EVALUATION EXAMINATION IN ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND TECHNOLOGIES (ESAT) DIRECTIONS: Multiple Choice: Read statement carefully before answering.

Write the letter of the best answer on your answer sheets. Do not write anything on the questionnaire. Strictly NO ERASURES. 1. In reducing the voltage by 1/2, there is a decrease of A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6* 2. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line A. reflection coefficient B. propagation delay

C. standing wave ratio* D. all of these

3. It is required to match a 73 antenna to a 600 transmission line, with a velocity factor of 0.66, by means of a quarterwave matching transformer. At a frequency of 150 MHz, calculate the length of the matching section, in feet. A. 2.2 B. 0.8 C. 1.0* D. 1.8 4. A transmitter radiates 5 kW with unmodulated carrier but when the carrier is sinusoidally modulated it radiates 6.5 kW. Now another sinewave corresponding to 40% modulation is transmitted simultaneously. Determine the total radiated power. A. 6.9 kW* B. 6.5 kW C. 6.4 kW D. 7.6 kW 5. A circuit which is used to keep the signal levels approximately constant in the RF stage and the mixer of an FM receiver. A. AGC* B. AFC C. local oscillator D. limiter 6. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by the ionosphere, if wave is sent vertically upward. A. maximum usable frequency (muf) C. propagating frequency B. critical frequency* D. cut-off frequency 7. The difference between the farthest point the direct wave extend and the nearest point the skywave reflected to ground. A. skip distance B. radio horizon C. dead zone* D. Fresnel zone 8. Power density is defined as radiated power per unit area, it follows that power density is reduced to one-fourth of its value when distance from the source is A. double* B. three-fold C. four-fold D. five-fold 9. Attached around the rim of the parabolic antenna to eliminate side-lobes causing interference to nearby microwave station. A. radome B. feed-horn C. reflector D. shroud* 10. The gain of a Hertzian dipole with respect to an isotropic antenna. A. 4.15 dB B. 2.15 dB C.1.76 dB* D. 5.15 dB 11. A kind of noise in the form of randomly occurring spikes. A. white noise B. impulse noise* C. Johnson noise D. thermal noise 12. Is an array antenna which has its maximum main beam directed along the axis of the array. A. antenna array B. end-fire array*

C. broadside array D. none of these 13. The dish antenna is operating at 10 GHz frequency. What is the directivity if the reflector is 5m at 65% efficiency. A. 18.703 dB B. 42.67 dB* C. 13.6 dB D. 12.2 dB 14. Calculate the effective length of an antenna which has directive gain over an isotropic antenna of 17 dB and a radiation resistance of 350 at a frequency of 144 MHz. A. 8m* B. 10 m C. 5 m D. 7 m 15. The peak difference between the instantaneous frequency of the modulated wave and the carrier frequency. A. modulation index B. frequency deviation* C. modulating frequency D. percentage of modulation 16. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna. A. ground wave B. scatter C. space wave* D. sky wave 17. An electromagnetic wave travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to them. A. absorption B. attenuation* C. refraction D. reflection 18. VLF waves are for some types of services because A. of low powers required B. the transmitting antennas are of convenient size C. they are very reliable* D. they penetrate the ionosphere easily 19. A region where the air pressure is so low that the free electron and ions can move about for some time without getting close enough to recombine into neutral atoms. A. ionosphere* B. troposphere C. sky D. skywave propagation 20. Is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any given instant. A. wavefront B. wavelength* C. wave distance D. field intensity 21. Modulation is used to A. increase the carrier power B. allow the use of practicable antennas* C. reduced the bandwidth used D. shorten the transmission channel 22. A pre-emphasis circuit improves the signal-to-noise of an FM signal by A. amplifying the higher audio frequencies* B. amplifying the whole frequency C. boosting the bass frequency D. increase the carrier power 23. In an AM broadcast superheterodyne receiver, the A. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency B. mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency* C. local oscillator frequency normally double the IF

D. RF amplifiers normally works at 455 kHz above he carrier frequency 24. The modulated peak value of a signal is 10V and the unmodulated carrier value is 8V. What is the modulation index? A. 0.80 B. 0.25* C. 0.50 D. 0.75 25. Is a very important part of the receiving system. A. RF amplifier B. mixer C. detector* D. AGC 26. If 10% of the microwave power is reflected at the mismatch, find the return loss. A. 0.1 dB B. 10 dBm C. 10 dB* D.10 dBm 27. Given a cascaded circuit; first stage is a filter circuit with insertion loss of 3 dB, followed by an amplifier with a gain of 10 dB and followed by cable having an insertion loss of 1 dB. If the input power of the filter circuit is 1mW, find the total insertion loss. A. 6 dBm* B. 5 dBm C. 7 dBm D. 2 dBm 28. If five signal entered to an X-device at 3 dBm each, find the output power in dBm. A. 12 dBm B. 11 dBm C. 10 dBm* D. 8 dBm 29. In a two-stage amplifier, amplifier 1 has a noise figure of 3 dB and a gain of 20 dB, the second amplifier has a noise figure of 6 dB. Find the total noise figure. A. 3.1 dB* B. 4.2 dB C. 2.6 dB D. 2.27 dB 30. If the velocity factor is equal to 0.66, the speed of light will be closed to 8 8 A. 3 x 10 m/s B. 2 x 10 m/s* 8 7 C. 1 x 10 m/s D. 5 x 10 m/s 31. In FM radio communication system, narrow band (NBFM) is used rather than wideband (WBFM), because it A. improves signal-to-noise ratio B. provides maximum coverage for a given amount of power C. reduced interchannel interference D. all of these* 32. If the total sideband power is 12.5% of the total radiated power, find the modulation index. A. 50% B. 53.4%* C. 26.2% D. 32.2% 33. A receiver for a signal at 100 MHz uses a 10.7 MHz IF and low tracking. What is the image frequency? A. 89.3 MHz B. 78.6 MHz* C. 52.5 MHz D. 35.2 kHz 34. Coaxial lines are used on those system operating _________. A. below 2 GHz* B. at 300 MHz C. above 100 kHz D. above 10 GHz 35. Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. A. log normal fading* B. Rayleigh fading C. multipath fading D. none of these 36. What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two different frequencies over the same path? A. space B. frequency* C. quadruple D. polarization

37. Which of the following falls under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum. A. 150.50 MHz B. 35.535 MHz C. 8.2345 MHz* D. 2.4555 MHz 38. Where in the spectrum band should the line of sight or direct waves is appropriate for radio transmission and reception? A. VLF band B. HF band C. UHF band* D. LF band 39. Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz. A. 15.5 dB B. 11.2 dB C. 30 dB D. 28.17 dB* 40. What does an S meter indicate? A. SWR B. reflection coefficient C. signal strength* D. attenuation 41. Putting the original video, voice or digital signals in the communications channel is referred to as A. direct modulation B. baseband transmission* C. indirect modulation D. simplex transmission 42. When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel zone at the point of reflection, the RSL is A. remains the same B. above threshold C. decreased* D. increased 43. The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating and recording measurement at the distance from measuring instrument. A. monitoring B. tracking C. telemetry* D. telecommand 44. A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation of microwave signal. A. space wave B. microwave link C. troposcatter* point

D. point-to-

45. Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. A. isolator* B. circulator C. coupler D. diode

EXAMINATION IN ELECTRONICS

1.Valence electrons are the a. loosely packed electrons b. mobile electrons c. electrons present in the outer most shell d. electrons that do not carry any charge 2. The forbidden energy gap for silicon is a. 0.12 eV b. 1.12 eV 3. Free electrons exist in a. first band

c. 0.72 eV

d. 7.2 eV

b. second band

c. third band

d. conduction band

4. The forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band will be wide in case of a. semiconductors b. all metals c. good conductors of electricity d. insulators

5. A semiconductor in its purest form is called a. intrinsic semiconductor c. p-type semiconductor

b. extrinsic semiconductor d. n-type semiconductor

6. When the atoms are held together by the sharing of valence electrons a. each atoms become free to move b. neutrons start shifting c. they form covalent band d. some of the electrons are lost 7. As the temperature of the intrinsic semiconductor material is increased a. additional holes are created in the conduction band b. protons are excited c. neutrons acquire charge d. energy of the atom is increased 8. Which of the following results in the movement of the hole? a. movements of neutrons b. movements of protons c. a vacancy is filled by a valence electron from the neighboring electron d. all of the above 9. Addition of small amount antimony to gallium will result in a. formation of p-type semiconductors holes in a semiconductor c. antimony concentrating on the edges of the crystal 10. The donor type impurity must have a. no charge c. only three valence electrons

b. more free electrons than d. increased resistance

b. negative or positive charge d. only five valence electrons

11. In an n-type semiconductor, the concentration of the minority carriers mainly depends on a. the number of acceptor atom b. the number of doping atom c. the extent of the atom d. the temperature of the material 12. When the semiconductor is doped, its electrical conductivity a. increases b. decreases in the direct ratio of the doped material c. decreases in the inverse ratio of the doped material d. remains unaltered 13. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called a. recombination b. neutralization

c. restriking

d. zeroing

14. Excess minority carriers are the carriers that are a. in excess of the equilibrium number b. in excess of the number of majority carriers c. available in impurities only d. thermally generated 15. The PN junctions offers a. a high resistance in forward as well as reverse direction b. low resistance in forward as well as reverse direction c. conducts in the forward direction only d. conducts in the reverse direction only 16. When the PN junction is unbiased, the junction current equilibrium is a. zero as no charges cross the junction b. zero as equal to the number of carriers cross the barrier c. mainly due to diffusion of majority carriers d. mainly due to diffusion of minority carriers 17. In the PN junction, the region containing the uncompensated acceptor and donor ions is called a. transition zone b. depletion region c. neutral regions d. active region

18. In a reverse biased PN junction increases abruptly at a. zero voltage b. 1.2 V c. 0.72 V

d. breakdown voltage

19. The semiconductor diode, the barrier offers opposition to a. hole is p-region only b. free electrons in the n-region only c. majority carriers in both regions d. majority as well as minority carriers in both regions 20. For a PN diode, the number of minority carriers crossing the junction mainly depends on a. forward bias voltage b. potential barrier c. rate of thermal generation of electron hole pairs d. none of these 21. If too large current passes through the diode a. all electrons will leave c. excessive heat may damage the diode

b. all holes will freeze d. diode will emit light

22. Under which of the following conditions avalanche breakdown voltage diode occurs? a. when the potential barrier is reduced to zero b. when reverse bias exceeds a certain value c. when the forward bias exceeds a certain value d. when the forward current exceeds a certain value 23. The ripple factor for a half wave rectifier is a. 2 b. 1.21 c. 0.7

d. 0.45

24. Maximum rectification efficiency for a half wave rectifier is a. 100% b. 88% c. 50% d. 40.6% 25. Power diodes are generally a. silicon diode b. germanium diode

c. either of the above

d. none of these

26. Which of the following describes the oscillations as being due to a transfer of energy between a capacitor and an inductor a. feedback analysis b. coupling analysis c. flywheel analysis d. all of these 27. Which of the following statement is not true/ a. an oscillator converts dc to ac own input c. all oscillators generate sine waves 28. The output signal of an oscillator circuit must have a. a constant amplitude b. a single frequency

b. an oscillator is an amplifier that supplies its d. in-phase feedback is called positive feedback

c. a negligible distortion

d. all of these

29. Which of the following multivibrator circuits uses capacitors as coupling network between its transistors. a. astable b. monostable c. bistable d. Schmitt trigger 30. A voltage-shunt feedback amplifier can also be referred to as a. voltage amplifier b. transconductance amplifier c. current amplifier d. transresistance amplifier 31. The common-mode voltage gain gain is a. smaller tan the differential voltage gain c. greater than differential gain `

b. equal to differential gain d. all of these

32. An oscillator where in the inductive leg of the tank circuit is tapped to control the feedback

a. Hartley

b. Colpitts

c. Clapp

d. crystal

33. An operational amplifier, used as an inverting amplifier, has an amplification of 5000. If the input voltage is 1 mV, the output voltage is a. -5 V b. 5 V c. -6 V d. 6 V 34. if you wanted high input and low output impedance in a system, what kind of feedback would you use? a. voltage shunt b. current shunt c. voltage series d. current series 35. The effect of negative feedback on system frequency response is a. an increase in the values of both the upper and lower frequencies b. a decrease in the values of both the upper and lower frequencies c. an increase in bandwidth d. a decrease in bandwidth 36. Which of the following could not be achieved by using positive feedback? a. increased gainb. increased gain sensitivity c. sustained oscillation d. greater stability 37. The feedback ratio is a. If/Vo b. Vf/Vo

c. Vf/Io

d. If/Io

38. On the op-amp schematic, V+ and V- indicate the a. inverting and non-inverting inputs c. dual voltage supply terminals 39. In op-amp circuits closed-loop means a. the output is feedback to the non-inverting input c. the output is feedback to either input

b. dual outputs d. ground terminals

b. the output is feedback to the inverting input d. there is no feedback

40. A node that has 0V with respect to ground without being mechanically grounded is called a. an ac ground b. an emitter ground c. a virtual ground d. a mechanical ground 41. To use an op-amp, you need at least a. one supply voltage b. two-supply voltage c. one feedback resistord. one bypass capacitor 42. A capacitor on the op-amp integrated circuit determines the rate at which gain decreases with an increase in frequency. This is a. internal frequency compensation b. a drop-out capacitor c. a roll-on capacitor d. not possible because capacitors can not be made on integrated circuits 43. An amplifier should have a. high fidelity

b. low noise

c. stable operation

d. all of the these

44. Which amplifier will be preferred for highest gain? a. Darlington pair b. Cascaded amplifier c. series amplifier amplifier

d. Single stage

45. Determine the output voltage of a differential amplifier for input voltages of Vi1 = 150 uV and Vi2 = 100 uV. The amplifier has a differential mode gain of Ad = 1000 and the value of CMRR is 100. a. 50 mV b. 51.25 mV c. 50 V d. 51.25