[1]

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
TIME : 2 HOUR SITTING -1 MARKS :66
Single correct [16 3 = 48]
Q.1 Select the correct option if it is know that
K
sp
(AgCl) > K
sp
(AgBr) > K
sp
(AgI)
(A)
o
Ag / AgCl / Cl
o
Ag / AgBr / Br
o
Ag / AgI / I
E E E

> >
(B)
o
Ag / AgCl / Cl
o
Ag / AgBr / Br
o
Ag / AgI / I
E E E

< <
(C)
o
Cl / AgCl / Ag
o
Br / AgBr / Ag
o
I / AgI / Ag
E E E < <
(D) None of these
Q.2 What is the value of
Cd | Cd
2
E
+
at pH = 10
Given :
V 40 . 0 E
0
Cd | Cd
2
=
+ ;
14
) ) OH ( Cd ( SP
10 K
2

=
(A) 0.5773 V (B) 0.2227 V (C) + 0.2227 V (D) 0.1045 V
Q.3 What would be the reduction potential of an electrode at 298 K, which originally contained 1 M K
2
Cr
2
O
7
solution in acidic buffer solution of pH = 1.0 and which was treated with 50% of the Sn necessary to
reduce all
2
7 2
O Cr to Cr
3+
. Assume pH of solution remains constant.
Given : V 33 . 1 E
o
H , Cr / O Cr
3 2
7 2
=
+ +
; log 2 = 0.3 ;
06 . 0
F
RT 303 . 2
=
(A) 1.285 V (B) 1.193 V (C) 1.187 V (D) None of these
Q.4 K
2
Cr
2
O
7
is a powerful oxidising agent in acidic medium. By how many volt's oxidising power of
K
2
Cr
2
O
7
decreases when pH changed from 0 to 14 at 298 K.
|
.
|

\
|
= volt 06 . 0
F
RT 303 . 2
: Take
(A) 1.96 volt (B) 11.76 volt (C) 1.17 volt (D) 0.98 volt
Q.5 E (SRP) of different half cell are given
o
Cu Cu
2
E
+ = 0.34 volt ;
o
Zn Zn
2
E
+ = 0.76 volt
o
Ag Ag
E
+ = 0.8 volt ;
o
Mg Mg
2
E
+ = 2.37 volt
In which cell AG is most negative
(A) Zn (s) | Zn
2+
(1 M) | | Mg
2+
(1 M) | Mg (s)
(B) Zn (s) | Zn
2+
(1 M) | | Ag
+
(1 M) | Ag (s)
(C) Cu (s) | Cu
2+
(1 M) | | Ag
+
(1 M) | Ag (s)
(D) Ag (s) | Ag
+
(1 M) | | Mg
2+
(1 M) | Mg (s)
[2]
Q.6 For the cell
Pt | H
2
(0.4 atm) | H
+
(pH=1) || H
+
(pH = 2) | H
2
(0.1 atm) | Pt
The measured potential at 25C is
(A) 0.1 V (B) 0.5 (C) 0.041 (D) none
Q.7 The standard reduction potentials of half cell OCl

/Cl

, OH

and Cl
2
/Cl

are 0.94 volt and +1.36 volt

respectively. What is the reduction potential of half cell whose cell reaction is represented as
2OCl

+ 2H
2
O + 2e Cl
2
(g) + 4OH

(A) 0.21 V (B) 0.52 V (C) 1.04 V (D) 2.1 V

Q.8 Na-Amalgam is prepared by electrolysis of aq. NaCl solution using 10 gm Hg cathode. How many
Faraday's of electricity is required to prepare 18.7 % Na-Amalgam. (current Eff. = 50%)
(A) 0.081 F (B) 0.16 F (C) 0.2 F (D) 0.1 F
Q.9 The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of
area 100 cm
2
separated by 10 cm was found to be 0.0001 O
1
. If volume
enclosed between two electrode contain 0.5 mole of salt, what is the molar
conductivity(Scm
2
mol
1
) of salt at same conc.
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02
(C) 2 10
5
(D) none of these
Q.10 Equivalent conductance of 0.1 M HA(weak acid) solution is 10 Scm
2
equivalent
1
and that at infinite
dilution is 200 Scm
2
equivalent
1
Hence pH of HA solution is
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.7 (C) 2.3 (D) 3.7
Q.11 A graph was plotted between the molar conductance of various electrolytes (HCl, KCl and CH
3
COOH)
and root of their concentrations in mole per litre.
Which of the following is correct match?
(A) I (CH
3
COOH) ; II (KCl) ; III (HCl) (B) I (HCl) ; II (KCl) ; III (CH
3
COOH)
(C) I (CH
3
COOH) ; II (HCl) ; III (KCl) (D) I (KCl) ; II (CH
3
COOH) ; III (HCl)
Q.12 The molar conductivity of 0.04 M solution of MgCl
2
is 200 Scm
2
mol
1
at 298 K. A cell with electrodes
that are 4 cm
2
in surface area & 8 cm apart is filled with MgCl
2
solution.
How much current will flow when the potential difference between the two electrodes is 10 V?
(A) 0.32 A (B) 4 10
2
A (C) 4 10
4
A (D) None of these
Q.13 96.5 gm of A oxidized as A A
3+
+ 3e

, when 2F charge is passed through solution with current

efficiency of 90%. What is electrochemical equivalent of A ?
(A) 53.61 (B) 48.25 (C) 5.55 10
4
(D) 5.55 10
3
[3]
Comprehension
Paragraph for question nos. 14 to 16
A fuel cell is the device to convert the energy of a fuel into electrical energy without the use of heat engine,
where the fuel is burnt directly. Such conversions are possible because the overall reaction are highly
exothermic. Electrical energy can be obtained indefinitely from a fuel cell as along as the outside supply
of fuel is maintained. In hydrogen oxygen fuel cell, the following reaction take place:
Anode reaction: 2H
2
(g)

+ 4OH

(aq) 4H
2
O(l) + 4e

Cathode reaction: O
2
(g) + 2H
2
O(l) + 4e

4OH

(aq)
Overall reaction: 2H
2
(g) + O
2
(g) 2H
2
O(l)

f
H A
[H
2
O(l)] = 285.8 kJ mol
1
and

f
G A
[H
2
O(l)] = 237.39 kJ mol
1
at 25C.
Q.14 What is the standard EMF of the cell?
(A) 0.615 V (B) 1.23 V (C) 2.46 V (D) 0.74 V
Q.15 How many litres of gaseous H
2
, when combined with excess O
2
in the fuel cell at 25C and 1.00 bar, are
needed to produce 23.739 KJ of useful work under standard conditions?
(A) 2.47 L (B) 4.94 L (C) 1.23 L (D) 2.26 L
Q.16 The theoretical efficiency of the fuel cell is given by
(A) 83.06 % (B) 100 % (C) 67.53 % (D) 97.88 %
More than one may be correct [2 4 = 8]
Q.17 Select correct statement(s):
(A) The rate constant of a reaction is depends on initial concentration of the reaction.
(B) In electrochemical cell, a salt bridge is used to mix the solution of anodic & cathodic compartment
(C) When a lead storage battery is discharged density of solution decreases
(D) When acetone & trichloro-methane are mixed H-bonding takes place, enthalpy change due to
mixing is negative.
Q.18 Which of the following arrangement will produce oxygen at anode during electrolysis?
(A) dilute H
2
SO
4
with Pt electrodes
(B) fused NaOH with inert electrodes
(C) dilute H
2
SO
4
with Cu electrodes
(D) Concentrate aq. NaCl with Pt electrodes
Subjective [2 5 = 10]
Q.19

Calculate E
cell
of the given cell.
Pt | H
2
(4 atm) | H
2
S (0.2 M), HCl (0.2 M ) | | KCl(0.1 M) | AgCl | Ag(s)
M 10 ) S H ( K
8
2 a
1

= ; M 10 ) S H ( K
13
2 a
2

= ;
2 10
sp
M 10 ) AgCl ( K

=
V 8 . 0 E
o
Ag / Ag
=
+ ;
06 . 0
F
RT 303 . 2
=
[Fill your answer by multiplying it with 100.]
Q.20 Consider the following galvanic cell:
Pt | H
2
(1 bar) | HX | | KCl (1 M) | Hg
2
Cl
2
(s) | Hg (l) | Pt
At 25 C, emf of the cell is 600 mV. When HX is replaced by a buffer solution at pH 6.80, the emf of cell
becomes 750 mV. Calculate the pH of HX solution originally used.
Given :
F
RT 303 . 2
= 0.06 V..
(Answer by multiplying the pH by 1000)
[4]
TIME : 1 HOUR 30 MIN. SITTING -2 MARKS :90
Single correct [14 3 = 42]
Q.1 Copper metal crystallizes in FCC lattice. Edge length of unit cell is 362 pm. The radius of largest atom
that can fit into the voids of copper lattice without disturbing it.
(A) 53 pm (B) 45 pm (C) 93 pm (D) 60 pm
Q.2 In FCC unit cell, what fraction of edge is not covered by atoms?
(A) 0.134 (B) 0.293 (C) 0.26 (D) 0.32
Q.3 Which of the following is incorrect about NaCl structure?
(A) Nearest neighbours of Na
+
ion is six Cl ion
(B) Na
+
ion make fcc lattice
(C) Cl ion pack in cubic close packed arrangement
(D) There are eight next nearest neighbours of Na
+
ion
Q.4 The density of a pure substance 'A' whose atoms pack in cubic close pack arrangement is 1 gm/cc. If B
atoms can occupy tetrahedral void and if all the tetrahedral voids are occupied by 'B' atom. What is the
density of resulting solid in gm/cc. [Atomic mass (A) = 30 gm/mol & Atomic mass (B) = 50 gm/mol]
(A) 3.33 (B) 4.33 (C) 2.33 (D) 5.33
Q.5 In diamond, carbon atom occupy FCC lattice points as well as alternate tetrahedral voids. If edge length
of the unit cell is 356 pm, then radius of carbon atom is
(A) 77.07 pm (B) 154.14 pm (C) 251.7 pm (D) 89 pm
Q.6 Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements.
I. In an anti-fluorite structure anions form FCC lattice and cations occupy all tetrahedral voids.
II. If the radius of cations and anions are 0.2 and 0.95 then coordinate number of cation in the
crystal is 4.
III An atom/ion is transferred from a lattice site to an interstitial position in Frenkel defect.
IV. Density of crystal always increases due to substitutinal impurity defect.
(A) TFFF (B) FTTF (C) TFFT (D) TFTF
Q.7 An emulsifier is a substance
(A) which stabilises an emulsion
(B) which breaks the emulsion into its constituent liquids
(C) which can convert liquid into an emulsion
(D) which brings about coagulation of an emulsion
Q.8 Surfactant molecules can cluster together as micelles, which are colloid sized cluster of molecules. Micelles
form only above critical micelle concentration (CMC) and above certain temperature called Kraft
temperature. AH of micelle formation can be positive or negative. Which is false about micelle formation?
(A) AS of micelle formation is positive
(B) the hydrophobic part lie towards interior of micelle
(C) the hydrophilic part lie towards surface of micelle
(D) AS of micelle formation is negative
Q.9 Give the correct order of initials T (ture) or F(false) for following statements
I : Lyophobic sols are irreversible sols.
II : Micelles formation takes place only above kraft temperature
III : PO
4
3
ions have more coagulation value than SO
4
2
ions for congulation of positive sols.
IV : The values of the colligative properties observed experimentally are very small of colloidal sols
(A) F T T F (B) T F T F (C) T T T T (D) T T F T
[5]
Q.10 Select the correct statement.
(A) Milk is a homogeneous solution
(B) When a solid solute is dispersed in alcohol it is known as Emulsion.
(C) Greater the coagulation power higher is the coagulation value
(D) Tyndall effect is an optical property of colloidal solution.
Q.11 In a hypothetical solid 'C' atoms are found to form cubical close packed lattice. 'A' atoms occupy all
tetrahedral voids & 'B' atoms occupy all octahedral voids. 'A' and 'B' atoms are of appropriate size i.e.
there is no distortion in ccp lattice of C atoms. Now if a plane as shown in the following figure is cut, then
the cross section of this plane will look like.
(A)
C
C
C
C
B B
B
B
B
A
A
(B)
C
C
C
C
C
C
B B B
(C)
C
C
C
C
C
C
B B B
A
A
A
A (D)
C
C
C
C
C
C
B B B
A A
A A
Q.12 A certain sample of cuprous sulphide is found to have the composition Cu
1.92
S
1.00
because of incorporation
of Cu
2+
and Cu
+
ions in the crystal then ratio of Cu
+2
& Cu
+
ions is
(A) 0.08 and 1.00 (B) 1 : 23 (C) 1 : 24 (D) 1.00 : 1.00
Q.13 Among the following, the surfactant that will from micelles in aqueous solution at the lowest molar
concentration at ambient conditions is
(A) CH
3
(CH
2
)
15
N
+
(CH
3
)
3
Br (B) CH
3
(CH
2
)
11
OSO
3
Na
+
(C) CH
3
(CH
2
)
6
COONa
+
(D) CH
3
(CH
2
)
11
N
+
(CH
3
)
3
Br
Q.14 Among the electrolytes Na
2
SO
4
, CaCl
2
, Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
and NH
4
Cl, the most effective coagulation agent
for Sb
2
S
3
sol is
(A) Na
2
SO
4
(B) CaCl
2
(C) Al
2
(SO
4
)
3
(D) NH
4
Cl
Assertion Reason [3 3 = 9]
Q.15 Statement-1: In FCC unit cell, packing efficiency is more when all tetrahedral voids are filled with
spheres of maximum possible size as compared with packing efficiency when all
octahedral voids are filled in similar way.
Statement-2: Tetrahedral voids are more than the number of octahedral voids in FCC.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false. (D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
[6]
Q.16 Statement-1: In Antifluorite structure, the oxide ions occupy c.c.p.(cubic close packing) and Li
+
ions
100% tetrahedral voids.
Statement-2: The distance of the nearest neighbours in antiflorite structure is
4
a 3
, where a is the
edge length of the cube
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false. (D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
Q.17 Statement-1 : Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micellar
concentration (CMC).
Statement-2 : The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at
the CMC.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False. (D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
More than one may be correct [6 4 = 24]
Q.18 The hcp and ccp structure of a given element. (Given radius of element is same in both structures)
(A) have same density
(B) have same distance between two consecutive layers (A & B)
(C) have same co-ordination number
(D) have same fraction of unoccupied space.
Q.19 Select the correct statement about FCC (ABCAB...) structure.
(A) Distance between nearest octahedral void and tetrahedral void is
4
a 3
(B) Distance between two nearest octahedral void is
2
a
(C) Distance between two nearest tetrahedral void is
2
a 3
(D) Distance between layer A and B is
3
2
r 2
Q.20 80.0 gm salt of weak base & strong acid XY is dissolved in water and formed 2 litre of aqueous solution.
The pH of the resultant solution was found to be 5 at 298 K. If XY forms CsCl type crystal having
+
X
r (radius of X
+
) = 1.6 &
Y
r
(radius of Y) = 1.864 then select write statement(s).
(Given : K
b
(XOH) = 4 10
5
; N
A
= 6 10
23
)
(A) Molar mass of salt is 100 g/mol
(B) % Degree of dissociation of salt is 0.25
(C) Edge length of AB is 4
(D) Density of solid salt XY is 2 in gm/cc
[7]
Q.21 Which of the following statements are true about AgI sol prepared by peptization of AgI with AgNO
3
.
(A) In electrophoresis, the dispered phase will move towards cathode.
(B) AlCl
3
is more effective than Na
3
PO
4
for bringing about coagulation of sol.
(C) On addition of NaCl in sol the solution is stabilised.
(D) On persistant dialysis of sol, precipitation of colloidal sol take place (coagulation).
Q.22 Which statement/s is/are correct
(A) A solution is prepared by addition of excess of AgNO
3
solution in KI solution. The charge
likely to develop on colloidal particle is positive.
(B) The effects of pressure on physical adsorption is high if temperature is low.
(C) Ultracentrifugation process is used for preparation of lyophobic colloids.
(D) Gold number is the index for extent of gold plating done.
Q.23 The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature
(C) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing
temperature
(D) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher
energy of activation
Subjective [3 5 = 15]
Q.24 The structure of diamond and silicon is same and can be described as atoms taking corners and faces of
a cube and also taking positions of alternate tetrahedral voids. What is the value of
) silicon ( density
) diamond ( density
.
25 . 2 Si Si 28 : Silicon
50 . 1 C C 12 : Carbon
) ( Length Bond Covalent ) mol / g ( mass . At
=
=
Q.25 An element X (atomic weight = 24 gm/mole) forms a face centered cubic lattice. If the edge length of the
lattice is 4 10
8
cm and the observed density is 2.40 10
3
kg/m
3
, calculate the percentage occupancy
of lattice points by X element. (Given N
A
= 6 10
23
)
Q.26 The crystal of a solid is square packing of identical spheres in
each layer and spheres of one layer are placed just above the
voids made by spheres in previous layer. The packing
efficiency of such crystal (in %) is
[t = 3.15, 4 . 1 2 = ]
[8]
TIME : 2 HOUR SITTING -3 MARKS :97
Single correct [18 3 = 54]
Q.1 If
0
is the threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission, wavelength of light falling on the surface of
metal, and m, mass of electron, then de Broglie wavelength of emitted electron is
(A)
2
1
0
0
) ( mc 2
) ( h
(
(

(B)
2
1
0
0
mc 2
) ( h
(
(

(C)
2
1
0
0
mc 2
) ( h
(
(

(D)
2
1
0
mc 2
h
(

Q.2 The maximum number of electrons in a subshell having the same value of spin quantum number is given by
(A) l + 2 (B) 2l + 1 (C) 2(2l+1) (D) None
Q.3 An important parameter of a photochemical reaction is the quantum efficiency or quantum yield which is
defined as the number of light absorbing molecules reacted per photon of light absorbed.
| =
absorbed photons of Moles
reacted substance the of Moles
Absorption of Uv radiation decompose acetone according to the reaction
(CH
3
)
2
CO
v h
C
2
H
6
+ CO
The quantum yield of the reaction at 330 nm is 0.4. A sample of acetone absorbs monochromatic
radiation at 330 nm at the rate of 7.2 10
3
J s
1
(Given : N
A
= 6 10
23
; h = 6.6 10
34
in S.I.unit).
The rate of formation of CO (mole/s) is
(A) 2 10
8
(B) 8 10
8
(C) 8 10
9
(D) None
Q.4 What is the most probable distance of a 1s electron in a He
+
ion. The wavefunction for 1s orbital is given
by
0
a / Zr
3
0
3
e
a
Z

|
|
.
|

\
|
t
=
where a
0
= radius of first Bohr's orbital in Hatom (52.9 pm)
(A) 52.9 pm (B) 13.25 pm (C) 6.61 pm (D) 26.45 pm
Q.5 According to Bohrs atomic theory, which of the following is/are correct:
(I) Kinetic energy of electron
2
2
n
Z
(II) The product of velocity of electron and principle quantum number n Z
2
(III) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit
3
2
n
Z
(IV) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron
4
3
n
Z
(A) I, III, IV (B) I, IV (C) II (D) I
Q.6 The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is
0
a r
0
2 3
0
s 2
e
a
r
2
a
1
2 4
1

|
|
.
|

\
|

|
|
.
|

\
|
t
=
where a
0
is Bohr's radius. If the radial node in 2 s be at r
0
, then r
0
would be equal to
(A)
2
a
0
(B) 2a
0
(C)
0
a 2 (D)
2
a
0
[9]
Q.7 What is the most probable distance of a 1s electron in a He
+
ion. The wavefunction for 1s orbital is given
by
0
a / Zr
3
0
3
e
a
Z

|
|
.
|

\
|
t
=
where a
0
= radius of first Bohr's orbital in Hatom (52.9 pm)
(A) 52.9 pm (B) 13.25 pm (C) 6.61 pm (D) 26.45 pm
Q.8 A particle initially at rest having charge q coulomb. & mass m kg is accelerated by a potential difference
of V volts. What would be its K.E & de broglie wavelength respectively after acceleration
(A) qV ,
qVm 2
h
(B)
qVm 2
h
, qV (C) qV ,
mV
h
(D)
mV
h
, qV
Q.9 Miss Ritika has two correct informations from Mr. Gupta and Mr. Agarwal about a particular orbital of
hydrogen atom. Identify the orbital
Mr. Gupta: +
(angular)
of orbital is
2 / 1
4
1
|
.
|

\
|
t
Mr. Agarwal: The orbital has two radial nodes.
(A) 's' orbital with any principal quantum number
(B) any orbital with principal quantum number 3
(C) 3s orbital
(D) Mr. gupta & Mr. Agarwal are "naughty", together their information cannot predict the orbital.
Q.10 Which of the following graph between radial probability distribution and radius of atom correspond to
orbital with Azimuthal quantum number (l) equal to 0 and principal quantum number (n) equal to 4?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.11 Potential energy of an electron in gaseous Li
2+
ion is:
(A)
r
e 3
4
1
2
0

e t

(B)
2
2
0
r
e
4
1

e t

(C)
2
2
0
r
e
4
3

e t

(D)
r
e 3
4
1
2
0

e t
+
Q.12 If the radius of 3
rd
Bohr's orbit in H is x, then radius of 4
th
orbit of Li
2+
ion would be
(A)
16
27
x (B)
27
16
x (C)
16
9
x (D) None of these
[10]
Q.13 Match the entries in column I to entries in column II and select correct alternatives provided:
Column I Column II
(Radial functions) (R vs r graph)
(a) R
3s
(u)
(b) R
4s
(v)
(c) R
2p
(w)
(d) R
3p
(x)
(A) aw, bv, cu, dx (B) ax, bu, cv, dw
(C) au, bx, cv, dw (D) av, bu, cw, dx
Q.14 Given, uncertainty in momentum of an electron = 3 uncertainty in position. What would be uncertainty
in velocity of that electron.
(A)
t 3
h
m 4
1
(B)
t
h 3
m 2
1
(C)
h
4
m 3
1 t
(D)
m 4
h
t
(E)
t
h
m 3
1
Q.15 IE
1
for He atom is 24.6 eV. The energy required to remove both the electrons from the atom in its
ground state will be
(A) 59 eV (B) 81 eV (C) 79 eV (D) None of these
Q.16 If an electron at rest is accelerated by the potential different of 6 volts then the wavelength associated by
the electron is
(A) 2510
10
meter (B) 25
(C) 5 10
8
cm (D) 0.5 10
10
meter
Q.17 Which of the following suggested de-broglie wavelength is not possible for an electron in a Bohr orbit of
the hydrogen atom?
(A) 3.32 (B) 4.98 (C) 9.96 (D) 19.92
Q.18 Give the correct order of initials T (true) or F (false) for following statements.
(i) Maximum kinetic energy a photoelectron emitted from a metal [work function= 2eV] by a
photon of wavelength 310 nm is 3.2 10
19
J
(ii) The ratio of magnitude of Total Energy : Kinetic Energy : Potential Energy for any
orbit is 1 : 1 : 2
(iii) Number of maxima for the curve 4r
2
R
2
(r) v/s r are three for the 5p
x
orbital.
(iv) The ratio of de-broglie wavelength of a 'H' atom, 'He' atom and CH
4
molecule moving
with equal kinetic energy is 4 : 2 : 1
(A) FFTT (B) TTFT (C) TFTF (D) FTTT
[11]
More than one may be correct [4 4 = 16]
Q.19 Light of wavelength strike a metal surface with intensity x and the metal emits y electrons per
second of maximum energy z. What will happen to y and z if x is halved.
(A) y will be halved (B) y will be doubled
(C) z will remain the same (D) z will halved
Q.20 The schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is (r) = | | { }
2 2
2 / 3
0
e ) 12 8 )( 1 (
a
Z
4 16
1
o
+ o o o
|
|
.
|

\
|
where a
0
& Z are constant, o =
0
a
Zr 2
then select correct statement.
(A) Minimum distance of radial node from nucleus is
Z 2
a
0
(B) Maximum distance of radial node from nucleus is
Z
a
0
(C) (r) is for 4s orbital
(D) (r) is for 5p-orbital
Q.21 Some hydrogen like atoms in ground state absorb 'n' photons having same energy & on de-excitation it
emits exactly 'n' photons. Then the energy of absorbed photon may be
(A) 91.8 eV (B) 40.8 eV (C) 48.4 eV (D) 54.4 eV
Q.22 In a hydrogen like sample electron is in 2
nd
excited state, the energy of 4
th
state of this sample is
13.6 eV, then
(A) Atomic number of element is 4.
(B) 3 different types of spectral line will be observed if electrons make transition upto ground state from
the 2
nd
excited state.
(C) A 25 eV photon can set free the electron from the 2
nd
excited state of this sample
(D) 2
nd
line of Balmer series of this sample has same energy value as 1
st
excitation energy of H-atoms.
Match the Column
Q.23 Match the Column. [12]
Column I Column II
(A) 2 s (P) Number of radial node = 1
(B)

2
r
r
(Q) Number of maxima in radial probability
distribution curve = 2
(C)

r
r
(R) Number of angular node = 0
(D) 4 d (S)
angular
depends upon u
[12]
Subjective [3 5 = 15]
Q.24 Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs the harmful radiation from the sun by undergoing decomposition
O
3
O
2
+ O
Calculate the maximum wavelength (in nm) of photon that posses energy to cause the decomposition of
O
3
. Standard enthalpy of formation of ozone is 150 kJ/mol & dissociation energy of oxygen is
500 kJ/mol. [Take h = 6.6 10
34
, N
A
= 6 10
23
]
Q.25 Knowing the fact that CIA agents are poor in chemistry. Russians started using code names based on
chemistry. Please help CIA officers in decoding the given code with the help of information given
CODE NAME: ROCK
First letter (R) : It represent the ratio of principal quantum no. and azimuthal quantum no. of the
orbital having 5 radial nodes and xz plane as only angular node.
Second letter (O) : Ratio of potential energy to total energy for the electron in second orbit of Li
+2
ions
Third letter (C) : Represents the wavelength of photoelectrons in nm, emitted by a metal plate
having work function 40 meV when exposed to radiation of wavelength
12.4 m.
(Use:

) volt ( V
150
=
; hc = 1240 nm . eV)
Fourth letter (K): Represents the no. of possible number of radiation when electrons jump from
n = 5 to n = 2 in H-like species.
Q.26 Electrons in a sample of H-atoms make transitions from state n = X to some lower exited state. The
emission spectrum from the sample is found to contain only the lines belonging to a particular series. If
one of the photons had an energy of 0.6375 eV, then find out value of X.
[Take 0.6375 eV =
4
3
0.85 eV]