Reasoning The Scriptures

THE LORD'S SECOND COMING

COMING VIEWED
FROM SCRIPTURE AND REASON

By M.S.Mariadas and Y.R.Dinakaran

Bible Students, M.B.S.A

Do the Greek words "parousia," "epiphania," and "apokalupsis" represent three different time
stages of the Lord's second presence OR are they all speaking of one event while using the proper
Greek words that are dictated by Greek grammatical requirements as used in their sentence
structure by which the thought is given?

The scriptures clearly teach that when the Lord returns he will first deal with his"church", the "little
flock".

The words of the Apostle Paul

1 Thes.3:12-13 "And the Lord make you to increase and abound in love one toward another, and
toward all men, even as we do towards you; to the end he may establish your hearts unblameable
in holiness before God, even our Father, at the coming (PAROUSIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ
with all his saints."

1 Thes.5:23 "And the very God of peace sanctify you wholly, and I pray God your whole spirit and
soul and body be preserved blameless unto the coming (PAROUSIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

1 Tim.6:14 "That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing
(EPIPHANIA) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

2 Tim.4:8 "Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the
righteous judge, shall give me at that day; and not to me only, but to all them that love his
appearing (EPIPHANIA)."

Tit.2:11-13 "For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared (EPIPHANIO) to all
men, teaching us that denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously,
and godly in this present world; looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing
(EPIPHANIA) of our great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ."

1 Cor.1:5-7 "That in everything ye are enriched by him, in all utterance, and in all knowledge; even
as the testimony of Christ was confirmed to you; so that ye come behind in no gift, waiting for the
coming (APOKALUPSIS) of our Lord Jesus Christ."

Col.3:4 "When Christ, who is our life, shall appear (PHANIO), then shall ye also appear
(PHANIO) with him in glory."

THE LORD'S SECOND COMING

Reasoning The Scriptures

Comment: It would seem unreasonable that the Apostle Paul would use words that are said to
represent different stages of time of the Lord's second presence when he was instructing and
admonishing different members of the church to watch for the Lord to return at which time they
are to be taken up together with him. The "parousia" is said by some to be the first stage in time
(which occurred in 1874 - now more than 128 years in the past) and it is to be followed next by the
"epiphania," and later by the "apokalupsis" stage. If this was so and the Lord was to return at the
"first stage" - parousia and raises first the members of his church "who are dead in Christ" (1
Thes.4:16), THEN:

Why would the Apostle Paul tell Timothy to keep the commandment spotless until the
"epiphania," the second stage, of our Lord Jesus Christ's second presence, if those who "are dead
in Christ" are raised to be with the Lord when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Corinthians to be enriched in knowledge and
utterance so that they will be furnished as they wait for the "apokalupsis," the third phase of Jesus'
second presence, when he tells Timothy to do so until the "epiphania," the second stage of his
second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Thessalonians to keep their hearts blameless unto the
"parousia," the first stage of Jesus second presence, when he tells Timothy to keep the
commandment spotless until the "epiphania," the second stage of his second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell the Colossians that when the Lord appears (phaino) then
they will appear (phanio - the second stage of Jesus' second presence) with him in glory, if they are
to be raised and glorified at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence ?

Why would the Apostle Paul tell Titus that we should live soberly, righteously, and Godly
in this present world while looking for the "epiphania," the second stage of the Lord's second
presence, if they are to be raised and glorified at the "parousia," the first stage of his second
presence?

Explanation: These scriptures would contradict one another if they are interpreted to refer to
three different stages of time, but they do agree with each other from the viewpoint of being
interchangeable when looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It
would seem reasonable then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure
of the grammatical requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express
different shades of meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT.

THE WORDS OF JESUS on the "Days of Noah

Mt.24:36-38 "But as the days of Noah were, so shall also the coming (parousia) of the Son of Man
be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving
in marriage, until the day that Noah entered into the ark, and knew not until the flood came, and
took them all away; so shall the coming (parousia) of the Son of Man be."

THE LORD'S SECOND COMING

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Reasoning The Scriptures

Lu.17:26-30 "And as it was in the days of Noah, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of Man.
They did eat, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah
entered the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all. Likewise also as it was in the days of
Lot, they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded; but the same day
that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven and destroyed them
all. Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of Man is revealed (apokalupto)."

Question: If the Lord returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence, as some
claim, why would Luke use the word, "apokalupto," the third stage of his second presence, when
they are relating the same event as shown in the same contexts ?

Answer: These scriptures would contradict one another if they are interpreted to refer to three
different stages of time, but they do agree with each other from the viewpoint of being
interchangeable when looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It
would seem reasonable then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure
of the grammatical requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express
different shades of meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT. These texts refer to the time when
Jesus will bring judgment upon the world. It will be sudden and totally unexpected (not prolonged
128 years or more).

THE WORDS OF THE APOSTLE PETER

1 Pet.1:13 "Wherefore gird up the loin of your mind, be sober, and hope to the end for the grace
that is brought unto you at the revelation (apokalupsis) of Jesus Christ."

1 Pet.1:7 "That the trials of your faith being much more precious than of gold that perisheth,
though it be tried by fire, might be found unto praise and honor and glory at the appearing
(apokalupsis) of Jesus Christ."

Comment: The "parousia" is said by some to be the first stage in time (which occurred in 1874 -
now more than 128years in the past) and it is to be followed next by the "epiphania," and later by
the "apokalupsis" stage. If this was so and the Lord was to return at the "first stage" - parousia of his
second presence and raises first the members of his church "who are dead in Christ" (1 Thes.4:16),
THEN:

Why would the Apostle Peter say to the church that they should "hope to the end" which
would have its fruition at the "apokalupsis," the third stage of the Lord's second presence, if they are
to be raised and glorified when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence?

Why would the Apostle Peter desire that the church's trial of faith be such as would find
them worthy at the "apokalupsis," the third stage of the Lord's second presence, if they are to be
raised and glorified when he returns at the "parousia," the first stage of his second presence ?

Explanation: These scriptures would contradict other scriptures if they are interpreted to refer to
the third stage of time, but they do all agree from the viewpoint of being interchangeable when
looked at as being ONE EVENT that would occur at the same time. It would seem reasonable

THE LORD'S SECOND COMING

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Reasoning The Scriptures

then that different Greek words were used to satisfy the sentence structure of the grammatical
requirements by and in which the thought was presented and to express different shades of
meaning in respect to the ONE EVENT.

THE LORD'S SECOND COMING

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