BSNL TTA Exam Papers - Computer Related Question Papers

1. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages? (a) Browser, (b) Mail Client, (c) FTP Client, (d) Messenger 2. What is the address given to a network called? (a) System Address, (b) SYSID, (c) Process ID, (d) IP Address 3. Which one of the following is a valid DOS command? (a) LIST *.*, (b) LIST???., (c) RECOVER A:, (d) RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC 4. All system settings in WINDOWS are stored in: (a) CONTROL.INI, (b) MAIN.INI, (c) SYSTEM.INI, (d) SETTING.INI 5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer? (a) 2, (b) 10, (c) 16, (d) 32 6. Which of the following is not an output device? (a) Printer, (b) Scanner, (c) Flat Screen, (d) Touch Screen 7. A microprocessor is a processor with reduced (a) Instruction set, (b) Power requirement, (c) MIPS performance, (d) none of the above 8. Which of the following is not an output of an assembler? (a) executable program, (b) source listing with line numbers and errors, (c) a symbol table, (d) object program 9. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control: (a) Presentation, (b) Transport, (c) Network, (d) Data Link 10. Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by (a) Value, (b) reference, (c) both a and b, (d) none of the above 11. Array is: (a) Linear data structure, (b) non-linear structure, (c) none of the above 12. A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as: (a) Array, (b) Stack, (c) Queue, (d) None of the above 13. A diamond-shaped box in an Entity-Relationship diagram refers to: (a) Entity, (b) Relationship, (c) Attribute 14. The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is: (a) Primary Key, (b) Record, (c) Attribute, (d) Tuple 15. Modem refers to:

(a) Modulator, (b) Modulation, (c) Demodulator, (d) Modulator and Demodulator 16. C language is available for which of the following Operating Systems? (a) DOS, (b) Windows, (c) Unix, (d) All of the above 17. Which of the following have the fastest access time? (a) Magnetic Tapes, (b) Magnetic Disks, (c) Semiconductor Memories, (d) Compact Disks 18. DMA stands for: (a) Direct Memory Allocation, (b) Distinct Memory Allocation, (c) Direct Memory Access, (d) Distinct Memory Access 19. Array subscripts in C always start at: (a):1, (b) 0, (c) 1, (d) Value provided by user 20. Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution? (a) Batch Commands, (b) Internal Commands, (c) External Commands 21. Which of the following statements in regard to Directories is false? (a) Directories can exist inside directories, (b) The root directory is always at the highest level, (c) Directories with files can be deleted, (d) Directories cannot be renamed 22. It is better to buffer a table when (a) When a table is read infrequently, (b) When a table is linked to check tables, (c) When a table is read frequently and the data seldom changes, (d) When a single record is to be picked up 23. The Operating System is responsible for: (a) Controlling peripheral devices such as monitor, printers, disk drives, (b) Provide an interface that allows users to choose programs to run and to manipulate files, (c) Manage users files on disk, (d) All of the above 24. A company whishes to connect two sites in different parts of the country together. It is decided to use the telephone system. What device should be connected to the fileservers on each site? (a) Router, (b) Modem, (c) Switch, (d) Hub 25. What is a file server? (a) A computer that performs a service for other computers, (b) A computer that controls the printers on the network, (c) A computer that stores files that are created by network users 26. What is the Protocol used for the Internet? (a) IPX/SPX, (b) NetBIOS/NetBEUI, (c) CDMA/CA, (d) TCP/IP 27. Which one of the following is not a Normal Forms (Normalization) rule with regards to the Relational Model?

(a) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary Key., (b) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables., (c) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed within their own tables with an associated Primary Key., (d) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in another table. 28. Choose the answer which best describes the term Primary Key: (a) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that can be duplicated. (b) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that is unique. (c) The Primary Key is a field that is never associated with any field in other tables. (d) The Primary Key field is a concept used only in Microsoft Access. 29. Which technique is used to reduce the size of a file? (a) Compression, (b) Decompression, (c) Encryption, (d) Decryption 30. BIOS stand for (a) Binary Input Output Set, (b) Binary Input Output System, (c) Basic Input Output Set, (d) Basic Input Output System 31. A floppy disk is consisting of 40 tracks, each track contains 100 sectors, and the capacity of a sector is 512 bytes, what is the approx. size of that disk? (a) 1 MB, (b) 2 MB, (c) 4 MB, (d) 8 MB 32. What is the binary equivalent of a decimal number 68: (a) 1000100, (b) 1100100, (c) 100001, (d) 1000001 33. Assembly language to machine language translation is: (a) One-to-One, (b) One-to-Many, (c) Many-to-One, (d) Many-to-Many 34. Maximum size of IP address is: (a) 12 bits, (b) 24 bits, (c) 32 bits, (d) 48 bits 35. RAM stands for (a) Read Access Memory, (b) Read After Memory, (c) Random Access Memory 36. What is the final value of sum? main () { int sum=1; for (;sum<=9;) print(%d\n, ++sum); } (a) 9, (b) 10, (c) 11, (d) none of the above 37. If c is a variable initialized to 1, how many times the following loop be executed:

while(c>0 && c<60) { c++; } (a) 59, (b) 60, (c) 61, (d) none of the above 38. The declaration void fun (int) indicates the fun is a function which: (a) Has no arguments, (b) returns nothing, (c) Both a and b, (d) none of the above 39. Out of the following which is not valid network topology: (a) Bus, (b) Star, (c) Circle, (d) Tree 40. The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by: (a) Data Flow Diagram, (b) Flow Chart, (c) Directed Graph, (d) Entity-Relationship Diagram 41. CARRY, in a half-adder, can be obtained using: (a) OR gate, (b) AND gate, (c) EX-OR gate, (d) EX-AND gate 42. The memory that requires refreshing of data is: (a) SROM, (b) DROM, (c) SRAM, (d) DRAM 43. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range:28 to +31 is(a) 5, (b) 6, (c) 7, (d) 8 44. Which bus carries information between processors and peripherals? (a) Data bus, (b) Control bus, (c) Address bus, (d) Information bus 45. Which part of the computer performs arithmetic calculations? (a) Control unit, (b) Registers, (c) ALU, (d) CPU 46. A gigabyte represents: (a) 1 billion bytes, (b) 1000 kilobytes, (c) 230 bytes, (d) 10 megabytes 47. The minimum number of bits required to store the hexadecimal number FF is: (a) 2, (b) 4, (c) 8, (d) 16 48. Cache memory enhances: (a) memory capacity, (b) memory access time, (c) secondary storage capacity, (d) secondary storage access time 49. A UPS: (a) increases the storage capacity of a computer system, (b) increases the processor speed, (c) provides backup power in the event of a power cut\, (d) none of the above

50. An RDBMS is a: (a) Remote DBMS, (b) Relative DBMS, (c) Reliable DBMS, (d) Relational DBMS BSNL TTA Question Paper-Instruments and Measurement Specialization 2007 (1) Instrument is a device for determining (a) the magnitude of a quantity, (b) the physics of a variable, (c) either of the above, (d) both (a) and (b) (2) Electronic instruments are preferred because they have (a) no indicating part, (b) low resistance in parallel circuit, (c) very fast response, (d) high resistance in series circuit, (e) no passive elements. (3) A DC wattmeter essentially consist of (a) two ammeters, (b) two voltmeters, (c) a voltmeter and an ammeter, (d) a current and potential transformer (4) Decibel is a unit of (a) power, (b) impedance, (c) frequency, (d) power ratio (5) A dc voltmeter may be used directly to measure (a) frequency, (b) polarity, (c) power factor, (d)power (6) An accurate voltmeter must have an internal impedance of (a) very low value, (b) low value, (c) medium value, (d) very high value (7) The insulation resistance of a transformer winding can be easily measured with (a) Wheatstone bridge, (b) megger, (c) Kelvin bridge, (d) voltmeter (8) A 100 V voltmeter has full-scale accuracy of 5%. At its reading of 50 V it will give an error of (a) 10%, (b) 5%, (c) 2.5%, (d) 1.25% (9) You are required to check the p. f. of an electric load. No p.f. meter is available. You would use: (a) a wattmeter, (b) a ammeter, a voltmeter and a wattmeter, (c) a voltmeter and a ammeter, (d) a kWh meter (10) The resistance of a field coil may be correctly measured by using (a) a voltmeter and an ammeter, (b) Schering bridge, (c) a Kelvin double bridge, (d) a Maxwell bridge (11) An analog instrument has output (a) Pulsating in nature, (b) Sinusoidal in nature, (c) Which is continuous function of time and bears a constant relation to its input, (d) Independent of the input quantity (12) Basic charge measuring instrument is (a) Duddel's oscillograph, (b) Cathode ray oscillograph, (c) Vibration Galvanometer, (d) Bailastic Galvanometer, (e) Battery Charging equipment (13) A.C. voltage can be measured (using a d.c. instrument) as a value obtained (a) by subtracting the d.c. reading from it's a.c. reading., (b) Using the output function of the multimeter (c) By using a suitable inductor in series with it, (d) By using a parallel capacitor with it, (e) None of the above (14) A moving coil permanent magnet ammeter can be used to measure (a) D. C. current only, (b) A. C. current only, (c) A. C. and D. C. currents, (d) voltage by incorporating a shunt resistance, (e) none of these (15) Select the wrong statement (a) the internal resistance of the voltmeter must be high, (b) the internal resistance of ammeter must be low, (c) the poor overload capacity is the main disadvantage of hot wires instrument, (d) the check continuity with multimeter, the highest range should be used., (e) In moving iron voltmeter, frequency compensation is achieved by connecting a capacitor across its fixed coil. (16) Which of the following instrument is suitable for measuring both a.c. and d.c. quantities. (a) permanent magnet moving coil ammeter., (b) Induction type ammeter., (c) Quadrant electrometer., (d) Moving iron repulsion type ammeter., (e) Moving iron attraction type voltmeter. (17) Swamping resistance is used in moving coil instruments to reduce error due to (a) thermal EMF, (b) temperature, (c) power taken by the instrument, (d) galvanometer sensitivity. (18) A power factor meter is based on the principle of (a) electrostatic instrument, (b) Electrodynamometer instrument, (c) Electro thermo type instrument, (d) Rectifier type instrument.

(19) A potentiometer recorder is used for (a) AC singles, (b) DC signals, (c) both (a) and (b), (d) time varying signals, (e) none of these. (20) Transformers used in conjunction with measuring instruments for measuring purposes are called (a) Measuring transformers, (b) transformer meters, (c) power transformers, (d) instrument transformers, (e) pulse transformers. (21) Leakage flux in an electrical machine is measure by (a) Ballistic galvanometer, (b) Flux meter, (c) Either (a) or (b), (d) Vibration galvanometer, (e) CRO (22) A C.R.O. is used to indicate (a) supply waveform, (b) magnitude of the applied voltage, (c) B.H. loop, (d) all of these, (e) Magnitude of the current flowing in it. (23) An oscillator is a (a) an amplifier having feedback network, (b) a high gain amplifier, (c) a wide band amplifier, (d) a untuned amplifier, (e) None of these (24) Distortion can be measured by (a) Wave meter, (b) Digital filters, (c) Wein bridge circuit, (d) Bridge T filter circuit (25) Series connected Q- meter is preferable for measurement of components having (a) high impedance, (b) low impedance, (c) both (a) and (b), (d) high frequency, (e) low capacitance (26) A potentiometer is (a) an active transducer, (b) a passive transducer, (c) a secondary transducer, (d) a digital transducer, (e) a current sensing transducer (27) The basic components of a digital voltmeter are: (a) A/D converter and a counter, (b) A/D converted and a rectifier, (c) D/A converter and a counter, (d) Ramp generator and counter, (e) Comparator (28) Which of the following electrical equipment cannot convert ac into dc (a) diode, (b) converter, (c) transformer, (d) mercury arc rectifier (29) Voltage measurement are often taken by using either a voltmeter or (a) an ammeter, (b) an ohmmeter, (c) an oscillator, (d) a watt-meter (30)The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called: (a) capacitance, (b) inductor, (c) an oscilloscope\, (d) a watt-meter (31 ) The range of an ammeter can be extended by using a (a) shunt in series, (b) shunt in parallel, (c) multiplier in series, (d) multiplier in parallel (32)A device that changes one form of energy to another is called (a) rheostat, (b) oscillator, (c) transducer, (d) varicap (33) Aquadag is used in CRO to collect (a) primary electron, (b) secondary electron, (c) both primary and secondary, (d) none of above (34) A vertical amplifier for CRO can be designed for (a) only a high gain, (b) only a broad bandwidth, (c) a constant gain time bandwidth product, (d)all of the above (35) One of the following is active transducer (a) Strain gauge, (b) Selsyn, (c) Photovoltic cell, (d) Photo emissive cell (36) The dynamic characteristics of capacitive transducer are similar to those of (a) low pass filter, (b) high pass filter, (c) band pass filter, (d) band stop filter (37) Thermocouples are (a) Passive transducers, (b) active transducers, (c) both active and passive transducers, (d) output transducers (38) The size of air cored transducers as compare to iron core counterpart are (a) Bigger, (b) smaller, (c) same (39) From the point of view of safety, the resistance of earthing electrode should be: (a) low, (b) high, (c) medium, (d) the value of resistance of electrode does not effect the safety (40) In CRT the focusing anode is located (a) between pre accelerating and accelerating anodes, (b) after accelerating anodes, (c) before pre accelerating anodes, (d) none of above (41) Which transducer converts heat energy into electrical energy? (a) I. V. D. T., (b) thermocouple, (c) photoconductor, (d) none of the above (42) Which of photoelectric transducer is used for production of electric energy by converting solar energy (a) photo emission cell, (b) photo diode, (c) photo transistor, (d) both (b) and (c)

(43) Which of the following instruments consumes maximum power during measurement? (a) induction instruments, (b) hot wire instruments, (c) thermocouple instruments, (d) electrodynamometer instruments (44) Which of the following meters has the best accurancy (a) Moving iron meter, (b) moving coil meter, (c) rectifier type meter, (d) thermocouple meter (45) The function of the safety resistor in ohm meter is to (a) Limit the current in the coil, (b) increase the voltage drop across the coil, (c) increase the current in the coil, (d) protect the battery (46) Which of the following instruments is free from hysteresis and eddy current losses? (a) M.l. instrument, (b) electrostatic instrument, (c) electrodynamometer type instrument, (d) all of these (47) The dielectric loss of a capacitance can be measured by (a) Wien bridge, (b) Owen bridge, (c) Schering bridge, (d) Maxwell bridge (48) Reed frequency meter is essentially a (a) Recording system, (b) deflection measuring system, (c) vibration measuring system, (d) oscillatory measuring system (49) In measurements made using a Q meter, high impedance elements should preferably be connected in (a) Star, (b) delta, (c) series, (d) parallel (50) A digital voltmeter measures (a) Peak value, (b) peak-to-peak value, (c) rms value, (d) average value BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) Recruitment Test: Sample Paper 1. One of the following statements which is true for relative dielectric constant is a) It is dimensionless, b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum , c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one, d)) None 2. Pure metals generally havea) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient, b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient, c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient, d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient 3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is a) Air, b) Ferrite, c) Powdered ion, d) Steel 4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given bya) C a V1/3, b) C a V-1/3, c) C a V1/2, d) C a V-1/2 5. A superconductor is aa) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature, b) A conductor having zero resistance, c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility, d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value 6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed aa) Thermistor, b) Forward biased pn junction diode, c) Reverse biased pn junction diode, d) FET 7. The location of lightning arrestor is a) Near the transformer, b) Near the circuit breaker, c) Away from the transformer, d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is a) Increased, b) Decreased, c) Neither a nor b, d) Both a and b 9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which a) Are available locally, b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from, c) Have more electrons than holes, d) Have zero energy gaps 10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by a) Channel resistance, b) Size of depletion regions, c) Voltage drop across channel, d) Gate reverse bias 11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of a) 1010, b) 105, c) 10-4, d) 10-6 12. When biased correctly, a zener diode? a) acts as a fixed resistance, b) has a constant voltage across it, c) has a constant current passing through it, d) never overheats 13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ? a) IC/IE, b) IC/IB, c) IB/IC, d) IB/IC 14. Compared to bipolars, FETs havea) high input impedance, b) low input impedance, c) same input impedance, d) none 15. The source-drain channel of JFET is a) ohmic, b) bilateral, c) unilateral, d) both a and b 16. diac is equivalent to a a) Pair of SCRs, b) Pair of four layer SCRs, c) Diode and two resistors, d) Triac width 17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ? a) 106/cm3, b) 103/ cm3, c) 1010/ cm3, d) 1012/ cm3 18. The statement In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emfs reduced to zero? represents a) Kirchhoffs law, b) Nortons theorem, c) Thevenins theorem, d) Superposition theorem 19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ? a) TE1 mode, b) TM01 mode, c) TE01 mode, d) Higher order mode 20. A two-port network is symmetrical if?

a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1, b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1, c) AD ? BC = 1, d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1 21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use aa) balun, b) broad band directional coupler, c) double stub, d) single stub of adjustable position 22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised a) by an LC network, b) as an RC driving point impedance, c) as an RC driving point admittance, d) only by an RLC network 23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements? a) R and C, b) L and C, c) R and L, d) R, L and C 24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ? a) B, b) Z12, d) h12 25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so thata) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor., b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum., c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high., d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant. 26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly a) 250? 300 MHz, b) 150? 200 MHz, c) 90 ? 105 MHz, d) 30-70 MHz 27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using a) Inductive loading, b) Resistive loading, c) Capacitive loading, d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60pF/m is a) 49 W, b) 60 W, c) 70 W, d) 140 W 30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be ? a) 25W, b) 50W, c) 100W, d) 150W 31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m isa) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m, b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m, c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m, d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be a) 0.4456 0, b) 1.44560, c) 2.44560, d) 3.44560 33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of a) Polystyrene, b) Glass of low refractive index, c) Paraboloid surfaces, d) Dielectric media having large refractive index 34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is a) Electrodynamometer, b) PMMC, c) Electrostatic, d) Moving iron 35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ? a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A, b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A, c) A dc ammeter will read 10A, d) A dc ammeter will read zero 36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then a) power factor of the circuit is high, b) impedance of the circuit is high, c) bandwidth is large, d) none of these 37. The resolution of a logic analyser is a) the maximum number of input channels, b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture, c) its internal clock period, d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display 38. A memoryless system is? a) causal, b) not causal, c) nothing can be said, d) none 39. An air capacitor is a ? a) time variant, b) active device, c) time invariant, d) time invariant and passive device 40. Thermistors are made of a) pure metals, b) pure insulators, c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides, d) pure semiconductor 41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ? a) very low pressures, b) high pressures, c) pressures in the region of 1 atm, d) fluid flow 42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ? a) AC voltage controllers, b) Cyclo converters, c) Phase controlled rectifiers, d) Inverters 43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ? a) off state to on state, b) on state to off state, c) on state to on state, d) off state to off state 44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -

a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage, b) peak working off state forward voltage, c) peak working off state reverse voltage, d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage 45. Gate characteristic of a thyristora) is a straight line passing through origin, b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg, c) is a curve between Vg and Ig, d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig 46. A four quadrant operation requiresa) two full converters in series, b) two full converters connected back to back, c) two full converters connected in parallel, d) two semi converters connected back to back 47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ? a) Vs, P, b) Vs/2, P, c) 2Vs, 2P, d) 2Vs, P 48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ? a) only an ohmic region, b) only a saturation region,, c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages, d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages 49. The energy gap in a semiconductor a) increases with temperature, b) remains constant, c) slightly increase with temperature, d) decrease with temperature 50. In an electronic circuit matching means a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance, b) selection of components which are compatible, c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits., d) RC coupled stages 51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because a) They have higher input impedance, b) They have high switching time, c) They consume less power, d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes 52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the a) Increase in ICEO, b) Increase in ac current gain, c) Decrease in ac current gain, d) Increase in output resistance 53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is a) 13. 3 KHz, b) 30KHz, c) 10KHz, d) 40KHz 54. The output of a class B amplifier a) is distortion free, b) consists of positive half cycles only, c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier, d) comprises short duration current pulses 55. An amplifier with negative feedback -

a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency, b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency, c) increases its bandwidth, d) all of the above 56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received a) Block becomes redundant, b) A FM detector would be required, c) A high frequency signal generator, d) An additional local oscillator will be needed 57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is itsa) greater speed, b) slower speed, c) average speed, d) none of the above 58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by ? a) Dt = N ? Fc, b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc, c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc, d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc 59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?(y denotes dont care) a) y and 0, b) y and 1, c) 0 and y, d) 1 and y 60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ? a) a flip flop, b) a transistor acting as a capacitor, c) a transistor, d) a capacitance 61. The 2s complement of 10002 is ? a) 0111, b) 0101, c) 1000 d) 0001 62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ? a) two flip flops connected in series, b) two flip flops connected in parallel, c) a debouncer circuit, d) a-D- latch 63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ? a) 2, b) 4, c) 8, d) 16 64. The intrinsic impedance of free spacea) is independent of frequency, b) decreases with increase of frequency, c) increases with increase of frequency, d) varies as square root of frequency 65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of a) ?200 dB/decade, b) ?240 dB/decade, c) ?230 dB/decade, d) ?320 dB/decade 66. Considering the conditions1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin System stability requirements would include a) 1 and 3, b) 1, 2 and 3, c) 1 and 4, d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ? a) 24 hour orbit, b) stationary satellite, c) global communication, d) zero-gravity environs 68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ? a) space multiplexing, b) time multiplexing, c) frequency multiplexing, d) none of the above 69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ? a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone, b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF, c) A differentiator followed by a LPF, d) A clipper circuit by a LPF 70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ? a) AND gates, b) Band pass, c) differentiation, d) Integration 71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy isa) frequency shift keying, b) two ? tone modulation, c) pulse code modulation, d) single tone modulation 72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial bea) FM generation only, b) 100AM generation only, c) PM generation only, d) both PM and AM generation 73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used toa) reduce x-ray emission, b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots, c) increase screen brightness, d) provide degaussing for the screen 74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses isa) the keyed AGC amplifar, b) a clipper, c) an integrator, d) a sawtooth current 75. Band width of microwaves isa) 1GHz -103 GHz, b) 1GHz ?100 GHz, c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz, d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz 76. in transverse Magnetic modea) no electric line is in direction of propagation, b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation, c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation, d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation 77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ? a) Reforction of wave, b) Reflection of wave, c) Pierus through Inosphere, d) None 78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ? a) 600, b) 900, c) 1800, d) 3600 79. The transmission does not have a) Partition noise, b) Flicker noise, c) resistance, d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of a) capacitance, b) Inductance, c) Resistance, d) Is a linear device 81. Noise figure is calculated as ? a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio, b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio, c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100, d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio 82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ? a) Nicholas chart, b) Nyquist plot, c) Bode plot, d) Root locus. 83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given bya) ?5, 1, b) ?2.5, 1, c) ?5,0-5, d) ?5, 2 84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectivelya) zero and 1, b) zero and 10, c) 10 and zero, d) 70 and 80 85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ? a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links, b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal, c) minimize free-space losses, d) maximize antenna gain 86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is itsa) EIRP, b) Antenna size, c) Coverage area, d) Antenna gain 87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent duringa) horizontal blanking, b) vertical blanking, c) the serrations, d) the horizontal retrace 88. The son seems to have from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody mannera) washed, b) inherited, c) admired, d) attempt 60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ? a) a flip flop, b) a transistor acting as a capacitor, c) a transistor, d) a capacitance 61. The 2s complement of 10002 is ? a) 0111, b) 0101, c) 1000, d) 0001 62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ? a) two flip flops connected in series, b) two flip flops connected in parallel, c) a debouncer circuit, d) a-D- latch 63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ? a) 2, b) 4, c) 8, d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free spacea) is independent of frequency, b) decreases with increase of frequency, c) increases with increase of frequency, d) varies as square root of frequency 65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of a) ?200 dB/decade, b) ?240 dB/decade, c) ?230 dB/decade, d) ?320 dB/decade 66. Considering the conditions1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin System stability requirements would include a) 1 and 3, b) 1, 2 and 3, c) 1 and 4, d) 2, 3 and 4 67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ? a) 24 hour orbit, b) stationary satellite, c) global communication, d) zero-gravity environs 68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ? a) space multiplexing, b) time multiplexing, c) frequency multiplexing, d) none of the above 69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ? a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone, b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF, c) A differentiator followed by a LPF, d) A clipper circuit by a LPF 70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ? a) AND gates, b) Band pass, c) differentiation, d) Integration 71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy isa) frequency shift keying, b) two ? tone modulation, c) pulse code modulation, d) single tone modulation 72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial bea) FM generation only, b) 100AM generation only, c) PM generation only, d) both PM and AM generation 73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used toa) reduce x-ray emission, b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots, c) increase screen brightness, d) provide degaussing for the screen 74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses isa) the keyed AGC amplifar, b) a clipper, c) an integrator, d) a sawtooth current 76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation, b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation, c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation, d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation 77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ? a) Reforction of wave, b) Reflection of wave, c) Pierus through Inosphere, d) None 78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ? a) 600, b) 900, c) 1800, d) 3600 79. The transmission does not have a) Partition noise, b) Flicker noise, c) resistance, d) Short noise 80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of a) capacitance, b) Inductance, c) Resistance, d) Is a linear device 81. Noise figure is calculated as? a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio, b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio, c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100, d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio 82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ? a) Nicholas chart, b) Nyquist plot, c) Bode plot, d) Root locus. 83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given bya) ?5, 1, b) ?2.5, 1, c) ?5,0-5, d) ?5, 2 84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectivelya) zero and 1, b) zero and 10, c) 10 and zero, d) 70 and 80 85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ? a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links, b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal, c) minimize free-space losses, d) maximize antenna gain 86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is itsa) EIRP, b) Antenna size, c) Coverage area, d) Antenna gain 87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent duringa) horizontal blanking, b) vertical blanking, c) the serrations, d) the horizontal retrace 88. The son seems to have from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody mannera) washed, b) inherited, c) admired, d) attempt 89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-

a) water, b) stone, c) air, d) hills 90. What is a collection of sheep called ? a) bunch, b) flock, c) herd, d) comet 91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following : You can buy a book. You can read it. a) and, b) nor, c) either, d) neither 92. What is the opposite of Asperity ? a) gentility, b) superiority, c) kindness, d) clarity 93. The Election Commission functions undera) Ministry of Home Affairs, b) Ministry of Law, c) Prime Ministers Secretariat, d) None of these 94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in casea) Presidents Rule is to be imposed, b) Emergency is declared, c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry, d) A political party of national level is to be banned 95. Radio-activity was first discovered bya) Becquerel, b) Madam Curie, c) Rutherford, d) Jenner 96. Ninth Plan in India ranges froma) 1995-2000, b) 1996-2001, c) 1997-2002, d) 1998-2003 97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD? a) 5,000 MW, b) 10,000 MW, c) 15,000 MW, d) 20,000 MW 98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place? a) 1769, b) 1789, c) 1889, d) 1869 99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present? a) 1/10th of total membership, b) 1/6th of total membership, c) 1/4th of total membership, d) 1/5th of total membership 100. How many countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council? a) 6, b) 7, c) 9, d) 10