

46. The most likely time for oil pollution when bunkering is when: A. final topping off occurs B. first starting to receive fuel C. hoses are being blown down D. hoses are disconnected and being capped

47. These are used as intermediates for the production of chemicals, as solvents and for gasoline blending. Examples of these products are benzene , and xylene. A. essential oils B. vegetable oils C. aromatics D. animal oil

48. Under the IMDG code, all hazardous cargoes are assigned to, a category representing their major hazard. These categories are assigned a number and are called: A. class B. group C. file D. section

49. Corrosive liquids and acids should have what kind of level? A. skull and crossbones B. yellow C. red D. white

50. Which of the following is not required as special safety equipment on a tank ship carrying hazardous cargoes in bulk? A. shower and eyewash fountain B. equipment to lift an injured person from a pump room C. two portable vapor detectors suitable for the cargoes carried D. a safe locker adjacent to the safety emergency shutdown station

51. In using the load on top method to control pollution, what action should you take after transferring all dirty ballast to the slop tank? A. The clean tanks should be ballasted B. The slops should be allowed time to settle C. Chemicals should be added to emulsify the oil D. The dirty ballast tank is crude oil washed

52. Marpol 73/78 states that discharge of petroleum products in any form is pollution. Which of the following is not, even if discharge to the sea? A. grease B. crude oil C. used cooking oil D. sludge from ship's oil tanks

53. Regulations covering the various sources of ship-generated pollution are contained in the: A. articles of the 1973 marpol convention B. five annexes to the marpol convention C. article 2 of the 1973 convention D. protocol of 1978 relating to the international convention

54. Which of the following statements about tank cleaning is/are true? I. Products which are volatile and vaporize without traces frequently needs cold washing II.Vegetable oils and animal oils of nondrying type should preferably be prewashed directly with hot water ( 89C ) A. I only B. Neither I nor II C. Both I and II

55. You are approaching the pilot station with the wind fine on the starboard bow and making about 3 kts. You can help to calm the seas by taking what action just before the pilot boat comes along on the port side? A. backing full B. stepping the engine C. giving the right full rudder D. a short burst of ahead full with left full rudder

56. When the pilot is embarked, he: A. is a specialist hire to give navigational advice B. is solely responsible for the safe navigation of the vessel C. relieves the master of his duties D. relieves the officer of the watch

57. Before a master relieves a pilot of the conn the: A. Master must first request the pilot to take corrective action B. Master should foresee a danger if the vessel remains on the present course C. Master should agree to sign a release of liability form D. Vessel must be in extremis

58. For the deepest water when negotiating a bend in a river, you should always navigate your vessel: A. toward the inside bend of the river B. toward the outside bend of the river C. toward the center of the river just before the bend, then change course for the river's center after the bend D. toward inside or outside bend of the river

59. A condition where two currents meet at a down stream end of a middle bar can be determined by a: A. small whirlpool B. smooth patch of water C. v-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downstream D. v-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing upstream

60. The most favorable condition to encounter when you dock your vessel is when the wind and current are: A. crossing your course in the same direction B. crossing your course in the opposite direction C. parallel to the pier from ahead D. setting you on the pier

61. A common occurrence when a vessel is running into shallow water is that: A. the wake is less pronounced B. the vessel is more responsive to the rudder C. "squat" will cause a decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft D. all of the above

62. To safely anchor a vessel, there must be sufficient "scope" in the anchor cable. Scope is the ratio of: A. weight of cable to weight of vessel B. weight of cable to weight of anchor C. length of anchor to depth of water D. length of cable to depth of water

63. When anchoring, it is a common rule of thumb to use a length of chain: A. five to seven times the depth of water B. seven to ten times the depth of water C. twice the depth of water D. twice the depth of water plus the range of tide

64. You are proceeding down a channel and lose the engine (s). You must use the anchors to stop the ship. Which statement is true? A. Pay out all the cable before setting up on the brake to insure the anchors dig in and hold. B. For a mud, mud and clay, or sandy bottom pay out a scope of 5 to 7 times the depth before setting up on the brake. C. Use one or both anchors with a scope of twice the depth before setting the brake. D. Drop the anchor to shore stay and hold that scope.

65. When attempting to free an anchor jammed in the hawse pipe, the simplest method of freeing it may be: A. a simple kick, such as starting the windlass at full power B. rigging a bull rope to pull it out C. to grease the hawse pipe D. to try it loose with a short piece of pipe

66. When anchoring in calm water, it is best to: A. maintain slight headway when letting go the anchor B. wait until the vessel is dead in the water before letting go the anchor C. have slight sternway on the vessel while letting go the anchor D. let the anchor go from the stern with the anchor cable leading from the bow

67. You are proceeding in heavy weather and you have your bow meeting the seas. To prevent pounding, you should: A. change course, in order to take the seas at an 85angle from the bow B. decrease speed C. increase speed D. secure all loose gear

68. In heavy weather, you notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain , you could: A. pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel B. reduce speed C. take a course which most eases the vessel D. all of the above

69. The period of roll is the time difference between: A. zero inclination to full inclination on one side B. full inclination on one side to full inclination on the other side C. full inclination on one side to the next full inclination on the same side D. zero inclination to the next zero inclination

70. Which characteristic is a disadvantage of a controllable-pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch propeller? A. slightly higher fuel consumption B. lack of directional control when backing C. inefficient at shaft rpm D. some usual handling characteristics

71. You are on a single-screw left handed propeller vessel. When you have full sternway with left full rudder, you should expect the stern to swing: A. quickly to starboard, then slowly to port B. slowly to port, then quickly to starboard C. to port D. to starboard

72. Which type of ice is a hazard to navigation? A. ice rind B. pancake ice C. frazil ice D. growlers

73. The proximity of pack ice may be indicated by A. changes in sea water salinity B. glare on clouds on the horizon C. changes in air temperature D. icebergs

74. Ice concentration is measured in OKTA's. What percentage of the sea surface is ice- covered with 4 OKTA's concentration? A. 25% B. 40% C. 50% D. 67%

75. How should you warm-up a diesel engine that has not been run for sometime? A. run it at minimum speed for a period of time B. run it at half speed for a period of time C. bring it to top speed immediately D. inject either into the air intake

76. The three conditions which cause engine shut down are over speed, low lube oil pressure and: A. high lube oil pressure B. high jacket water pressure C. high jacket water temperature D. low jacket water pressure

77. Which of the following is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion? A. faster response form ahead to astern B. less fuel consumption C. cheaper initial installation cost D. less weight per unit of horsepower

78. The brickwork surrounding the firebox of a boiler is known as: A. Refractory B. The screen wall C. The water wall D. Fire plate

79. In a water tube marine boiler, what protects the super heater tubes from the fire of combustion? A. water-wall tubes B. down comers C. screen tubes D. water drums

80. The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the: A. Octagonal pillar B. "H" beam pillar C. "I" beam pillar D. Circular type pillar

81. The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily: A. brazing B. electric arc C. pressure welding D. thermite welding

82. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld? A. Undercut B. Lack of reinforcement C. Overlap D. Lack of penetration

83. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect the internal flaws? A. Radiographic B. Magnetic particles C. Dye penetrant D. Chemical reaction

84. What is not an item that requires the vessel to be dry-docked? A. Inspection of tail shaft liner B. Repacking and grinding of skin valves C. Verification of loadline measurements D. Belt gauging

85. Wale shores would be used when drydocking a vessel with: A. Tumble home B. Excessive dead rise C. Excessive trim D. A list

86. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the traverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's: A. Vertical moments B. Transverse position of the center of gravity C. Inclining moments D. Righting moments
KG = TOTAL MOMENTS TOTAL WEIGHT

87. A virtual rise in the center of gravity may be caused by: A. Filling a partially filled tank B. Using an onboard crane to lift a freely swinging heavy object C. Emptying a partially filled tank D. Transferring ballast from the forepeak to the after peak

88. Which of the following is the correct definition of transverse metacenter? A. The distance between the actual center of gravity and the maximum center of gravity that will still allow a positive stability. B. The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability. C. The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity D. The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel rolls.

89. A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which of the following statements is true? A. A vessel has negative GM B. The center of gravity is on the centerline C. The list can be corrected by reducing KM D. The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution

90. During cargo operations, your vessel has developed a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should: A. shift weight to the high side B. shift weight to the centerline C. add weights in the lower holds on double bottoms D. remove weights from the lower holds or double bottoms

91. The angle of maximum stability corresponds approximately to the angle of: A. deck edge immersion B. the load line C. downflooding D. loll

92. Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. You have on board a slack tank measuring 50' long by 60' wide by 5' deep. (S.G. 0.65) What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface? A. 1.54 ft FSC = r l b3 B. 1.59 ft r= .65 420 = (.63)(50)(60)3 1.025 C. 1.61 ft 420 (10,000) r = .63 D. 1.71 ft = 1.62

93. On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80' long 60' wide and 30' deep is half filled with dock water (S.G. 1.015). While the vessel is floating in saltwater (S.G. 1.025). What is the free surface constant of this tank. FSK = r l b3 A. 42,213 420 B. 40,100 = (.99024)(80)(60)3 C. 40,741 420 D. 41,500 = 40,741

r = spec. grav. of liquid in tk. spec. grav. where vsl float = 1.015 1.025 = 0.99024

94. The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do not depend upon the: A. volume of displacement B. dimension of the surface of the liquid C. amount of liquid in the tanks D. specific gravity of the liquid in the tank

95. A box shaped vessel draws 7.5 m in dock water of density 1,006 kgs/m3. Find the draft in salt water of density 1,025 kgs/m3. A. 7.678m B. 7.939m N DR = O DENS O DR N DENS C. 7.49 m N DR = O DR X O DENS D. 7.361 m
N DENS = 7.5 X 1,006 1,025 = 7.3609 m

96. Loadline markings indicate the drafts at which, for various conditions and types or classes of vessels, there will still be left a sufficient percentage of __________to ensure the vessel's safety. A. transverse stability B. reserve buoyancy C. intact buoyancy D. longitudinal stability

97. In accordance with the international load convention (1966) which became effective in July 1968, loadlines were established for all new vessels of what length? A. 150 ft or more in length B. 100 ft or more in length C. 79 ft or more in length D. 200 ft or more in length

98. When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term " flow state ". A. Designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose B. Relates to the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes. C. Refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid. D. Relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will flow like a liquid at an angle of 30

99. A hygroscopic cargo is defined as a cargo ___________. A. capable of absorbing moisture in the form of gas B. capable of giving off moisture in the form of a liquid C. that is shipped in a liquid state D. that will ignite in contact with water

100. Which is characteristics of a "special cargo"? A. The cargo gives off toxic gasses when heated B. Periodic inspection is required while in transit to prevent spoilage C. It is high value or easily pilferable D. It must be stowed on deck