CCNA3 FE Notes

Cisco CCNA/CCENT Exam-Pack 640-822
Posted on 12/15/2008 at 1:52 AM - 0 Comments - Post Comment - Link
Successful networking careers begin with Cisco CCENT certification and the fundamental
knowledge it represents. Trainer Jeremy Cioara carefully explains the certification process by
walking you through CCENT networking basics and mapping those basics directly to the exam.
His organized and captivating presentation prepares new users for junior administrator
positions and provides managers of any description with a sound understanding of what their
technicians are talking about.
You proceed at your own pace, watching videos that break down the CCENT certification
process and basic Cisco networking into bite-sized nuggets. Video by video you learn how to
install, operate and troubleshoot a small enterprise branch network -- including basic network
security.
Cisco CCNA/CCENT - Exam-Pack 640-822: ICND1 shows you how to be a subnetting master,
teaches you about switches and routers, helps you understand essential protocols like TCP and
UDP, explains cabling and networking, and covers exciting topics like wireless networking and
Cisco's SDM graphic interface.
These videos go beyond simply prepping you for the CCENT test (although they're great test
prep!). They also teach you skills you'll need day-in and day-out as a networking technician
professional. Over and over again you'll draw on these videos as an indispensable reference
tool. They also lay a terrific foundation for the follow-up CCNA exam and certification.
More information:MB7-514 642-533 70-643 642-611 642-415 156-315.1 pk0-002 70-646 642-503
10 Q&As Of CCNA Certification Exam

The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and
consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let¡¯s look
at the following study-guides offered by certay.
1. What are two reasons that a network administrator would use access lists? (Choose two.)
A: to control vty access into a router
B: to control broadcast traffic through a router
C: to filter traffic as it passes through a router
D: to filter traffic that originates from the router mb2-631
E: to replace passwords as a line of defense against security incursions
Correct Answers: A, C
2. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?
A: point-to-point
B: broadcast multi-access
C: nonbroadcast multi-access
D: nonbroadcast multipoint
E: broadcast point-to-multipoint
Correct Answers: C
3. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square
office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are
operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.) 70-
272
A: mismatched TKIP encryption
B: null SSID
C: cordless phones
D: mismatched SSID
E: metal file cabinets
F: antenna type or direction
Correct Answers: C, E, F
4. The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router.
Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A: This command should be executed from the global configuration mode. 9L0-402
B: The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C: 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D: This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations. 642-873
E: The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answers: E
5. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP
connection to a server?
A: denial of service
B: brute force
C: reconnaissance
D: Trojan horse
Correct Answers: A
6. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose
two.)
A: ping
B: Telnet 642-533
C: FTP
D: TCP
E: IP
Correct Answers: B, C
7. For security reasons, the network administrator needs to prevent pings into the corporate
networks from hosts outside the internetwork. Which protocol should be blocked with access
control lists?
A: IP
B: ICMP
C: TCP
D: UDP 70-630
Correct Answers: B
8. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from
outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A: Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B: Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C: Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically
encrypted.
D: Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E: Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption. 70-297
Correct Answers: B, D
9. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?
A: IR
B: DSSS
C: FHSS
D: DSSS and FHSS
E: IR, FHSS, and DSSS
Correct Answers: B
14. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A: ATM
B: IDS
C: IOS
D: IOX
E: IPS
F: SDM
Correct Answers: B, E
More information:650-621 1z0-042 642-503 70-640 640-802 642-901 1Y0-731 MB2-633 920-221
How To Clear CCNA Certification In First Attemp

#01 Tarun Vyas

Now CCNA has incresed certification amount so I can not afford second attemp.
I have made compleate prepration for ccna exam and study all but still unable to solve the
question.
Please any one can help me how can I clear the CCNA certification in first attemp.70-624
#02 Travis Newshott
Study hard, lab it out, learn the technologies, understand the concepts. Once you are
confident in your comprehension, relax and go knock it out. Don¡¯t worry about failing, failure
should be the last thing to cross your mind. Remember, you¡¯re just answering some questions
on stuff you should know. If you¡¯ve studied hard, you¡¯re just a few dozen mouseclicks away
from certification.
I know this sounds generic and vague, but in my opinion, that is how it should be. You¡¯re
getting tested from the same pool of questions everyone else is, and the onus is on you to show
up and pass. There is no guarantee for anyone¡ ..156-215.1
#03 bytesnagger@CLN
Excellent response. Here¡¯s some more information from the website. Note the date
restrictions.
Here¡¯s how to redeem your Cisco ¡°Second Chance¡± Exam:
Register for an exam at full price. If you fail the exam, you may schedule a free retake of the
same exam by entering the promotion code: SECONDCHANCE at the time of registration.650-
251
IMPORTANT NOTE:
Both the full-price exam and free Second Chance retake must be scheduled and taken between
April 15, 2008 and October 15, 2008, to qualify for this special promotion. Free exams may only
be scheduled via the web.
More information:000-331 642-811 642-445 9L0-509 642-061 642-105 642-444 70-631 MB7-515
Study Material for CCNA Security

Anweesy3¡¯s Question:
I am a current CCNA pursuing the CCNP. I have the ONT and ISCW left to take. This new CCNA
Security cert seems very valuable since I want to pursue security. I was wondering since the
CCNA Security and ISCW have very similar topics, can I bypass purchasing the exam guide for
the IINS 640-553 and use my study materials for the ISCW instead? What are your opinions?
List of helpful answers:
It is better to continue with the CCNP track, as you said ONT and ISCW left to take. You can go
through the syllabus which is given in this site itself and compare with the ISCW. It is better to
wait for CCNA security as it is a fresh paper recently released. Even i am preparing, but
planning to take this exam after one month. We can get more views, and details about the
paper.
I am using SND and SNRS for my prepartion. Just go for the link and I hope this will clear it..
http://www.cbtnuggets.com/webapp/product?id=445
My advice is to take for CCNP and meanwhile material will be available.. and then go for the
security.
¡ª¡ª Naresh
Just so you are aware, Cisco Press has two product out for the CCNA Security Exam. They are:
CCNA Security Official Exam Certification Guide (print book with CD test engine)
CCNA Security Quick Reference (digital review product)
More information:642-552 220-601 646-363 70-646 642-453 70-236 642-415 70-624 156-
215.1 650-251 642-444 70-631
Chris Corino¡¯s 3 Questions About CCNA

I figured this was going to be a short post, but the more I think about it, the longer it gets,
LOL. So I am just going to throw out a couple questions I am confused about, and if you can
answer ANY of them, it would be greatly appreciated! Thanks in advance! Hope everyone¡¯s
work-week is going well!
I am planning for my CCVP due to work requirements. I¡¯m extremely excited. However, I have
to get my CCNA or CCNA Voice cert. first. Which do you recommend? Pro/cons? 70-445
If I go for the CCNA, I either take the CCNA exam or take the ICND1 and ICND2, correct?
Recommendations?
When I look up the CCVP, it says the prerequisites are ¡°CCNA (until June 24, 2009)¡±. Why is
there a deadline? Is the exam being retired or changed?
More of a story, not really a question: Not even knowing there was a ¡°CCNA Voice¡±
certification, I bought a book yesterday from Barnes and Noble. I couldn¡¯t understand how it
was possible, but listen to this: I can either buy the CCNA Cert. Library for $95 that trains you
on JUST the CCNA. OR I could buy a CCNA cert. Library for $60 that trains you on the CCNA,
ICND1, and ICND2, along with a 1-hour training DVD, and 2 CD¡¯s with the books on PDF, and
400 practice questions. Anyone see anything wrong with that picture?!? They were both made
by Cisco, but the $60 one was a ¡°Barnes and Noble Exclusive Edition¡±. Needless to say, I got
the $60 one.70-271
Helpful answer form Timothy Walsh:
You¡¯ll need to do it in the following order:
CCNA (Note that you can break this into two tests, ICND1 which gets you the CCENT
certification followed by the ICND2 which then makes you a CCNA)
CCNA-Voice (This certification requires you to first be a CCNA, hence step 1. This is a new cert
which is why the CCVP has the deadline you spoke of, basically Cisco is allowing those of us
already working on the CCVP to finish it before requiring the CCNA-Voice cert.) 70-642
CCVP (Currently only requires the CCNA, but after 6/24/09 will require the CCNA-Voice cert)
More information: 650-251 642-444 70-631 MB7-515 350-029 000-331 642-811 642-445 9L0-
509 642-061 642-105 70-526 EX0-100 MB7-517 642-586
CCNA Exam 640-802, 3rd Edition

CCNA Official Exam Certification Library, Third Edition, is the newest edition of the all-time
best-selling CCNA self-study preparation package. This comprehensive review and practice
package is designed for the latest CCNA® 640-802 exams. The two books contained in this
package, CCENT/CCNA ICND1 Official Exam Certification Guide, Second Edition, and CCNA
ICND2 Official Exam Certification Guide, Second Edition, present complete reviews and a more
challenging and realistic preparation experience. The books are updated to cover all the new
640-802 exam objectives, such as security, wireless, IPv6, and troubleshooting.
What can you do with the CCNA Official Exam Certification Library?
Assess your knowledge with chapter-opening quizzes
Review key concepts with Exam Preparation Tasks
Practice with hundreds of exam questions on the CD-ROM
Learn about more complex topics with over one hour of video training
CCNA Official Exam Certification Library, Third Edition, presents you with an organized test
preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques. “Do I Know This
Already” quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend
on each section. Chapter ending Exam Preparation Tasks sections help drill you on key concepts
you must know thoroughly and help increase your speed in answering questions, a difficult
hurdle many candidates face on the new exams. Final Preparation chapters guide you through
tools and resources to help you craft your final study plan. Special troubleshooting sections
help you master the complex scenarios you will face on the exam.
You can read more infomation from:
CCNA Official Exam Certification Library (CCNA Exam 640-802), 3rd Edition
Robin Lee :: Jun.30.2008 :: Preparation Of CCNA :: No Comments »
Cisco Newbie: Start On The CCNA
Want to start getting into routers etc so looking at doing some cisco stuff?
Think you need to start on the CCNA? but dont really know where or know of any real books
that can teach you this from scratch? Here is a guideline for the Cisco newbies to start on the
CCNA.
Q: Looking at doing some cisco stuff?
A: Cisco’s Career Certifications & Paths information can be found here.
Cisco also has a CCNA Prep Center — it might impress you, or it might scare you away — but
worth a look to get an idea of what Cisco makes available.
http://www.cisco.com/go/prepcenter Only one comment on the prepCenter.
When watching the flash, dont take their word when they say that linux is an operating system.
One who says that linux is an OS, states that his knowledge of operating systems converging to
zero (especially linux based).
Q: Don’t really know where or know of any real books that can teach you this from scratch.
A: The books you’ll hear the most about around here are:
Sybex - Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide — by Todd Lammle. Should be on the 5th
edition. Great for learning subnetting. Missing some info, but there are one or two new update
chapters available for download.
Cisco Press - The CCNA 640-802 books by Wendell Odom. Probably the CCNA Official Exam
Certification Library.
You can check out all the Cisco Press Books (and the link to the simulator) at the Cisco Press
Web site.
Hands-on practice is important…. but you can get by with the simulator for the CCNA.
Q: Are the exams expensive?
A: The CCNA 640-802 exam is $125.
There is also the 2 exam option (INTRO and ICND). There should be link at the CCNP Prep
Center that explains it. I think those are $100 each.
That should be enough links to keep you busy for the rest of the night.
Robin Lee :: Jun.30.2008 :: Articles And Tutorials :: No Comments »
10 Q&As Of CCNA Certification Exam
The following are part of CCNA exam Q&A from www.certay.com. You can go to certay and
consult live-support for more information if you are interested in its products. Now let’s look at
the following study-guides offered by certay.
1. What are two reasons that a network administrator would use access lists? (Choose two.)
A: to control vty access into a router
B: to control broadcast traffic through a router
C: to filter traffic as it passes through a router
D: to filter traffic that originates from the router
E: to replace passwords as a line of defense against security incursions
Correct Answers: A, C
2. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?
A: point-to-point
B: broadcast multi-access
C: nonbroadcast multi-access
D: nonbroadcast multipoint
E: broadcast point-to-multipoint
Correct Answers: C
3. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square
office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are
operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A: mismatched TKIP encryption
B: null SSID
C: cordless phones
D: mismatched SSID
E: metal file cabinets
F: antenna type or direction
Correct Answers: C, E, F
4. The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router.
Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A: This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B: The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C: 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D: This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E: The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answers: E
5. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP
connection to a server?
A: denial of service
B: brute force
C: reconnaissance
D: Trojan horse
Correct Answers: A
6. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose
two.)
A: ping
B: Telnet
C: FTP
D: TCP
E: IP
Correct Answers: B, C
7. For security reasons, the network administrator needs to prevent pings into the corporate
networks from hosts outside the internetwork. Which protocol should be blocked with access
control lists?
A: IP
B: ICMP
C: TCP
D: UDP
Correct Answers: B
8. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from
outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A: Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B: Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C: Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically
encrypted.
D: Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E: Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answers: B, D
9. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?
A: IR
B: DSSS
C: FHSS
D: DSSS and FHSS
E: IR, FHSS, and DSSS
Correct Answers: B
14. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)
A: ATM
B: IDS
C: IOS
D: IOX
E: IPS
F: SDM
Correct Answers: B, E
Robin Lee :: Jun.30.2008 :: CCNA Exam Braindumps :: No Comments »
Take Assessment - Final Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing (Version 3.1)
1
Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router RT-5?
• 192.168.0.0/16
• 192.168.52.0/24
• 192.168.48.0/22
• 192.168.52.0/22
• 192.168.51.0/23
• 192.168.48.0/21
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for host A?
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access
SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
3 Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
• access
• backbone
• distribution
• core
4 A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no
vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
• The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?
• ABC(config)# router ospf 99
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
6
Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for
VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another
across the different switches?
• trunking
• STP
• VTP
• routing
7 Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)
• its use of the hop count metric
• its use of broadcast updates
• its use of split horizon as a stability feature
• the authentication of updates
• its exclusively classful routing
• its hop count maximum of 15
8 Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The
Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-
layer design model do these switches operate?
• physical
• distribution
• data link
• access
• core
9 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added
network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the
newly activated interface.
• The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and
advertised.
• A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
• The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
• RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.
10 Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
11
Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the
following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the
switch?
• The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
• The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
• The router is not configured for trunking.
• The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
12 What is added to a bridge CAM table as a frame passes through a switch?
• source IP address
• destination IP address
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
13
Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.
14
Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates
about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can
ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other.
What is most likely the problem?
• A gateway of last resort is required.
• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
15
Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?

• It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.
• It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
• It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
• It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.
16
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
17 What are two advantages provided by OSPF authentication? (Choose two.)
• It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
• It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.
• It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
• It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
• It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.
18
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the
spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
19
Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers
attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed.
Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer
of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
• physical
• data link
• core
• access
• network
• distribution
20 A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the
network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
• add additional hubs
• replace hubs with switches
• replace hubs with access points
• add a router to every hub segment
21 Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
• requires a minimum of two wires
• reduces the number of collisions
• allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
• allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
• increases the number of broadcast domains
22 What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
• The switch has passed POST and is working properly
• The switch has failed POST.
• The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
• The switch is going through POST.
• The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.
23
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
24
Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1 is the
more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to be elected as DR?
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
• REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1
• REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255
25 What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
• elect a designated switch
• use a router to locate a default gateway
• elect a root bridge
• determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
26 Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that
incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
• Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
27
Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch A should be
the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. The switches are all
set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network administrator change the root
bridge to switch A?
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.
28 Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• They can support multiple routed protocols.
• They can support only link-state protocols.
• They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
• They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
• They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
• They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
29
Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of
the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default
gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use
to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
30
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the ISP and
inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?
• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
31
Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?
• Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
• VTP has been enabled for all ports.
• ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.
• Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to exchange
data between VLANs.
32
Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root
bridge in the spanning-tree process?
• highest Layer 2 address
• highest priority number
• highest path cost
• lowest Layer 2 address
• lowest priority number
• lowest path cost
33 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
• when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
• when a router has more than three active interfaces
• when a router has discontiguous networks attached
• when a router has less than five active interfaces
34
Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links
between RTR-2 and the two other routers?
• 198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30
• 198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30
• 198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30
• 198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30
• 198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30
35 Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward
36 What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
• Switches help eliminate collision domains.
• Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.
• Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.
• Switches decrease network throughput.
• Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.
37
Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the
Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office. Which command can
be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address
192.168.10.238/24?
• Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238
• Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Branch1(config-line)# telnet
• Branch1# telnet Central
• Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238
38
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast domains
are there?
• one
• two
• three
• four
• five
• six
39
Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-2 to allow
hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?
• as trunks
• as access ports
• as channels
• as inter-VLAN ports
• as bridge ports
40
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide communication
between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40
41
The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The
administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be done so
that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
• Set the password on the management VLAN.
• Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.
• Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.
• Configure the hostname on SW_2.
• Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.
42 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
• by comparing known routes to information received in updates
• by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers
• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
43 What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)
• Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.
• Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.
• Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.
• Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.
• Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use more
bandwidth than link-state protocols do.
• Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.
44
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure
the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of
commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3
45
Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
46 The following command was added to a router configuration:
ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249
What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)
• It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next hop.
• All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this
configuration command is in effect.
• The route will be marked with an “R” in the routing table.

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Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?

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