Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 51

Study Guide fro exam. 1 MULTIPLE CHOICE.

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) All of the following are true of the nervous system, except that it doesn't 1) _______ A) respond rapidly to stimuli. B) function independently of the endocrine system. C) respond specifically to stimuli. D) respond with motor output. E) communicate by the release of neurotransmitters. 2) Endocrine cells 2) _______ A) contain few vesicles. B) are modified connective-tissue cells. C) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface. D) are a type of nerve cell. E) release their secretions directly into body fluids. 3) ________ are chemical messengers that are released in one tissue and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues. 3) _______ Hormones Antigens A) B)

C) Humoral antibodies D) Neuropeptides E) Neurotransmitters 4) Cells can respond to ________ hormone(s) at the same time. 4)

_______ only one A) B) a few C) an unlimited number of D) fifty 5) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are 5) _______ A) derivatives of reproductive glands. B) steroids. C) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine. D) peptides. E) lipids. 6) Peptide hormones are 6) _______ lipids. A) B) composed of amino acids. C) chemically related to cholesterol. D) produced by the suprarenal glands. E) derived from the amino acid tyrosine. 7) A kinase is an enzyme that performs 7) _______ A) as a membrane channel. B) protein synthesis. C) phosphorylation. D)

as an antibody. E) active transport. 8) An activated G protein can trigger 8) _______ A) the production of diacylglycerol. B) the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores. C) a fall in cAMP levels. D) the opening of calcium ion channels in the membrane. E) All of the answers are correct. 9) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein 9) _______ calcitriol. calmodulin. A) B)

C) calcium-binding globulin. D) calcitonin. E) calcitropin. 10) Hormones can operate on the ________ level of organization. 10) ______ organ tissue organismic cellular A) B) C) D)

E) All of the answers are correct. 11) The functional organization of the nervous system parallels that of the ________ system in many ways. 11) ______

A) cardiovascular B) endocrine C) body D) hepatic E) muscular 12) The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ. 12) ______ renal hepatic A) B)

C) cardiovascular D) endocrine E) muscular 13) A simple endocrine reflex involves ________ hormone(s). 13) ______ A) gonadotropic B) tropic C) one D) hypothalamic E) two 14) Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second messenger? 14) ______ epinephrine cyclic AMP TSH ACTH insulin A) B) C) D) E)

15) All of the following are true of steroid hormones, except that they 15) ______ A) are produced by the suprarenal medulla. B) are lipids. C) bind to receptors within the cell. D) are derived from cholesterol. E) are produced by reproductive glands. 16) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative, except 16) ______ A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) thyroid-stimulating hormone. D) melatonin. E) thyroid hormone. 17) Extracellular membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones? 17) ______ A) peptide hormones B) eicosanoids C) thyroid D) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids E) catecholamines 18) Steroid hormones 18) ______ A) are proteins. B)

are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. C) remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time. D) cannot diffuse through cell membranes. E) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. 19) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the 19) ______ A) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA. B) cell membrane becomes depolarized. C) cell becomes inactive. D) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm. E) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm. 20) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories include 20) ______ A) amino acid derivatives. B) peptides. C) steroids. D) eicosanoids. E) All of the answers are correct. 21) Hormonal actions on cells include those that affect 21) ______ A) synthesis of enzymes. B) quantities of enzymes. C) activities of enzymes. D) gating of ion channels. E) All of the answers are correct. 22) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is

usually 22) ______ a G protein. cAMP. A) B)

C) calcium ion levels. D) cGMP. E) adenyl cyclase. 23) When adenyl cyclase is activated, 23) ______ A) ATP is produced. B) cAMP is formed. C) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed. D) ATP is consumed. E) cAMP is broken down. 24) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex, 24) ______ A) G proteins are phosphylated. B) protein kinases are activated. C) cyclic nucleotides are formed. D) adenyl cyclase is activated. E) gene transcription is initiated. 25) The most complex endocrine responses involve the 25) ______ pancreas. A)

B) hypothalamus. C)

thymus gland. D) thyroid gland. E) suprarenal glands. 26) Hormone release may be controlled by which of the following factors? 26) ______ A) blood level of an ion-like potassium B) blood level of glucose C) nervous stimuli D) blood level of a hormone E) All of the answers are correct. 27) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular receptors? 27) ______ cortisol A) B) insulin and epinephrine C) epinephrine D) calcitriol E) insulin 28) All target cells 28) ______ A) respond to electrical signals. B) have hormone receptors. C) secrete hormones. D) produce their own hormones. E) are in the blood. 29) If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing, which of these hormones could no longer stimulate release of glucose?

29) ______ glucagon A) B) insulin C) leptin D) thyroxine E) cortisol 30) Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of 30) ______ A) testosterone. B) thyroid hormone. C) estrogen. D) progesterone. E) cAMP. 31) Destruction of the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which result? 31) ______ A) loss of ADH secretion B) loss of emotional response C) loss of GH secretion D) loss of loss of regulatory factor secretion E) loss of melatonin secretion 32) The primary function of ADH is to 32)

______ A) decrease blood pressure. B) increase digestive absorption. C) delay urination. D) increase the amount of sodium lost at the kidneys. E) decrease the amount of water lost at the kidneys. 33) If the median eminence of the hypothalamus is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to control the secretion of which of the following hormones? 33) ______ A) TSH, ACTH, PRL B) TSH C) PRL D) ADH and OXT E) ACTH 34) Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of 34) ______ ADH. B) ACTH. C) oxytocin. D) TSH. E) LH. 35) The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by 35) ______ A)

A) gap synaptic junctions. B) indirect osmotic control. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary. E) direct neural stimulation. 36) Neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture 36) ______ A) GHIH and GHRH. B) CRF and GnRH. C) FSH and PRL. D) ADH and oxytocin. E) TSH and FSH. 37) Secretory cells of the adenohypophysis release 37) ______ ACTH. TSH. FSH. GH. A) B) C) D)

E) All of the answers are correct. 38) The hypophyseal portal system 38) ______ A) carries ADH and oxytocin. B) is a blood connection between the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. C) has two capillary plexuses connected by short veins. D) carries neurosecretions to the anterior lobe of the pituitary. E) All of the answers are correct.

39) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is: 39) ______ A) stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin B) inhibition of aldosterone C) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption D) increased water conservation by kidneys E) increase urine output to remove excess fluid 40) Excess secretion of growth hormone during early development will cause 40) ______ dwarfism. rickets. A) B)

C) diabetes insipidus. D) acromegaly. E) gigantism. 41) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates? 41) ______ epinephrine cortisol insulin A) B) C)

D) parathyroid hormone E) growth hormone 42) Which of the following organs contain target cells for oxytocin? 42) ______ A) mammary glands

B) prostate uterus C)

D) ductus deferens E) All of the answers are correct. 43) The posterior pituitary gland secretes 43) ______ MSH. A) B) ADH. C) TSH. D) ACTH. E) FSH. 44) The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is 44) ______ MSH. B) FSH. C) ADH. D) TSH. E) ACTH. 45) Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis, except A)

45) ______ A) somatotropin. B) oxytocin. C) FSH. D) corticotropin. E) TSH. 46) The hormone oxytocin 46) ______ A) is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands. B) triggers prostate gland contraction. C) is produced in the hypothalamus. D) promotes uterine contractions. E) All of the answers are correct. 47) Growth hormone does all of the following, except that it 47) ______ A) promotes bone growth. B) promotes muscle growth. C) promotes amino acid uptake by cells. D) causes fat accumulation within adipocytes. E) is glucose sparing. 48) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called 48) ______ A) hepatic hormones. B) gonadotrophins. C) glucocorticoids.

D) somatomedins. E) prostaglandins. 49) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is 49) ______ TSH. A) B) GH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) ACTH. 50) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the suprarenal cortex is 50) ______ TSH. B) GH. C) ACTH. D) FSH. E) LH. 51) Plasma is closest in composition to 51) ______ A)

A) sterile water. B) interstitial fluid. C) CSF. D) isotonic saline solution. E) urine. 52) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the 52) ______ hematocrit. A) B) specific gravity. C) viscosity. D) differential cell count. E) packed volume. 53) Which of the following is a function of the blood? 53) ______ A) transport of body heat B) defense against toxins and pathogens C) transport of gases D) transport of nutrients and wastes E) All of the answers are correct. 54) Which of the following statements about blood is false? 54) ______ A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) Blood is more viscous than water. C) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. D) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements. E) Blood is about 55 percent plasma.

55) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? 55) ______ 60 percent A) B) 30 percent C) 20 percent D) 45 percent E) 55 percent 56) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called 56) ______ A) extracellular fluid. B) serum. C) whole blood. D) packed blood. E) lymph. 57) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from 57) ______ a capillary. A) B) a superficial vein. C) a superficial artery. D) the heart. E) an arteriole. 58)

When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from 58) ______ the lungs. capillaries. a vein. the heart. an artery. A) B) C) D) E)

59) Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? 59) ______ A) hematocrit44 percent B) RBCs5.2 million/l C) platelets280,000/l D) hemoglobin10.7 g/100 ml E) leukocytes8600/l 60) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a 60) ______ A) built-in system for clotting. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) deep red color from hemoglobin. D) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. E) pH of 7.4. 61) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. 61) ______ 6 to 8 B) A)

3.8 C) 5.3 D) 4.4 E) 10 62) The most abundant component of plasma is 62) ______ proteins. B) water. C) ions. D) nutrients. E) gases. 63) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be 63) ______ A) hypervolemic. B) antivolemic. C) normovolemic. D) hypovolemic. E) isovolemic. 64) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the 64) A)

______ A) concentration of B) concentration of C) concentration of D) concentration of E) concentration of water. electrolytes. glucose. proteins. nitrogen wastes.

65) A typical adult hematocrit is 65) ______ 65. B) 45. C) 75. D) 25. E) 85. 66) Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood? 66) ______ basophils platelets RBCs antibodies A) B) C) D) A)

E) lymphocytes 67) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. 67) ______

A) 92; 7 B) 55; 92 C) 92; 55 D) 50; 50 E) 45; 55 68) A hematocrit provides information on 68) ______ A) clotting factors. B) blood type. C) formed elements abundance. D) sedimentation rate. E) plasma composition. 69) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? 69) ______ 5.6 L B) 6.6 L C) 3.8 L D) 6.0 L E) 4.8 L A)

70) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? 70) ______ A) steroid-binding B) hormone-binding C) transport albumin D) metalloprotein E) apolipoprotein 71) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? 71) ______ A) steroid-binding protein B) hormone-binding protein C) apolipoprotein D) metalloprotein E) transport albumin 72) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? 72) ______ A) hormone-binding protein B) gamma globulin C) albumin D) steroid-binding protein E) translipin 73) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? 73) ______ heart A) B)

kidney C) liver D) brain E) pancreas 74) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are 74) ______ fibrinogens. globulins. albumins. A) B) C)

D) lipoproteins. E) transport proteins. 75) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the 75) ______ lipoproteins. A)

B) immunoglobulins. C) metalloproteins. D) fibrinogens. E) albumins. 76) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is 76) ______ A) albumin alpha. B) metalloprotein D. C) fibrinogen.

D) lipoprotein C. E) immunoglobulin A. 77) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the 77) ______ A) lymph tissue. B) heart. C) thymus. D) spleen. E) red bone marrow. 78) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone 78) ______ M-CSF. A)

B) erythropoietin. C) angiotensin. D) renin. E) thymosin. 79) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? 79) ______ A) Red cells are about 18 m in diameter. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells are biconcave discs. 80) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? 80)

______ ferritin transferrin hemoglobin A) B) C)

D) hemosiderin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin 81) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if 81) ______ A) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. B) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. C) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. D) the diet is deficient in iron. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. 82) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect 82) ______ A) a drop in oxygen levels. B) a rise in hematocrit. C) the release of erythropoietin. D) an increase in red blood cell production. E) All of the answers are correct. 83) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause 83) ______ jaundice. hemophilia. A) B)

C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E)

pernicious anemia. 84) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that 84) ______ A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) her hemoglobin level is normal. E) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. 85) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in 85) ______ A) renal anemia. B) increased erythropoiesis. C) decreased erythropoiesis. D) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. E) pernicious anemia. 86) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except 86) ______ A) during periods of fasting. B) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. C) at high altitudes. D) as a consequence of hemorrhage. E) during anemia. 87) The average life span of a red blood cell is 87) ______ A)

many years. 1 month. B) C) about 1 year. D) 4 months. E) 24 hours. 88) The function of red blood cells is to 88) ______ A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide. C) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. 89) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? 89) ______ A) vitamin B deficiency 6 B) iron deficiency C) vitamin B deficiency 12 D) lack of intrinsic factor E) vitamin K deficiency 90) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the 90) ______ spleen. thymus. liver. A) B) C)

D) yellow bone marrow.

E) red bone marrow. 91) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of 91) ______ sodium. magnesium. copper. calcium. iron. A) B) C) D) E)

92) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as 92) ______ A) hemosiderin. B) ferritin. C) transferrin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin. 93) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? 93) ______ A) an alcoholic with a damaged liver B) low hematocrit C) during coagulation D) low blood volume E) iron-deficient diet 94) If bile ducts are blocked, 94) ______ A)

more white blood cells are produced. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. D) more hemolysis takes place. E) more red blood cells are produced. 95) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is 95) ______ A) immunoglobulin. B) porphyrin. C) albumin. D) hemoglobin. E) fibrinogen. 96) The function of hemoglobin is to 96) ______ A) produce antibodies. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) carry dissolved blood gases. D) stimulate erythropoiesis. E) aid in the process of blood clotting. 97) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. 97) ______ A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Leukopenia D) Thrombocytopenia E) Anemia

98) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by 98) ______ A) oral doses of vitamin B B) blood transfusion. C) oral doses of iron. D) injections of iron. E) injections of vitamin B

12

12

99) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? 99) ______ A) lymphocytes B) platelets C) erythrocytes D) reticulocytes E) neutrophils 100) A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called 100) _____ A) normochromic. B) normocytic. C) hypochromic. D) macrocytic. E) hyperchromic. 101) Artery is to ________ as vein is to ________. 101) _____ A) toward; away

B) afferent; efferent C) efferent; away D) efferent; afferent E) afferent; away 102) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day. 102) _____ 1,000,000 1,000 100,000 10,000,000 10,000 A) B) C) D) E)

103) The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day. 103) _____ 8,000 B) 20,000 C) 100,000 D) 50,000 E) 15,000 104) Excess fluid in the ________ causes cardiac tamponade. 104) _____ A) apex of heart B) pericardial cavity A)

C) both atria D) visceral pericardium E) left ventricle 105) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because 105) _____ A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. C) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels. D) neural stimulation is lacking. E) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. 106) The adult heart is roughly the size of 106) _____ the liver. A)

B) a man's clenched fist. C) the gallbladder. D) the brain. E) the hand of a 10-year-old. 107) Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth intercostal space? 107) _____ A) apex of heart B) right atrium C) visceral pericardium D) pericardial cavity E) aorta 108) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as

108) _____ A) mitral valve prolapse. B) cardiomyopathy. C) pericarditis. D) pleural effusion. E) cardiac tamponade. 109) The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus 109) _____ contain fat. A) B) contain veins. C) are grooves on the surface of the heart. D) contain arteries. E) All of the answers are correct. 110) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the 110) _____ A) foramen ovale. B) coronary sinus. C) interatrial septum. D) ligamentum arteriosus. E) fossa ovalis. 111) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the 111) _____ A) mitral valve. B) aortic valve. C) tricuspid valve.

D) pulmonary valve. E) bicuspid valve. 112) Intercalated discs serve to transfer ________ from cell to cell. 112) _____ A) ionic currents B) the force of contraction C) electrical signals D) action potentials E) All of the answers are correct. 113) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following is not one of them? 113) _____ A) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules. B) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size. C) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs. D) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus. E) Cardiac muscle cells branch. 114) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow 114) _____ A) in both directions. B) in opposite directions on the right and left. C) from a ventricle to an atrium. D) in one direction only. E) in many directions. 115) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the 115)

_____

A) right atrium. B) left ventricle. C) conus arteriosus. D) left atrium. E) right ventricle. 116) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the 116) _____ A) left ventricle. B) conus arteriosus. C) right ventricle. D) left atrium. E) right atrium. 117) The earlike extension of the atrium is the 117) _____ A) coronary sulcus. B) auricle. C) ventricle. D) coronary sinus. E) atricle. 118) The coronary sulcus is a groove that 118) _____ A) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. B) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. C) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins. D) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria.

E) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. 119) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the 119) _____ A) ventral cavity. B) pleural space. C) pericardial space. D) cardiac notch. E) mediastinum. 120) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to 120) _____ A) trabeculae carneae. B) coronary sulci. C) papillary muscles. D) interatrial septa. E) chordae tendineae. 121) Contractions of the papillary muscles 121) _____ A) eject blood from the ventricles. B) close the atrioventricular valves. C) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) close the semilunar valves. 122) The visceral pericardium is the same as the 122) _____

A) mediastinum. B) epicardium. C) myocardium. D) parietal pericardium. E) endocardium. 123) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of 123) _____ A) chondrocytes. B) epitheliocytes. C) smooth muscle cells. D) fibrocytes. E) cardiac muscle cells. 124) The right ventricle pumps blood to the 124) _____ A) right and left lungs. B) right atrium. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) left ventricle. 125) The left ventricle pumps blood to the 125) _____ A) right ventricle. B) lungs. C) pulmonary circuit. D) right atrium. E) aorta.

126) The right atrium receives blood from the 126) _____ A) inferior vena cava. B) systemic circuit. C) superior vena cava. D) coronary sinus. E) All of the answers are correct. 127) In order to perform a CABG, a cardiac surgeon must 127) _____ A) visualize the carotid arteries. B) visualize the pulmonary valve. C) open the myocardium to see the AV valves. D) open the pericardial sac. E) All of the answers are correct. 128) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred to as a(n) 128) _____ A) coronary thrombosis. B) pulmonary embolism. C) coronary spasm. D) myocardial infarction. E) angina pectoris. 129) When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base 129) _____ increases. A)

B) remains unchanged. C) decreases. 130) When the left ventricle contracts, the diameter of the ventricular chamber 130) _____ decreases. B) increases. C) remains the same. 131) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following? 131) _____ A) release of CK-MB into the circulation B) release of enzymes into the circulation C) switch to anaerobic metabolism D) release of troponin T and I into the circulation E) All of the answers are correct. 132) Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the ________ valve. 132) _____ A) pulmonary semilunar B) aortic semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) mitral 133) As blood leaves the right ventricle it passes through the ________ and then into the pulmonary trunk. A)

133) _____ A) pulmonary veins B) conus arteriosus C) inferior vena cava D) superior vena cava E) aorta 134) Coronary veins empty into the 134) _____ A) left ventricle. B) right atrium. C) right ventricle. D) conus arteriosus. E) left atrium. 135) There are ________ pulmonary veins. 135) _____ 6 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 12 136) Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in 136) A)

_____

A) mitral regurgitation. B) bicuspid regurgitation. C) mitral valve prolapse. D) bicuspid prolapse. E) All of the answers are correct. 137) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then 137) _____ contract. open. A) B)

C) make the third heart sound. D) close. E) prolapse. 138) The ________ deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. 138) _____ A) coronary arteries B) carotid arteries C) superior vena cava D) coronary sinus E) cardiac veins 139) The connective tissue fibers of the myocardium 139) _____ A) provide elasticity to help return the heart to its normal size. B) provide physical support for cardiac muscle. C) help distribute the forces of contraction. D) add strength and prevent overexpansion of the heart.

E) All of the answers are correct. 140) Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the 140) _____ A) phrenic arteries. B) pulmonary arteries. C) right coronary artery. D) brachiocephalic artery. E) left coronary artery. 141) The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the 141) _____ aorta. A)

B) right ventricle. C) pulmonary trunk. D) pulmonary veins. E) left atrium. 142) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located 142) _____ A) in the opening of the aorta. B) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. C) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle. 143) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. 143) _____ A)

semilunar semicaval pulmonic tricuspid bicuspid B) C) D) E)

144) The function of an atrium is to 144) _____ A) pump blood to the ventricle. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle. D) collect blood. E) pump blood into the systemic circuit. 145) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics, except that it 145) _____ A) is round in cross section. B) has a thicker wall. C) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. D) pumps a greater volume. E) works harder. 146) Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit? 146) _____ A) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium B) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle C) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta D) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium E) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta

147) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ . 147) _____ A) deoxygenated; right atrium B) oxygenated; left atrium C) oxygenated; right lung D) deoxygenated; superior vena cava E) deoxygenated; left atrium 148) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. right atrium left atrium right ventricle left ventricle venae cavae aorta pulmonary trunk pulmonary veins

What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? 148) _____

A) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, B) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, D) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, E) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6,

6 6 6 5 5

149) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 149) _____ heart. intestines. lungs. brain. liver. A) B) C) D) E)

150) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the 150) _____ lungs. intestines. brain. heart. liver. A) B) C) D) E)

B E A B C B C E

1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6) 7) 8)

9) B 10) E 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) E 19) E 20) E 21) E 22) A 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) E 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) E

31) A 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) E 38) E 39) D 40) E 41) E 42) E 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) A 53) E 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) B 58) E 59) D 60) B 61)

C 62) B 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) B 71) D 72) C 73) C 74) C 75) B 76) C 77) E 78) B 79) A 80) E 81) B 82) E 83) E 84) D 85) B 86) A 87) D 88) B 89) C 90) E 91) E

92) E 93) A 94) C 95) D 96) C 97) E 98) E 99) D 100) A 101) D 102) C 103) A 104) B 105) E 106) B 107) A 108) E 109) E 110) A 111) D 112) E 113) A 114) D

115) A 116) D 117) B 118) E 119) E 120) E 121) D 122) B 123) E 124) A 125) E 126) B 127) D 128) A 129) C 130) A 131) E 132) D 133) B 134) B 135)

C 136) E 137) B 138) A 139) E 140) E 141) B 142) E 143) E 144) C 145) D 146) D 147) B 148) C 149) C 150) D

Вам также может понравиться