PART A :
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions (Qs. 17) : Select the
related letters/word/number from the
given alternatives.
1. 16 : 36 : : 49 : ?
(A) 81 (B) 94
(C) 64 (D) 89
2. 9 : 738 : : 7 : ?
(A) 750 (B) 550
(C) 650 (D) 350
3. SGH : TIJ : : UKL : ?
(A) ROP (B) HIM
(C) OUR (D) VMN
4. BYE : DAG : : GDJ : ?
(A) IFL (B) EHB
(C) ILF (D) EBH
5. DEFH : HJLP : : BCDJ : ?
(A) DFHU (B) DHFT
(C) CFIS (D) DFHT
6. PNLJ : IGEC : : VTRP : ?
(A) RSTU (B) QOMK
(C) RPOM (D) QSRC
7. ABCE : BCEG : : ? : EGKM
(A) DEGK (B) BCEI
(C) CEGI (D) CEGK
8. Rule : In the reverse English
alphabet, the number of letters skipped
in between adjacent letters in the series
increases by one.
Which of the following letterseries
follows the given rule ?
(A) YWTOF (B) WURNI
Staff Selection Commission
SubInspectors In DP, CAPFs
& CISF, August 2012
Question Paper (Fully Solved)
(C) TRPNL (D) SNJGE
9. Number of letters skipped in
between adjacent letters in the series
increases by one. Which of the following
series observes the ruling given above ?
(A) PSVYBE
(B) KMOQSU
(C) CFILOR
(D) UWZDIO
Directions (Qs. 1013) : A series is
given, with one term/number/letter
missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete
the series.
10. 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ___?___
(A) 12 (B) 13
(C) 7 (D) 10
11. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, ___?___
(A) 80 (B) 76
(C) 77 (D) 65
12. BDF, CFI, EIM, ___?___
(A) KPS (B) RVZ
(C) AEH (D) HMR
13. G H J M ___?___ V
(A) Q (B) S
(C) T (D) R
14. If 3rd January is Sunday, what date
will be three days after the fourth
Wednesday in the month ?
(A) 26 (B) 23
(C) 30 (D) 27
2 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
15. Choose the word which cannot be
formed from the letters of the given
word CHRISTMAS.
(A) CRUST (B) HARM
(C) CHRIST (D) SMART
16. A national leader was born on 29th
February in a particular year. He will
have his birthday once in
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 2 years (D) None of these
17. If two days before yesterday is
Monday, what will be the day of the
week 3 days after day after tomorrow ?
(A) Wednesday (B) Saturday
(C) Thursday (D) Friday
18. If FIRST i s wri tten as
HKTUV, how will SECOND be
written as ?
(A) UGEQSF
(B) UGEQPF
(C) UGEMPF
(D) UHEQPF
19. A meaningful word starting with
R is made from the first, second, fourth,
fifth and eighth letters of the word
CREATIVE. Which of the following is
the middle letter of the word ?
(A) C (B) A
(C) E (D) T
Directions (Qs. 2025) : Select the
one which is different from the other
three responses.
20.
(A) 9545 (B) 7647
(C) 7859 (D) 8432
21.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
22.
(A) Urdu (B) Gujarati
(C) Hindi (D) Sindhi
23.
(A) Fable (B) Anecdote
(C) Story (D) Poem
24.
(A) Adjourn (B) Defer
(C) Postpone (D) Cancel
25.
(A) 39 (B) 36
(C) 24 (D) 12
26. If JOSEPH i s coded as
FKOALD, then GEORGE will be
coded as
(A) JAKINS
(B) CADMNO
(C) CAKNIJ
(D) CAKNCA
Directions (Qs. 2731) : In these
questions, select the missing number
from the given responses.
27.
2 1 3
10 1 6
15 4 4
? 4 2
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 3
28.
46656 2 4
? 2 3
256 2 2
(A) 8796
(B) 3008
(C) 2765
(D) 3125
29. 2 + 2 = 5
3 + 3 = 7
3 + 6 = 11
5 + 25 = ?
(A) 35 (B) 40
(C) 32 (D) 34
30.
(A) 12 (B) 11
(C) 10 (D) 9
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 3
31.
16 93 305
38 82 ?
42 67 178
12 108 254
(A) 127 (B) 132
(C) 72 (D) 63
32. A man walks 30 km towards South
and turns left and walks 50 km. Then
he walks 10 km North before he takes
a left turn to walk 50 km. How far is he
from the original place ?
(A) 30 km
(B) 0 km
(C) 10 km
(D) 20 km
33. A lady runs 12 km towards North
then 6 km towards South and then
8 km East. How far is she from her
starting point and in which direction ?
(A) 10 km NorthEast
(B) 10 km West
(C) 5 km NorthEast
(D) 5 km East
34. Samira is taller than Sanjay, but
shorter than Sushil. Sunil is as tall as
Samira, but shorter than Sandeep, who
is not as tall as Sushil. Who is the
tallest ?
(A) Sandeep (B) Samira
(C) Sanjay (D) Sushil
Directions (Qs. 35 & 36) : In these
questions, two statements are given
followed by four conclusions I, II, III
and IV. You have to consider the
statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You are to decide which
of the given conclusions, if any, follow
from the given statements.
35. Statements :
1. All books are pens.
2. Some pens are scales.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are scales.
II. Some scales are books.
III. Some scales are pens.
IV. Some pens are books.
(A) Only conclusions III and IV
follow
(B) Only conclusions I and IV follow
(C) Only conclusions I and II follow
(D) Only conclusions II and III
follow
36. Statements :
1. All stones are men.
2. All men are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. All stones are tigers
II. All tigers are stones.
III. All men are stones.
IV. Some tigers are stones.
(A) All conclusions follow
(B) Conclusions I, II and IV follow
(C) Only conclusions II and III
follow
(D) Only conclusions I and IV follow
Directions (Qs. 3739) : From the
given answer figures, select the one in
which the question figure is hidden/
embedded.
37. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
38. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
39. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40. In the figure given below, what
does B represent ?
(A) Students who are both singers
and dancers
(B) Students who cannot dance
(C) Students who are singers
(D) Students who are dancers
41. How many students take Maths
and Physics but not Spanish ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 12
(D) 7
42. Which answer figure will complete
the pattern in the question figure ?
Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
43. A represents persons who talk
Tamil, B represents persons who talk
Telugu, C represents persons who talk
Kannada, D represents persons who
talk Hindi.
Number of persons who talk any 3
languages is
(A) K, I (B) H, K
(C) F, H (D) F, K
Directions (Qs. 4446) : A piece of
paper is folded and cut as shown below
in the question figures. From the given
answer figures, indicate how it will
appear when opened.
44. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45. Question figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 5
46. Question figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Qs. 47 & 48) : If a mirror
is placed on the line PQ, then which
of the answer figures is the correct
image of the given figure ?
47. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48. Question figure
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Qs. 49 & 50) : A word
is represented by only one set of
numbers as given in any one of the
alternatives. The sets of numbers given
in the alternatives are represented by
two classes of alphabets as in the two
matrices given below. The columns
and rows of Matrix I are numbered
from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are
numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first
by its row and next by its column, e.g.
F can be represented by 14, 21, etc.
and P can be represented by 68, 75,
etc. Similarly, you have to identify the
set for the word given in each question.
49. DRIFT
MatrixI MatrixII
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 P I D S T 5 F P R S D
1 U N R Q M 6 N L M T I
2 D A E F G 7 A S N P R
3 B W V L N 8 D G Z W O
4 C H J K I 9 N C K E S
(A) 85, 75, 96, 32, 40
(B) 58, 57, 96, 23, 40
(C) 20, 57, 69, 23, 68
(D) 20, 12, 69, 32, 40
50. DIRT
MatrixI MatrixII
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 D E F I N 5 O P R S T
1 I N D E F 6 S T O P R
2 E F I N D 7 P R S T O
3 N D E F I 8 T O P R S
4 F I N D E 9 R S T O P
(A) 24, 34, 57, 66
(B) 00, 10, 76, 86
(C) 10, 00, 76, 86
(D) 43, 34, 88, 79
ANSWERS
1. (A) : 4
2
16
6
2
36
7
2
49
9
2
81
2. (D): 738 = 9
3
+ 9
Similarly
7
3
3. (D): First letter +1 step
Second and thi rd l etters
+2 steps.
6 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
4. (A) : Each letter moves +2 steps.
5. (D): Each letter moves steps equal
to its position in the alphabet.
D
+ steps 4
H etc. .
6. (B) : Each letter moves 2 steps.
7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D)
10. (D): Numbers at odd places
+1
11. (D): Numbers at odd places
Numbers at even places
2
12. (D): First letter +1, +2, +3
steps.
Second letters +2, +3, +4
steps.
Third letter +3, +4, +5
steps.
13. (A)
14. (C) : Sunday
1st Wednesday 6th
January
4th Wednesday 27th
3 days after 27th January
30th
15. (A) : There is no U in the given
word.
16. (B) 17. (C)
18. (B) : Each letter is coded +2 steps.
19. (B) : Given letters
C R A T E
R E A C T
20. (B) : Sum of the digits of other
numbers are prime numbers.
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (D)
25. (A) : The only odd number.
26. (D): Each letter is coded 4 steps.
27. (D): The number in the last row
number Second
number Third number First
=
(Columnwise)
28. (D): 2 + 2 = 4
4
4
= 256
4 + 2 = 6
6
6
= 46656
Similarly
3 + 2 = 5
5
5
= 3125
29. (A) :
2
2
2 2 5 + + =
3
3
3 3 7 + + =
3
6
6 3 11 + + =
Similarly
35
5
25
25 5 = + +
30. (A) : Top number + Middle number
= sum of lower numbers
31. (A) : In each column,
First number + Second
number
= Third number + Fourth
number
32. (D):
Required distance
= 30 10 = 20 km
33. (A) :
Required distance
km 10 6 8
2 2
= + =
34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A)
38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (C)
42. (D) 43. (C)
44. ( ) : No fold of paper is shown.
45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (B)
49. (C) 50. (A)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 7
PART B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE &
GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Demand for labour is
(A) Composite demand
(B) Competitive demand
(C) Derived demand
(D) Joint demand
52. In Indi a, Nati onal Income
estimates are prepared by
(A) National Development Council
(B) Central Statistical Organisation
(C) Nati onal Sample Sur vey
Organisation
(D) Planning Commission
53. Who among the following were
members of the Swaraj Party ?
1. Motilal Nehru
2. Sardar Patel
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 only
54. Employment in Agriculture comes
under
(A) Services Sector
(B) Semiorganised Sector
(C) Organised Sector
(D) Unorganised Sector
55. Which of the following methods
is effective in controlling Balance of
Payments (BoP) ?
(A) Abolition of Export Duties
(B) Tourism Development
(C) Devaluation
(D) Foreign Direct Investment
56. Provisions relating to Panchayati
Raj can be found in which Schedule of
the Indian Constitution ?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 7
(D) 9
57. The first battle of Panipat took
place in the year
(A) 1527 A.D.
(B) 1528 A.D.
(C) 1525 A.D.
(D) 1526 A.D.
58. Who is the exofficio Chairman
of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Leader of Opposition
(B) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) President
(D) VicePresident
59. According to the Constitution,
which Fund will be under the control
of the President of India ?
(A) Contingency Fund of India
(B) Public Provident Fund
(C) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) States Consolidated Fund of
India
60. Who is chosen by the members
of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) President
(B) VicePresident
(C) Chairperson
(D) Deputy Chairman
61. Arrange the following in order,
starting from the earliest :
1. Rowlatt Act
2. Regulating Act
3. Woods Despatch
4. Simon Commission
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 2, 1, 3, 4
62. The boundary line between India
and China is called
(A) McMahon Line
(B) Red Line
(C) Radcliffe Line
(D) Durand Line
8 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
63. 95% of worlds diamond reserves
are found in
(A) Ghana
(B) Kimberley
(C) Johannesburg
(D) Zambia
64. The most dangerous consequence
of excessive deforestation is :
(A) destructi on of wi l d ani mal
habitats
(B) soil erosion
(C) loss of forest wealth
(D) loss of many valuable plants
65. Green house effect means
(A) Trapping of solar energy due to
atmospheric carbon dioxide
(B) Preventi on of ul travi ol et
radiations by ozone layer
(C) Pollution in houses in tropical
region
(D) None of these
66. The most stable ecosystem is
(A) Desert
(B) Ocean
(C) Forest
(D) Mountain
67. An ideal example of sustainable
resource is
(A) Afforestation
(B) Farming
(C) Reforestation
(D) Agroforestation
68. What is the recent source of
pollution of underground water ?
(A) Thermal Power Stations
(B) Biogas Plants
(C) Sewage
(D) Landfills
69. The Indian Prime Minister who
died in Tashkent was
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Indira Gandhi
70. What was the name of the Samaj
founded by Raja Rammohan Roy ?
(A) Brahmo Samaj
(B) Satya Samaj
(C) Prarthana Samaj
(D) Arya Samaj
71. The man who led the Mutiny in
Bihar was
(A) Ranjit Singh
(B) Pratap Singh
(C) Amar Singh
(D) Kunwar Singh
72. During whose reign did Hiuen
Tsang visit Kanchipuram (the capital of
Pallavas) ?
(A) Mahendra Varma II
(B) Narasimha Varman I
(C) Mahendra Varma
(D) Rajasimha
73. The Suez Canal connects the
Mediterranean Sea with the
(A) Caspian Sea
(B) Persian Gulf
(C) Red Sea
(D) Black Sea
74. Which one of the following is
not a correct match ?
(A) Haldia West Bengal
(B) Kandla Gujarat
(C) Marmagao Goa
(D) Paradeep Assam
75. Doddabetta Peak is located in the
(A) Anaimalai
(B) Mahendragiri
(C) Nilgiris
(D) Shevaroys
76. Genes are made up of
(A) Only RNA
(B) Only DNA
(C) DNA, RNA and Protein
(D) DNA and RNA
77. The Lotus plants have no root
hairs because
(A) the conducting tissue is not well
developed in roots.
(B) it can store water in the stem.
(C) the roots are adventitious.
(D) it need not absorb water by roots.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 9
78. The organism living at the bottom
of water mass is called
(A) Benthos
(B) Plankton
(C) Nekton
(D) Neuston
79. Light energy is converted to
chemical energy during the process of
(A) photosynthesis.
(B) fat metabolism.
(C) transpiration.
(D) respiration.
80. Each chromosome in the nucleus
of a cell consists of
(A) two chromatids only.
(B) two centromeres only.
(C) two centromeres attached to a
chromatid.
(D) two chromatids attached to a
centromere.
81. White blood cells are produced
in the
(A) Tongue
(B) Thyroid gland and suprarenal gland
(C) Bone marrow and lymph glands
(D) Ductless glands
82. Find the odd one :
(A) Limestone
(B) Slaked iron
(C) Marble
(D) Chalk
83. A basic instruction that can be
interpreted by computer generally has
(A) an operation and an address
(B) an instruction register and an
address
(C) a decoder and an accumulator
(D) None of the above
84. Software needs to be protected
against
(A) fire, flood, lightning and rock
slides
(B) unauthorised access
(C) worms and viruses
(D) Both (B) and (C)
85. Alta Vista is a/an
(A) browser
(B) search engine
(C) application
(D) software
86. Cold air blows from sea towards
land during day particularly in the
afternoon because of
(A) expansion of air of land causing
the air to rise up.
(B) lower specific heat and greater
absorbing power causes land to
be hotter than sea causi ng
convection current in air.
(C) l ower specifi c heat of land
compared with water.
(D) greater absorbing power of land
compared with water.
87. The material used for safety from
nuclear radiation is
(A) Gold
(B) Lead
(C) Copper
(D) Platinum
88. The filament of the electric bulb
is generally made of tungsten because
(A) its melting paint is low.
(B) its temperature coefficient of
resistance is high.
(C) its resistivity is low.
(D) its melting point is high.
89. The apex organi sati on for
marketing cooperative soci eti es at
national level is
(A) NCCF
(B) NCU
(C) FCI
(D) NAFED
90. God hel ps those who hel p
themselves. Who said these words ?
(A) Algernon Sidney
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Swami Vivekanand
(D) Andre Maurois
10 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
91. Mother Teresa was awarded the
Nobel Peace Prize in
(A) 1976
(B) 1979
(C) 1969
(D) 1971
92. As per 2011 Census results, the
density of population in India is
(A) 362
(B) 382
(C) 325
(D) 345
93. Indias Space Rocket Launching
Centre is in
(A) Sriharikota
(B) Port Blair
(C) Wheeler Island
(D) Hassan
94. Who has been sworn in as the
Uni on Rail way Mi ni ster after the
resignation of Dinesh Trivedi ?
(A) Muket Rai
(B) Prasano Dev Barua
(C) Mukul Roy
(D) Harihar Banerji
95. The natural gas is
(A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) Sulphur trioxide
96. Desalination of sea water is done
by
(A) reverse osmosis
(B) fractional distillation
(C) diffusion
(D) osmosis
97. The manmade structure on Earth
visible from space is
(A) Great Wall of China
(B) Gizas Pyramid
(C) Golden Gate Bridge
(D) Eiffel Tower
98. Which one of the following actors
was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke
Award at the 59th National Fi l m
Festival ?
(A) Soumitra Chatterjee
(B) Ketan Mehta
(C) Shekhar Kapoor
(D) Mahesh Bhatt
99. Which is the only host team to
win the ICC (50 over) Cricket World
Cup ?
(A) South Africa
(B) India
(C) Australia
(D) West Indies
100. The objective of Sangam Yojna
is
(A) to make Ganga water pollution
free.
(B) to make Sangam region of
Allahabad more attractive for
tourists.
(C) to unite various group of Hindus.
(D) to ensure wel fare of handi
capped.
ANSWERS
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D)
55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (D)
59. (A) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A)
63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (B)
67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (D)
75. (C) 76. (B) 77. (D) 78. (A)
79. (A) 80. (D) 81. (C) 82. (B)
83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (B) 86. (B)
87. (B) 88. (D) 89. (D) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (A) 94. (C)
95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A)
99. (B) 100. (D)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 11
PART C : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank
in 6 hours and 8 hours respectively. If
both the pipes are opened together, then
after how many hours should B be closed
so that the tank is full in 4 hours ?
(A) 2 (B)
3
8
(C)
3
2
(D) 1
102. A sofaset listed at Rs. 800 is sold
to a retailer at successive discounts of
25% and 15% by the wholesaler. Then
the cost price of the sofaset for the
retailer is
(A) Rs. 550 (B) Rs. 560
(C) Rs. 500 (D) Rs. 510
103. A washing machine is sold at a
discount of 30%. If a man buys it for
Rs. 6,580, its list price is
(A) Rs. 9,400 (B) Rs. 6,990
(C) Rs. 7,500 (D) Rs. 8,600
104. Two numbers are in the ratio of
3 : 5. If 9 be subtracted from each,
then they are in the ratio of 12 : 23.
Find the numbers.
(A) 33 : 55 (B) 60 : 69
(C) 15 : 28 (D) 36 : 115
105. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3
parts of which are water and 5 parts
syrup. How much of the mixture must
be drawn off and replaced with water
so that the mixture may be half water
and half syrup ?
(A)
5
1
(B)
7
1
(C)
3
1
(D)
4
1
106. The average weight of 40
children of a class is 36.2 kg. When
three more children with weights 42.3
kg, 39.7 kg and 39.5 kg join the class,
the average weight of the 43 children in
the class is
(A) 38.35 kg (B) 37.3 kg
(C) 39.2 kg (D) 36.5 kg
107. The value of
096 . 4 625 . 0 025 . 0
625 . 15 256 . 0 064 . 0
is
(A) 0.24 (B) 4.2
(C) 2 (D) 2.4
108. The simplified value of

\

+ + + +
+ +
3
1
5
1
5
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
5
1
5
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
3
1
5
1
4
1
3
1
3
5
1
5
1
5
1
4
1
4
1
4
1
3
1
3
1
3
1
is
(A)
60
13
(B)
60
49
(C)
60
51
(D)
60
47
109. The least number of 5 digits
which has 123 as a factor, is
(A) 10081 (B) 10063
(C) 10037 (D) 10086
110. For a certain month, the dates
of three of the Sundays are even
numbers. Then, the 15th of that month
falls on a
(A) Saturday (B) Sunday
(C) Thursday (D) Friday
111. If [n] denotes the greatest integer
< n and (n) denotes the smallest integer
> n where n is any real number, then
) 5 . 1 (
5
1
1
5
1
1
5
1
1
5
1
1 +
(
\

\

is
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.5
(C) 1.5 (D) 2
12 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
112. To do a certain work, B would
take time thrice as long as A and C
together and C twice as long as A and
B together. The three men together
complete the work in 10 days. The time
taken by A to complete the work
separately is
(A) 30 days (B) 20 days
(C) 22 days (D) 24 days
113. The rate of interest per annum
at which the total simple interest of a
certain capital for 1 year is equal to the
total simple interest of the same capital
at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years,
is
(A) 25% (B) 12.5%
(C) %
2
5
(D) 10%
114. A cube of edge 6 cm is painted
on all sides and then cut into unit cubes.
The number of unit cubes with no sides
painted is
(A) 186 (B) 108
(C) 0 (D) 64
115. A sector is formed by opening
out a cone of base radius 8 cm and
height 6 cm. Then the radius of the
sector is (in cm)
(A) 10 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 8
116. A right angled isosceles triangle
is inscribed in a semicircle of radius
7 cm. The area enclosed by the semi
circle but exterior to the triangle is
(A) 44 cm
2
(B) 68 cm
2
(C) 14 cm
2
(D) 28 cm
2
117. The base of a right prism is an
equilateral triangle of side 8 cm and
height of the prism is 10 cm. Then the
volume of the prism is
(A) cm cubic 3 150
(B) cm cubic 3 300
(C) cm cubic 3 320
(D) cm cubic 3 160
118. A right cylindrical vessel is full
with water. How many right cones having
the same diameter and height as that of
the right cylinder will be needed to store
(Take = 22/7)
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 2
119. What is the area of a triangle
having perimeter 32 cm, one side 11 cm
and difference of other two sides 5 cm ?
(A)
2
cm 30 6 (B)
2
cm 2 8
(C)
2
cm 30 8 (D)
2
cm 35 5
120. A man purchases milk for three
consecutive years. In the first year, he
purchases milk at the rate of Rs. 7.50
per litre, in the second year, at the rate
of Rs. 8.00 per litre and in the third
year, at Rs. 8.50 per litre. If he purchases
milk worth Rs. 4,080 each year, the
average price of milk per litre for the
three years is
(A) Rs. 7.54 (B) Rs. 7.83
(C) Rs. 7.68 (D) Rs. 7.98
121. A man bought a certain quantity
of rice at the rate of Rs. 650 per quintal.
20% of the rice was spoiled. At what
rate should he sell the remaining rice to
gain 20% on the outlay ?
(A) Rs. 890 (B) Rs. 975
(C) Rs. 775 (D) Rs. 850
122. A dishonest shopkeeper, using a
faulty balance makes a profit of 5%
while buying as well as while selling his
goods. His actual gain percent in the
whole process amounts to
(A) 10.25 (B) 10.5
(C) 11 (D) 10
123. The price of an article has been
reduced by 25%. In order to restore the
original price, the reduced price must be
increased by
(A) 33% (B) %
3
1
33
(C) 25% (D) 30%
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 13
124. The numerator of a fraction is
increased by 20% and denominator is
decreased by 20%. The value of the
fraction becomes 4/5. The original
fraction is
(A)
11
7
(B)
5
4
(C)
3
2
(D)
15
8
125. Points A and B are 70 km apart
on a highway. A car starts from A and
another from B at the same time. If
they travel in the same direction, they
meet in 7 hours, but if they travel
towards each other, they meet in one
hour. Find the speed of the 2 cars (in
km/hr).
(A) 30, 50 (B) 20, 40
(C) 20, 30 (D) 40, 30
126. If G be a centroid of a triangle
magnitude of BGC is
(A) 120 (B) 135
(C) 60 (D) 90
Internal bisectors of angles B
BAC = 80, then the value of BOC
is
(A) 110 (B) 130
(C) 120 (D) 140
128. The radii of two circles are 5 cm
and 3 cm, the distance between their
centres is 24 cm. Then the length of the
transverse common tangent is
(A) cm 2 16 (B) 15 cm
(C) 16 cm (D) cm 2 15
129. The angle of elevation of an
aeroplane from a point on the ground is
60. After 15 seconds flight, the elevation
changes to 30. If the aeroplane is flying
at a height of , m 3 1500 find the speed
of the plane.
(A) 100 m/sec (B) 150 m/sec
(C) 300 m/sec (D) 200 m/sec
130. If sec + tan = 2, then the
value of sec is
(A) 5/4 (B)
2
(C) 4/5 (D) 5
sin = l and
sec cos = m, then the value of
l
2
m
2
(l
2
+ m
2
+ 3) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
132. The value of (tan 35 tan 45
tan 55) is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C)
2
1
(D) 2
133. If sec (7
3 ), then the value of is
(A) 60 (B) 9
(C) 8 (D) 5
134. A spherical lead ball of radius
10 cm is melted and small lead balls of
radi us 5 mm are made. The total
(Take = 22/7)
(A) 800 (B) 125
(C) 8000 (D) 400
135. If ax
2
+ bx + c = a(x p)
2
, then
the relation among a, b, c would be
(A) b
2
= 4ac (B) 2b = a + c
(C) abc = 1 (D) b
2
= ac
136. If x + y + z = 6, then the value
of (x 1)
3
+ (y 2)
3
+ (z 3)
3
is
(A) 3 (x 1) (y 2) (z + 3)
(B) 3 (x 1) (y 2) (z 3)
(C) 3 (x 1) (y + 2) (z 3)
(D) 3 (x + 1) (y 2) (z 3)
137. The graph of the equation
4x 5y = 20 intersects the xaxis at the
point
(A) (4, 5) (B) (0, 5)
(C) (2, 0) (D) (5, 0)
138. If x + y = 2z, then the value of
z y
z
z x
x
is
(A) 1/2 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 3
14 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
139. If x
2
+ 1 = 2x, then the value of
1 x 3 x
x
1
x
2
2
4
+
+
is
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 1
140. Chords AB and CD of a circle
intersect externally at P. If AB = 6 cm,
CD = 3 cm and PD = 5 cm, then the
length of PB is
(A) 6 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 6.25 cm
141. O is the centre of a circle and
O. AB is extended to P. Then, PBC is
(A) 65 (B) 80
(C) 75 (D) 70
Directions (Qs. 142146) : Study the
following graph carefully and answer
these questions.
142. The average export of pearls for
the given period (in crores Rs.) was
(A) 9.73 (B) 8.85
(C) 8.7 (D) 8.73
143. In whi ch year was there
maximum percentage increase in export
of pearls to that in the previous year ?
(A) 2005
(B) 2004
(C) 2002
(D) 2007
144. In how many years was the export
above average for the given period ?
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
145. In which of the following pairs
of years was the average export of pearls
around Rs. 9 crores ?
(A) 2004 and 2005
(B) 2005 and 2006
(C) 2002 and 2003
(D) 2003 and 2004
146. What was the percentage increase
in export from 2006 to 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) %
3
1
33
(C) %
3
2
16
(D) 19%
Directions (Qs. 147150) : A graph
showing the price of rice in India
during the years 2000 to 2003 is given
below. Study the graph carefully and
answer the questions.
147. For the month of May, the graph
shows that the price of rice was the
lowest in the year
(A) 2002
(B) 2003
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 15
148. The range of price for a year is
the difference between the maximum
and the minimum prices for that year.
The graph shows that this range of price
was the greatest for the year
(A) 2002 (B) 2003
(C) 2000 (D) 2001
149. The month in which the prices
of rice were equal for the years 2000
and 2001 was
(A) June
(B) November
(C) September
(D) August
150. The maximum difference in price
between any two years was in the month
of
(A) March
(B) December
(C) January
(D) November
ANSWERS
101. (A) : A is opened for 4 hours,
portion of tank filled by A
in 4 hours
3
2
6
4
= =
Portion of tank filled by B
3
1
3
2
1 = =
Time taken by B
. hrs
3
8
8
3
1
= =
102. (D): Cost price for the retailer
= 800 0.75 0.85
= Rs. 510
103. (A) : Required list price
9400 . Rs 6580
70
100
= =
104. (A) : Only numbers in option (A)
sati sfy the fi rst gi ven
condition. They also satisfy
second condition.
105. (A)
106. (D): Required average weight of
43 children
43
5 . 39 7 . 39 3 . 42 2 . 36 40 + + +
=
5 . 36
43
5 . 120 1448
=
+
=
107. (C) :
096 . 4 625 . 0 025 . 0
625 . 15 256 . 0 064 . 0
4096
15625
625
256
25
64
=
2
64
125
25
16
5
8
= =
108. (D): Putting and b
4
1
, a
3
1
= =
c
5
1
=
The fraction reduces to
) ca bc ab ( c b a
abc 3 c b a
2 2 2
3 3 3
+ + + +
+ +
) ca bc
ab c b a (
) ca bc ab
c b a )( c b a (
2 2 2
2 2 2
+ +
+ + + +
=
= a + b + c
5
1
4
1
3
1
+ + =
60
47
60
12 15 20
=
+ +
=
109. (D): The number must be
divisible by 3.
110. (A)
111. (D):
+
(
\

\

5
1
1
5
1
1
5
1
1
5
1
1
(1.5)
16 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
2 1 2 1 + 2 = 2
112. (D): Let (A + C) complete the job
in x days.
B will complete the job in 3x
days
10
1
x
1
x 3
1
= +
10
1
x 3
3 1
=
+
3
40
x =
B takes 40 days
Similarly
Let (A + B) takes y days
C will take 2y days.
10
1
y 2
1
y
1
= +
10
1
y 2
3
=
y = 15
As one days work
40
1
15
1
=
24
1
120
5
120
3 8
= =
=
A takes 24 days to do the
job.
113. (D) 114. (D)
115. (A) : Radius of the sector formed
= Slant height of the cone
cm 10 6 8
2 2
= + =
116. (D):
Area of the semi circle.
7 7
7
22 1
=
= 77 sq. cm
In ABC, AB = AC
Area of ABC
2
AB
2
1
AC AB
2
1
= =
BC
2
= AB
2
+ AC
2
= 2AB
2
98
2
14 14
AB
2
=
=
Area of ABC
2
cm 49 98
2
1
= =
Required area
= 77 49 = 28 cm
2
117. (D): Volume of the prism
= Area of the base height
10 8 8
4
3
=
cc 3 160 =
118. (A)
119. (C) : Perimeter = 32 cm
One side = 11 cm
Sum of two sides = 21 cm
Difference of two sides
= 5 cm
Sides are 13 cm and 8 cm
Area of the triangle
) c s )( b s )( a s ( s =
Where 16
2
32
s = = and a, b,,
c are sides of the triangle
Required area
8 3 5 16 =
cm . sq 30 8 =
120. (D): Total quanti ty of mi l k
purchased in three years
5 . 8
4080
8
4080
5 . 7
4080
+ + =
= 544 + 510 + 480
= 1534 litres
Average price per litre
98 . 7 . Rs
1534
4080 3
=
=
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 17
121. (B) : Let the rice bought be x
quintals.
Total cost price = 650x
Gain = 20%
Total selling price
= 650x 1.2
= 780 x
Selling price per quintal
975 . Rs
x 8 . 0
x 780
= =
122. (A)
123. (B) : Let the price be Rs. 100
Reduced price = Rs. 75
Percentage increase
%
3
1
33
3
100
100
75
25
= = =
124. (D): Let the fraction be
y
x
.
5
4
y 8 . 0
x 2 . 1
=
15
8
0 . 6
2 . 3
y
x
= =
125. (D): Let the speed of the car A
be x km/hr and that of car
B be y km/hr.
7x = 7y + 70
and (x + y) = 70
x = 70 y
490 7y = 7y + 70
14y = 420
y = 30 km/hr
x = 70 30 = 40 km/hr
126. (D)
127. (B) :
ABC + ACB = 100
OBC + OCB
=
= 50
2
100
In OBC
BOC = 180 50 = 130
128. (A)
129. (D):
3 60 tan
OA
3 1500
= =
OA = 1500 m
3
1
30 tan
OB
3 1500
= =
OB = 4500 m
Distance covered i n 15
seconds.
= 4500 1500 = 3000 m
Speed
s / m 200
15
3000
= =
130. (A) : We have
1 tan sec
2 2
= u u
) tan )(sec tan (sec u u u + u
= 1
1 ) tan (sec 2 = u u
) 2 tan sec ( = u + u (Given)
2
1
tan sec = u u
and 2 tan sec = u + u
2
5
2
2
1
sec 2 = + = u
4
5
sec = u
131. (A)
18 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
132. (B) : tan 35 tan 45 tan 55
= tan 35 tan 45 tan (90
35)
= tan 35 tan 45 cot 35
= tan 45 = 1.
133. (C) : ) 28 7 sec( + u
= ) 3 30 ( ec cos u
)) 28 7 ( 90 ( ec cos + u
= ) 3 30 ( ec cos u
u = u 3 30 28 7 90
u u = 3 7 30 28 90
= u 32 4
= u 8
134. (C) : Total number of small balls
8000
2
1
3
4
) 10 (
3
4
3
3
=

\

t
t
=
135. (A) : = + + c bx ax
2
a(x
2
+ p
2
2px)
= ax
2
+ ap
2
2apx
b = 2ap or
a 2
b
p
=
2
2
2
a 4
b
a ap c = =
4ac = b
2
136. (B) : Let x 1 = a
y 2 = b
z 3 = c
a + b + c = x + y + z 6
= 6 6 = 0
Hence abc 3 c b a
3 3 3
= + +
137.
4x = 20 x = 5
138.
x = 2z y
x z = 2z y z = z y
z y
z
z x
x
1
z x
z x
z x
z
z x
x
=
=
139.
2
+ 1 2x = 0
(x 1)
2
= 0 x = 1
1 x 3 x
x
1
x
2
2
4
+
+
2
1
2
1 3 1
1 1
=
=
+
+
=
140. (B) :
PA PB = PC PD
(6 + x) x = 8 5
x
2
+ 6x 40 = 0
(x + 10) (x 4) = 0
x = 4 cm
141. (A)
142. (B) : Average export over the
given period.
7
4 . 11 5 . 9 8 . 10
9 . 9 8 . 7 5 . 6 2 . 5
+ +
+ + + +
=
73 . 8 728 . 8
7
1 . 61
~ = =
143. (B) : Year Increase
2002 25%
2004 26.9%
2005 9%
2007 20%
144. (D): Refer Q 142 for average.
145. (D)
146. (A) : Refer Q 143
147. (B) 148. (C)
149. (A) 150. (B)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 19
Directions (Qs. 151 to 155) : Some
parts of the sentences have errors and
some have none. Find out which part
of a sentence has an error and mark
that part (A), (B) or (C) as your answer.
If a sentence is free from error, then
(D) is the answer.
151. I am (A)/ elder (B)/ than Kumar.
(C)/ No error. (D)
152. Thi s stor y (A)/ has been
adapted (B)/ for Indian students. (C)/
No error. (D)
153. Please order (A)/ for a cup of
tea (B)/ immediately. (C)/ No error. (D)
154. Finally, the management acceded
with (A)/ the request of the workers
(B)/ which brought the strike to end.
(C)/ No error. (D)
155. The singer (A)/ performed
ver y wel l (B)/ di dnt she ? (C)/
No error. (D)
Directions (Qs. 156160) :
Sentences are given with blanks to
be filled in with an appropriate
word(s). Four alter natives are
suggested for each question. Choose
the correct alternative out of the four.
156. She is the girl ______ won the
award.
(A) who
(B) that will
(C) which
(D) that
157. Kamla jumped ______ the pier.
(A) off (B) at
(C) of (D) from
158. _______ the high decrease in
inflation, our currency seems to have
increased in value.
(A) As far as
(B) However
(C) Thanks to
(D) Despite
159. He cannot part _____ his money.
(A) on (B) to
(C) at (D) with
PART D : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
160. I had to spend 5 minutes on the
3rd question and had great difficulty
answering it. I think it was _______ all.
(A) much confusing than
(B) the most confusing of
(C) more confusing than
(D) as confusing as
Directions (Qs. 161165) : Out of
the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of
the given word.
161. Endeavour
(A) attempt (B) follow
(C) approve (D) endure
162. Beckon
(A) signal (B) hear
(C) light (D) beg
163. Diligent
(A) hardworking
(B) urgent
(C) intelligent
(D) unintelligent
164. Alleviate
(A) attract (B) reduce
(C) release (D) improve
165. Negligent
(A) heedful (B) nervous
(C) unimportant (D) careless
Directions (Qs. 166170) : Choose
the word opposite in meaning to the
given word.
166. Deviate
(A) conform
(B) stray
(C) digress
(D) deflect
167. Capricious
(A) mercurial
(B) unreliable
(C) impulsive
(D) predictable
168. Lucrative
(A) unprofitable
(B) painful
(C) common
(D) early
20 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
169. Submissive
(A) uncooperative
(B) subdued
(C) docile
(D) aggressive
170. Profusion
(A) ample
(B) dearth
(C) plethora
(D) excess
Directions (Qs. 171175) : Four
alternatives are given for the idiom/
phrase. Choose the alternative which
best expresses the meaning of the
idiom/phrase.
171. To take the bull by the horns
(A) to grapple courageously with a
difficulty
(B) to bypass the legal process
(C) to replenish
(D) to handle it with care
172. To hit below the belt
(A) to strike at the exact position
(B) to hit the target
(C) to work confidently
(D) to harm unfairly
173. To throw cold water over
(A) to reject
(B) to discourage
(C) to encourage
(D) to clear
174. To foot the bill
(A) promise
(B) pay the bill
(C) bribe
(D) punish
175. Pillar to post
(A) home to post office
(B) office to office
(C) home to office
(D) place to place
Directions (Qs. 176180) : A part of
the sentence is underlined. Below are
given alternatives to the underlined part
at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve
the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is
needed, your answer is (D).
176. She has answered al l the
questions, isnt she ?
(A) hasnt she ?
(B) aint she ?
(C) has she ?
(D) No improvement
177. He denied having stolen my
dictionary.
(A) disagreed
(B) rejected
(C) refused
(D) No improvement
178. If he had come in time, he would
not have been denied entry.
(A) might
(B) should
(C) could
(D) No improvement
179. He lost the help of his master.
He was dismissed from his high office.
(A) favour
(B) name
(C) terms
(D) No improvement
180. It was her who suggested you
be at the door.
(A) them
(B) him
(C) she
(D) No improvement
Directions (Qs. 181185) : Out of
the four alternatives, choose the one
which can be substituted for the given
words/underlined part of the sentence.
181. A person who takes no
intoxicating drink
(A) addict
(B) teetotaller
(C) drunkard
(D) nonalcoholic
182. Disbeliever in God
(A) agnostic
(B) deist
(C) theist
(D) atheist
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW 21
183. Dr. Kri shna Menon was a
demagogue.
(A) one who can sway ones followers
by intelligence
(B) one who can sway ones followers
by the power of oratory
(C) one who commands ones
followers with threats
(D) one who loves ones followers
184. Dr. Johnson was the fi rst
lexicographer of English language.
(A) one who writes a book on the
history of language
(B) one who compiles a dictionary
(C) one who wri tes a book on
grammar
(D) one who regulates spelling
185. My friends eldest son is a
prodigal.
(A) one who abandons home to earn
money
(B) one who abandons home to put
ones parents to grief
(C) one who abandons marriage
(D) one who sacrifices oneself for the
family
Directions (Qs. 186190) : There are
four different words out of which one
is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
186.
(A) dilappidete
(B) dillapidate
(C) dilapidate
(D) delapidate
187.
(A) ascertain
(B) ascirtain
(C) ascertan
(D) acsertain
188.
(A) conscios
(B) consious
(C) conscious
(D) conseious
189.
(A) crediblity
(B) creddibility
(C) credibility
(D) credebility
190.
(A) satellite
(B) satillite
(C) satelite
(D) sattelite
Directions (Qs. 191200) : Read the
following passage carefully and choose
the best answer to each question out
of the four alternatives.
James Naismith, a physical education
teacher i n Massachusetts, invented
basketball in 1891. Naismiths boss asked
him to invent a game that students could
play indoors during bad weather. He
wanted to find a game that wasnt as
physically rough as soccer, football, or
wrestling. Naismith attached peach
baskets to a railing ten feet above the
floor at either end of the gym.
The players used a soccer ball. A
person sat on a ladder next to each
basket at either end of the gym, and
threw out the balls that landed in the
baskets. Naismith decided that having
only five players on each team would
keep the game from getting too rough.
Two years later, metal hoops with net
bags repl aced the peach baskets.
Officials pulled a string on the nets to
release the balls that went in. In 1894,
Naismith added the back board behind
each net and changed to a larger ball.
In 1913, people began using the
bottomless nets that are used today.
By the 1990s, basketball was the most
popul ar indoor sport. Athletes in
approximately 130 countries play the
game. Basketball is especially popular
in the United States, China, and Puerto
Rico.
22 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW
Todays baseball players use special
equipment to help prevent injuries. Field
players wear baseball gloves to protect
their hands. The catcher wears a metal
mask, a chest protector, and shin guards.
Batters wear plastic helmets to protect
their heads.
191. The kind of baskets used today
for the game are
(A) Net bags
(B) Bottomless baskets
(C) Metal hoops
(D) Peach baskets
192. A suitable title for the above
passage would be
(A) Development of Basketball
(B) How to play Basketball
(C) Invention of Basketball
(D) Rules of Basketball
193. Which word from the above
passage means Rowdy?
(A) Release
(B) Rack
(C) Rough
(D) Replace
194. What were the two new things
added to the game in 1894 ?
(A) Backboard back and a soccer ball
(B) Backboard back and helmets
(C) Backboard back and a new ball
(D) None of these
195. The correct order of the events
in the passage is :
P. Basketball became a popular
indoor sport.
Q. Peach baskets were replaced by
metal hoops and net bags.
R. Peach baskets and soccer balls
were used to play the game.
S. Basketball was invented to be
played indoors.
(A) PQRS
(B) SPRQ
(C) SRQP
(D) PRSQ
196. Why were only five players
included in the game initially ?
(A) To make it rough
(B) To make it inconvenient
(C) To make it easy
(D) None of these
197. Field players wear baseball
gloves to protect their hands. What is
the synonym for the word protect ?
(A) Cover
(B) Fit
(C) Save
(D) Harm
198. Basketball was designed to be
an
(A) Indoor sport
(B) Outdoor and indoor sport
(C) Outdoor sport
(D) None of these
199. According to the author, which
games are physically rough ?
(A) Football
(B) Wrestling
(C) Soccer
(D) All of these
200. What does the phrase either end
of the gym imply ?
(A) On one side of the gym
(B) On the other side of the gym
(C) Both sides of the gym
(D) None of these
ANSWERS
151. (B) 152. (B) 153. (B) 154. (A)
155. (D) 156. (A) 157. (A) 158. (C)
159. (D) 160. (B) 161. (A) 162. (A)
163. (A) 164. (B) 165. (D) 166. (A)
167. (D) 168. (A) 169. (D) 170. (B)
171. (A) 172. (D) 173. (B) 174. (B)
175. (D) 176. (A) 177. (D) 178. (D)
179. (A) 180. (C) 181. (B) 182. (D)
183. (B) 184. (B) 185. (A) 186. (C)
187. (A) 188. (C) 189. (A) 190. (A)
191. (B) 192. (A) 193. (C) 194. (C)
195. (C) 196. (C) 197. (C) 198. (A)
199. (D) 200. (C)
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