DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Serial

JTS INSTITUTE
TEST BOOKLET No-1
Maximum Marks: 200

1
1. Candidates Roll No: 3. Test Battery No:

Time Allowed: Two Hours

Number of Questions: 200

2. Test Booklet Seriel No: 4. Test Form No:

1. This booklet contains four tests as follows: (a) Test of English Language (Grammar, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc): Questions 1-50 (b) Test of General Awareness, Marketing and Computers: Questions 51-100 (c) Test of Data Analysis and Interpretation: Questions 101-150 (d) Test of Reasoning (High Level): Questions 151-200 2. You will be given an aggregate time of 120 minute to answer all the four tests. The tests are not separately timed. You may distribute the time as you please but remember that do qualify in the written test as a whole you have to quality on each of the four tests separately. 3. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you. One-fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. 4. Rough work, if you to do any, is to be done in this booklet itself and not on the answer sheet. For this purpose use the empty space in the margin or any where else you find in this booklet. Do not use any other paper. 5. Indicate your answers on the separate answer-sheet using HB pencil. Follow the Instructions given on the answer sheet for indicate your answers. 6. If your answer sheet contains answer-spaces for answering more than 200 questions, use only the first 200 answer spaces for answering the 200 questions given in this booklet. 7. Do not open the booklet until you are told to do so. When the instruction for opening the booklet is given, do not try to remove the wire staples at the left, insert the blunt end of your pencil under the cover from the top or the bottom edge and tear open along the right hand edge. 8. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that all the pages containing questions from 1 to 200 are properly printed in your booklet and then begin answering the test.

Name of the Candidate: ................................................................................................. Date.........................Roll No.........................Test No...............Center Code................. Signature of the Invigilator.................................... DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

I: Test of English Language

Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Indeed, the western recession is really the beginning of good news for India! But to understand that we will have to move away for a while from the topic of western recessionto the Japanese recession. For years, the Japanese style of management has been admired. However, over the last decade or so, one key question has sprung up, If Japanese management style is as wonderful as described, then why has Japan been in a recession for more than a decade? The answer to this question is very simple. Culture plays a very important part in shaping up economies. What succeeds in one culture fails in another. The Japanese are basically non materialistic. And however rich they become, unlike others, they cannot just keep throwing and buying endlessly. And once they have everything they need, there is a saturation point. It was only when companies like Toyota realised that they cannot keep selling cars endlessly to their home market that they went really aggressive in the western markets and the rest is history. Japanese companies grew bigger by catering to the world markets when their home markets shrunk. And the markets have to shrink finally after attaining a level of affluence. And thats great for the world because the earth needs sustainable development. It does not need monstrous consumers, who keep consuming at the cost of the environment and the earth. There should be limits to growth so that consumers are not converted into material dustbins for the profit of a handful of corporations. Owing to the materialistic culture elsewhere, it was possible to keep selling newer products to the consumers despite having existing ones which served equally well. They were lured through advertising and marketing techniques of dustbinisation of the customer; and then finally, once they became ready customers, they were given loans and credits to help them buy more and more. When all the creditworthy people were given loans to a logical limit, they ceased to be a part of the market. Even this would have been understandable if it could work as an eye-opener. Instead of taking the Right Step as Toyota did, they preferred to take a short cut. Now banks went to the non-creditworthy people and gave them loans. The people expectedly defaulted and the entire system collapsed. Now, like Toyota, western companies will learn to find new markets. They will now lean towards India because of its common man. The billion-plus population in the next 25 years will become a consuming middle class. Finally, the worlds attention will shift to the developing world. Finally, there will be a real surge in the income of these people and in the next fifty odd years, one can really hope to see an equal world in terms of material plenty, with poverty being almost non-existent! And this will happen not by selling more cars to the Americans and the Europeans. It will happen by creating markets in India, China, Latin America and Africa, by giving

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their people purchasing power, and by making products for them. The recession has made us realise that it is not because of worse management techniques, but because of limits to growth. And they will realise that it is great for Planet Earth. After all, how many cars and houses must the rich own before calling it enough? Its time for them to look at others as well. Many years back, to increase his own profits, Henry Ford had started paying his workers more, so that they could buy his cars. In a similar fashion, now the developed world will pay the people of the developing world so that they can buy their cars and washing machines. The recession will kick-start the process of making the entire world more prosperous, and lay the foundation of limits to growth in the west and the foundation of real globalisation in the world - the globalisation of prosperity. And one of its first beneficiaries will be India. 1. What does the author mean by the Right Step in the passage? 1) Giving loans to creditworthy people only 2) Considering market growth along with environment protection 3) Restricting people to buy only such products as are needed by them 4) To start looking at newer avenues and markets 5) None of these 2. According to the passage, which of the following was NOT an effect of providing loans and credits to the customers? (A) The non-creditworthy people defaulted. (B) People bought new products which were not needed. (C) Poverty became non-existent. 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only A and B 4) Only Band C 5) Only C 3. Although admired for years, why did the scepticism over the Japanese management style start since the last decade? 1) Japanese companies have been moving out of their home markets since the last decade. 2) Japanese banks have provided loans indiscriminately to the creditworthy as well as non-creditworthy people. 3) Japanese markets have been going through a period of continuous recession since the last decade. 4) The unlimited growth of the Japanese markets has come at the cost of the western market. 5) None of these 4. Why is the recession the beginning of good news for India in the authors view? (A) India can provide an attractive market to the western companies. (B) India has remained largely unaffected by recession owing to its huge population. (C) Indians keep purchasing products despite owning equally good products. 1) Only C 2) Only B 3) Only A 4) Only Band C 5) None of these 5. According to the author, what is the main cause of the Japanese recession? 1) Only a handful of corporations earned profits and not the people in general. 2) Non-credit worthy people defaulted, which led to a collapse of the entire system.

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3) Consumers were sold newer products which were similar in quality to the existing ones. 4) Japanese do not purchase endlessly and thus when products had been sold to every customer, the markets slowed down. 5) None of these. 6. Why according to the author is the current recession great for Planet Earth? (A) It will make people non-materialistic like the Japanese. (B) The unlimited market growth, which caused hazards to the environment, would be checked to a certain extent. (C) Banks will now provide loans only to the creditworthy people. (D) Developing countries will also be benefited by shifted markets. 1) Only A 2) Only Band D 3) Only Aand B 4) Only B 5) None of these 7. What does the author mean by the dustbinisation of the customer? 1) Convincing the customer to buy products he does not need 2) Denying the non-creditworthy people any loans 3) Denying more loans to people who have already taken loans to a logical limit 4) Moving from old customers in the home market to foreign markets 5) None of these 8. Why does the author foresee the markets being created in the developing countries instead of America and Europe? 1) All developing countries have materialistic culture. 2) Developed countries are willing to make an effort to achieve globalization. 3) The American and European markets have had a large number of credit defaulters. 4) Recession has not hit the markets of developing countries yet. 5) None of these 9. How does the author foresee the future globalisation as an analogy to Henry Fords example? (A) Car companies would start selling cars in developing countries as well. (B) By paying the developing world, the developed world would increase its own profit, in turn bringing affluence to the developing world as well. (C) To earn profit, the companies in developing countries would move to foreign land. 1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A and C 5) None of these Directions (Q.10-12): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 10. Key 1) Foundation 4) Difficult 11. Aggressive 1) Violent 4) Offensive 12. Catering 1) Considering 4) Working 2) Solution 3) Requisite 5) Important 2) Determined 3) Demanding

Directions (Q. 13-15): Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 13. Consuming 1) Destroying 4) Curtailing 14. Surge 1) Decrease 4) Atrophy 15. Prosperous 1) Distressed 4) Worthless 2) Exhausting 5) Spending 2) Deteriorating 5) Crumble 3) Greedy

3) Weakening

2) Helpless 3) Worse 5) Underprivileged

Directions (Q. 16-20): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5) as the answer. 16. The grim job market has taken its toll on students, many of those had hoped for a much better future. 1) much of whom 2) many of whom 3) several of those 4) many of which 5) No correction required 17. The relationship we have with our clients are the cornerstone of our future. 1) our client are 2) each clients is 3) our clients is 4) all clients are 5) No correction required 18. Many developed countries have been attempting to buy agricultural land in other countries to meet their own demand. 1) has been attempting 2) have being attempting 3) are being attempting 4) have been attempted 5) No correction required 19. A nuclear testing fills the air with radioactive dust and left the area uninhabitable 1) and leaves the 2) also leaves the 3) and leaving the 4) and making the 5) No correction required 20. Modem ideas of governance started back to the time when people began to question kings. 1) started when 2) set back to 3) start back to 4) date back to 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 21-25): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 21. One of the TV cameramen was __________ in the leg by a bullet when he was _____________ in the middle of a gun fight between two gangs. 1) hurt, entered 2) Shot, caught 3) injured, came 4) stabbed, trapped 5) beaten, engulfed 22. Although the fire was very small, everyone _____________ and rushed out of the cinema hall _____________ complete chaos. 1) shouted, leading 2) died, producing 3) injured, resulting 4) scared, making 5) panicked, causing

2) Lending 3) Supplying 5) Indulging

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23. The____________of pesticides and fertilizers while growing the vegetables and fruits is one of the greatest ___________ to the health these days. 1) production, dangers 2) consumption, problem 3) overuse, threats 4) application, rewards 5) amount, injury 24. The groups mission is to _________ peace between the nations and help different people ___________ each other better. 1) maintain, understand 2) remain, address 3) keep, interact 4) advise, find 5) communicate, friendly 25. History _______________ the kings and influential leaders whereas the real battle was ________________ by the soldiers who remain little known and celebrated in the texts. 1) remembers, played 2) highlights, underwent 3) biased, lead 4) glorifies, fought 5) writes, done Directions (Q. 26-30): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them. (A) In all varieties of humour, especially the subtle ones, it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives extra meaning to these verses. (B) But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface level. (C) Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated forms of literature . (D) This fulfils the authors main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure. (E) However, the reader who understands the broad implications of the content and allusion finds greater pleasure. (F) The reason being it requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning. 26. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence? 1) (D) 2) (E) 3) (B) 4) (C) 5) (A) 27. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence? 1) (F) 2) (E) 3) (D) 4) (A) 5)(C) 28. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence? 1) (E) 2) (A) 3) (F) 4) (D) 5) (C) 29. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence? 1) (A) 2) (E) 3) (F) 4) (B) 5) (C) 30. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence? 1 ) (A) 2) (B) 3) (F) 4) (C) 5) (D)

Directions (Q.,31-35): Which of the phrases 1),2),3) and 4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark 5) as the answer. 31. When we reached the crash site, we were delighted................ 1) on seeing no survivor 2) we saw everyone living 3) to seeing no one breathing 4) to see everyone alive 5) None of these 32. Even though the school premises had a lot of space................. 1) there were plenty of play areas for the children 2) there was no playground for the children 3) yet it remained under utilised. 4) there was no shortage of classrooms 5) None of these 33. .......................but today, his performance was fairly interesting and riveted everyone to their seats. 1) He is a brilliant performer 2) He tried his best to entertain everyone 3) His performances are generally boring 4) Although he performed after a very long time . 5) None of these 34. In order to help the organization come out of the huge losses, the employees.................... 1) demanded a compensatory package 2) started an agitation against the management 3) decided to join the rival organization 4) decided to file a case against the organization 5) None of these 35. ......................before being packaged for distribution in the market. 1) The milk is pasteurized 2) After the milk is pasteurized 3) Until the milk is pasteurized 4) Firstly the pasteurization of milk 5) None of these Directions (Q. 36-45): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. In economics, the term recession generally describes the reduction of a countrys Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for at least two quarters. A recession is (36) by rising unemployment, increase in government borrowing, (37) of share and stock prices, and falling investment. All of these characteristics have effects on people. Some recessions have been anticipated by stock market declines. The realestate market also usually(38) before a recession. However, real-estate declines can last much longer than recessions. During an economic decline, high-(39) stocks such as financial services, pharmaceuticals and tobacco (40) to hold up better. However, when the economy starts to recover growth, stocks tend to recover faster. There is significant disagreement about how health care and utilities tend to (41). In 2008, an economic recession was suggested by several important indicators of economic downturn. These (42)high oil prices; which led to (43) high food prices due

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to a dependence of food production on petroleum, as well as using food crop products such as ethanol and biodiesel as an (44) to petroleum; and global inflation; a substantial credit crisis leading to the drastic bankruptcy of large and well (45) investment banks as well as commercial banks in various, diverse nations around the world; increased unemployment; and signs of contemporaneous economic downturns in major economics of the world, a global recession. 36. 1) imagined 2) depict 3) shown 4) visualized 5) characterized 37. 1) increase 2) variance 3) more 4) decrease 5) abundance 38. 1) weakens 2) initiates 3) awakens 4) strengthens 5) volatile 39. 1) maintained 2) yield 3) heavy 4) result 5) payment 40. 1) are 2) want 3) tend 4) yearn 5) made 41. 1) distribute 2) recover 3) wait 4) increased 5) fight 42. 1) meant 2) show 3) numbered 4) included 5) encompass 43. 1) fearful 2) dangerous 3) abnormally 4) healthy 5) nutritious 44. 1) alternative 2) variant 3) substitute 4) element 5) integral 45. 1) wealthy 2) costly 3) stand 4) created 5) established Directions (Q.46-50): In each of these questions four words are given denoted by (A), (B), (C) & (D). Two of these only may be either synonyms or antonyms. Find out the correct pair in each question. 46. (A) ECSTASY (B) DEPRESSION (C) INTOXICATION (D) COMPRESSION 1) A-B 2) B-D 3) AD 4) C-D 5) None of these 47. (A) TRANQUILLITY (B) LOYALTY (C) CALAMITY (D) UPROAR l) A-C 2) B-D 3) B-C 4) C-D 5) None of these 48. (A) VILIFICATION (B) NULLIFICATION (C) DENIGRATION (D) FALSIFICTION l) A-B 2) B-C 3) A-C 4) B-D 5) None of these 49. (A) OPAQUE (B) TRANSLUCENT (C) TRANSVERSE (D) TRANSVESTITE 1) A-D 2) 8-D 3) C-A 4) B-A 5) None of these 50. (A) EXORBITANT (B) EXPEDITIOUS (C) QUICK (D) QUEST 1) C-D 2) A-B 3) A-D 4) C-B 5) None of these

II: Test of General Awareness

51. Competence Theory said that a person derives authority because of his(1) Personal competence (2) Technical authority (3) Personality (4) Behavioural attitude (5) None of these 52. Give the full form of MBO : (1) Management balance officers (2) Management by objectives (3) Management bank officers (4) Management banking officers (5) None of these 53. Placement of an employee to a position having higher pay, privileges, benefits is known as (1) Training (2) Promotion (3) Transfer (4) Recruitment (5) None of these 54. When a new employee is informed about the rules, and regulations, procedures, etc. It is known as (1) Orientation training (2) On-job-training (3) Off-job-training (4) Placement training (5) None of these 55. In 1910, who launched a new movement called 'Scientific Management' ? (1) F. W. Taylor (2) B. M. Jones (3) S. B. Kennedy (4) J. B. Arthur (5) None of these 56. In marketing terms, Attitude can best be defined as a (1) rude behaviour of salesperson (2) rude behaviour of consumer (3) mental state of consumer (4) ego of the marketing executive (5) None of these 57. The nominal scale used for marketing research, refers to__ (1) population characteristics based on age or sex or ownership of a specific consumer durable (2) ordering of scale (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (2) and (2) (5) None of these 58. Reference group influences vis-a-vis consumption decision, is a function of the___ (1) product category (2) group characteristics (3) group communication process (4) All of the above (5) None of these 59. Just in time (JIT) technique is getting wider acceptance world over. The technique was first introduced in (1) India (2) Indonesia (3) Japan (4) America (5) None of these

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60. 'Gate keepers___ (1) use the products (2) reports on product performance (3)control the flow of information into buying centre (4) issue challan for discharge of products (5) None of these 61. Consumer Day is celebrated on__ (1) 15th March (2) 16th March (3) 20th April (4) 20th March (5) None of these 62. A situation whereby market is expanded by developing new products to satisfy new consumer needs is called__ (1) Market development (2) Diversification (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) and (2) (5) None of these 63. The level of commitment that consumers feel toward a given brand is called__ (1) Brand equity (2) Brand name (3) Brand loyalty (4) Brand utility (5) None of these 64. Assigning specific jobs and work places to the selected candidates is known as__ (1) Placement (2) Recruitment (3) Transfer (4) Promotion (5) None of these 65. As a counsellor, a personnel manager__ (1) reminds the management of moral obligations towards employees (2) encourages the employees (3) tries to settle the disputes between labourand management (4) All of the above (5) None of these 66.The twelth five year plan of India is for the five years ranging from(1) 2009 2014 (2) 2008 2013 (3) 2012-2017 (4) 2006 2011 (5) None of these 67..DSCR indicates the ability of a company to (1) meet its current liabilities (2) service its shareholders (3) meet its long term debt obligations (4) raise further capital (5) None of these 68.An IPO is--------(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders (2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public (3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company (4) a book building process (5) None of these 69. A decreasing current ratio indicates_________ (1) a stable liquidity (2) an increasing liquidity (3) a strained liquidity (4) satisfactory current solvency (5) None of these

70.Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on ________ . (1) the age of the company (2) the location of the company (3) the activity undertaken by the company (4) the creditability and the valuation of the company (5) the existing profitability of the company 71. Which of the following is technically least sound? (1) Programmer (2) User (3) System analyst (4) Computer operator (5) None of these 72.Which was not there during the fourth generation of computer? (1) Minicomputers(2) Semiconductors (3) CRT terminal (4) Personal computers (5) None of these 73. What is a back up? (1) Restoring the information back up (2) Exact copy of asystems information (3) Ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crashor failure. (4) All of the above (5) None of these 74.Which of the following elements is unique to a Smart Card? (1) Magnetic stripe (2) Microchip (3) Signature (4) Photograph (5) None of these 75. Internet was started as (1) TCP/IP experiment (2) Network for defences forces of America (3) Group of research scientists of Bell Lab (4) Contribution was done by all the above institutions (5) None of these 76. Cut operation also can be accomplished by using the short cut key (1) Ctrl +x (2) Ctrl +a (3) Ctrl +c (4) Ctrl +d (5) None of these 77.A program permanently stored in hardware is called (1) Cellular program (2) Software (3) Firmware (4) Shareware (5) None of these 78. Taking back-up of a file against crash is a (1) Preventive measure (2) Curative measure (3) Decisive measure (4) All of these (5) None of these 79.What is NOT a feature of networking? (1) Reliability (2) Greater storage space (3) Connectivity (4) All are features of networking (5) None of these 80. Which of the following transmission techniques permits data flow in only one direction? (1) Simplex (2) Half-duplex (3) Full duplex (4) Multiplexing (5) None of these 81. Which of the following relieves the host computer from tedious jobs and does them itself?

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(1) Remote concentrator (2) Message switcher (3) Front end processor (4) Demux (5) None of these 82. RAM is a (1) File (2) Network (3) Memory (4) Disk (5) None of these 83. Which of the following is/are called key policy rates issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? (A) Bank Rate (B) Cash Reserve Ratio (C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio Choose the correct answer. (1) Only (A) (2) Only B (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 84. Project Tiger is a scheme launched by the (1) Government of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh (2) Government of India (3) United Nations Wildlife Fund (4) Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (SPCA) (5) None of these 85. Which of the following is an innovative mechanism adopted by banks to meet the targets fixed of lending to priority sector by the banks? (1) Buying & selling of Priority Sector Lending Certification (2) Sale of Kisan Vikas Patra (3) Inter-Bank Participation Certificates (4) Adoption of Core Banking Solution (5) None of these 86. As a policy to boost the agricultural sector in the country, the Government of India has taken several special measures over the years. Which of the following cannot be considered a measure/measures which will have a direct impact(s) on the agricultural sector? (A) Setting up of a National Food Processing Bank (B) Opening irrigation, sanitation and water projects for development under public-private participation (C) Efforts to bring down fiscal deficit to 5.5 percent level of GDP (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 87. Many people talk about the rollback of stimulus packages provided by the Government of India last year to help certain sectors. If these stimulus packages are rolled back, this would mean that (A) those who have availed these benefits would be required to return them to the Government of India. (B) no such incentives would be available henceforth to these sectors. (C) all such benefits/incentives would be available to all the people across the country and will not be restricted to some selected few. (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) Only (B) and (C) 88. The rate at which banks borrow from the RBI is called

(1) SLR (4) Bank Rate

(2) CRR (5) Repo Rate

(3) Interest Rate

89. Consider the following taxes: (A) Corporation tax (B) Customs duty (C) Wealth tax (D) Excise duty Which of these is/are indirect taxes? (1)Only (A) (2) Only (D) (3) Only (B) and (D) (4) Only (A) and (C) (5) Only (B) and (C) 90. Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean (A) Its free float with international currencies (B) Its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country (C) It acts like any other international currency Which of these statements are correct? (1) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (A) and (C) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) All (A), (B) and (C) (5) None of the above 91. Who is the final authority for deciding the design, form and material of bank notes? (1) Central Government (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) Indian Banks Association (4) Note Issuing Authority of India (5) None of these 92. Which of the following organisations/agencies has asked all the banks in India to form customer service panels at branch levels? (1) Indian Banks Association (2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) (3) Supreme Court of India (4) Securities & Exchange Board of India(SEBI) (5) None of these 93. As reported in the newspapers, the collection of Direct Taxes, which includes IT, FBT, STT and BCTT, grew by about 50% during the current fiscal year. Which of the following is the name of the tax levied on a cash withdrawal of deposit from/to a bank? (1) IT (2) FBT (3) STT (4) BCTT (5) None of these 94. Which of the following schemes has been launched specifically for helping senior citizens to avail loan by mortgage of their residential property? (1) English Mortgage Scheme (2) Senior Capital Loan Scheme (3) Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme (4) DEMAT Account Scheme (5) None of these 95.Cryogenic Engines are being developed indigenously by an Indian organisation. These engines are normally used for which of the following purposes? (1) Used for space programme (2) Used for generating nuclear power (3) Used by railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient

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(4) Used in fighter planes (5) None of these 96. According to the UN Convention on the rights to children, which of the following is not a right? (1) Safe drinking water (2) Adequate standard of living (3) Education (4) Marriage (5) None of these 97. World Tourism Day is observed on (1) 24th September (2) 25th September (3) 26th September (4) 27th September (5) None of these 98. Name the anti-Islam filmmaker who has been arrested for violating terms of his probation in a 2010 bank fraud case. (1) Nakoula Basseley Nakoula (2) Sam Bacile (3) Morris Sadek (4) J Christopher Stevens (5) None of these 99. Which of the following is a self-employment programme for educated unemployed youth? (1) Prime Ministers Rozgar Yojana (2) Swarn Jayanti Sahakari Rozgar Yojana (3) National Social Assistance Programme (4) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (5) None of these 100. Who is the president of the World Bank? (1) Paul Wolfowitz (2) James Wolfensohn (3) Rodrigo De Rato (4) Allen Greenspan (5) Jim Yong Kim

III: Data Analysis and Interpretation

Directions(Qs.101-105): Study the table to answer these questions.
Year State P Q R S T U V Total 2009 A Q A 2010 Q A 2011 Q A 14680 12680 14600 9600 13400 12440 22400 2012 Q 2200 1060 1750 1050 1875 1230 1950 11115

18700 1480 12640 14690 16000 20500 12780 735 650 820 960 13480 12450 16900 8600 10480 1050 12000

1075 16400 1560 670 14500 1510 960 13700 1550 625 18400 2000 1180 12600 1200 690 15800 1570 1765 24800 2728

18400 1850 19600 111550 7545 95670

6965 116200 12118 99800

Note: A = Appeared Q = Qualified. Above table shows that number of candidates appeared and qualified in a competitive examination from different States over the years. Study the table carefully and answer the questions. 101. Which of the following states registered the maximum percentage of those qualified with respect to those appeared in 2011 ? (1) S (2) T (3) P (4) Q (5) None 102. For which of the following years the percentage of candidates qualified with respect to those appeared for state V is the minimum ? (1) 2009 (2) 2010 (3) 2011 (4) 2012 (5) None Which of the following stateregistered a continous increase with respect to the previous year in the number of candidates qualified ? (1) P (2) Q (3) V (4) T (5) None What approximately is the average number of candidates qualified in 2004 from the given States ? (1) 1585 (2) 1588 (3) 1590 (4) None of the above (5) None What is the approximate average number of candidate, appeared from state Q every year ? (1) 14480 (2) 14485 (3) 14490 (4) 13838 (5) None

103.

104.

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105.

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Directions (Q.106-110): Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow. In a ship there are 1200 passengers. 18 per cent of the total number of passengers are from Britain. Two-fifths of the total number of passengers are from South Africa. 6 per cent of the total number of passengers are from Madagascar. The remaining number of passengers are from India. 25 per cent of the number of passengers from Britain are females. Half the number of passengers from South Africa are males. There is no female

SBI PO-MOCK TEST

107. The number of male passengers from South Africa is approximately what percentage of the total number of passengers from Britain? (1) 111 (2) 115 (3) 120 (4) 125 (5) 131 108. What is the average number of male passengers from all the four countries? (1) 154.5 (2) 164.5 (3) 145 (4) 164 (5) None of these 109. What is the difference between the number of male passengers from Madagascar and the number of male passengers from India? (1) 64 (2) 82 (3)74 (4)72 (5) None of these 110.What is the total number of male passengers from Britain and female passengers from India together? (1)340 (2)420 (3) 350 (4)460 (5) None of these

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passenger from Madagascar. Two-thirds of the number of passengers from India are females. 106. What is the ratio of the number of passengers from Madagascar, the number of female passengers from South Africa and the total number of passengers from India? (1) 2:5:18 (2) 3:10:18 (3) 3:11:18 (4) 2: 18: 5 (5) None of these

113.The pooled average marks of both the boys and the girls in all the subjects was minimum from which of the following schools ? (1) Q (2) P (3) T (4) S (5) R 114.In case of which of the following schools was the total marks obtained by girls in Mathematics 100% more than the total marks obtained by boys in History ? (1) R (2) S (3) P (4) Q (5) T 115.What was the difference between the total marks obtained in Mathematics by boys from school R and the girls from school S ? (1) Nil (2) 1100 (3) 100 (4) 1200 (5) None of these Directions (Qs. 116 to 120) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it : IMPORTS OF 3 COMPANIES OVER THE YEARS (RS. IN CRORE)

100 80 60 40 20 0

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

Directions (Qs. 111 to 115) : Read the following table carefully and answer the questions give below it : AVERAGE MARKS OBTAINED BY 20 BOYS AND 20 GIRLS IN FIVE SUBJECTS FROM FIVE DIFFERENT SCHOOLS.
B = Boys G = Girls Mx M= Maximum Marks
Schools P Sub. Mx B G B Q G B R G B S G T B G

Company B Company C
116.In which of the following years the imports made by Company B were exactly equal to the average imports made by it over the given years ? (1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2005 (5) None of these 117.In which of the following years was the difference between the imports made by Company B and C the maximum ? (1) 2005 (2) 2004 (3) 2001 (4) 2002 (5) None of these 118.In which of the following years was the imports made by Company A exactly half of the total imports made by Company B and C together in that year ? (1) 2002 only (2) 2003 only (3) 2002 and 2003 (4) 2005 only (5) None of these 119.What was the percentage increase in imports by Company B from 2002 to 2003 ? (1) 10 (2) 25 (3) 40 (4) 20 (5) None of these 120.In which of the following years was the total imports made by all the three companies together the maximum ? (1) 2006 only (2) 2007 only (3) 2005 only (4) 2005 & 2007 only (5) None of these 121.Ashok borrowed some money at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. For the first two years, at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a for the next three years and at the rate of 14 p.c.p.a. For the

Company A

M
English 200 History 100 Geog. 100 Science 200 85 40 50 90 80 50 45 40 40 95 7 5 100 110 50 45 50 55 60 55 65 40 50 75 6 0 105 110 45 65 55 60 90 60 65

105 125 110 120 125 115 85 8 5 135 130

140 135

Maths 200 120 110

8 0 130 135

111.What were the total marks obtained by boys in History from school Q ? (1) 900 (2) 1000 (3) 800 (4) 1300 (5) None of these 112.In which of the following subjects did the girls have highest average percentage of marks from all the schools ? (1) Science (2) Geography (3) English (4) History (5) Mathematics

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period beyond five years. If he pays a total interest of Rs. 11,400 at the end of nine years, how much money did he borrow ? (1) Rs. 16,000 (2) Rs. 14,000 (3) Rs. 18,000 (4) Rs. 12,000 (5) None of these 122.Twenty-four men can complete a work in sixteen days. Thirty-tow women can completed the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for twelve days. How many more men are to be added to complete the remaining work in 2 days ? (1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 16 (5) None of these 123.An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 12 respectively. If the total share of Q and R is four times that of P, what is definitely the P's share ? (1) Rs. 3,000 (2) Rs. 5,000 (3) Rs. 8,000 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 124.The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 1/11th of the sum of the number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits. What is the difference between the digits of that number ? (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these 125.The length of a rectangular plot is 20 meters more than is breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot @ Rs. 26.50 per meter is Rs. 5,300, What is the length of the plot in meters ? (1) 40 (2) 120 (3) 50 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Directions (126-130): Study the following graphs carefully to answer these questions. Quantity of various items produced and the amount earned by selling them Quantity produced Total = 2000 tons.

126. If the expenditure incurred in production of product C per ton was Rs. 16000, what was the per cent profit earned? (1) 12.5 (2) 11.11 (3) 12.25 (4) 11.28 (5) None of these 127. What is the average per ton selling price of all the six products together? (1) Rs. 20,525 (2) Rs. 18,500 (3) Rs. 22,500 (4) Rs. 20,500 (5) Rs.18,525 128.What is the selling price of product A per ton? (1) Rs. 17,580 (2) Rs. 18,570 (3) Rs.17,850 (4) Rs. 18,750 (5) None of these 129.Approximately, What was the average selling price per ton of products D & E together? (1) Rs. 21,800 (2) Rs. 22,800 (3) Rs. 22,000 (4) Rs. 22,500 (5) Rs. 23,500 130.Which product has the highest selling price per ton? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) None of these Direction: (131-135) Study the following questions to answer these questions:

Dept / Scale Personnel Operations Systems Accounts Maintenance Public Relations

II

III IV V VI
75 40 25 4 65 20 70 28 35 15 20 35 8 5

225 120

725 426 250 126 750 576 320 144 300 288 120 60 325 240 85 30 175 150 100 50

Income by selling the products Total = Rs. 45 millions

131. What is the ratio between the total number of employees in Scale III and Scale IV respectively? (1) 19:9 (2) 9:19 (3) 17:9 (4) 9:17 (5) None of these 132. Total number of employees in Scale VI is what per cent of the total number of employees in Scale-I? (1) 2.8 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.6 (4) 3.2 (5) None of these 133. In Public Relations department the number of employees in Scale II is less than that in Scale I by what percent? (rounded off to two digits after decimal). (1) 14.67 (2) 16.67 (3) 14.29 (4) 16.27 (5) None of these 134. Out of the total number of employees in Personnel department, approximately what per cent of employees are in scale II? (1) 30 (2) 28 (3) 22 (4) 20 (5) 25

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135. What percentage of Scale IV officers are deployed in Operations department? (1) 26.5 (2) 28 (3) 28.5 (4) 27 (5) None of these Directions(Q. 136-140): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions given below it. Percentage of students passed over appeared from six States over the years in an admission test.

Directions (Q. 141-145): These questions are based on the following graphs: Distribution of candidates studying Arts and Commerce from seven different institutes A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Total Number of Students Studying Arts = 3800

Total Number of Students Studying Commerce= 4200

136. If the number of students appeared from each State in the year 2002 was 5000, approximately what was the average number of students qualified? (1) 1810 (2) 1550 (3) 1380 (4) 1780 (5) 1860 137. If in the year 1998, 18500 students appeared from State C and 17200 students appeared from State E, what was the total number of students qualified from these two States together? (1) 10262 (2) 10444 (3) 10536 (4) 10833 (5) None of these 138. If the number of students appeared from State A in 1997 was more than that in 1996 by 20%, what was the ratio of numbers qualified in the State A in 1996 and 1997 respectively? (1) 4 : 9 (2) 16 : 27 (3) 5 : 6 (4) 32 : 45 (5) None of these 139. If the numbers of students qualified from State D in 1999 and 2000 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively, what was the respective ratio of students appeared in these years? (1) 13 : 27 (2) 13 : 19 (3) 26 : 57 (4) 19 : 27 (5) None of these 140. If the average number of students qualified from State e for the given years was 532, what was the average number of students appeared? (1) 1420 (2) 1350 (3) 1422 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

141. What is the ratio between the number of students studying Arts from Institute E and the number of students studying Commerce from Institute D respectively? (1) 17 : 19 (2) 19 : 27 (3) 14 : 19 (4) 19 : 21 (5) None of these 142. What is the total number of students studying Arts from Institutes A and G together? (1) 1102 (2) 918 (3) 966 (4) 1130 (5) None of these 143. How many students are studying commerce from Institutes B and D together? (1) 1158 (2) 1302 (3) 1232 (4) 1272 (5) None of these 144. How many students are studying Arts and Commerce from Institue B? (1) 1418 (2) 2000 (3) 1018 (4) 1208 (5) None of these 145. What is the ratio between the numbers of students studying Arts and Commerce respectively from Institute E? (1) 19 : 27 (2) 17 : 29 (3) 19 : 29 (4) 17 : 27 (5) None of these

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Directions (Q.146-150): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions. Production (in lakh tonnes) of product by six companies over the given years.

IV: Test of Reasoning (High Level)

(Directions (Q. 151-155): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. ) 5DEF6 I4BMA7$J#HLO@PTU2RQ 151. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a numeral and also immediately preceded by a consonant? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) None of these Which of the following is exactly midway between the sixth element from the right end and the eighth element from the left end of the arrangement? 1)# 2) J 3)$ 4)H 5) None of these The position of the first and the fourteenth elements in the arrangement are interchanged. Similarly, the second. and the fifteenth elements are interchanged, and so on, upto the twelfth and twentyfifth elements. Which element will be second to the right of eighth element from the right end after rearrangement? 1) P 2) @ 3) 4) 1 5) None of these How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a numeral and also immediately followed by a consonant? 1) None 2) one 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1) 14 : MA 2) HL: @ P 3)6 :4B 4) PT: 2R 5) 7A: #J

152.

146.Production of Company B in 1999 was what percent of the total production of all the companies together for that year (rounded off to the nearest integer) ? (1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 22 (4) 18 (5) None of these 147. During which year was the percentage increase/ decrease in production from the previous year the lowest for Company A? (1) 2002 (2) 1998 (3) 2000 (4) 1999 (5) None of these 148. What was the difference between the total productions of companies E & F (in lakh tonnes) in the given years? (1) 178 (2) 86 (3) 76 (4) 72 (5) None of these 149. Approximately what was the average production of all the six companies (in lakh tonnes) in the year 1998? (1) 590 (2) 550 (3) 570 (4) 450 (5) 620 150. What was the percent fall in production of Comapny C in 2000 over that in 1999 (rounded off to two digits after decimal)? (1) 25.61 (2) 26.51 (3) 36.07 (4) 37.16 (5) None of these

153.

154.

155.

Directions (Q. 156-160): In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 156. Statements: a. Some rats are cats. b. All cats are dogs. c. No dog is a horse. d. All horses are bulls. Conclusions: I. No dog is a bull. II. Some dogs are bulls. III. Some dogs are rats. IV. Some bulls are rats. 1) None follows 2) All follow 3) Only either I or II and III follow

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157. Statements: a. Some umbrellas are sticks. b. Some sticks are balls. c. Some balls are bats. d. All bats are guns. Conclusions: I. Some baIls are umbreIlas. II. Some guns are bats. III. Some sticks are guns. IV. Some balls are guns. 1) Only I, II and IV follow 2) Only II and IV follow 3) Only II, 1lI and IV follow 4) Only I, Il and III follow 5) None of these 158. Statements: a. Some books are notebooks. b. Some notebooks are dictionaries. c. Some dictionaries are files d. All files are envelopes. Conclusions: I. Some envelopes are notebooks. II. Some files are books. III. Some books are dictionaries. IV. No book is an envelope . 1) None follows 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only III and IV follow 5) None of these 159. Statements: a. Some keys are chains. b. All chains are locks. c. All locks are numbers. d. No number is a digit. I. Some keys are numbers. II. All chains are numbers. III. Some locks are keys. IV. No digit is a chain. Conclusions: 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only II, III and IV follow 5) All follow Statements: a. Some floppies are CDs. b. Some CDs are keyboards. c. Some keyboards are computers. d. Some computers are monitors. Conclusions: I. Some monitors are floppies. II. No floppy is a monitor. III. Some computers are CDs. IV. Some keyboards are floppies. 1) Only I follows 2) Only I, III and IV follow 3) Only II flows

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4) Only I and III follow 5) Only I, II and III follow

4) Only either I or II follows 5) None of these 161. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1)133 2)112 3) 98 4) 91 5) 104 In a certain code LETHARGY is written as ZHSBMFUI. How is MANGROVE written in that code? 1)FUPSNBOH 2)SPWFNBOH 3)SPWFHOBN 4) FWPSNBOH 5) None of these If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the fourth, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word MANGROVES, the first letter ofthe word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, your answer is X and if no such word can be formed your answer is Z. 1) A 2) R 3) G 4) X 5) Z In a certain code SAID is written as #%35 and RED is written as @ 65. How is RAISE written in that code? 1) @%3#5 2)@6%#5 3) #%3@5 4)#%6@5 5) None of these In a class of 36 students Ravis rank from the top is 12. Radhika ranks three places above Ravi. What is Radhikas rank from the bottom? 1)27 2) 28 3) 26 4)29 5) None of these

162.

163.

164.

165.

Directions (Q. 166-170): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Ten executives A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J stay in flats in two rows opposite each other. One row has 5 flats facing North and the other row has 5 flats facing South. Fs flat is second to the right of Js flat, which is exactly opposite of Cs flat facing North. Ds flat is on the immediate left of Js flat and As flat is on the immediate left of Cs flat. Bs flat is on the right of Cs flat. I and E have flats at the two ends of the same row. Flats of E and H are opposite each other. 166. Which of the following is the correct position of Gs flat? 1) Facing North 2) Opposite Cs flat 3) To the left of Fs flat 4) To the left of Js flat 5) None of these 167. Who stays opposite B ? I) F 2) G 3) D 4) F or G 5) None of these 168. Which of the following statements is definitely true? 1) Js flat is facing North. 2) G and A have flats opposite each other

160.

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169.

Which of the following groups of persons have flats in the same row? 1) ACG 2) GIE 3) GJF 4) FAJ 5) None of these Which of the following pairs of executives stay in the flats at the ends of a row? 1)FD 2) HD 3) HG 4) GD 5) None of these

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3) 4) 5)

Bs flat is to the right of Es flat. Gs flat is to the left of Js flat. None of these

172.

173.

170.

174.

Directions (Q. 171-175): Following are the conditions for the selection of an Economist in an organisation: To be eligible for selection, the candidate must: I. be a postgraduate in Economics with minimum 55% marks. II. have secured minimum 65% marks at graduation in any discipline . III. have completed 21 years of age but not more than 28 years of age as on 1.4.2006. IV. have at least one years post-qualification experience of working as an officer. V. have cleared the selection test with at least 50% marks. However, if a candidate satisfies all the abovementioned conditions except (i) at IV above, but is PhD in Economics, the case may be referred to the Vice President (VP) of the organisation. (ii) at I above, but has secured minimum 50% marks in postgraduation and has at least 2 years of post-qualification experience, the case is to be referred to the Board of Directors. In each ofthe following questions details of one candidate are given as regards his/her candidature. You have to read the infonnation provided and decide his/her status based on the conditions given above and the information provided. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.4.2006. Now read each question and decide which of the following courses of action you would take in each case and mark your answers accordingly. Give answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected. 2) if the case is to be referred to the Board of Directors. 3) if the case is to be referred to the VicePresident. 4) if the data provided is not adequate to take a decision. 5) if the candidate is not to be selected. 171. Vikas Mehrotra is a graduate and postgraduate in Economics with 70% and 60% marks respectively. He has also got PhD in Economics in 2005 at the age of 26 years. Immediately after submitting his PhD thesis in July 2005, he joined a private bank as a Finance Executive. He has cleared the selection test with 64% marks.

175.

Shyamlal, an Economics graduate with 68% marks, did his postgraduation in Economics in 2004 at the age of 24 years. He has cleared the selection test with 70% marks. He has secured a second class with 56% marks atpost-graduation. He has been working as an officer since December 2004. Ranjana is a graduate in Economics and MBA in Finance with 70% marks at each level. She is 25 years old and has been working as a Finance Executive for the last 1 years. She has cleared the selection test with 60% marks. Nikita has done BCom with 72% marks and has done MA in Economics securing 63% marks. She has been working as a Finance Officer for last 2 years. Her date of birth is 24.12.1978. Srikanth is a postgraduate in Economics securing 52% marks. He has passed BSc with 72% marks and has been working as a Jr Manager since July 2003 after completing postgraduation. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks. He has recently completed 26 years of age.

Directions (Q. 176-180): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by three arguments num-bered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. 176. Should there be a complete ban on celebration of various days in colleges? Arguments: I. No, there is nothing wrong in celebrating the days and enjoying once in a while. II. Yes, children are giving more importance to such celebrations than the studies. III. No, this type of celebration gives opportunity for children to express their feelings. 1) Only I and II are strong 2) Only II and III are strong 3) Only III is strong 4) Only II is strong 5) None of these 177. Should the Examination Boards give separate time for reading the question paper over and above the stipulated time for answering the paper? Arguments: I. No, it is not necessary to give separate time since reading the question paper takes hardly any time. II. No, reading the question is a part of preparation for writing the answer and therefore no separate time is required to be given. III. Yes, separate time is necessary since a lot of time goes in reading the question paper and many students find it very difficult to complete the answer paper in spite of having the knowledge. 1) Only I is strong

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2) Only II is strong 3) Only III is strong 4) Only II and III are strong 5) None of these 178. Should the Government impose restrictions on access to sensitive information to the journalists to avoid the media hype? Arguments: I. Yes, the media creates hype and publishes distorted information at times II. No, journalists should have an access to all the information as media is the best source to expose the malfunctions in the society. III. Yes, at times it leads to harassment of those who are affected and alleged to be involved in the crisis 1) All I, II and III are strong 2) Only I and II are strong 3) Only II and III are strong 4) Only II is strong 5) None is strong 179. Should the Government introduce a system of obtaining bond from students for working in India before sanc-tioning education loan for higher studies? Arguments: I. No, this is not a workable solution and will obstruct the development of young talent in the country. II. Yes, this is the only way to ensure use of the talent of our country for the development of the country and not only an individual. III. No, this step will be too harsh. 1) Only I is strong 2) Only II is strong, 3) Only I and II are strong 4) None is strong 5) None of these 180. Should the minimum age of marriage for boys be brought down to 18 years? Arguments: I. No an 18 year old boy is not capable of taking re-.sponsibility to start a family. II. Yes, since the minimum age for marriage for girls is 18 years, the same should be applicable for boys as well. III. No, the boys should be allowed to marry only after they become self-dependent. 1) Only I is strong 2) Only II is strong 3) Only IlI is strong 4) Only either I or II is strong 5) None of these Directions (Q. 181-185): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer 1) if only assumption I is implicit, 2) if only assumption II is implicit, 3) if either I or II is implicit, 4) if neither I nor II is implicit 5) if both I and II are implicit. 181. Statement: We should revise e wage structure in order to retain our good employees. - Comment of a member of the Management Committee of a company Assumptions: I. Wage structures of other companies involved in parallel activities are better. II. Wage structure is one of the most important factors for the employees of the company. 182. Statement: Do not indulge in unfair practices or else you will be sacked from the college. Warning to the students from the principal of a college. Assumptions: I. Some of the students were found using unfair practices. II. The principals warning may deter the students from using unfair practices. 183. Statement: Invest in our regular scheme and earn an interest of at least 10%. Advertisement by a Financial Institution Assumptions: I. 10% interest may attract a good number of investors. II. No other scheme offers interest as high as 10%. 184. Statement: Make use of computers to maintain your data and get rid of the hassle.-An advice to the administrative staff by the management Assumptions: I. Members ofthc administrative staff are conversant in operating computers. II. Maintaining administrative data is an important activity for any organisation. 185. Statement: For easier and faster communication, use our broadband connections. - An advertisement Assumptions: I. Many people are looking up for best communication facilities. II. Broadband connections are preferred mode of communication. Directions (Q. 186- 190): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context ofthe passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer: 1) if the inference is definitely true, ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given. Mark answer: 2) if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.

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Mark answer: 3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. Mark answer: 4) if the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts given. Mark answer 5) if the inference is definitely false, ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Directions (Q.191-195): The second figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the first figure. Similarly one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.

After being thwacked all over the park over the last decade or so by competition, India at last has a chance of getting a bit of its tea export market back, courtesy the drought in Kenya, which could shrink that countrys 2006 crop by 25% from last years level of 330 million kg. There is an immediate market opening up in the form of next-door neighbour Pakistan, which sourced from Kenya almost 66% of its calendar 2004 imports of 120 million kg of mainly CTC Tea. Sensmg an opportunity with Indias CTC teas coming qualitatively closer to Kenya than other origins like Vietnam and Bangladesh with Sri Lanka focusing on the orthodox variety, the consultative committee of plantation associations is working with officialdom to be part of a trade mission to Islamabad and to invite a Pakistani tea delegation here. Indian tea exports to Pakistan are up, touching by the seventh month of calendar 2005, the 2004 level of 4 million kg. 186. Kenya is expecting a total tea crop of around 250 million kg in 2006. 187. If India wants to capture major share in the world tea market, it has to provide better quality than that of Vietnam and Bangladesh. 188. Kenya till 2005 was the largest tea supplier in the world market. 189. Indias tea exports to Pakistan increased substantially from 2004 to 2005. 190. India is nor equipped to supply quality tea to Pakistan as a replacement of supply from Kenya.

Directions (Q.196-200): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?