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Module 6- Hypersensitivies, Infection, & Immune Deficiencies Pre test 1.

Which of the following cells produce antibodies during an immune reaction?


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A) T cells B) Mast cells C) Plasma cells D) Macrophages

2. When mast cells degranulate, they release:


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A) toxins. B) histamine. C) bradykinin. D) antibodies.

3. Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?


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A) Stimulating vasodilation and vasopermeability B) Neutralizing bacterial toxins C) Preventing viruses from entering tissue cells D) Promoting natural killer (NK) cell activity

4. In addition to antibodies, which of the following molecules act as opsonins?


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A) Histamine B) Complement proteins C) Fibrin D) Antigens

5. The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:


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A) IgG. B) IgM. C) IgE. D) IgA.

6. If a person is exposed to antigen X and is later exposed to antigen Y, which of the following immune responses to antigen Y will occur?
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A) Primary B) Secondary C) Determinant

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D) Immunosuppressive

7. A differential rise in which white blood cells is typically seen with viral infections?
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A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes

8. What is the function of the Fc portion of the antibody?


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A) The Fc portion binds to specific antigen. B) The Fc portion creates the hinge region of the antibody. C) The Fc portion consists of light chains. D) The Fc portion interacts with inflammatory cells.

9. CD4 receptors that bind to the surface of macrophages are found on:
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A) helper T cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) plasma cells. D) viruses.

10. What methods do cytotoxic T (Tc) cells use to destroy infected cells?
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A) Producing antibodies B) Producing toxins and stimulating apoptosis C) Activating the complement and kinin systems D) All of the above

11. Which of the following cells are phagocytes?


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A) Macrophages B) Lymphocytes C) Mast cells D) Basophils

12. A differential rise in which white blood cells is typically seen with acute bacterial infections?
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A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes

13. The process of covering bacteria with antibodies to promote phagocytosis of the microorganism is called:
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A) neutralization. B) precipitation. C) margination. D) opsonization.

14. The precursor cell to the macrophage is the:


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A) neutrophil. B) eosinophil. C) fibrocyte. D) monocyte.

15. After degranulation, the mast cells release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that perform which of the following functions?
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A) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability B) Attraction of neutrophils and eosinophils C) Activation of the complement cascade D) Opsonization of bacteria

16. Which of the following immune responses is directly responsible for activating inflammation?
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A) T helper cell activation B) Antigen presentation C) Formation of immune (antigen-antibody) complexes D) All of the above

17. Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is capable of activating all three plasma protein systems?
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A) Hageman factor (factor XII) B) Interleukin 2 C) Factor X D) Fibrin

18. What is the function of H1 receptors for histamine on white blood cells?
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A) Activating neutrophils and macrophages B) Reducing phagocytosis

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C) Inhibiting degranulation D) Stimulating the immune response

Module 7- Biology of Cancer and Tumor Spread Pre-Test 1. The primary function of the nucleus is to:
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A) control molecular movement into and out of the cell. B) regulate cell division and control genetic information. C) release enzymes that detoxify harmful substances. D) form the skeletal framework for the cell.

2. Which of the following organelles is (are) responsible for processing and packaging proteins into secretory vesicles for transportation to intracellular or extracellular destinations?
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A) Golgi apparatus B) Nucleolus C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria

3. Which of the following cellular structures is (are) involved in cellular communication and cellto-cell interactions?
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A) Caveolae B) Lysosomes C) Ribosomes D) Plasma membrane

4. Cell surface markers are composed of:


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A) phospholipids. B) glycoproteins. C) lactose molecules. D) cholesterol.

5. Plasma membrane receptors are available to bind to:


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A) carbon dioxide. B) ribosomes. C) ligands.

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D) cell adhesion molecules.

6. In the cell cycle, RNA and protein synthesis takes place during the:
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A) S phase. B) M phase. C) G1 phase. D) G2 phase.

7. Cytokines are:
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A) adhesion molecules. B) growth factors. C) cell junctions. D) sequences of DNA.

8. In autocrine signaling:
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A) a cell releases a hormone. B) a cell signals a neighboring cell. C) a neuron signals another neuron. D) a cell signals itself.

9. Which of the following cell junctions allows small ions and other molecules to pass directly from the inside of one cell to the inside of another?
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A) Gap junctions B) Tight junctions C) Desmosomes D) Gating channels

10. Mutations can result in:


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A) abnormal DNA. B) abnormal RNA. C) abnormal proteins. D) all of the above.

11. Which of the following statements about mutations is correct?


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A) Mutations always lead to genetic disease. B) Spontaneous mutations occur as a result of exposure to a mutagen.

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C) Mutations are alterations in normal DNA sequence. D) Mutations are always inherited.

12. Chronic infection of the cervix by the human papilloma virus results in cervical:
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A) atrophy. B) dysplasia. C) metaplasia. D) hormonal hyperplasia.

13. Free radical injury can be caused by:


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A) tissue damage by antioxidants. B) radiation injury. C) excess amounts of vitamin C and E. D) the presence of edema.

14. Free radicals cause tissue injury by all of the following mechanisms except:
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A) DNA fragmentation. B) activation of lysosomal enzymes. C) lipid peroxidation. D) mitochondrial damage.

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15. Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to:


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A) neoplasia (cancer). B) dysplasia. C) metaplasia. D) all of the above.

16. Which of the following cancers arise from epithelial tissue?


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A) Sarcoma B) Leukemia C) Glioma D) Carcinoma

17. Which of the following cancers arise from connective tissue?


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A) Lymphoma B) Sarcoma C) Glioma

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D) Adenoma

18. Which of the following cancers arise from bone marrow stem cells and always originate in the bone marrow?
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A) Glioma B) Lipoma C) Leukemia D) Lymphoma

19. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of malignant tumors?


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A) Cells in the malignant tumor are well differentiated. B) Malignant tumors grow slowly. C) Malignant tumors have a tendency to invade surrounding tissue. D) Malignant tumors are surrounded by a capsule.

20. Tumor cell markers can be used to:


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A) diagnose tumor type. B) screen individuals for cancer. C) follow the clinical course of tumor development. D) accomplish all of the above.

21. Tumor grading is performed to determine:


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A) the type of cancer-causing gene. B) the degree of differentiation in the tumor cells. C) the level of autonomy a cancer has. D) the extent of metastasis present.

22. Cancer cells stimulate blood vessel growth toward the tumor by releasing:
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A) autocrine growth factors. B) angiogenic factors. C) lysosomal enzymes. D) telomerase.

23. Cancer-causing mutations to proto-oncogenes result in:


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A) apoptosis. B) increased cell division.

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C) production of monoclonal antibodies. D) decreased cell responsiveness to growth factors.

24. Which of the following mutational routes is necessary to cause cancer with a tumor suppressor gene mutation?
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A) Point deletion on one chromosome B) Chromosomal translocation C) Deletion of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene D) Gene amplification

25. Exposure to ionizing radiation is linked to all of the following cancers except:
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A) thyroid cancer. B) leukemia. C) melanoma. D) breast cancer.

26. Obesity is an important risk factor for all of the following cancers except:
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A) breast cancer. B) leukemia. C) colon cancer. D) esophageal cancer.

27. A tumor that has regional lymph node involvement only is classified as:
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A) Stage I. B) Stage II. C) Stage III. D) Stage IV.