AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION

THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1701
Time: 3 Hrs ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS: I. WRITE THE MEANING OF THE FOLLOWING TECHNICAL WORDS: a. Ignition b. Erosion c. Ductile d. Current e. Melting f. dissolving g. Electron h. retardation i. oscillation j. pressure k. kinetic energy l. conduction m. reactance n. generator o. reflection p. opaque q. nucleus r. fusion s. reactor t. radio isotope II. a. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING NOUN FORM OF THE VERBS UNDERLINED: 1. If the engine overheats, then the efficiency will decrease 2. Both cold pressure and resistance welding requires small amount of heat. 3. If the machines are tested by this method, there will be some loss of power. 4. The use of superheated steam improves the performance. b. COMPLETE THE STATEMENT GIVEN BELOW USING ADJECTIVE FORM OF WORDS GIVEN IN BRACKET: 1. __________ (case ) handling of chemicals is necessary in laboratories. 2. A ______ ( protect) area can be opened to development only after approval from state legislature. 3. The growth of _____ (industry) town causes many people leave the country side. 4. Better performance of a machine is ensured by ______ (regularity) maintenance. c. FILL IN THE BLANKS IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING VERBS IN SIMPLE PRESENT FORM: 1. Pressure waves _____ sub surface water, turning solid sediments into fluids. 2. Ultrasonic welding _______ from resistance welding only by amount of heat applied. 3. Enormous oil deposits _________ under the surface of earth. 4. Every year scientists all over the world ______ new grains with increased yields. d. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE WORDS: 1. Over the last forty years computer ________ dramatically 2. Nuclear fuels give out dangerous and very ______ radiations. 3. She left the theatre when the play ________ on 4. The _______ yet found an effective means of safety dumping the nuclear waste. f. COMPLETE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING APPROPRIATE FUTURE FORM OF VERB. CHOOSE THE VERB FROM THE GIVEN LIST. 1. With surfaces software, the company _______ a fifty percent reduction in modeling time. 2. Ozone molecules ______ 3 atoms of oxygen bound together 3. If he had some practical training in a workshop, he _____ the defects in the engine. 4. If he does his masters degree in material science, he _____ admission to the ME courses. ( Test, contain, achieve, rectify, come, do, get, attend) Max. Marks: 100

III. READ THE PASSAGE BELOW AND ANSWER BRIEFLY THE QUESTIONS APPENDED BELOW: Oil, the major source of energy in the world today, has had a dramatic effect of the worlds economy. Until quite recently, the demand for oil seemed unlimited. This enormous demand motivated several multinational companies to invest vast sums of money in locating and exploiting any large oil deposits that could be found. Some of these multinationals became extremely wealthy, although the countries in which they found oil did not always have much of a share in this new-found wealth. However, oil-rich countries came to realize that if they acted together, their all deposits could be a source of great power and wealth. Indeed in 1973, the organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) which together produced 56 percent of the worlds petroleum at that time decided to act together to force an increase in the price in oil. By united action OPEC was able to take control of the rates of production and of prices away from the multinational companies. This action, by a group of developing countries almost held the developed world of random. Limiting the supply of oil led to sharp increase in what was becoming a scarce, though still vital, commodity. Without oil, the economics of the developed countries would have come to a virtual stand-still. Almost overnight, there was a huge shift of wealth from industrial nation as to the oil-exporting nations. Another effect was that industrialized countries became more interested in energy conservation. Indeed, by effect was that industrialized countries came more interested in energy conservation. Indeed, by 1980, World Oil consumption was down by 3 percent on 1973 levels. A more long term effect was that other sources of energy which has previously been considered too costly now became economically feasible. a. Write whether the following statements are True or False: i. Oil is a fossil fuel ii. England showed little interest in energy conservation as she could affor to buy oil iii. Even without oil, the developed countries would have improved iv. Oil is a renewable energy v. The increase in the price of oil has not affected the economy of the developed countries. b. Give brief answer to the following questions: i. Why do the multinational companies invest in locating oil? ii. How did the oil-rich countries make use of the Worlds demand for oil? iii. List any two effects of the demand for oil c. i. Choose the correct answer: Feasible means _________ a. encouragement b. impossible c. possible d. imperfection ii. Complete the following sentence meaningfully: In 1980, when compared to 1973, the world consumption of oil has shown _______ iii. Find out one word substitute to the following: 1. not much, hard to find 2. almost what is stated IV. LETTER WRITING: Read the following advertisements & draft a suitable letter of application: We are looking for a competent mechanical engineer with about 10 years experience in the field of technical services of Engineering products, sound and broad based technical knowledge and good interpersonal skills are required. Apply with biodata. V. WRITE AN ESSAY OF ABOUT 300 WORDS ON : Waste Management in India Or Impact of new technology on Automobile Engineering

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1702
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 SECTION-A I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks 1. If 1 3 5 m 5 7 = 0, then find the value of m. 3 9 1 2. Find the value of the determinant cos -sin sin 3. Multiply the matrices. A= 2 4 3 5 with B = a c b d cos

4. Define i. Unit matrix ii. Diagonal matrix. 5. if nP2 = 2 Find the value of n. 6. How many teams of 6 members can be formed from a group of 12 players? 7. Find the coefficient of x5 in the expansion of ( x- 1/x)11 8. Find the general term in the expansion of (a/b + b/a) n 9. Find the unit vector parallel to 3i + j - 2k 10. Find the projection of i +2j + 2k on 2i + j + 2k. 11. If a= 2i-j+k, b=i+mj, c=3i-4j +5k are coplanar. Find the value of m. 12. Define moment of a force about a point. 13. Find the conjugate of (1+i)(3+4i) 14. If Z1 = (2,5) and Z2 =(-1,4) Find Z1 Z2. 15. Simplify (sin + cos v) n 16. State Demoivres theorem. 17. A box contains 6 white balls and 5 black balls. If 3 balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that the balls drawn are white? 18. When two dice are thrown, find the probability of getting the sum of the face number greater than 2. 19. P(A) = 0.24 P(B) = 0.035 and P(AB)= 0.03 Find P(A/B) 20. For 2 events A and B, Prove that P(AB) = 1 P(n). P(B/A). II. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTION. 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Solve using Cramers Rule. 3x + y +z =3, 2x +2y + 5z =-1, -3y -4z = 2 (doubt?) 2. Find the Rank of A+B and AB in case of the following matrices A= 1 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 B= 1 0 2 5 3 13 4 2 10

3. Prove by mathematical induction 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + .+2n = n(n+1) 4. If x is small, show that 1 - x/1 + x = 1 - x + x2/2 (approx) using Binomial theorem.

5. Prove that the points 2i + 4j + 3k, 4i+ j+9k and 10i + j + 6k form a right angled triange. 6. Find the angle between 2 diagonals of a cube. 7. Prove that the points 2- 2i, 8+4i, 5+7i, -1 + i form a rectangle. 8. If n is a positive integer, prove that ( 1+ i3)n + (1- i3)n = 2n+1 cos (n /3) 9. Find the probability distribution of number of sixes in throwing two dice once. 10. A player tosses 2 fair coins. He wins Rs. 5 if 2 heads appear, Rs. 2 if 1 head appears and Rs. 1 if no head occur. Find the amount he expects to win.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1703
Time: 3 Hrs PART-A I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. 1. Convert the following a. 4/11 to degree b. 240 to radians 2. Prove that 1 + 1 = 2 sec2 Max. Marks: 100 (40 Marks)

1 + sin 1 - sin 3. Give the cosine formula for any triangle ABC. 4. Give any two formulae for area of triangle. 5. Give the condition for (x1,y1),(x2,y2),(x3,y3) to be collinear. 6. The distance of a point from y axis is 5 times its distance from origin, find the equation of the locus. 7. Find the distance between the parallel lines 3x + 4y + 6 =0 and 3x +4y -7 =0 8. The equation of line passing through (1, -2) and (5,8) 9. Give the condition of 2 circles to cut orthogonally. 10. Find the centre and radius of x2 + y2 -8x -6y -24 =0 11. Solve Lt x3 +1 x -1 x+1 12. Solve Lt sin 3 0 sin 4 13. Differetiate x + 1/x 14. y = e -4x find d2y/dx2 15. Find the slope of the tangent at (2,6) on 2y = 3x 2 16. Determine the domain of increase and decrease of the function y = x 2 - 4x +3 17. Find dx / 16 - x2 18. Find 36 - x2 dx 19. Evaluate dx / 1 + x2 20. State any two properties of definite integral. PART-B II. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Show that Cos A + Cos B + Cos C = 1 + 4 sin A/2 sin B/2 sin C/2 2. Solve the triangle A = 72 19 B= 831 c= 92.93 3. A and B are the fixed points (a,0) and (-a,0) respectively. Find the equation of the locus of the point P such that PA + PB = constant. 4. Find the equation of the straight line passing through the intersection of 3x + 4y = 7 and x -y +2 = 0 and slope = 5. 5. Find the equation of circle which touches the x and y axes and passes through the point (2,1) 6. If x is a positive integer and Lt xn -2n = 80 find n x 2 x-2 7. Differentiage cosec2 (x/2) 8. Examine for maxima and minima using first derivative test 2x3 + 3x2 - 36x + 10. 9. Integrate 2x + 3 / -1 + x - 2x2 dx

10. Evaluate x log x dx

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1704
Time: 3 Hrs PART-A I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks 1. Define One standard metre. 2. What are the uses of dimensional formula? 3. Define a vector. 4. What is a projectile? Give examples. 5. What is Hookes law? 6. A 4m long aluminium wire with cross sectional area 1x10 -6 m2 is used to support a weight of 50 N. If the elongation of wire is 2.5 mm. Calculate the Youngs modulus for aluminium. 7. Write any two postulates of kinetic theory of gases. 8. Define Kirchoffs law. 9. The length of simple pendulum is 2.45m. What is its frequency? 10. Define simple harmonic motion. 11. Why is the central image of Newtons ring dark? 12. State Brewsters law. 13. Define magnetic field. Give its units. 14. Give the formula for Tan A and Tan B position? 15. State Coulombs inverse square law. 16. Three resistors have resistances 20k 15 k , 5k . What is their effective resistance when they are connected in (i) series (ii) parallel 17. Write any 2 properties of cathode rays? 18. Define Photo electric effect? 19. Why is the base of transistor extremely thin? 20. What are universal gates? Why are they called so? PART - B ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10= 60 Marks 1. Using Dimension derive an expression for the period of a simple pendulum? 2. Derive an expression for the resultant velocity of a body projected horizontally from the top of a building. 3. In Carnot engine explain isothermal and adiabatic expansion. 4. Determine the surface temperature of water by capillary rise method. 5. What is the cause for oscillating pendulum to come to rest after sometime? 6. Write notes on a. Brewsters law b. Double refraction 7. Write in detail the principle and construction of Tangent Galvanometer. 8. Explain in detail how a galvanometer is converted into voltmeter. 9. Describe the uses of Radio isotopes in Medicine. 10. With a neat diagram explain the working of a full wave rectifier? Max. Marks: 100

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1705
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 PART-A I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks 1. State Hunds rule. 2. State any two uses of lanthanides. 3. What are simple salts? 4. Name the following complexes : i. Pt IV(NH3)Cl2)2+ ii. (CoIII(NH3)6)3+ 5. Give any two characteristics of Ionic bond. 6. What is meant by hybridization? 7. State Raoults Law. 8. What is Osmosis? 9. Define Reaction rate 10. What is meant by Catalysis? 11. What is meant by cell constant? Give its equation. 12. What is common ion effect? 13. How do you prepare acids from Grignard reagents? Give an example. 14. What is Dows process? 15. Give two test for aldehyde. 16. How is acetone prepared from alchohol? 17. Give the structure of Benzene diazonium chloride? 18. What is diazotization? Give an example. 19. How is TNT prepared? 20. Write any 2 difference between thermosetting and thermoplastics? PART-B II. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. How is phosphine prepared? Explain its (i) properties (ii) Uses 2. Explain Werners theory of coordination compounds? 3. How do you predict the shapes of BeCl2, BF3, NH3 and CH4 molecules by application of VSEPR theory? 4. Describe the measuring of depression in freezing point using Beckman thermometer? 5. Derive the expression for rate constant k= 2.303 / t log a/ a-x 6. Give the postulates of Arrhenius theory? 7. Explain vector Meyers test for distinction between three classes of alcohols? 8. Discuss the optical activity of Tartaric acids? 9. How are the following prepared from aniline? a. 2,4,6 tribromo aniline b. p-nitro aniline c. benzoquinone d. benzene diazonium chloride 10. Write short notes on a. Thermosetting plastics b. Thermoplastics with examples. Also give their differences.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1706
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 PART-A I. ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: 20 x 2= 40 Marks 1. Who is called the father of computer? What was his contribution? 2. What is the characteristics difference between arithmetic engine and analytical engine? 3. Name the five major characteristics of computer. 4. What are the 3 parts of central processing unit? 5. Define RAM. 6. How is data organized on a magnetic tape drive? 7. Name the physical devices used to construct memories. 8. How does a pen plotter work? 9. How are computers classified based on computer power? 10. What is e-mail used for? 11. What is the difference between an ideal microcomputer and an actual microcomputer? 12. What is the purpose of address bus and data bus in a microprocessor? 13. What is the binary equivalent of (23) 10 ? 14. Find the hexadecimal equivalent of ( .5828) 10. 15. State the duality principle. 16. What are the elements used to fabricate a transistors? 17. What is an operating system? 18. What is a shell in Unix? 19. What does COBOL stand for? 20. What is an assembler? PART-B II. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 10 x 6 = 60 Marks 1. Describe briefly the components used in I, II, III and IV generation computers. 2. With the help of a block diagram of a personal computer describe the various units in it. 3. Explain how data is organized on a hard disk. 4. Write in brief about the different output devices used in a computer. 5. Write the application and examples of analog, digital & hybrid computers. 6. Describe the logic structure of a typical microprocessor. 7. Divide the following by long Hand i. 1011011 / 11 ii. 110111 / 1011 8. Illustrate the identity ( A+B).(A+C) = (A+B).C by Venn diagram. 9. Describe the Batch operating system of a computer. 10. Compare and classify the high level, low level and assembly level language.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1707
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MARKS. 1. Construct an equilateral triangle ABC of 40 mm side. Construct a square, a regular pentagon and a regular hexagon on its sides AB, BC and CA respectively. 2. Draw an ellipse by concentric circles method and find the length of the minor axis with the help of the following data: (i) Major axis = 100 mm (ii) Distance between foci 80 mm. 3. A line AB, 65 mm long, has its end A in the H.P. and 15 mm in front of the V.P. The end B is in the third quadrant. The line is inclined at 30 to the H.P. and at 60 to the V.P. Draw its projections. 4. A cube of 65 mm long edges has its vertical faces equally inclined to the V.P. It is cut by a section plane, perpendicular to the V.P. so that the true shape of the section is a regular hexagon. Determine the inclination of the cutting plane with the H.P. and draw the sectional top view and true shape of the section. 5. Draw the isometric view of the clamping piece shown in the figure.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1708
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100 ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: ( 25 Marks) I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 1. Vector Quantities are those quantities which have a. Magnitude as well as direction b. Magnitude only c. Direction only d. All of the above 2. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position is called a. potential energy b. Kinetic energy c. electrical energy d. chemical energy 3. The linear velocity of a body rotating at rad/s along a circular path of radius r is given by a. .r b. / r c. 2.r d. 2 / r 4. Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain? a. Beam engine b. Watts indicator mechanism c. Ellliptical Trammerls d. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism e. all of the above f. none of the above 5. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a distance equal to a. h / kg b. h.g c. h2 / kg d. k2g /hl 6. The instantaneous centre which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called a. permanent instantaneous centre b. fixed instantaneous centres c. neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres d. none of the above 7. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the same link a. parallel to the link joining the points b. perpendicular to the link joining the points c. at 45 to the link joining the points d. none of the above 8. The coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for a. slider crank mechanism b. four bar chain mechanism c. quick return motion mechanism d. none of these 9.The driving and driven shafts connected by a Hookes joint will have equal speeds, if a. cos = sin b. sin = tan c. tan = cos d. cot = cos 10. The efficiency of a screw jack is given by a. tan ( + ) / tan b. tan / tan + c. tan ( - ) / tan d. tan / tan (- ) 11. The centrifugal tension in bells a. increases power transmitted b. decreases power transmitted c. have no effect on the power transmitted d. increases power transmitted upto a certain speed and then decreases 12. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called a. spur gearing b. helical gearing c. Bevel gearing d. spiral gearing 13. The train value of a gear train is a. equal to velocity ratio of a gear train b. reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train c. always greater than unity d. always less than unity 14. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be a. to move the ship towards port side b. to move the ship towards star-board c. to raise the bow and lower the stern d. to raise the stern and lower the bow 15. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a horizontal reciprocating steam engine, then the velocity of the piston will be a. zero b. minimum c. maximum

16. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the main speed is called a. Fluctuation of speed b. maximum fluctuation of speed c. coefficient of fluctuation of speed d. none of these 17. In Meyers expansion value, main value is driven by eccentric having an angle of advance a. 10 - 15 b. 15 - 25 c. 25 - 30 d. 30 - 40 18. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the main speed, the governor is a. stable b. unstable c. isochronous d. hunt 19. Which of the following is an absorption type dynamometer? a. prony brake dynamometer b. rope brake dynamometer c. epicyclic-train dynamometer d. torsion dynamometer e. both a and b 20. In a radial cam, the follower moves a. In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis b. in a direction parallel to the cam axis c. in any direction irrespective of the cam axis d. along the cam axis 21. For static balancing of a shaft a. the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero b. the net couple due to dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero c. both a and b d. none of the above 22. The swaying couple is due to the a. primary unbalanced force b. secondary unbalanced force c. two cylinders of locomotive d. partial balancing 23. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves a. perpendicular to its axis b. parallel to its axis c. In a circle about its axis 24. At a nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude of a torsional vibration is a. zero b. minimum c. maximum 25. A simple Bourdon tube pressure gauge is a a. closed-loop control system b. open-loop control system c. manually operated system d. none of these II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 15 = 15 Marks 1. What is energy? 2. State Kennedys Theorem. 3. What is centrifugal tension in a belt? 4. Define the term co-efficient of fluctuation of speed? 5. What is meant by torsionally equivalent length of a shaft to a stepped shaft? III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. A particle moving with a uniform velocity has no tangential acceleration. Explain clearly. 2. Describe the method to find the velocity of a point on a link whose direction (or path) is known and the velocity of some other point on the same link in magnitude and direction is given? 3. Sketch a pantograph, explain its working and show that it can be used to reproduce to an enlarged scale a given figure. 4. What is meant by the expression friction circle? Deduce an expression for the radius of friction circle in terms of the radius of the journal and the angle of friction. 5. Discuss the effect of the gyroscopic couple on a two wheeled vehicle when taking a turn? 6. Draw and explain Kliens construction for determining the velocity and acceleration of the piston in a slider crank mechanism 7. What is the difference between absorption and transmission dynamometers? What are torsion dynamometers? 8. Derive the following expressions, for an uncoupled two cylinder locomotive engine: a. Variation is tractive force b. swaying couple c. hammer blow

9. Derive an expression for the natural frequency of free transverse and longitudinal vibrations by equilibrium method. 10. Derive the expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration for a circular arc cam operating a flat-faced follower i. when the contact is on the circular flank, and ii. when the contact is on circular nose

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1709
Time: 3 Hrs ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS: Max. Marks: 100 (25 Marks)

1. Which of the following are the thermal properties of materials? a. Fatigue b. specific heat c. thermal conductivity d. fracture e. both a and d f. both b and c 2. Which bond is available in the three states of matter? a. metallic bond b. covalent bond c. ionic bond d. Vander Waals bond 3. The bond in which atoms of the same or different elements give up their valence electrons to form an electron cloud ( or electron gas ) throughout the space occupied by the atoms, is known as a. ionic bond b. metallic bond c. covalent bond d. none of the above 4. A material having different properties in different directions is known as a. amorphous b. copolymer c. anisotropic d. austenite 5. The Miller Indices are the same for a. parallel planes b. perpendicular planes c. orthogonal planes d. crystallographic planes 6. The mass of an electron varies with variation in a. Electrostatic field b. magnetic field c. gravitational field d. speed 7. Cathode rays are a. stream of cathodes b. moving charges of either sign c. moving electrons d. moving ions 8. Manganin contains a. copper, nickel and manganese b. copper, nickel and lead c. Zinc, nickel and aluminium d. nickel, cobalt and chromium 9. Out of the four materials, manganin, nichrome, tantenum and kanthal, the following has the highest resistivity a. Manganin b. Kanthal c. Nichrome D. Tantenum 10. For a given dielectric, the electronic polarizability e a. Increases with temperature b. is not affected by temperature c. decreases with temperature d. may increase or decrease with temperature 11. Dielectric strength of a material is a. the capacity to take two or more stresses b. the capacity to withstand higher voltage c. the capacity to withstand electrical and mechanical shocks d. none of the above 12. Above the Curie temperature, a magnetic materials becomes a. Ferromagnetic b. paramagnetic c. Diamagnetic d. none of the above 13. The following material is used for making permanent magnets a. Platinum cobalt b. Alnico V c. carbon stee d. all the three 14. Super conductivity results due to a. all electrons having Fermi energy at 0 K b. crystal structure having no atomic vibrations at 0K c. all electrons interacting in the super conducting state d. crystal structure having infinite atomic vibrations at 0K

15. At critical temperature Tc, the value of the critical magnetic fields Hc is a. critical temperature Tc b. critical magnetic field strength Hc c. critical current density Jc d. none of these 16. The number of semiconductors in periodic table is a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 13 17. The structure of a semiconductor is like that of a a. triangle b. diamond c. circle d. rhombus 18. Araldite is a. Epoxy resin b. a thermo setting plastic c. a vegetable oil resi d. none of the above 19. Polyethylene is produced by a. condensation polymerization b. additional polymerization c. substitutional polymerization d. any of the above 20. Radiography is based on the a. differential absorption b. reflection of radio waves c. reflection of the civil light d. transmitting and receiving the radio waves 21. Which of the following tests are known as destructive test a. radiography b. ultrasonic inspection c. Tensile test d. Bend test e. only a and b f. only c and d 22. FRP is a a. composite material b. Highly conductive material c. high strength material than steel d. Highly ductile material than copper 23. Lithium Niobate is used a. as a SAW material b. as a LED material c. to make optical fibre d. to make laser 24. Which of the following are the heat treatment processes? a. normalizing b. annealing c. hardening of quenching d. tempering e. all of the above f. none of the above 25. In case of Rockwell harness test as compared to Brinell hardness test a. Indenters and loads are larger b. Indenters and loads are smaller c. Indenters are larger but loads are smaller d. Indenters are smaller but loads are smaller (doubt:larger ?) II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 5 x 3 = 15 Marks 1. Define the terms Unit Cell, Space lattices and Millers Indices. 2. What is meant by tuned effect? 3. What is ferromagnetism? 4. What are SAW materials? 5. Define creep. III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS. (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Briefly explain the various properties of Engineering materials? 2. Explain the term symmetry in crystal structure. Show that a five fold symmetry is not possible in crystal structure? 3. Explain the covalent binding in molecular hydrogen. Give reasons for the formation of four covalent bonds in carbon? 4. State the general features of electrical condition in metals. Develop the Drude-Lorentz theory to get an expression for the conductivity .How fat the above result agree with observed variation of conductivity with temperature. 5. Write an essay on superconducting materials and their applications. 6. Describe the different types of polymers and their applications in Engineering? 7. Describe the Electrical and Magnetic nondestructive testing methods? 8. Discuss the different fiber optic materials along with their properties related to communication. 9. Discuss the various technological properties associated with the engineering materials. 10. Explain the high temperature corrosion with a suitable example.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1710
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) 1. Which of the following statement is correct? a. a force is an agent which produces or tens to produce motion b. a force is an agent which stops or tends to stop motion c. a force may balance a given number of forces acting on a body d. both a and b 2. A couple consists of two a. like parallel forces of same magnitude b. like parallel forces of different magnitudes c. unlike parallel forces of same magnitude d. unlike parallel forces of different magnitudes 3. If a body is in equilibrium, we may conclude that a. No force is acting on the body b. the resultant of all the forces acting on it is zero c. the moments of the forces about any point is zero d. both b and c 4. The centre of gravity of a right circular cone of diameter (d) and height(h) lies at a distance of _____ from the base measured along the vertical radius a. h/2 b. h/3 c. h/4 d. 4/6 5. The moment of inertia of a triangular section of base(b) and height (h) about and axis passing through its vertex and parallel to the base is _____ as that passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base a. twelve times b. nine times c. six times d. four times 6. The force of friction between two bodies in contact a. depends upon the area of their contract b. depends upon the relative velocity between them c. is always normal to the surface of their contact d. all of the above 7. A wedge is generally used for lifting a a. light load through a small distance b. light load through a large distance c. heavy load through a small distance d. heavy load through a long distance 8. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity ratio, then it is a set of a. first system of pulleys b. second system of pulleys c. third system of pulleys 9. A lecturer told the class that if a body is projected upwards from any point, then the body while coming down at the same point will have the same velocity with which it was projected upwards. Is his statement correct? a. agree b. disagree 10. The relationship between linear velocity and angula velocity of a cycle a. exists under all conditions b. does not exist under all conditions c. exist only when it does not slip d. exists only when it moves on horizontal plane 11. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is ____. The range on upward inclined plane for same velocity and angle of projection

a. less than b. equal to

c. more than

12. Which of the following statement is wrong? a. the matter contained in a body is called is mass b. the force with which a body is attracted towards the centre of the earth is called weight c. the total motion possessed by moving body is called impulsive force d. none of the above 13. The potential energy of a mass (m) kg raised through a height(h) metres is a. m.h newtons b. g.h newtons c. m.g.h. newtons d. none of these 14. Modulus of elasticity is the ratio o a. stress to strain b. stress to original length c. deformation to original d. all of these 15. Thermal stress is caused, when the temperature of a body a. is increased b. is decreased c. remains constant d. either a or b 16. The total strain energy stored in a body is known as a. impact energy b. resilience c. proof resilience d. modulus of resilience 17. The point of contra flexure is a point where a. shear force changes sign b. bending moment changes sign c. shear forces maximum d. bending moment is maximum 18. An inverted T-section is subjected to a shear force F. The maximum shear stress will occur at a. top of the section b. neutral axis of the section c. junction of web and flange 19. Two imply supported beams of the same span carry the same load. If the first beam carries the total load as a point at its centre and the other uniformly distributed over the whole span, then ratio of maximum slopes of first beam to the second will be a. 1:1 b. 1:1.5 c. 1.5:1 d. 2:1 20. The maximum slope of a cantilever carrying a point load at its free end is at the a. fixed end b. center of the span c. free end d. none of these 21. A shaft revolving at (N) r.p.m. transmits torque(T) in kg-m. The power developed is a. 2 NTkW b. 2 NT / 30 kW c. 2 NT / 60 kW d. 2 NT / 120 kW 22. When one plate overlaps the other end and both the plates are riveted with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as a. single riveted lap joint b. double riveted lap joint c. double riveted single cover butt joint d. double riveted double cover butt joint 23. The design of a thin cylindrical shell is based on a. internal pressure b. diameter of shell c. longitudinal stress d. all of these 24. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are _____ ( 2j-3), where j is the number of joints. a. less than b. equal to c. greater than d. either a or c 25. If in a vector diagram, any two points coincides, then the force in the member represented by two letters is zero a. true b. false II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks 1. State triangle of force? 2. What is Rouths rule for finding out the moment of Inertia of an area? 3. Distinguish between Mass & Weight. 4. Define strain energy. 5. What do you understand by the term riveted joint? III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10= 60 Marks

1. What is meant by moment of a force? How will you explain it mathematically? 2. What are the different methods of studying the equilibrium of coplanar forces? Describe any one of them. 3. A 4m long ladder has to support a load of 500N applied at its mid-point. The ladder is to rest against a rough vertical wall and rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the ladder and wall is 0.2 and that between ladder and floor is 0.3. Determine the least possible inclination of the ladder with the horizontal. 4. What is a pulley? State the working of first system, second system and third system of pulleys. Derive relations for their respective velocity ratios. 5. Derive an expression for the tension in the cable supporting a lift when (i) it is going up (ii) it is coming down 6. Describe the procedure for finding out the stresses in a composite bat. 7. Explain briefly the relationship between shear force and bending moment at a section? 8. Describe the procedure for drawing the shear stress distribution diagram for composite sections. 9. With the help of moment area method, derive an expression for the slope of a cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its span. 10. Derive a relation for the changes of diameter and length of a thin cylindrical shell, when subjected to an internal pressure.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1711
Time: 3 Hrs ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: Max. Marks: 100 (25 Marks)

1. The specific heat at constant pressure is ______ that of specific heat at constant volume. a. equal to b. less than c. more than 2. An adiabatic process is one in which a. no heat enters or leaves the gas b. the temperature of the gas changes b. the change in internal energy is equal to the work done d. all of the above 3. The change of entropy when heat is absorbed by the gas is a. positive b. negative c. positive or negative 4. A cycle consisting of two constant volume and two isothermal processes is known as a. Carnot cycle b. Joule cycle c. Diesel cycle d. Stirling cycle 5. The throttling process, on the h-s diagram, will be a a. horizontal line b. vertical line c. inclined line d. curve 6. The Rankine cycle, as compared to Carnot cycle, has _____ work ratio. a. high b. low 7. The fuel mostly used in boilers is a. brown coal b. peat c. caking bituminous coal d. non-caking bituminous coal 8. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam? a. Locomotive boiler b. Lancashire boiler c. Cornish boiler d. Babcock and Wilcox boiler 9. In a boiler, various heat losses takes place. the biggest loss is due to a. moisture in fuel b. dry flue gases c. steam formation d. unburnt carbon 10. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called a. indicated power b. brake power c. frictional power 11. The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called a. condenser efficiency b. vaccum efficiency c. boiler efficiency d. nozzle efficiency 12. In a nozzle, the effect of super saturation is to a. decrease the dryness fraction of steam b. decrease the specific volume of steam c. increase the entropy d. increase the enthalpy drop 13. In an impulse turbine a. the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop b. the steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously c. the steam is expanded in moving blades only d. the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant 14. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to a. reduce the effective heat drop b. reheat the steam and improve its quality c. completely balance against end thrust d. maintain the speed of the turbine 15. The thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is ____ a four stroke cycle engine a. equal to b. less than c. greater than 16. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is called

a. mechanical efficiency b. overall efficiency c. volumetric efficiency d. relative efficiency 17. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance volume the work done is minimum during a. isothermal compression b. isentropic compression c. polytrophic compression d. none of these 18. The rotary compressors are used for delivering a. small quantities of air at high pressures b. large quantities of air at high pressures c. small quantities of air at low pressures d. large quantities of air at low pressures 19. Reheating in a gas turbine a. increases the thermal efficiency b. increases the compressor work c. increases the turbine work d. decreases the thermal efficiency 20. High air-fuel ratio is gas turbines a. increases power output b. improves thermal efficiency c. reduces exhaust temperature d. do not damage turbine blades 21. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in problems of a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. conduction and convection e. conduction and radiation 22. In air-conditioning of aero planes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is a. reversed Carnot cycle b. reversed Joule cycle c. reversed Baryton cycle d. reversed Otto cycle 23. During sensible cooling of air, the dry bulb temperature a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant 24. For winter air conditioning, the relative humidity should not be more than a. 40% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90% 25. The value of specific heat at constant pressure ( cp) ____ with increase in temperature a. increases b. decreases c. remains constant II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks 1. What is absolute temperature? 2. What are the characteristics of adiabatic Expansion? 3. State the advantages of compounding a steam Engine? 4. Define Volumetric efficiency for an I.C. Engine? 5. What is a gas turbine? III. ESSAY TYPE QUESTION. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Explain the adiabatic process. Derive an expression for the work done during the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas. 2. Derive an expression for the average kinetic energy possessed by a gas molecule. 3. Show the following processes on T-s diagram: a. Heating of water from 0 C to boiling temperature b. Evaporation of water and c. Superheating of steam 4. What are the conditions of reversibility? Prove that all reversible engines are equally efficient between the same temperature limits. 5. List the methods of improving the efficiency and specific output of a simple gas turbine. 6. Describe briefly and with appropriate sketches, the actual sequence of events in the cylinder of a petrol engine working on the four stroke cycle. 7. Define volumetric efficiency for an I.C. engine What is the effect of volumetric efficiency on (i) engine power and (ii) specific fuel consumption 8. Sketch and explain the use of Orsat apparatus used in determining the percentage of flue or exhaust gases. Does this help in controlling combustion? 9. Describe thermodynamic cycle for a rotary air compressor? 10. Describe unitary and central air conditioning systems?

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1712
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (20 Marks) 1. The service facility that moves likely performs warranty workers a. a new-car dealer b. an independent garage c. a service station d. a department store 2. Long loose sleeves around moving machinery could a. protect your arms b. protect the machinery c. get caught in the machinery and injure you d. keep you clean 3. When working in the automotive shop, your attention should be directed to a. the clock b. the weather outside c. any new car that has been bought into the shop d. the job you are doing 4. The reinstall means to a. repair a disassembled part b. put back a component or part you have removed c. reassemble a component d. remove and replace a part 5. Connecting-rod-bearing clearance for an imported car is given as 0.051 mm. What is this in the USC system? a. 0.0002 inch b. 0.002 inch c. 0.020 inch d. 0.200 inch 6. The purpose of the cotter pin is to a. prevent the nut from loosening b. fasten the cotter securely c. prevent the cotter from dropping off d. keep the splines from loosening 7. To make a gasket on a valve corner, you should use a. RTV silicone rubber b. anaerobic sealant c. antiseize compound d. none of the above 8. To remove a bolt that has broken off flush with the cylinder block, use a. a file and wrench b. a drill and stud exactor c. a hacksaw and screwdriver d. any of the above 9. The three types of power tools are a. pneumatic, air and electric b. pnewmatic, hydraulic and electric c. hydraulic, brake and electric d. electric, mechanical and hydraulic 10. The portable crane is used to a. life (Lift?)the engine out of the car b. life the car to change oil c. suspend parts so they can be worked on d. apply force to straighten parts 11. Fettling of castings is done to a. smoothen surface b. fill the void by welding c. remove the extra material from castings d. to remove internal stresses from castings. 12. The thickness of clearance can be checked by a. shape gauge b. Ring gauge c. Go and not go gauge d. Feeler gauge e. Any of the above 13. Drop-forging hammer is a. Board drop hammer b. Friction drive hammer c. Kinematic & power forging hammer d both a and b d. None of the above

14. The purpose of an automatic process control system generally is

a. to automatically produce goods b. to automatically detect inferior quality goods c. to automatically process the raw materials d. to direct the forces that give stable plant and process operation by maintaining desired values of process variable or conditions. 15. Jigs and fixture are used a. to increase the production b. Saving labour c. Reduced quality control expense d. None of the above e. All the above 16. During oxyacetylene flame cutting, the metal is cut due to a. molecular transfer b. evaporation of metal c. burning of metal d. intensive oxidation e. reduction process 17. In a gas welding, the maximum flame temperature occurs at a. the tip of the flame b. the inner cone c. the outer cone d. next of the inner cone e. inside of the inner cone 18. Which of the following material cannot be forged? a. carbon chrome steel b. dead mild steel c. low carbon steel d. Eutecroid steel e. cast iron 19. If a drill has different lengths of cutting edges a. the drilled hole will not be circular b. cutting edges will become blunt rapidly c. cutting edge will be oversized d. the drilled hole will be rough e. the drilled hole will be smooth 20. Coolant used while turning cast iron is a. Lard oil b. soluble oil c. Kerosene d. soda water e. none of the above II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION: 1. What is outside Micrometer? 2. State the types of Power tools used in Automotive shop? 3. Define and Moulding? (doubt?) 4. What is gauge? 5. Define Tolerance. 2 x 5 = 10 Marks

III. ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTIONS(ESSAY TYPE QUESTON) 5 x 14= 70 Marks 1. Describe shop hazards due to various causes such as faulty working habits. working conditions, equipment defects and incorrect use of tools? 2. List the cutting tools used in the automotive shop and describe the use of various cutting tools. 3. With the help of suitable sketch, explain the working of Steam drop hammer and Board drop hammer? 4. Describe with sketch the operation of cylinder boring machine. 5. What are the main difference between a Jig and a fixture What is the six point location principle? Explain it with the aid of suitable sketches. 6. Describe the safety precautions for gas and arc welding ? 7. What are the jobs can be done on a lathe machine? What is meant by speed, cutting speed and feed.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1713
Time: 3 Hrs ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) 1. During combustion of gasoline in the engine a. some of the gasoline does not burn b. some gasoline only partly burns, producing CO c. polluting gases exit from the tail pipe d. all of the above 2. Atmospheric pressure is produced by a. vacuum b. gravity c. temperature d. barometer 3. The two basic types of piston engines are the a. rotary and reciprocating b. pushrod and reciprocating c. spark-ignition and compression-ignition d. gasoline and gasohol 4. The engine flywheel a. smooth out the flow of power b. serves as part of the clutch on cars with manual transmissions c. has teeth that mesh with the starting motor drive pinion d. all of the above 5. The power from a small engine can be increased without increasing engine weight by a. making cylinder larger b. turbo charging c. increasing piston stroke d. adding more cylinders 6. The pushrod engine a. uses pushrods b. has an overhead camshaft c. has an L-type valve arrangement d. uses bucket tappets 7. The two basic types of cylinder heads for spark-ignition engines are for the a. valve-in-head and overhead-valve engines b. camshaft-in-block and camshaft-in-head engines c. crankshaft-in-block and crankshaft-in-head engine d. in-line and V-type engines 8. The purpose of the expander spring in the multiple piece oil-control ring is to a. force the two rails upward and downward b. force the two rails outward c. improve oil control d. all of the above 9.The camshaft turns at a. half the speed of the crankshaft b. the same speed as the crankshaft c. twice the speed of the crankshaft d. none of the above 10. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms of it a. diameter and bore b. displacement and efficiency c. bore and stroke d. bore and length 11. The ease with which gasoline vaporizes is called it a. oxidation b. octane number c. volatility d. cetane number 12. When the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at the spark plug, the condition is called a. detonation b. ignition c. preignition d. rumble 13. The two types of fuel gauges are a. thermostatic and magnetic b. electric and mechanical c. pressure and vacuum d. none of the above Max. Marks: 100

14. A major difference between superchargers and turbochargers is that the a. supercharger is driven by a belt from the engine crankshaft b. turbocharger is driven by the force of the exhaust gas c. both a and b d. neither a nor b 15. The portion of the carburetor air horn that reduces pressure to cause fuel to flow is called the a. throttle body b. Air bleed c. venture d. fuel nozzle 16. Mechanic A says the automatic choke is opened by manifold vacuum. Mechanic B says the automatic choke is closed by spring force. Who is right? a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B 17. If the engine cranks normally but does not start, the trouble could be a. an ignition problem b. over choking c. lack of fuel d. all of the above 18. A vehicle with poor drive ability might have a. hard starting b. poor acceleration c. stalling d. all of the above 19. Gasoline fuel-injection systems can be classified in two ways, according to whether they are a. timed or pulsed b. continuous or controlled c. times or continuous d. none of the above 20. The gasoline fuel-injection system used by Cadillac from 1975 to 1980 has a. one injection valve for each cylinder b. one injection valve for each two cylinder c. one injection valve for each bank of cylinders d. one injection valve for the injury 21. In the diesel engine, the fuel is injected into the engine cylinders a. at the end of the power stroke b. at the beginning of the power stroke c. towards the end of the compression stroke d. at the end of exhaust stroke 22. In the cam-operator in-line plunger pump, the amount of fuel delivered depends on the a. effective length of the plunger strokes b. power demands on the engine c. operating conditions d. all of the above 23. The substance added to the oil which helps keep the engine clean is called a. detergent-dispersant b. soap c. grease d. thickening agent 24. The part of the cooling-system thermostat that opens and closes the valve is the a. seater b. wax pellet c. pressure valve d. vacuum valve 25. If the coolant boils, when the engine has been turned off after a long drive, the condition is know as a. overheating b. hardening c. clogged radiator d. after boil II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks 1. What is an Engine and what is compression Ratio? 2. What is the function of Piston ring? 3. How many types of cooling systems are used, why cooling system is essential? 4. What do you mean by hot and cold plugs? 5. How many types of injection pumps are used in diesel engines? III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTION. ESSAY TYPE QUESTION. 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Explain with a figure, the working of four stroke spark ignition engine? 2. State different types of gudgeon pins fitting in piston Or Explain with figure (i) Fix Pin (ii) Semi-floating pin (iii) Fully floating pin 3. State briefly: i. Valve guide ii. Valve seat inserts iii. Hydraulic valve lifter 4. How many types of cooling systems are used, why cooling system is essential? Describe in detail with figure the working of pump circulation system? 5. How many types of oil pumps are used in automobile engine?Explain their working. What free plays you will check up while overhauling a gear type oil pump?

6. Explain working of Maruti carburetor? 7. Explain the working of a distributor. What parts of this require more maintenance? 8. How many types of governors are used in injection system? Explain the working of mechanical and pneumatic governor? 9. How many types of air cleaners are used? Explain the working of these. 10. State the working of single open type turbine.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1714
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS 1. The friction disk is positioned between the flywheel and the a engine b. crankshaft c. pressure plate d. differential 2. Heat checks or cracks on the flywheel and pressure-plate faces will cause a. excessive clutch slippage b. rapid flywheel and pressure-plate wear c. rapid wear of friction-disk facings d. excessive pedal pulsation 3. The three-speed transmission has a. one shift fork b. two shift forks c. three shift forks d. four shift forks 4. Noise from the transmission when it is in neutral could be caused by a. failure of the clutch to engage b. worn or dry bearings c. main-shaft gears having chipped or broken teeth d. all of the above 5. Noise from the transmission is reverse could be caused by a. worn or damaged reverse idler gear b. defective synchronizer c. clutch not disengaging d. all the above 6. If the noise is a knock at low speed, the cause is probably a. worn drive-axle joints b. a worn side-gear-hub counter bore c. defective tires d. a and b 7. Gear clash when shifting could be caused by an incorrect linkage adjustment, internal transaxle problems, of a. a damaged drive axle b. internal differential problems c. the clutch not disengaging d. worn constant-mesh gears 8. If the shift lever is difficult to move, it could be caused by a. excessive lubricant in the case b. binding inside transfer case c. worn gears d. a defective synchronizer 9. The governor is driven by a. the stator clutch b. the transmission input shaft c. the engine crankshaft d. the transmission output shaft 10. Two controlling devices in the automatic transmission operated by hydraulic pressure are the bands and a. pistons b. clutches c. gears d. planetary gearsets 11. Severe service that requires periodic changing of the fluid and filter includes a. taxi service b. trailer pulling c. stop-and-go delivery service d. all of these 12. Bands are adjusted by a. tightening the adjusted screw a specified number of turns b. installing an oversize drum c. tightening and then loosening the adjusting screw a specified number of turns d. installing an oversize band 13. The typical front-engine, front-wheel-drive system has a. two universal joints b. three universal joints c. four universal joints d. five universal joints 14. The distance between adjacent meshing teeth of mating gears is called a. clearance b. pitch line c. backlash d. flank

15. Noise when going around a curve indicates the trouble is a. due to heavy contact on the heel ends of the bevel gears b. due to heavy contact on the toe heels of the bevel gears c. in the differential case d. due to slippage of the clutch surfaces 16. In the coil-spring rear-suspension system, the axle housing is kept in place by a. U bolts b. the stabilizer bar c. control arms d. none of the above 17. When the shock absorber is compressed or telescoped, fluid passes through the piston orifices and a. out of the reservoir b. into the upper part of the cylinder c. into the piston rod d. out of the piston rod 18. As viewed from the front of the car, the tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical is called a. camber b. caster c. toe-in d. toe-out 19. Positive caster tends to make front wheels a. toe in b. toe out c. have neutral camber d. none of the above 20. Load-carrying ball joints with load indicators a. should be unloaded for checking b. should be checked with ball joints loaded c. should be checked on a frame-contact hoist d. should be checked with a pry bar and ball-joint checking gauge 21. When comparing the front and rear wheel-cylinder pistons in the front wheel cylinders usually are a. larger in diameter b. smaller in diameter c. the same size d. none of the above 22. In the dual master cylinder, the primary piston is the piston that is a. directly actuated by the brake-pedal pushrod b. closed to the fire wall c. toward the rear of the car d. all of the above 23. The driver of a car with front-disk and rear-drum brakes complains that the brake pedal moves slowly to the floor while the pedal is depressed at a traffic light. This problem could be caused by a. a leaking cup in the master cylinder b. a leaking power-brake booster c. a leaking residual check valve in the master cylinder d. an internal leak in the combination valve 24. Two general types of tires are a. tube type and tubeless b. solid and tubeless c. air and pneumatic d. split-rim and drop-center 25. Bias-ply tires have a. all plies running parallel to one another b. belts of steel mesh in the tires c. one ply layer that runs diagonally one way and another layer runs diagonally the other way d. all of the above II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks 1. State the functions of Automobile transmission system? 2. What is the purpose of pressure plate in a clutch? 3. How many universal joints are used with a torque tube derive? How many on a Hotchkiss drive? Why? 4. Define camber, SAI and castor? 5. What is static unbalance? What is dynamic unbalance? III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS(ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Explain briefly the various types of chassis construction with the help of suitable diagrams. Make a list of various components mounted on the chassis.

2. Explain the working of a single plate clutch with the help of a simple diagram? 3. What is an overdrive? Explain its construction and discuss its working, explaining also the method of control? 4. Explain with the help of a neat sketch the construction of a propeller shaft? 5. What is an interconnected suspension system? Discuss the main constructional features of any such system and also its working? 6. Describe in detail the rack and pinion type manual steering gear by means of a simple sketch and discuss its advantages? 7. Discuss with the help of simple sketches, the construction of various types of disc wheels? 8. Describe any type of mechanical brake with the help of neat sketches? 9. How is the vacuum from the engine inlet manifold utilized to actuate the vehicle brakes? Explain fully with diagrams. 10. Which materials are commonly used for auto-body? Explain in detail.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1715
Time: 3 Hrs ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) 1.The pressure to make electrons move is called a. electricity b. voltage c. amperage d. magnetism 2. The device that acts as a one-way check valve for electric current is called a a. triode b. diode c. monode d. transistor 3. The battery is an electromechanical device. This means that the battery a. makes chemicals by mechanical means b. uses chemical action to provide electricity c. has curved instead of flat plates d. does not use an electrolyte 4. A loose-battery-cable clamp could cause a. battery overcharge b. high battery voltage c. overheating d. a run-down battery 5. The starting system includes the a. battery and ignition switch b. battery and starting motor c. starting motor and wiring d. all of the above 6. If the headlights go out when you try to start the cause is probably a. a defective light switch b. a disconnected battery c. a defective connection at the battery d. a defective starting motor 7. Jump starting a car with a dead battery should not be tried if the dead battery is a. frozen b. the maintenance-free type and indicator shows light yellow c. a different voltage than the booster battery d. all of the above 8. The purpose of the regulator is to a. prevent the alternator voltage from going too high b. all the alternator to produce a high current c. keep alternator speed from going too high d. keep the alternator voltage high enough to charge the battery 9. To make an output check of the General Motors alternator a. connect an ammeter into the circuit at the F terminal b. connect an ammeter into the circuit at the BAT terminal c. turn off all electrical devices except ignition d. operate the engine at about 500 rpm 10. An overcharged battery will a. have a relatively short life b. lose electrolyte c. result from high alternator voltage d. all of the above 11. The primary winding of the ignition coil is electrically connected to the battery through the a. spark-plug cables b. distributor cap and rotor c. distributor gearing d. distributor contact points 12. The contact-point distributor is two separate devices in one, a fast-acting switch, and a. condenser b. a high-voltage distribution system c. an electronic signaling system d. an oil-pump drive 13. The device on the distributor that shifts the position of the breaker plate to produce a change in the timing of the spark is operated by Max. Marks: 100

a. engine intake-manifold vacuum b. engine speed c. centrifugal advance d. throttle opening 14. To adjust the ignition timing, a. turn the cam on the camshaft b. turn the distributor in its mounting c. install different centrifugal-advance springs d. readjust the contact points 15. The secondary circuit of the electronic ignition system has been altered to a. handle the quicker response of the system b. handle higher voltages c. fit the overhead-cam engines d. work faster 16. The Hall-effect distributor has shutters that move between the a. contact points b. sensor coil c. two poles of the magnetic sensor d. terminals of the distributor cap 17. The electronic spark control used on some turbocharged engines a. retards the spark if detonation begins b. takes the palce of mechanical advance mechanism c. advances the spark to suit operating condition d. reduces spark voltage if detonation begins 18. Engine overheating can be due to a. low battery b. early ignition timing c late ignition timing d. high voltage setting 19. In a comparison of the oscilloscope patterns for contact-point and electronic ignition systems, the dwell a. is the same for both b. increases with speed in the electronic system c. decreases with speed in the electronic system d. none of the above 20. The magnetic probe is inserted into the receptacle to sense a. engine speed b. piston position c. engine rpm d. all of the above 21. The four sizes that headlamps are made in include a. three square and one round b. three round and one rectangular c. two round and two rectangular d. all rectangular 22. The purpose of the automatic level control is to a. increase the car height as it is loaded b. maintain the correct level of the rear as it is loaded or unloaded c. pump up the shock absorbers if a rough pavement is encountered d. instantly correct the car level as a load is applied 23. The air-conditioner system that turns the compressor on and off with signals from the passenger compartment is called a. a defective system b. a cycling-clutch system c. an evaporator control system d. a condenser control system 24. If there is very little or no difference in temperature between the low pressure and the high-pressure pipes the system is a. full b. operating normally c. empty or nearly d. none of the above 25. Oil should be added after you have discharged and evacuated the system and a. any time a system component is replaced b. every 4 months c. every time the engine oil is changed d. at no other time II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 1. What is the function of cut-out? 2. What are the main parts of a self starter? 3. How electricity produced in alternator? 4. Why magneto not used in cars? 5. What is wiring harmers? 3 x 5 = 15 Marks

III. ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS (ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. Describe how the ammeter works. Explain the purpose of Insulation and why it works? 2. Define and Explain briefly battery rating. 3. Explain with neat sketch the purpose, construction and operation of the starting system? 4. List out for troubles that might cause by the charging system and explain the possible cause of these troubles? 5. Explain with sketch the construction and operation of centrifugal and vacuum advance mechanism. 6. Describe the working of the following: a. Sensor coil b. Hall effect 7. Draw a simplified wiring circuit for the lighting system of car and discuss the same? 8. Using simple diagram discuss the construction and working of the following accessories in an Automobile i.Windscreen wiper ii. Loon iii. Speedometer 9. Explain the need for ventilating the passenger compartment and describe the operation of heater? 10. How will you disguise troubles in the heater or Air conditioner and write their possible causes?

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1716
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 15 x 1 = 15 Marks 1. In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on a. one side of the actual size b. one side of the nominal size c. both sides of the actual size d. both sides of the nominal size 2. According to Indian standards, total no. of tolerance grades are a. 8 b.12 c. 18 d. 20 3. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called a. castle nut b. jam nut c. ring nut d. screw nut 4. The length of cotter, in a sleeve and cotter joint, is taken as a. 1.5 d b. 2.5 d c. 3 d d. 4 d 5. The type of stresses developed in the key is/are a. shear stress alone b. bearing stress alone c. both shear and bearing stresses d. shearing, bearing and bending stresses 6. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a a. thin cylinder b. thick cylinder c. solid shaft d. hollow shaft 7. Two shafts will have equal strength, if a. diameter of both the shafts is same b. angle of twist of both shafts is same c. material of both the shafts is same d. twisting moment of both the shaft is same e. all of the above 8. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is a. rectangular b. elliptical c. I-section d. any of the above e. none of the above 9. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle with a. X-axis as neutral axis b. Y-axis as neutral axis c. X-axis or Y-axis as neutral axis d. Z-axis e. none of the above 10. When a belt to drive is transmitting maximum power, a. effective tension is equal to the centrifugal tension b. effective tension is half of the centrifugal tension c. driving tension in slack side is equal to the centrifugal tension d. driving tension in tight side is twice the centrifugal tension 11. The included angle for the V-belt is usually a. 20 to 30 b. 30 to 40 c. 40 to 60 d. 60 to 80 12. A leaf spring in automobiles is used a. to apply forces b. to measure forces c. to absorb shocks d. to store strain energy 13. Due to the centrifugal force acting on the rim, the fly wheel arms will be subjected to a. tensile stress b. compressive stress c. shear stress d. none of these 14. The black lash for spur gears depends upon a. module b. pitch line velocity c. tooth profile d. both a and b c. both b and c f. none of these 15. In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the thread helix on the pitch cylinder and the plane normal to the axis of worm is called a. pressure angle b. lead angle c. helix angle

II. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS. 1. Discuss in brief about the standardization in design? 2. Find the size of bolts required for the leak proof joints of cylinder head of steam engine whose effective diameter is 350mm. No. of bolts required for the joint is 12. A soft copper gasket is employed to make the joint leak proof. Assume the design stress for the bolt material is limited to 100/mm2. 3. A 10KW power is transmitted at 800 rpm from a motor shaft, through a key, to a machine shaft by means of a pulley and belt. Design the key so that its allowable shear stress is 45 MPa and crushing stress is 100 Mpa. 4. Find the diameter of a piston rod for a engine of 250mm diameter. The length of the piston rod is 800mm and the stroke is 500mm. The pressure of the steam is 1.5Mpa. Assume factor of safety as 5. 5. Design a cast iron fly wheel to store 7 kN.m of energy and to keep the speed 306 and 294rpm. Outside diameter of flywheel is not be more than 1.5m. Design the rim and arms of the flywheel. Power developed by the machine is 20 kW. Maximum torque = 1.5 times the mean torque.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1717
Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (20 Marks) 1. In time and motion studied, the symbol X represents a. crossing b. opposite directional moments c. rejections d. completion of operation e. none of the above 2. Which one of the following factors does not provide funds for the mortgage market? a. mutual funds b. mutual savings banks c. pension funds d. commercial banks 3. Which one of the following is not an incentive plane? a. Straight piece work b. straight piece work with guaranteed base c. Halsey 50-50 plan d. 100% bonus plan e. straight salary 4. Jobs going behind the schedule are conveniently shown in a. mile stone chart b. Pi chart c. Bar chart d. Gantt chart 5. In X and R harts, X represents a. random numbers b. lot size c. average of the measured quality characteristics d. least of the measured quality characteristics 6. Which of the following is a resource? a. time b. men c. money d. all of the above 7. Which of the following does not constitute the direct cast of a project? a. cost of materials b. wages of labour c. penalty imposed by government d. all of the above 8. Under the Apprenticeship Act a. all industries have to necessarily train the apprentice b. Industries have to train apprentice according to their requirement c. only industries owned by government have to recruit apprentice d. only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentice e. none of the above 9. A process layout is generally suggested for a. jobbing work b. Batch product c. continuous type of production d. efficient machine utilization ratio e. none of the above 10. An organization having annual material consumption of Rs. 24 lakhs has an average inventory of 3 months. The value of inventory would be a. Rs. 72 lakhs b. Rs. 4 lakhs c. Rs. 6 lakhs d. Rs. 4 lakhs e. Rs. 2 lakhs (doubt?) 11. The salient feature of functioning organization is a. work is properly planned and distributed b. strict adherence to specifications c. each individual maintains functional efficiency d. separation of planning and designing e. all of the above 12. Public goods are different from private goods because a. the government produces public goods while private goods are produced by private persons b. public goods are preferred to private goods c. the amount consumed by one does not affect the amount available for others d. private goods can be consumed only by private individuals while public goods can be consumed government and private citizens e. all of the above 13. A decrease in the quantity supplied to the market at given prices leads to

a. Higher price and a contraction of demand b. a lower price and an expansion of demand c. a higher price and an expansion of demand d. a lower price and a contraction of demand e. none of the above 14. Sellers reserve price means a. the seller refuses to sell the product till the minimum price (covering the cost of production) is offered b. Seller refuses to sell the product at any price c. seller demands the price for whole of his product d. a price which includes economic profits e. a price determined for a batch of production 15. The performance of a company can be judged by its a. share capital b. total production c. no. of employees d. profit 16. The share holders have limited liability in case of a a. cooperative b. partnership firm c. public limited company d.all of the above 17. Finance for small scale industries is not provided by a. state financial corporations b. State Bank of India c. Travellers cheque d. Punjab National Bank 18. Which of the following item is not produced under mass production? a. Ball bearings b. automobile tyres c. air crafts d. passenger cast 19. A joint sector undertaking a. jointly managed by several share holders b. jointly owned by only two directors c. jointly owned by state and central governments d. is jointly owned by private parties and government e. none of the above 20. The main disadvantage of line organization is a. communication delay b. rigid structure c. top level executions overwork d. all of the above e. none of the above II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS. 1. What do understand by Plan Design? 2. What is linear programming? 3. What do you understand by Productivity? 4. Why inspection is important in Industry? 5. Explain the Term Inventory? 5 x 4 = 20 Marks

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS. (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks 1. a. What factors are considered while designing a factory building? Will you prefer an L shape building or a rectangular building for a new plant? Why? b. Give the advantages of a multistory building over a single storey building for a factory? 2. a. What do you understand by Centralised Production Planning and Control? Give its advantages. b. What is the position of P.P.C. in a works organization? Show it with the help of a chart? 3. a. What do you understand by the Follow up function of production planning and control? Explain. b. Give a specimen of Gantt Chart which is normally used in the production planning and control department and describe briefly how it could be used for checking the actual progress of a job against the schedule. 4. a. What do you understand by acceptance sampling? When is it used? Give is advantages and disadvantages? b. Describe briefly the double acceptance sampling plan. 5.a. What are the objectives of Method Study? b. Which are the recording techniques used in the Method Improvement?

6. a. What is the purpose of Work Measurement? Enumerate its uses. b. What are the various allowances considered in Time Study? 7. a. Describe clearly the function of routing, scheduling and dispatching? b. Show how the Gantt chart is used for planning a project? 8. a. Discuss the fundamental requirements of a good financial incentive system. b. What is meant by non-financial incentive? Name few non-financial incentive schemes. 9. Write short notes on: a. SIMO charts b. Evaulating Performance Rating of an operator c. Time span for measuring responsibility 10. State the sources of Pollution. Name the types of Pollution and explain.

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1718
Time: 3 Hrs I. ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: 1. What is the functioning of Insurance Accident Asessor? 2. Define Passenger Vehicle. 3. What is sale depreciation? 4. Define Traffic Engineering. 5. What is the need for Traffic forecasting? 6. State some parking regulation? 7. What is called one-way streets? 8. What are the types of road marking? 9. What is vehicle skidding? 10. Define fuel consumption. 11. Define congestion. 12. Define Pedestrianisation. 13. What is called Noise Pollution? 14. What is entry charges? 15. What is Direction signs? II. ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTION: 14 x 5 = 70 Marks Max. Marks: 100 2 x 15 = 30 Marks

1. What is the object of the Permit systems? 2. Is carriage of goods by road more advantageous If so why? What are the drawbacks of other forms of transport? 3. Explain in brief scientific management in Profession? 4. Write an essay about centralization and delegation in Transport organization? 5. Define a committee. What are its advantages and disadvantages. Name various type of committee? 6. Write about the maintenance and duty schedule of a Transport organization? 7. Describe the importance of selection and placement of workers. Enumerate and explain the advantages of training employable?

AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATION THE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY CHENNAI-10

Code No- 1718A
Time: 3 Hrs ANSWER ANY SEVEN QUESTIONS: 1. Define particulate emission. Write the effects of pollution on environment? 2. Describe the method of measuring Noise pollution level. Suggest the measure to control it. 3. Describe the effect of Pollution on environment? How the carbon monoxide form in the smoke of Automobile? 4. What is Gas chromatography? How will you do smoke measurement? Explain briefly. 5. Explain the purpose and operation of the EGR system? 6. Describe the effects of short term toxity illustrated by the case of CO, Ozone and oxidants. 7. Describe why the emission control is required in the present condition. 8. Describe the methods of cleaning the exhaust gas. 9. Explain the operation of electronic engine control system that include an oxygen sensor and feed back system. 10. What is heated Air system? Describe briefly. Max. Marks: 100