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1.

(Points: 1) The closer job applicants' actual job performances match their expected performances, the greater the ____ of the selection process.

a. Reliability b. Stability c. Validity d. Congruence

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2.
(Points: 1) On what basis do courts judge the job-relatedness of a selection practice in discrimination suits?

a. On whether the selection criteria were based on job evaluation information b. On whether the selection criteria were based on job analysis information c. On whether the selection criteria were based on job content information d. On whether the selection criteria were based on job context information

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3.
(Points: 1) Which of the following is a particularly effective approach to follow while deciding which selection technique to use?

a. The criterion-related strategy b. The content-oriented strategy c. The behavior consistency model d. The behavior motivation model

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4.
(Points: 1) In following a ____ strategy, a firm attempts to provide evidence showing a relationship between applicant selection scores and subsequent job performance levels.

a. Content-oriented b. Validity generalization c. Criterion-related d. Reliability

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5.
(Points: 1) In following a ____ strategy, the firm attempts to demonstrate that other companies have already demonstrated the validity of the selection instruments.

a. Content-oriented b. Criterion-related c. Validity generalization d. Reliability

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6.
(Points: 1) To be considered valid, the ____ must be statistically significant, and its magnitude must be sufficiently large to be of practical value.

a. Predictor score b. Criterion score c. Validity coefficient d. Reliability coefficient

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7.
(Points: 1) To use validity generalization evidence, an organization must present all but which of the following?

a. Studies summarizing a selection measure's validity for similar jobs in other settings b. Data showing the similarity between jobs for which the validity evidence is reported c. Data showing the similarity between the selection measures in the other studies composing the validity evidence and those measures to be used in the new employment setting d. Organizations must present all of the above in using validity generalization evidence.

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8.
(Points: 1) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission's functions include enforcing the law and ____.

a. Formulating the law b. Ratifying the law c. Interpreting the law d. Evaluating the law

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9.
(Points: 1) The ____ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution pertains to an individual's privacy rights and protects job candidates and employees from unreasonable intrusions by the employer.

a. Second b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Fourteenth

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10.
(Points: 1) When the questions included on the biodata inventory are identical to those included on the application blank, the instrument is called a ____.

a. Weighted application blank b. Mental ability test c. Biographical information blank d. Job specification inventory

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11.
(Points: 1) All but which of the following are legal guidelines for giving references?

a. Obtain written consent from the employee prior to giving any information b. Provide all the information available c. Avoid subjective statements d. Report only fully documented and provable facts

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12.
(Points: 1) ____ is defined as a very general mental capability that involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly, and learn from experience.

a. Aptitude b. Intelligence c. Capacity d. Skill

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13.
(Points: 1) A(n) ____ is a comprehensive, standardized procedure in which multiple assessment techniques such as situational exercises and job simulations are used to evaluate individual employees for various purposes.

a. Work sample simulation center b. Assessment center c. Simulation center d. Personality assessment center

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14.
(Points: 1) Effective selection practices can impact an organization's competitive advantage in all but which of the following ways?

a. Improved profitability b. Achieving legal compliance c. Increased profits d. Increased training costs

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15.
(Points: 1) The sole use of a ____ strategy for demonstrating validity is most appropriate for selection devices that directly assess job behavior.

a. Content-oriented b. Criterion-related c. Validity generalization d. Predictive validation

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16.
(Points: 1) ____ programs are designed to make workers better employees by bringing about permanent changes in their knowledge base, attitudes, and skills.

a. Career development b. Training and development c. Human resource development d. Knowledge development

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17.
(Points: 1) Which type of training is given to workers to keep them up to date with technological advances and new laws or procedures?

a. Remedial training b. Developmental training c. Change-related training d. Technical training

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18.
(Points: 1) Which of the following can be used to prioritize training needs by assessing the areas in which the largest number of employees require training?

a. Task inventories b. Ability inventories c. Performance analysis d. Job analysis

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19.
(Points: 1) To maximize participant learning in training, the programs should be presented in a way that:

a. Gains and maintains the trainees' attention b. Provides the trainees with an opportunity to practice the skills being taught c. Provides the trainees with feedback on their performance d. All of the above should be done to maximize participant learning.

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20.
(Points: 1) ____ refers to practice divided into segments or sessions.

a. Distributed practice b. Divided practice c. Massed practice d. Segmented practice

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21.
(Points: 1) Which of the following methods can lead to imperfect knowledge due to incorrect or inefficient methods employed by the worker providing the training?

a. On-the-job training b. Job instruction training c. Role-playing d. Behavior modeling

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22.
(Points: 1) ____ is a passive learning device, focusing on one-way communication to learners who do not have the opportunity to clarify material.

a. Computer-based instruction b. The case method c. Lecture d. Interactive video training

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23.
(Points: 1) As part of a teachers function as facilitators or catalysts in the case method, they should encourage students to do all but which of the following?

a. Try out ideas b. Speak their mind c. Disagree with one another d. Teacher should allow students to perform all of the above activities.

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24.
(Points: 1) The issues addressed during feedback for role-playing typically revolves around all but which of the following questions?

a. What was correct or incorrect about the participant's behavior? b. How did the participant's behavior make the other participants feel? c. How could the trainee have handled the situation more effectively? d. Feedback for role-playing is based on all of the above questions.

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25.
(Points: 1) Which of the following methods is best suited to teach trainees' a particular task if there is only one right way of performing that task?

a. Behavior modeling b. Role-playing c. Case method d. Lecture

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26.
(Points: 1) Which of the following types of training can be used to present prerecorded content to demonstrate a point, such as showing an operating procedure to a surgeon?

a. Job instruction training b. On-the-job training c. Video training d. Case method

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27.
(Points: 1) How can trainees increase the likelihood of their applying their newly learned skills at the conclusion of a training program?

a. By posttraining follow-up b. By overlearning c. By developing an action plan d. By multiphase programming

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28.
(Points: 1) ____ exposes candidates to various organizational settings by rotating them through a number of departments.

a. Job rotation b. Mentoring c. Career resource centers d. Out-placement centers

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29.
(Points: 1) The goals of orientation include all but which of the following?

a. Introduce the new worker to co-workers within the department b. Explain the nitty-gritty aspects of the job, such as meals, breaks, and parking c. Increase the new employee's concerns associated with their new job d. Create an awareness of the scope of the company's business

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30.
(Points: 1) All but which of the following is a problem plaguing existing appraisal systems?

a. Use of only one rater b. Plenty of rater training c. Failure to base appraisal instrument on job analysis d. Poor feedback skills of appraisers

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31.
(Points: 1) Which of the following performance standards would provide an employee with the clearest idea of what the company expects of them?

a. Work quickly b. Process eight customer orders per hour c. Get along with your colleagues d. Be happy-don't worry

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32.
(Points: 1) What type of errors occur when an appraiser avoids giving any ones and fives on a five point scale leading to difficulties in discerning the best and worst performers?

a. Halo effect errors b. Leniency errors c. Central tendency errors d. Severity errors

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33.
(Points: 1) Which type of error occurs as a result of memory decay?

a. Leniency errors b. Recency errors c. Severity errors d. Central tendency errors

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34.
(Points: 1) When an organization's performance appraisal system is challenged in court, courts will raise all but which of the following questions.

a. Whether there is a formal structure rating instrument b. Are the rating factors well defined or are they vague and ambiguous c. Whether the appraiser is knowledgeable about the job to be rated d. Courts may inquire into all of the above with respect to an organization's performance appraisal system.

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35.
(Points: 1) A ____ approach requires a rater to assign a certain percentage of employees to each category of excellence, such as best, average, or worst.

a. Forced distribution b. Simple ranking c. Paired comparison d. Tri-lateral ranking

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36.
(Points: 1) How does a BARS anchor each measured trait to reflect varying levels of performance?

a. With numbers b. With adjectives c. With examples d. With case studies

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37.
(Points: 1) ____ is a management system designed to achieve organizational effectiveness by steering each employee's behavior toward the organization's mission.

a. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) b. Just in time management (JIT) c. Management by objectives (MBO) d. Job enrichment (JE)

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38.
(Points: 1) Which of the following would not be useful in getting managers to support a performance appraisal system?

a. Make the performance appraisal process meaningful b. Train managers and help them find a way to keep track of all the things their employees have done during the review period c. Hold managers accountable for providing accurate ratings on a timely basis d. Rely solely on HR professionals when developing the system

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39.
(Points: 1) In which of the following cases should a behaviorally based rating instrument be used?

a. If valid output measures are available b. If valid output measures are not available c. If the appraiser is aware of the behavior required for the job and has the opportunity to observe that behavior d. If the appraiser is aware of the behavior required for the job but does not have the opportunity to observe that behavior

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40.
(Points: 1) The use of ____ may uncover areas of subordinate-supervisor disagreement, lead to more constructive appraisal interviews, and make employees more receptive to suggestions.

a. Peer ratings b. Self-ratings c. Supervisor ratings d. Subordinate ratings

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41.
(Points: 1) For MBO goal setting to be effective, the individual's goals must be all but which of the following?

a. Consistent with goals set at the higher organizational level b. Realistic and achievable c. Vague and challenging d. Measurable

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42.
(Points: 1) ____ statements should specify performance standards and proposed measurement of those standards.

a. Goal b. Performance c. Appraisal d. Measurement

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43.
(Points: 1) The phrase "financial returns" in the definition "all forms of financial returns and tangible services and benefits employees receive as part of an employment relationship" refers to ____.

a. Pay b. Paid vacations c. Employee discounts d. All of the above

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44.
(Points: 1) An effective compensation system can do all but which of the following?

a. Create morale and turnover problems b. Ensure legal compliance with EEO regulations c. Enhance recruiting efforts d. Improve the organization's cost-efficiency

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45.
(Points: 1) Organizations unable to contain compensation costs may be forced to implement ____.

a. Restricted overtime b. Unpaid vacations c. Massive layoffs d. Hiring freezes

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46.
(Points: 1) Which of the following refers to the perceptions that people have concerning what they contribute to a job?

a. Effort b. Input c. Performance d. Participation

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47.
(Points: 1) Employees will believe that their pay is equitable when they perceive which of the following circumstances?

a. When there is internal competitiveness b. When there is external consistency c. When there is employee contributions equity d. All of the above conditions produce feelings of equity.

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48.
(Points: 1) Job evaluation ratings focus on ____.

a. Requirements of the job b. Requirements of the jobholder c. Requirements for job performance d. Requirements of job performance

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49.
(Points: 1) Standards that organizations should employ to promote effective job evaluation ratings include all but which of the following?

a. Consistency b. Correctability c. Representativeness d. Fairness

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50.
(Points: 1) When job evaluations have been completed, jobs are grouped into ____.

a. Job grades b. Classification grades c. Comparable grades d. Pay grades

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51.
(Points: 1) Under the Fair Labor Standards Act, which of the following would not be classified as an exempt employee?

a. A university president b. A college professor c. An administrative employee that spends half of their time doing clerical work d. An outside sales person

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52.
(Points: 1) Which of the following courses of action should an employer take when state minimum wage levels differ from that imposed by the FLSA?

a. Pay employees FLSA minimum wages b. Pay employees state minimum wages c. Pay employees the lesser of the two rates d. Pay employees the higher of the two rates

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53.
(Points: 1) Which one of the following is a contributing factor to the gender pay gap according to those espousing the market factor view?

a. Women have more seniority than men because of lower retention rates. b. Women tend to stay in the workforce for longer periods of time. c. Many more men than women work part-time. d. Women voluntarily choose to enter lower paying career fields.

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54.
(Points: 1) ____ of 1984 provides for the continuation of health insurance coverage of a period of up to three years for employees who leave a company through no fault of their own.

a. The Fair Labor Standards Act b. The Employee Benefit Protection Act c. The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act d. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

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55.
(Points: 1) After employees have satisfied certain age and time requirements, the employee becomes ____ in their pension plan and has a right to participate in the plan.

a. Certified b. Vested c. Classified d. Socialized

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56.
(Points: 1) Most state unemployment compensation laws disqualify workers from receiving benefits for all but which of the following?

a. Quitting one's job without good cause b. Being discharged for misconduct connected with work c. Refusing suitable work while unemployed d. The worker was terminated for a minor offense without warning.

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57.
(Points: 1) ____ help a company determine the worth of its jobs by ensuring that job evaluations are based on up-to-date and accurate job descriptions.

a. HR professionals b. Job raters c. Line managers d. Executive managers

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58.
(Points: 1) The HRM department is generally responsible for all but which of the following compensation administration issues?

a. Overseeing the job evaluation process b. Negotiating starting salaries c. Conducting pay surveys d. Assuring EEO compliance

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59.
(Points: 1) Which type of programs try to improve productivity by increasing employee motivation and encourages workers to actively engage in "appropriate behaviors?"

a. Job enrichment programs b. HR development programs c. Productivity improvement programs d. Motivation improvement programs

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60.
(Points: 1) ____ states that workers make conscious decisions about how hard they are going to work to achieve organizational goals.

a. Reinforcement theory b. Equity theory c. Two-factor theory d. Expectancy theory

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61.
(Points: 1) Unfair administration of pay-for-performance programs create legal problems by violating ____.

a. The Employee Benefit Protection Act b. National Labor Relations Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act d. Fair Labor Standards Act

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62.
(Points: 1) Which theory states that employees will not be motivated to attain a reward if they do not value the reward?

a. Equity theory b. Expectancy theory c. Value theory d. Reinforcement theory

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63.
(Points: 1) According to Edward Lawler, all but which of the following is recommended for organizations interested in starting a merit pay plan?

a. Make pay increases public b. Do not deliver rewards as a salary increase c. Do not deliver instant or spot rewards d. Make sure individual performance can be measured accurately

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64.
(Points: 1) A major problem with both merit pay and piece-rate plans is their emphasis on ____.

a. Competition b. Individual performance c. Unrealistic performance goals d. Stress inducing performance expectations

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65.
(Points: 1) ____ offer employees a cash reward for meeting or exceeding goals based on the collaborative performance of a team of employees.

a. Quality circle plans b. Gainsharing plans c. Piece-rate plans d. Merit pay plans

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66.
(Points: 1) Problems associated with gainsharing plans are due to all but which of the following reasons?

a. Employee perceptions of unfairness b. Dwindling employee suggestions for improving efficiency c. Inflexibility of payout formulas d. Reduction of competition among team members

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67.
(Points: 1) Which type of profit-sharing plan distributes a portion of each period's earnings immediately and holds the rest in reserve for future distribution?

a. Mixed plans b. Deferred plans c. Distribution plans d. Combination plans

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68.
(Points: 1) Which process can be used to improve productivity through better decisions?

a. On-the-job training b. Performance appraisal c. Productivity improvement d. Employee empowerment

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69.
(Points: 1) Which of the following factors determine the amount of authority an employee enjoys in a participative decision-making program?

a. Complexity of the decision b. Number of people affected by the decision c. The employee's seniority in the organization d. All of the above

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70.
(Points: 1) The participative decision-making program purportedly works well because it tailors the amount of employee empowerment to ____.

a. The employers needs b. The employees needs c. The job requirements d. The specific situation

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71.
(Points: 1) Quality circles can improve productivity and efficiency by doing all but which of the following?

a. Getting valuable input from employees b. Improving communications among workers and between workers and management c. Increasing motivation through employee empowerment d. Quality circles can improve productivity and efficiency by doing all of the above.

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72.
(Points: 1) Which type of training is essential for the implementation of a continuous improvement program due to the fact that it allows team members to move from job to job within the team?

a. On-the-job training b. Cross-training c. Change-related training d. Job instruction training

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73.
(Points: 1) Viewed from the perspective of expectancy theory, managers can favorably impact employee motivation by:

a. Setting easy to achieve performance expectations b. Providing accurate performance appraisals c. Selecting common rewards d. Reducing employee responsibility

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74.
(Points: 1) What type of training should be provided to managers in companies implementing a merit pay system?

a. Job analysis training b. Job evaluation training c. Performance appraisal training d. Performance evaluation training

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75.
(Points: 1) When using reinforcement theory to motivate employees, employees will not be motivated to change their behaviors if consequences remain unchange

a. Managers can eliminate the positive consequences associated with the behavior. b. Managers can add positive consequences for improved behavior. c. Managers can add negative consequences to the behavior. d. Managers can proscribe the same consequences to each employee.

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