INTRODUCTION Evaluation is a continuous and ongoing process of finding out whether what was expected ,desired or aimed at has

been achieved or not .The important aspect of evaluation is exploration and discovery. BLUE PRINT PREPARATION A good examination planning need to have a blue print or table specification . A blue print gives the content and level of knowledge to be tested. A blue print can be prepared based on six levels i-e knowledge, comprehension , application, analysis, synthesis and evaluation. Questions need to be weighted at the higher levels of knowing. OBJECTIVE TYPE Written test may be of essay type or objective type .Objective type measures application of scientific principles and different abilities as well as factual knowledge. OBJECTIVE TYPE TEST They are a set of standardized stimuli that elicit samples of behavior. It measures application of scientific principles and different abilities as well as factual knowledge . ADVANTAGE OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TEST 1. It can be scored objectively and easily. The scoring will not vary from time to time or from the examiner to examiner to examiner. The mood of the examiner in no way affects scoring. 2. In this type, most extensive and representative sampling can be obtained. This reduces the role of luck and Framing of expected question As a result there is great reliability and better content validity. They can be made to cover more material than traditional type. 3. It posses economy of time, for it takes less time to answer than an essay test, comparatively, many test items can be presented to students. It also saves a lot of time of the scorer.

4. Students like them very much, because there no question as to the accuracy of marks they receive and there is no choice of bios or favoritism by the teacher. 5. It eliminates extraneous (irrelevant) factors such as speed of writing , fluency of expression, literary style , good handwriting neatness etc. 6. They discourage cramming and encourage thinking observation scrutiny. 7. It creates an incentive for peoples to building a broad base of knowledge, skills& abilities. They are more educative for the students. 8. It measures the higher mental process of understanding, application, analysis, prediction and interpretations.

DISADVANTAGES OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS 1.Objectives like ability to organize matter, ability to present matter logically and in a coherent fashion etc cannot be evaluated. 2.Guessing is possible. No doubt the chances of success may be reduced by the inclusion of a large number of items. 3.Printing charge is considerably greater than that of an essay type test. Use of this type test are very expensive. CLASSIFICATION OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TEST 1. Supply type or recall type i) Short answer ii)Completion iii) Association 2) Selection type or Recognition type i) Alternate response test ii) Matching iii) Multiple choice

3) Context-Dependent type i)Pictorial form ii)Interpretative GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF TEST CONSTRUCTION The principles to be considered while constructing the tests are i) Decide on the purpose of the test ii) Make sure that all important content areas are covered. iii) Decide on the types of items and total number of items for the test and allot time appropriately. iv) Prepare the test in advance, have the items examined critiqued by one or more teachers in the school. v) We should ensure that the test items should measures the levels of objectives in appropriate proportions. vi) We should ensure that each item in the test is independent. vii) Avoid tricky and catchy questions. viii) Arrange the test items in ascending order of difficulty. ix) We should avoid regular sequence in the pattern of responses x)We should provide clear, complete and concise direction to students, using simple language. xi)We should prepare surplus test items. xii)We should prepare answer keys &scoring rules before the actual scoring begins xiii)We should maintain confidentiality.

M.SC ( NURSING) DEGREE EXAMINATION-II YEAR

( Revised regulations) Paper-II Community Health Nursing TIME: Three hours Maximum Mark: 100 marks

Answer Section A in separate answer book. Answer Section B and C in the answer sheet provided. SECTION A: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FOR THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. (75X1=75) 1. Any attempt to intervene or interrupt the usual sequence in the development of disease is a. intervention b. holistic c. protection d. prevention 2. Restoration of function is a. Vocational rehabilitation b. Medical rehabilitation c. Social rehabilitation d. None of the above 3. In National Health Policy-2002, what is the goal for IMR reduction is a. 20/1000 b. 40/1000 c. 30/1000 d. 60/1000 4. Which of the following state has highest population a. Madhya Pradesh b. Utter Pradesh c. Bihar d. Maharastra

5. Bovine Tuberculosis refers to tuberculosis of a. Bird b. Human c. Rat d. Cattle 6. The result of Mantoux test is observed after a. 72 hours b. 24 hours c. 1 hours d. 3 hours 7. National Tuberculosis control Programme was started a. 1962 b. 1982 c. 1960 d. 1981 8. Hydrophobia refers to a. Tetanus b. Rabies c. Poliomylelitis d. Amoebiasis 9. Spasm of Masseters is called a. Trismus b. Opisthotonus c. Risus Sardonicus d. Bull Neck 10.Slim disease refers to a. Tuberculosis b. Typhoid c. Malaria d. AIDS 11.Malaria Action Plan was launched in a. 1960 b. 1961 c. 1950 d. 1955

12.ESI Scheme was introduced by an act of Parliament in a. 1971 b. 1970 c. 1983 d. 1948 13.Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over a longer period causes a. Silicosis b. Byssinosis c. Bagassis d. None of the above 14.MTP Act came into force on a. 1971 b. 1980 c. 1972 d. 1982 15.Bull neck appearance is seen in a. Diptheria b. Poliomylelitis c. Typhoid d. Measles 16. Hundred day cough refers to a. Diptheria b. Poliomylelitis c. Typhoid d. Whooping Cough 17.Head Quarters of WHO is in a. Geneva b. Brazil c. France d. New delhi 18.World Health Day is celebrated every year on a. 7th April b. 12th May c. 12th April d. 7th May

19.UNICEF was established in a. 1946 b. 1948 c. 1953 d. 1949 20. UNICEF is promoting a campaign known as a. GOBI b. Universal Immunization c. Child Health d. TCM 21. International Labour Organization was established in a. 1920 b. 1919 c. 1979 d. 1969 22.The beginning service of Rockefeller Foundation was a. Family planning b. Agriculture promotion c. Hookworm disease control d. Malaria 23.Health hazard caused by lead poisioning is a. Asthma b. Dermatitis c. Anaemia d. Kidney disease 24.Indian Factories Act recommended to provide a canteen if the number of employees is a. 150 b. 200 c. 250 d. 100

25. Mines Act came into force on a. 1947 b. 1948 c. 1952 d. 1976 26.Exposure to dyes result in a. Anaemia b. Dermatitis c. Asthma d. Peptic ulcer 27.ESI Act came into force on a. 1940 b. 1942 c. 1941 d. 1948 28.ESI Act is amended in a. 1975 b. 1989 c. 1984 d. All the above 29.The maximum number of hours prescribed for a weak by Indian Factories Act is a. 40 hours b. 30 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours 30.The sickness benefit is payable for a maximum period of a. 91 days b. 60 days c. 80 days d. 90 days

31.The funeral expenses given as per IFA is a. Rs2000 b. Rs 3000 c. Rs 3500 d. Rs 2500 32.Maternity benefit Act came into force on a. 1960 b. 1980 c. 1970 d. 1961 33.Rajiv Gandhi Shramak Kalyan Yojna came into force on a. 1st April 2005 b. 1st April 2007 c. 3rd April 2005 d. 3rd April 2007 34.The central Labour institute is in a. Madras b. Bangalore c. Mumbai d. Calcutta 35. The industrial toxicology research center is located in a. Delhi b. Bangalore c. Calcutta d. Lucknow 36.Inhalation of mouldy hay or grain dust causes a. Asbestosis b. Silicosis c. Farmers Lung d. Leukemia 37. fitting the job to the worker is a. Ergon b. Ergonomics c. Economics d. Ecology

38. Kolar gold mine is at a. New Delhi b. Calcutta c. Mysore d. Bangalore 39.Final Stage of disaster management is a. Vaccination b. Treatment c. Rehabilitation d. None of the above 40.Mass vaccination is primarily done with during disaster a. Typhoid b. Hepatitis B c. OPV d. Tetanus 41.Any occurance that cause demage, ecological disruption, loss of human life or deterioration of health and health services on a scale sufficient to warrant and extraordinary response from outside affected community areas means a. Incident b. Hazard c. Accident d. Disaster 42. Biomedical waste Management Act came into force on a. 29th July 1998 b. 28th July 1998 c. 28th June 1998 d. 30th July 1998 43.The process of .. involves mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal a. Inertization b. Incineration c. Burial d. None of the above

44. Frequency of microwave required to destroy micro organisms is a. 2000 MHz b. 2200 MHz c. 2450 MHz d. 2500 MHz 45.Human tissues are fluids waste are grouped as a. Infectious waste b. Pharmaceutical waste c. Chemical waste d. Pathological waste 46. BMW means a. Biological waste b. Biomedical waste c. Bio waste d. None of the above 47. Serum Hepatitis if other name for a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis D d. None of the above 48.The National Tuberculosis Institute is located in a. Delhi b. Chingleput c. Chennai d. Bangalore 49.Best Cost effective approach to control tuberculosis is a. BCG vaccination b. DOTS c. Early detection d. None of the above 50.SARS transmitters are a. Sewage b. Faeces c. Cockroaches d. All the above

51. Meningococcal meningities is caused by a. Meningitis b. N.gonerrhoea c. Flea d. None of the above 52.Whooping cough is also known as a. Pertussis b. Tetanus c. SARS d. Typhoid 53.SCHICK TEST is done to detect a. Diptheria b. SARS c. Pertussis d. AIDS 54.Diptheria is caused by a. Cornybacterium diptheriae b. Hemophilus influenza c. Clostridium tetani d. Salmonella typhi 55.An outbreak of disease in an animal population which affect human population is a. Epornithic b. Nosocomial c. Epizootic d. Sporadic 56.An outbreak of disease in a bird population is called a. Sporadic b. Epornithic c. Epizootic d. Zoonosis

57.The interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity is a. Serial interval b. Communicable period c. Generation time d. None of the above 58...is the live attenuated vaccine of viral type a. Measles b. Typhoid c. Plague d. Dengue 59.Hepatitis B Vaccine was introduced in a. 1960 b. 1976 c. 1961 d. 1975 60.Most sensitive vaccine is a. DPT b. OPV c. BCG d. DT 61.Period of booster dose required for cholera a. 6 month b. 1 month c. 6 year d. 1 year 62.Expanded programme on immunization was launched in India a. 1970 b. 1978 c. 1976 d. 1977

63.A substances which suppresses or neutralizes bad odor is a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Deodorant d. None of the above 64. The most cheapest disinfectant is a. Lime b. Carbonate c. Phenol d. None of the above 65.Prescriptive screening means a. Case dedection b. Control of disease c. Research purposes d. Mass screening 66.Measles is also known as a. Rubella b. Rubeola c. Mumps d. Hydrophobia 67.Toxic Shock Syndrome occurs in Vaccination with a. OPV b. DPT c. Measles d. MMR 68.Bull Neck is seen in a. Diptheria b. Tetanus c. Pertussis d. Mumps

69.ELISA is done in diagnosis of a. AIDS b.Tetanus c. Pertussis d. Diptheria 70.Whoop is found in a. OPV b.DPT c.Measles d.MMR 71. Person who takes appropriate drug regimen for required time is known a. Failure case b. Transfer Out c. Compliance d. Cured 72. Short term course of Chemotherapy for tuberculosis is a. 18 month b. 6 month c. 9 month d. 1 month 73. Long Term course of Chemotherapy for tuberculosis is a. 18 month b. 6 month c. 1 month d. 9 month

74. Hepatitis is also known as a. Infectious Jaundice b. Epidemic Jaundice c. a and b d. None of the above 75. Anti HIV drug administered during antenatal period to reduce the chance of transmission is a. Prednisolone b. Acyclovir c. d. None of the above. SECTION B: ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. FILL IN THE BLANKS: 1. The scientific study of human population is called . 2. The normal mid-arm circumference is 3. Triangular, pearly-white , foamy spots on the bulbar conjunctiva on either side of the cornea is called . 4. Mudhaliar committee is also known as 5. One Anganwadi worker covers a population of about 6. ESI Scheme was introduced by an act in Parliament in. 7. The normal temperature for maintainance of cold chain.. 8. First five year plan was implemented in the year 9. DOTS mean. 10.Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over a longer period causes. 11.MTP act came into force on. 12.Cervical mucous method is also known as. 13.Example for newer device of second generation is 14.Tetanus is caused by .. 15.TRYSEM means.. (15X1=15)

SECTION C: MATCH THE FOLLOWING GROUP-A 1. Universal Childrens Day 2. PEM 3. Vitamin A 4. Rhythm method 5. POP 6. Morning after pill 7. VCTC 8. MLEC 9. NMCP 10.Plague (10X1=10) GROUP-B 1.Calender method 2. Mini pill 3. 72 hours 4. RNTCP 5. Y.pestis 6. November 14 7. 1953 8. Marasmus 9. IUD 10.Retinol 11. 1997 12.1972

KEY FOR THE QUESTIONPAPER: SECTION-A Each question carry one mark 1. a. intervention 2. b.medical rehabilitation 3. c.30/1000 4. b. uttar Pradesh 5. d. cattle 6. a.72 hours 7. a.1962 8. b. rabies 9. a. trismus 10. d. AIDS 11. b.1961 12. b.1948 13.b. byssinosis 14. a.1971 15.a. diphtheria 16. c. whooping cough 17. a. Geneva 18. a.7th April 19. D.1949 20. A.GOBI 21. b 1919 22. C Hookworm disease control 23. C. anaemia 24. C .250 25. C.1952 26.D.dermatitis 27.C. Asthma 28.D.1948 29.D. all the above 30.D. 48 hours 31. A. 91 days 32. D. Rs2500

75x1=75

33. D.1961 34. A .1st April 2005 35. C. Mumbai 36.D. Lucjnow 37. C. Formers Lung 38. B. Ergonomics 39.C. Mysore 40. C. Rehablitation 41. D. Tetanus 42. D. Disaster 43. B. 28th July 1998 44. A. Inertization 45. C. 2450 MHz 46. D. Pathological waste 47. B. Bio medical Waste 48. A. Hepatitis B 49. D. Bangalore 50. B. DOTS 51.C. Cockroaches 52. A. N.meningitidies 53.A. Pertussis 54. A. Diptheria 55. A.Cornybacterium diphtheria 56.C. Epizootic 57.B. Epornathic 58. C. generation time 59. A. measles 60. D. 1976 61. B. OPV 62.A. 6 month 63.A. 1978 64. C. deodarant 65. A.lime 66.A. Case dedection 67.b. Rubeolla

68. c. measles 69. A.diptheria 70. A. Diptheria 71. A. Pertussis 72. C. Complaince 73.B.6 month 74. A. 18 month 75. SECTION B: FILL IN THE BLANKS. 1.Demography 2. 13.5cms 3. Bitots Spot 4.Health Survey and Planning Committee 5. 1000 6. 1948 7. 2 to 8 c 8. 1951 9. Direct Observe Treatment Shortcourse 10. Byssinosis 11.1971 12. Billing method or ovulation method 13. Copper-T-380, Copper-T-300 14. Clostridium tetani 15. Training of Rural Youth For Self Employment (15X1=15)

SECTION C: MATCH THE FOLLOWING GROUP-A 1.Universal Childrens Day 2.PEM 3. Vitamin A 4. Rhythm method 5.POP 6.Morning after pill 7. VCTC 8. MLEC 9. NMCP 10.Plague (10X1=10) GROUP-B 6. November 14 8. Marasmus 10.Retinol 1.Calender method 2. Mini pill 3. 72 hours 4. RNTCP 11.1997 7. 1953 5. Y.pestis

SUMMARY AND CONCLUSION: Evaluation is a continuous and ongoing process by which individuals capabilities, tendencies, interests, attitudes, needs, purposes, apptidues and likes is evaluated using questionnaire methods. In this assignment I have prepared objective type question with blue print to evaluate the performance of II year M.Sc (N) in the subject Community Health Nursing.

BIBLIOGRAPHY: 1. INC.(2002),Syllabus and regulation for college of nursing,INC New Delhi Pp:29-32 2. Park.K(2007),PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE,19th Edn,Banarsidar Bhanot,New Delhi Pp:1-48,163-220,269-289,658-670

3. Kamalam.s(2005),ESSENTIALS IN COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING PRACTICE,1st Edn, Jaypee brothers Pvt Ltd, New Delhi Pp:1-4,40-54,76-80,261-273 4. Sundar Rao Kasturi(2004), COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING PRACTICE,4th Edn,B.I.Publication,Bangalore Pp:620-622 5. Mahajan BK & Gupta MC (2005),TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE,3rd Edn Jaypee brothers Pvt Ltd, New Delhi Pp:260-273 6. Neeraja K.P.(2003), TEXTBOOK OF NURSING EDUCATION, 1st Edn Jaypee brothers Pvt Ltd,New Delhi Pp:199-204

ASSIGNMENT ON CURRICULAM TOOL CONSTRUCTION ON OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS FOR II YEAR M.Sc (N) COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING.

SUBMITTED TO: Mrs.JAYALAKSHMI, READER IN NURSING,

RANI MEYYAMMAI COLLEGE OF NURSING

SUBMITTED BY: S.SUGANTHRA DEVI,I YEAR M.SC(N),

RANI MEYYAMMAI COLLEGE OF NURSING