ICND 2 Full

Untitled Exam
Number: 000-000 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1.0
Exam A QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table? A. B. C. D. Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. E. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16. Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail? A. B. C. D. from R1 to 172.16.1.1 from R1 to 192.168.3.1 from R2 to 192.168.1.1 from R2 to 192.168.3.1
Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3 What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. It connects multiple IP networks. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses. It determines the best path to send packets. It manages the VLAN database. It increases the size of the broadcast domain
Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4 Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. B. C. D. E. F.
They are aware of the complete network topology. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5 Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations. It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received. It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.
Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
A. B. C. D.
Router1 Router2 Router3 Router4
Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A? A. B. C. D. All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.
QUESTION 8 When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command? A. B. C. D. ROM, TFTP server, flash flash, TFTP server, ROM flash, NVRAM, TFTP server NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
QUESTION 9 Which router component is used to store the routing table? A. B. C. D. Flash NVRAM ROM SDRAM
QUESTION 10 Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.) A. As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table. B. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route. C. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology. D. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor. E. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update. F. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols. Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11 What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. IS-IS EIGRP OSPF RIPv1 RIPv2
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem? A. B. C. D. Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access. RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks. RIPv1 does not support load balancing. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
QUESTION 13 What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0? A. B. C. D. R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration? A. B. C. D. Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized. Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups. The static route will not work correctly.
Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following
commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A? A. A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 B. B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48 B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64 C. A(config)# router rip A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32 D. B(config)# router rip B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0 E. A(config)# no router rip Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output? A. B. C. D. R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28. Automatic summarization is disabled. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1. A classful routing protocol is being used.
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F. Paris(config)# router eigrp 100 Paris(config)# router eigrp Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0 Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18 A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the 172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the interface? A. B. C. D. 172.16.128.154/18 172.16.255.254/18 172.24.64.254/18 172.24.127.254/18
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip commands, what are two of the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1 R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0 R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. ABCD is a router that is connected to R1. ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1. The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1 R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD. ABCD does not support switching capability.
QUESTION 21 A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing protocol is recommended for this network? A. B. C. D. RIPv1 RIPv2 EIGRP OSPF
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server? A. B. C. D. the IP address of the server the default gateway of host A the IP address of host A the default gateway of the server
Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this? A. B. C. D. The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network. The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers. They have different OSPF router IDs. They have different process IDs.
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem? A. B. C. D. The routers are configured with different versions of RIP. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command. The maximum path number has been exceeded.
QUESTION 25 A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? A. B. C. D. It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode? A. B. C. D. Cisco001 Cisco123 Cisco789 Cisco901
QUESTION 27 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface the highest IP address of any logical interface the highest IP address of any physical interface the default gateway IP address the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled ? in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A. B. C. D. E.
DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch modem hub
Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network? A. B. C. D. the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
QUESTION 30 A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
A. B. C. D.
Change the routing metric for that route. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own. Change the administrative distance for that route. Remove the route using the no ip route command.
Exam B QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect? A. B. C. D. AS1 and AS2 DS1 and DS2 DS1, DS2, and CS1 AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2
QUESTION 2 Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting? A. B. C. D. user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist. The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision. Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit? A. B. C. D. E. F. discard the frame forward the frame out port 2 forward the frame out port 3 forward the frame out all ports forward the frame out all ports except port 3 add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5 What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses. The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
QUESTION 6 Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F. It is configured in VTP server mode. STP is automatically enabled. The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections. VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address. All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1. The enable password is configured as cisco.
Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config? A. B. C. D. The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server. The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1. The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config. The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
Answer: C Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? A. This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. B. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. C. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. D. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18. Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9 Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem? A. B. C. D. The command contained a syntax error. The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer. The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The devices in the network are operational and configured as indicated in the exhibit. However, hosts B and D cannot ping each other. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. B. C. D. The link between the switches is up but not trunked. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. Hosts B and D are configured with IP addresses from different subnets. VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are not allowed on the trunk between the switches.
QUESTION 11 A network administrator is implementing VTP in a large campus LAN that contains one hundred switches. What are valid considerations for reliability and administration? A. Using server mode on a single master switch and client mode on all other switches will provide the most fault tolerance for retaining VLAN information in all switches if power is lost on the network. B. Using transparent mode on all switches will allow for efficient administration and prevent VLAN data loss from the loss of any single switch. C. Configuring several switches in server mode will allow all VLANs to be entered from a single switch and preserve VLAN data if any of the switches or connections are lost. D. Configuring one primary and one backup switch in server mode and all other switches in transparent mode will provide fault tolerance for the VLAN data and allow for efficient distribution of the VLAN configurations to all switches.
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2. There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain. VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch. VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain. This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
QUESTION 13 What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface? A. B. C. D. disable port security make the port operational override the default port behavior force the port to be a part of a single vlan
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. What happens when a frame from a source MAC address different from 00a8.d2e4.ba27 reaches switch port 0/5? A. B. C. D. The frame is dropped. The port is shut down. An error message is displayed. FastEthernet port 0/5 will show an err-disabled message.
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit? A. B. C. D. Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing. DHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2. Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2. Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.
QUESTION 16 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge? A. The network diameter limitation is 9. B. BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers. C. The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
D. The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch. Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm? A. B. C. D. It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches. It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN. It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains. It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of issuing these commands? A. B. C. D. The enable password will be set. The password will be set for the first Telnet connection. The password will be set for the console connection. The password will be set for the auxiliary connection.
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanningtree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values? A. B. C. D. E. F. switch A switch B switch C switch D switch E switch F
Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1? A. B. C. D. The port will transition into blocking state. The port will transition immediately into forwarding state. The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state. The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.
Answer: B Section: (none)
QUESTION 21 Which statement is correct about STP architecture? A. B. C. D. E. Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks. The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election. The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port. To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a nondesignated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth? A. B. C. D. E. F. Fa0/1 interface of switch A Fa0/2 interface of switch A Fa0/1 interface of switch B Fa0/2 interface of switch B Fa0/1 interface of switch C Fa0/2 interface of switch C
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect? A. B. C. D. E. Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+) Common Spanning Tree (CST) Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20? A. B. C. D. A B C D
Answer: Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure? A. B. C. D. S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. R1 does not have an active routing protocol. The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network. Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
QUESTION 26 What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN? A. B. C. D. Connect each PC directly to a router port. Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches. Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? A. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. B. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. C. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. D. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. E. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1. Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured? A. B. C. D. E. zero four five eight nine
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem? A. B. C. D. Rename VLAN1. Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port. Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. B. C. D. Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down. No routing protocol is configured on Router1. One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem? A. B. C. D. Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology. Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information. Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration. Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.
QUESTION 32 What is the purpose of VLAN trunking? A. B. C. D. It improves network performance by reducing broadcast traffic. It selects the best path to transmit data in a switched network. It carries the traffic of multiple VLANs through a single link. It avoids spanning tree loops in a switched network.
Answer: C
Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. Router R-West and switch S-West1 are connected via a single ethernet cable between the router interface fa0/0 and the switch interface fa0/1. The router and switch have been configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit. The network administrator enters the show interfaces trunk command and receives the output as shown. What is the cause of the not-trunking status for switch port Fa0/1? A. B. C. D. The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it. The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk. Because the router does not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol, the trunk has not been established. The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for Dynamic Trunking Protocol to establish a trunk.
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem? A. B. C. D. Allow all VLANs on the trunk link. Remove the native VLAN from the trunk. Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities. Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? A. B. C. D. 0 1 2 4
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? A. B. C. D. E. 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.31 /28 192.168.1.32 /28 192.168.1.52 /28 192.168.1.63 /28
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F. An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use. Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces. The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1. Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.
Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet? A. B. C. D. E. The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0. Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2. Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down. Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address. Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
QUESTION 40 In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements? A. B. C. D. client root server transparent
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this? A. B. C. D. The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches. The VTP domains are different on both switches. VTP pruning is disabled. VTP v2 is disabled.
QUESTION 42 Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server? A. B. C. D. E. configuring trunk links on the VTP server configuring or changing the VTP password configuring or changing the VTP domain name configuring or changing the VTP version number configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
Answer: E Section: (none)
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem? A. B. C. D. All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2. SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning five additional VLANs to be shared throughout the VTP domain on S3. What action should the administrator take before creating the additional VLANs? A. Create the VLANs on a switch in VTP server mode and allow them to propogate to the other switches in the domain. B. Modify the configuration revision to 10 to support the additional VLANs. C. Enable the VTP pruning mode in order to create the VLANs on S3 D. Enable the VTP v2 mode. Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. What does FORWARDING mean in the command output shown?
A. B. C. D.
The switch is sending and receiving data frames. The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
QUESTION 46 Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another? A. B. C. D. SSID OFDM WEP DSSS
QUESTION 47 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN? A. B. C. D. Available bandwidth is reduced. MAC addresses are easily spoofed. APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks. The payload encryption is easily broken.
QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
A. B. C. D.
Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
QUESTION 49 Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device? A. B. C. D. a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it
Answer: Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50 A wireless access point can function as which type of shared medium, wired LAN device? A. B. C. D. hub switch router gateway
QUESTION 51 What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value? A. B. C. D. only the management VLAN all VLANs except the extended range VLANs all VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005 all VLANs
Answer: D Section: (none)
QUESTION 52 A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it? A. B. C. D. probing beaconing association authentication
Exam C QUESTION 1 A network administrator can ping the Perth router, but gets a Password Required but None Set message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Perth router to allow remote access? A. Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco B. Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco C. Router(config)# line virtual terminal Router(config-line)# enable login Router(config-line)# password cisco D. Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# enable secret Router(config-line)# password cisco E. outer(config)# enable secret cisco Router(config)# enable cisco Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2 When Frame Relay encapsulation is used, what feature provides flow control and exchanges information about the status of virtual circuits? A. B. C. D. LCP LMI DLCI Inverse ARP
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic in the output of the command? A. The bandwidth capability of the interface increases and decreases automatically based on BECNs
B. The Serial0/0/1 interface acquired 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server. C. The mapping between DLCI 100 and 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP. D. DLCI 100 will automatically adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud. Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Every time the administrator reboots this router, the boot process ends in setup mode. What is a possible problem? A. B. C. D. E. There is insufficient RAM for the IOS to load on this router. A password recovery process should be done on this router. The bootstrap version and the version of the IOS are different. The IOS image is damaged and must be reloaded using tftpdnld. The configuration register is set to ignore the startup configuration.
Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server? A. B. C. D. 10.1.1.2:1234 172.30.20.1:1234 172.30.20.1:3333 192.168.1.2:80
QUESTION 6 Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider? A. B. C. D. BE DE CIR CBIR
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows DHCPD: there is no address pool for 10.1.1.1. What is the problem? A. B. C. D. The 10.1.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0. The default router for the 10Network pool is incorrect. The ip helper-address must be added to Fa0/0 interface. The pool of addresses for the 10Network pool is incorrect.
QUESTION 8 Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers? A. B. C. D. E. ATM Frame Relay HDLC PPP SDLC
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5? A. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet. B. The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command. C. The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router. D. It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router. Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10 Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.) A. B. C. D. E. F. Once a good password is created, do not change it. Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords. Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length. Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters. Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out. Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
Answer: BCD Section: (none)
QUESTION 11 Compared with IDS systems, what can IPS systems do to provide further protection of computer systems? A. B. C. D. detect potential attacks stop the detected attack from executing update OS patches for computer systems scan computer systems for viruses and spyware
QUESTION 12 Which IEEE 802.16 broadband wireless technology allows users to connect to the ISP at speeds comparable to DSL and cable? A. B. C. D. Wi-Fi satellite WiMAX Metro Ethernet
QUESTION 13 A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet? A. B. C. D. Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously. Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved. Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites. Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
QUESTION 14 Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination? A. B. C. D. extended reflexive standard time-based
QUESTION 15 A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startupconfiguration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem? A. B. C. D. E. F. The configuration register is set for 02100. The configuration register is set for 02101. The configuration register is set for 02102. The configuration register is set for 02142. Boot system commands are not configured. Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to connect R1 remotely to make configuration changes. Based on the exhibited command output, what will be the result when attempting to connect to R1? A. B. C. D. failure to connect due to Telnet not being enabled failure to connect due to incomplete configuration for Telnet a successful connection and ability to make configuration changes a successful connection but inability to make configuration changes because of the absence of an enable secret password
QUESTION 17 A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. reduced jitter reduced costs reduced latency the ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth the ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers
QUESTION 18 What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces. Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access. Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases. Disable the HTTP server service. Enable SNMP traps.
QUESTION 19 Which two statements are true about IPv6 link local addresses? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix. They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix. They are assigned by IANA to an organization. They must be manually configured by the administrator. They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.
QUESTION 20 An issue of response time has recently arisen on an application server. The new release of a software package has also been installed on the server. The configuration of the network has changed recently. To identify the problem, individuals from both teams responsible for the recent changes begin to investigate the source of the problem. Which statement applies to this situation? A. B. C. D. Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation. Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated? A. B. C. D. E. application transport network data link physical
QUESTION 22 A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained? A. B. C. D. The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic. The West side of town is downloading larger packets. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side. More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
Answer: C Section: (none)
QUESTION 23 Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection? A. B. C. D. local loop DTE cable on router demarcation point demilitarized zone
QUESTION 24 Which technology is used to dynamically map next hop, network layer addresses to virtual circuits in a Frame Relay network? A. B. C. D. Inverse ARP LMI DLCI FECN
QUESTION 25 An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent? A. B. C. D. cracking phishing phreaking spamming
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Results of the show vlan and show vtp status commands for switches S1 and S2 are displayed in the exhibit. VLAN 11 was created on S1. Why is VLAN 11 missing from S2? A. B. C. D. There is a Layer 2 loop. The VTP domain names do not match. Only one switch can be in server mode. S2 has a higher spanning-tree priority for VLAN 11 than S1 does.

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Untitled Exam

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Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

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DCE CSU/DSU LAN switch modem hub

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