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Microsoft: 70-270, 70-305 Cisco: 642-901 Oracle: 1Z0-007, 200 CompTIA: 220-601 SUN: 310-014, 310-044 Citrix: 1Y0-A01, 1Y0-256 CIW: 1D0-420 Novell: 50-686 Adobe: 9A0-029 Apple: 9L0-005, 9L0-505 Avaya: 132-S-100 Cognos: COG-105 CWNP: PW0-100 EMC: E20-001 Hyperion: 4H0-002 HP: HP0-771, HP0-J24 IBM: 000-253, 000-700 Juniper: JN0-100, JN0-201 Lotus: LOT-739 Nortel: 920-803 SAS: A00-201 SNIA: S10-100 Sybase: 510-015 Symantec: 250-101 TeraData: NR0-011

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Topic 1, Volume A

QUESTION NO: 1 Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?

A. FlexLinks B. loop-free U C. looped square D. looped triangle Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2 As a critical part of the design for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following two are true concerning intrusion detection and prevention solution? (Choose two)

A. IDS is capable of both inline and promiscuous monitoring, while IPS is only capable of promiscuous monitoring B. IDS will stop malicious traffic from reaching its intended target for certain types of attacks. C. IPS processes information on Layers 3 and 4 as well as analyzing the contents and payload of the packets for more sophisticated embedded attacks (Layers 3 to 7) D. IPS inspects traffic statefully and needs to see both sides of the connection to function properly E. IDS placement at the perimeter of Data Center outside the firewall generates many warnings that have relatively low value because no action is likely to be taken on this information Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3 DRAG DROP Drag the characteristic on the left to the corresponding IPSec VPN solution on the right.

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

Answer:

Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

QUESTION NO: 4 OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)

A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes D. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain E. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two)

A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links. B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links. C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6 Which of these technologies is characterized as being a multipoint Layer 2 VPN that connects two or more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques?

A. DPT B. MPLS C. VPLS D. CWDM E. DWDM F. SONET/SDH Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7 DRAG DROP Drag the best practice recommendation for an Enterprise Campus network on the left to the technology to which it most applies on the right.

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

Answer:

Explanation: STP Enabled specifically on network edgeTrunks Manually prune VLANsUDLD Used specifically on Fiber-Optic InterconnectionEtherchannel Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in STP FailureVSS Always use a no of links that is power of 2

QUESTION NO: 8 Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?

A. to ensure a loop-free topology B. to protect against user-side loops C. in order to support business applications D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9 When designing the IP routing for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following two iBGP considerations should be taken into account? (Choose two) A. iBGP dual homing with different ISPs puts the Enterprise at risk of becoming a transit network www.CertificationKing.com 6

Cisco 642-874 Exam B. iBGP requires a full mesh of eBGP peers C. Routers will not advertise iBGP learned routes to other iBGP peers D. The use of route reflectors or Confederations eliminate any full mesh requirement while helping to scale iBGP E. iBGP peers do not add any information to the AS path. Answer: C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10 Which virtualization technology allows multiple physical devices to be combined into a single logical device?

A. device visualization B. device clustering C. server visualization D. network visualization Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11 Which two of these are characteristics of MPLS VPNs? (Choose two)

A. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward only IP packets B. Layer 2 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol C. MPL S label paths are automatically formed based on Layer 2 frames D. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol based on Layer 2 frames E. In Layer 2 MPLS VPNS, the service provider controls the customer Layer 3 policies Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider? A. FHRP to remote branches. B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing C. Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service. D. Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide. Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13 Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three) A. IGRP B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. EIGRP E. BGP Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14 There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP address can be summarized. When of the following is used in each of these 3 steps?

A. The first number in the contiguous block of addresses B. The last number in the contiguous block of addresses C. The size of the contiguous block of addresses D. The subnet mask of the original network address Answer: C Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 15 DRAG DROP Drag the characteristic on the left the associated firewall deployment or topology on the right.

Answer:

Explanation: Virtual firewall contexts are configured in active/standby pairs on different physical units Active-active firewall topology Connected to different service providers and the outband connection does not use a NAT address Asymmetric routing A virtual firewall with its own policies such as NAT, ACLs and protocol fix-ups Firewall Contexts Can use an EtherType ACLs to allow non-IP traffic Transparent firewall mode Traffic is subjected to policy restrictions as it crosses regions across the security borders of the network Zone-based policy firewalls

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

QUESTION NO: 16 Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the core layer in the Cisco Campus Architecture?

A. Utilize Layer 3 switching B. Utilize software accelerated services C. Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment D. Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the core layer E. Use redundant point to-point Layer 2 interconnections when where is a link or node failure. Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17 Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?

A. Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access layer
B. Provides host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches

C. Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant Distribution layer switches using a FHRP D. Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18 Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.) A. Flex Links www.CertificationKing.com 10

Cisco 642-874 Exam B. loop-free U C. looped square D. looped triangle E. loop-free inverted U Answer: B,C,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19 In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?

A. core layer B. Internet boundary C. aggregation layer D. aggregation and core layers E. access and aggregation layers Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20 When an Enterprise Campus network designer is addressing the merger of two companies with different IGPs, which of the following is considered a superior routing design? A. Eliminate the management and support for redistribution by choosing and cutting over to a single IGP at the time of merger B. Maintain distinct pockets across a moving boundary of routing protocols, redistributing between them C. Manipulate the administrative distance of the different IGPs to be equal throughout the network D. Leave the IGPs independent without redistribution wherever communication between company entities is not required Answer: B Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 21 From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF Statements are most relevant? (Choose two)

A. OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization B. OSPF cannot filter intra area routes C. An ARR ran only exist in two areas - the backbone and one adjacent area D. Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area E. the size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22 When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?

A. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access arid distribution blocks B. when multiple vendor devices need to be supported C. when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed D. when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed E. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks F. when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks Answer: F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23 Which two statements about layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)

A. IP address space is difficult to manage. B. Broadcast and fault domains arc increased C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback www.CertificationKing.com 12

Cisco 642-874 Exam Answer: A,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24 Which two statements about SCSI are true? (Choose two)

A. The bus is limited to 32 devices B. It is a full duplex serial standard C. It is a half-duplex serial standard D. It allows up to 320 MB/s of shared channel bandwidth Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25 What are two characteristics of Server Load Balancing router mode? (Choose two)

A. The design supports multiple server subnets B. An end-user sees the IP address of the real server C. SLB routes between the outside and inside subnets D. The source or destination MAC address is rewritten, but the IP addresses left alone E. SLB acts as a "bump in the wire" between servers and upstream firewall or Layer 3 devices Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26 When designing the Network Admission Control (NAC) Appliance for the Enterprise Campus
Network, which of the following requirements would help the designer to narrow down the NAC

choices, from Virtual Gateway to Real IP Gateway, or from In-band to out-of-band? A. QoS ToS/DSCP values are required to be forwarded transparently B. Device redundancy is required www.CertificationKing.com 13

Cisco 642-874 Exam C. Per-user ACL support is required D. Multicast service support is required Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27 DRAG DROP Drag the characteristic on the left to the corresponding RP model on the right.

Answer:

Explanation: Static RP Static with no inherentAuto RP Dynamic utilizing RP mappingAnycast Static with fault toleranceBSR Dynamic Utilizing Link-local

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 28 During consultation, you find that a customer has only a single asset closet and is looking for a solution that is easy to deploy. Which NAS physical deployment model would you suggest to this customer? A. edge B. central C. Layer 2 D. Layer 3 Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29 How does the Ethernet Relay Service use the VLAN tag? A. to provide service internetworking B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30 What is the most common mode for a firewall?

A. routed mode B. context mode C. bridged mode D. transparent mode E. full security mode Answer: A Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

QUESTION NO: 31 Refer to the exhibit.

The Cisco Nexus 1000V in the VMware vSphere solution effectively creates an additional access layer in the virtualized data center network; which of the following 1000V characteristics can the designer take advantage of? A. Offloads the STP requirement from the external Access layer switches B. If upstream access switches do not support vPC or VSS the dual-homed ESX host traffic can still be distributed using virtual port channel host mode using subgroups automatically discovered through CDP C. Allow transit traffic to be forwarded through the ESX host between VMNICs D. Can be divided into multiple virtual device contexts for service integration, enhanced security, administrative boundaries, and flexibility of deployment Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32 What two descriptions best define DWDM? (Choose two)

A. a WDM system that is compatible with EDFA technology B. an optical technology for transmitting up to 16 channels over multiple fiber strands C. an optical technology for transmitting up to 32 channels over multiple fiber strands www.CertificationKing.com 16

Cisco 642-874 Exam D. a technology for transmitting multiple optical signals using less sophisticated transceiver design then CWDM E. a technology for transmitting more closely packed optical signals using more sophisticated transceiver designs than CWDM Answer: A,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Which two characteristics are true of IVRs? (Choose two)

A. They are known as fabric routing B. They cannot span multiple switches C. Their connectivity is supported by Layer 2 D. They enable devices in different VSAN fabrics to communicate E. They require that multiple switch fabrics be merged before they can function Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34 Which of these is a correct description of Stateful Switchover?

A. It will only become active after a software failure B. It will only become active after a hardware failure C. It requires that Cisco N3F be enabled in order to work successfully D. It synchronizes the MAC, FIB, and adjacency tables between Active and Standby Route Processors. Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35 Which technology is best suited for the most scalable means to separate the data plane for a www.CertificationKing.com 17

Cisco 642-874 Exam Layer3 VPN?

A. GRE B. 802 1Q C. MPLS D. L2TPv3 Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36 Refer to the exhibit.

Which recommended practice is applicable?

A. If no core layer is deployed, the design will be easier to scale B. A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting three or more buildings C. If no core layer is deployed, the distribution switches should not be fully meshed D. A dedicated campus core layer is not needed for connecting fewer than five buildings Answer: B Explanation: A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting 3 or more buildings.

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 37 To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus?

A. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link
B. to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected

with a Layer 3 link C. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with Layer 2 link D. to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link E. to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38 The requirement for high availability within the Data Center network may cause the designer to consider which one of the following solutions?

A. Construct a hierarchical network design using EtherChannel between a server and two VDCs from the same physical switch B. Utilize Cisco NSF with SSO to provide intrachassis SSO at Layers 2 to 4 C. Define the Data Center as an OSPF NSSA area, advertising a default route into the DC And summarizing the routes out of the NSSA to the Campus Core D. Implement network services for the Data Center as a separate services layer using active/active model that is more predictable in failure conditions Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39 Which four Cisco priority Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid perVLAN Spanning Tree? (Choose four)

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Cisco 642-874 Exam A. PortFast B. UplinkFast


C. loop guard

D. root guard E. BPDU guard F. BackboneFast Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40 When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?

A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7 Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41 Which EIGRP feature should a designer consider to limit the scope of EIGRP queries and minimize convergence time?

A. Using multiple EIGRP processes B. Tuning down the EIGRP delay parameter C. EIGRP stub routing D. Limiting the number of EIGRP neighbor per device Answer: C Explanation: www.CertificationKing.com 20

Cisco 642-874 Exam

QUESTION NO: 42 When designing the routing for an Enterprise Campus network it is important to keep which of the following route filtering aspects in mind? A. Filtering is only useful when combined with route summarization B. It is best to filter (allow) the default and summary prefixes only in the Enterprise Edge to remote sites or site-to-site IPsec VPN networks C. IGPs (for example EIGRP or OSPF) are superior to route filtering in avoiding in inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes or inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates D. The primary limitation of router filtering is that it can only be applied on outbound updates Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43 When considering the design of the IPv6 address plan for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following should serve as guidance?

A. All the IPv6 subnets should use a /32 prefix B. Set aside /31 prefixes to support point-to-point links and loopback interfaces C. The IPv6 address plan should be designed to support the service block model design or integration with IPv4 D. Designate 16 subnet bits to be split up intelligently, either by OSPF area, VLAN numbering, or IPv4 mapping Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44 Which factor is least likely to affect the scalability of a VPN design?

A. number of branch offices www.CertificationKing.com 21

Cisco 642-874 Exam B. number of IGP routing peers C. remote Office and home worker throughput bandwidth requirements D. high availability requirements E. Supported applications Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45 Which of the following is true when considering the Server load-balancing design within the ECommerce Module of the Enterprise Campus network?

A. Routed mode requires the ACE run OSPF or EIGRP B. Bridged mode switches a packet between the public and the private subnets when it sees its MAC address as the destination C. Two-armed mode will place the SLB inline to the servers, with different client-side and a serverside VLANs D. One-armed mode, which uses the same VLAN for the client, the ACE, and the servers, requires a traffic-diversion mechanism to ensure the traffic return from the server passes through the ACE Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46 Which of the following is true regarding the effect of EIGRP queries on the network design?

A. EIGRP queries will be the most significant issue with respect to stability and convergence B. EIGRP queries are not a consideration as long as EIGRP has a feasible successor with a next hop AD that is greater than the FD of the current successor route C. EIGRP queries will only increase the convergence time when there are no EIGRP stubs designed in the network Answer: C Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 47 Which two statements correctly identify considerations to take into account when deciding on Campus QoS Design elements? (Choose two)

A. Voice needs to be assigned to the hardware priority queue B. Voice needs to be assigned to the software priority queue C. Call signaling must have guaranteed bandwidth service D. Strict-priority queuing should be limited to 50 percent of the capacity of the link E. At least 33 percent or the link bandwidth should be reserved tor default best effort class Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48 Which version of spanning tree is recommended for the enterprise campus?

A. CST B. MST C. STP D. PVST+ E. PVRST+ Answer: E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49 Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two)

A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses C. only the high-order 23 hits of the MAC address are used to map IP address D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses E. the 0x01 uu4t MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses www.CertificationKing.com 23

Cisco 642-874 Exam Answer: A,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50 What is the recommended practice regarding UDLD when implementing it in all fiber-optic LAN ports?

A. Adjust the default hello timers to three seconds for aggressive mode B. Enable it in global mode and on every interface you need to support C. Enable it in global mode to support every individual fiber-optic interface D. Enable it to create channels containing up to eight parallel links between switches Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51 Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network designer? (Choose two)

A. You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with SSO in a Layer 3 environment. B. SSO and NSF each require the device to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful-aware. C. In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers D. The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers. E. Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationship are independent of any turned IGP times Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52 Which of these statements about FSPF is true?

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

A. It supports multipath routing


B. It can run any type of storage ports

C. When it is used, hop-by-hop routes are based only on the switch ID D. When it is used, path status is based on the functionality of attached ports E. It runs only on a switch fabric and cannot function in a VSAN Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53 Refer to the exhibit

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Which of the following is an advantage of device clustering utilizing Virtual Port Channels (vPC)? A. A logical star topology provides a loop free environment so that all links will be used to forward traffic B. Enhanced EtherChannel hashing load balancing using the vPC peer link internal to the VPC C. The control plane functions of the Nexus switches are merged to hide the use of virtualization D. Neighboring devices connect on a Layer 3 MEC for improved packet forwarding Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54 Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three)

A. A firewall in routed mode has one IP address B. A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address C. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 dew D. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device E. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device F. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device Answer: B,D,E Explanation: In Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH) it is clearly stated on page 334: A transparent firewall has one IP address assigned to the entire bridge group, and uses this management address as the source address for packets originated on the firewall. Incorrect answer: In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device is incorrect:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam

QUESTION NO: 55 Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design? A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP. B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer witches, independent of any other devices such as firewalls or content switching devices. C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal. D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables. Answer: B Explanation:

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 56 Which unique characteristics of the Data Center Aggregation layer must be considered by an Enterprise Campus designer? A. Layer 3 routing between the Access and Aggregation layers facilitates the ability to span VLANs across multiple access switches, which is a requirement for many server virtualization and clustering technologies. B. ''East-west'' server-to-server traffic can travel between aggregation modules by way of the core, but backup and replication traffic typically remains within an aggregation module. C. Load balancing, firewall services, and other network services are commonly integrated by the use of service modules that are inserted in the aggregation switches. D. Virtualization tools allow a cost effective approach for redundancy in the network design by using two or four VDCs from the same physical switch. Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 57 Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network designer? (Choose two)

A. You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with SSO in a Layer 3 environment. B. SSO and NSF each require the device to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful-aware. C. In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers D. The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers. E. Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationship are independent of any turned IGP times Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 58 Which four Cisco proprietary Spanning Tree Protocol enhancements are supported with rapid perVLAN Spanning-Tree plus? (Choose four.) A. PortFast www.CertificationKing.com 28

Cisco 642-874 Exam B. UnlinkFast


C. loop guard

D. root guard E. BPDU guard F. BackboneFast Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59 You are the Cisco Network Designer in Cisco.com. Your company is using the G.711 codec with 802.11a access point radios. This can support a maximum of how many phones per access point? A. 5 B. 10 C. 14 D. 20 Answer: C Explanation: In Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures (ARCH), page 512 It says: In comparison, 802.11a AP radios can support 14 active voice calls using the G.711 codec.

QUESTION NO: 60 With respect to address summarization, which of the following statements concerning IPv4 and IPv6 is true? A. The potential size of the IPv6 address blocks suggests that address summarization favors IPv6 over IPv4. B. Role based addressing using wildcard masks to match multiple subnets is suitable for IPv4, but unsuitable for IPv6. C. In order to summarize, the number of subnets in the IPv4 address block should be a power of 2 while the number of subnets in the IPv address block should be a power of 64. D. WAN link addressing best supports summarization with a/126 subnet fir IPv4 and a/31 for IPv6. Answer: B

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 61 The Cisco Nexus 1000V is intended to address which disadvantage of the VMware vSphere solution? A. Inability to deploy new functional servers without requiring physical changes on the network B. Complexity added by the requirement for an ESX host for each virtual machine C. Network administrators lack control of the access layer of the network D. To increase the number of physical infrastructure and the virtual machines that can be managed Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62 Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network? A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch. IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer. B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized and jitter. C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics. D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports. Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 63 Support of vPC on the Cisco Nexus 5000 access switch enables various new design options for the data center Access layer, including which of the following?

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Cisco 642-874 Exam A. The vPC peer link is not required for Access layer control traffic, and can instead be used to span VLANs across the vPC access switches B. A single switch can associate per-interface with more than one vPC domain C. vPC can be used on both sides of the MEC, allowing a unique 16-link EtherChannel to be built between the access and aggregation switches D. Allows an EtherChannel between a server and a access switch while still maintaining the level of availability that is associated with dual-homing a server to two different access switches Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 64 DRAG DROP Drag the OSPF technology on the left to the approriate network convergence step on the right that this technnology helps to mitigat

Answer:

Explanation: BFD Detect the eventLSA Propagation Propagate the eventSPF Throttling Process the eventCEF Update forward data structure

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Cisco 642-874 Exam QUESTION NO: 65 Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the Cisco Campus Architecture? A. Utilize Layer 3 switching. B. Utilize software accelerated services. C. Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment. D. Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the core layer. E. Use redundant point-to-point Layer 2 interconnections when there is a link or node failure. Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 66 Which two restrictions must the Enterprise Campus network designer consider when evaluating WAN connectivity options? (Choose two.) A. OSPF over a multiaccess EMS or VPLS network may not have consistent broadcast or multicast performance B. IP multicast is not supported over Layer 3 MPLS VPN; instead a Layer 2 MPLS VPN must be utilized with service provider support C. QoS requirements with MPLS-VPNs must be implemented by the service provider D. Hierarchical VPLS designs are the least scalable E. IGMP snooping is not an option with VPLS or EMS; instead administrative scoping or allowing sufficient bandwidth for unnecessary multicast traffic at the edge links is required Answer: A,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 67 Which Virtualization technology does not need to enforce separation of the control plane? A. Server Virtualization using vSphere B. Network virtualization using VRFs C. Device clustering using VSS D. Device virtualization using VMWare Answer: D

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68 Which protocol will not adhere to the design requirement of the control plane being either separated or combined within a virtualization technology? A. FHRP B. STP C. CEF D. NSF with SSO Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 69 Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two) A. Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers
B. Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without

disruption to users or loss of services C. The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere management D. Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management E. New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 70 Addressing QoS design in the Enterprise Campus network for IP Telephony applications means what?

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Cisco 642-874 Exam A. It is critical to identify aggregation and rate transition points in the network, where preferred traffic and congestion QoS policies should be enforced B. Suspect traffic should be dropped closest to the source, to minimize wasting network resources C. An Edge traffic classification scheme should be mapped to the downstream queue configuration D. Applications and Traffic flows should be classified, marked and policed within the Enterprise Edge of the Enterprise Campus network Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71 A well-designed IP addressing scheme supporting role-based functions within the subnet will result in the most efficient use of which technology? A. Layer 3 switching in the core B. Network Admission Control (NAC) C. IP telephony (voice and video) services D. ACLs Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 72 Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering? A. IPv4 static routes B. Route tagging using a route map in an ACL C. Tagging routes using the BGP MED D. EIGRP stub networks Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 73

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Which of the following is a result when designing multiple EIGRP autonomous systems within the Enterprise Campus network? A. Improves scalability by dividing the network using summary routes at AS boundaries B. Decreases complexity since EIGRP redistribution is automatically handled in the background C. Reduces the volume of EIGRP queries by limiting them to one EIGRP AS D. Scaling is improved when a unique AS is run at the Access, Distribution, and Core layers of the network Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74 Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two) A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates C. Use manual split horizon D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas Answer: A,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 75 The network designer needs to consider the number of multicast applications and sources in the network to provide the most robust network possible. Which of the following is a consideration the designer must also address? A. The IGPs should utilize authentication to avoid being the most vulnerable component B. With SSM source or receiver attacks are not possible C. With Shared Trees access control is always applied at the RP D. Limit the rate of Register messages to the RP to prevent specific hosts from being attacked on a PIM-SM network Answer: B

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Cisco 642-874 Exam Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 76 Which statement is the most accurate regarding IPsec VPN design for an Enterprise Campus environment? A. VPN device IP addressing must align with the existing Campus addressing scheme. B. The choice of a hub-and-spoke or meshed topology ultimately depends on the number of remotes. C. Sizing and selection of the IPsec VPN headend devices is most affected by the throughput bandwidth requirements for the remote offices and home worker D. Scaling considerations such as headend configuration, routing protocol choice, and topology have the broadest impact on the design. Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 77 When considering the design of the E-Commerce topology which of the following are true? A. One-armed SLB design with multiple security contexts removes the need for a separate firewall in the core layer B. Two-firewall-layer SLB design considers the aggregation and access layers to be trusted zones, requiring no security between the web, application, and database zones C. One-armed SLB design with two firewall layers ensures that non load-balanced traffic still traverses the ACE so that the health and performance of the servers is still being monitored D. In all cases the will be configuration requirements for direct access to any servers or for nonload-balanced sessions initiated by the servers Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 78 Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of

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