CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION 1.

An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in a. the presence of a fiscal c. writing 2. a. b. c. d. b. the presence of a police investigator d. front of a judge

Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the National Bureau of Investigation Department of the Interior and Local Government Supreme Court Department of Justice

3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence. a. inquiry c. polygraph examination 4. a. tailing c. espionage b. interview d. interrogation

A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity. b. casing d. undercover work

5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing the subject. a. loose tail c. pony tail b. casing d. close tail

6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subjects habits and associates is required. a. loose tail c. pony tail b. casing d. close tail

7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location. a. casing c. stake out b. tailing d. espionage

8. An examination of an individuals person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contrabands or personal properties connected in a crime. a. search c. investigation 9. point. b. raid d. seizure

A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a different character to the same b. circumstantial evidence

a. corroborative evidence

c. direct evidence

d. real evidence

10. The process of bringing together in a in logical manner all evidence collected during the investigation and present it to the prosecutor. a. case preparation c. crime prevention b. order maintenance d. public service

11. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act. a. instigation c. buy bust operation 12. b. inducement d. entrapment

A special qualification for an undercover agent. b. excellent eyesight d. excellent memory

a. excellent built c. excellent looks

13. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of suspects. a. close observation c. tailing b. espionage d. surveillance

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into custody. a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation b. custodial investigation 15. a. b. c. d. 16. d. cross examination

As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at day time night time any day and at any time of the day or night weekdays Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present

when they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts. a. preventive measures c. pro-active measures b. countermeasures d. tape measures

17. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes. a. police patrol c. criminal procedure 18. b. police intelligence d. criminal investigation

An extension, or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

a. initial investigation c. secondary investigation 19.

b. custodial investigation d. follow-up investigation

To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of b. surveillance d. interrogation

a. interview c. investigation

20. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with the offense are in the place sought to be searched. a. prima facie evidence c. prejudicial question 21. a. 10 c. 30 b. probable cause d. res ipsa loquitur

A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void. b. 15 d. 45

22. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and that the person named in his report committed the crime. a. corpus delicti c. stare decisis b. sufficiency of evidence d. pares patriae

23. Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from practices that make them or their property vulnerable. a. opportunity denial c. criminal investigation 24. a. c. b. order maintenance d. police intelligence

A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt. admission deposition b. confession d. accusation

25. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself. a. admission c. deposition 26. guilt. b. confession d. accusation

It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of b. confession d. accusation

a. admission c. deposition

27. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation. a. background interview c. intimate interview b. personal interview d. pre-game interview

28.

It means method of operation. b. parens patriae d. modus operandi

a. corpus delicti c. stare decisis 29. a. intent c. opportunity

It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction. b. motive d. inducement

30. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case. a. b. c. d. 31. information, interrogation, instrumentation detection, apprehension, conviction inquiry, observation, conclusion magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation. b. inquiry d. instrumentation

a. interview c. interrogation

32. It involves a number of persons who might have handled evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to a minimum. a. chain of command c. evidence tracking b. chain of custody d. tracing evidence

33. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc. a. physical evidence c. tracing evidence b. associative evidence d. factual evidence

34. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal. a. physical evidence c. tracing evidence 35. b. documentary evidence d. testimonial evidence

The following are different techniques in interrogation except one: b. emotional appeal d. friendliness

a. sympathetic approach c. financial assistance

36. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes. a. strip method c. spiral method b. wheel method d. zone method

37.

The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one quadrant. b. wheel method d. zone method

a. strip method c. spiral method

38. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and circling around a central point. a. strip method c. spiral method 39. b. wheel method d. zone method

A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed. b. caravan d. surveillance Another term for tailing. b. backing d. shadowing

a. convoy c. tailing 40.

a. impersonating c. supporting

41. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous. a. witness c. hostile witness 42. b. expert witness d. informant

The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people. b. dubbing d. tapping

a. bugging c. mimicking

43. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it. a. interrogation c. interview 44. An objective of criminal invstigation. b. identify criminals d. prevent crimes b. rumor mongering d. inquiry

a. determine the motive c. rehabilitate criminals

45. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition temperature at the same time. a. intensity c. flash over b. ignition d. starter

46. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapours vary from one material to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.

a. intensity c. flash over 47.

b. ignition d. starter

The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light. b. convection d. conduction

a. ignition c. radiation 48.

The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts. b. convection d. conduction

a. ignition c. radiation 49. a. b. c. d.

The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to. interview witnesses view the site of the crime preserve the fire/crime scene phot opportunity in the fire/crime scene

50. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification. a. group fire setter c. fire starter b. arson for profit d. solitary fire setter

51. of fire.

It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine the origin and cause b. laboratory examination of evidence d. interrogation of suspects

a. evidence collection c. interview witnesses 52.

The primary course of action in case of a fire. b. run for your life d. raise the alarm

a. pack up and flee c. call an ambulance

53. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing. a. carbon oxide c. carbon paper b. carbon monoxide d. carbon dioxide

54. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to the fire is restricted. a. carbon oxide c. carbon paper b. carbon monoxide d. carbon dioxide

55. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails. a. fire resistance b. fire duration

c. fire proof

d. fire strength

56. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc. a. class A c. class C b. class B d. class D

57. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous materials. Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling. a. class A c. class C 58. a. gas c. oxygen 59. b. class B d. class D

The following are components of fire except one: b. fuel d. heat

It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of origin. b. alligatoring d. pour pattern

a. charring c. V pattern 60.

A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood. b. spalling d. charring

a. crazing c. light bulbs 61.

A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi. b. delaying tactic d. stopper

a. accelerants c. timing device

62. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene. a. accelerants c. timing device 63. vapors. b. trailers d. stopper

This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect flammable b. sniffer d. stopper

a. accelerant c. timing device

64. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and satisfaction from it. a. fire starter c. pyromania 65. syndrome b. pyrotechnic disease d. pyrophobia

It is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines. b. PD 1017

a. PD 1108

c. PD 1081 66.

d. PD 1185

Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives. b. blasting cap c. explosive primer

a. blasting agent c. gun powder 67.

These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one: b. corrosive d. inflammable

a. combustible c. flammable 68.

Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit. b. flammable liquid d. corrosive liquid

a. combustible liquid c. inflammable liquid 69.

Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter. b. flammable liquid d. corrosive liquid

a. combustible liquid c. inflammable liquid

70. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across the space between two conductors. a. electrical arc c. duct system 71. b. damper d. ember

The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion. b. arson d. fire

a. explosion c. combustion 72.

A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses. b. class B d. class D

a. class A c. class C

73. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures. a. conduction c. radiation 74. b. convection d. combustion

The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor. b. melting point d. boiling point

a. burning point c. freezing point 75.

The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid hazard. b. point of no escape d. final position

a. point of no return c. start of evasive action

76. a. traffic c. trip 77.

The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway. b. flight d. journey A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points. b. spot report d. accident investigation

a. traffic report c. triangulation 78. a. inertia c. energy 79. a. fatal c. non fatal 80.

The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth. b. friction d. gravity

Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons. b. chronic d. injurious

The Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines> b. RA 8551 d. RA 4136

a. RA 7160 c. RA 6425 81.

An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,

death or property damage. a. traffic incidents c. traffic hazards 82. a. b. c. b. traffic accidents d. traffic events

Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way. non motor vehicle traffic accident non motor vehicle non-traffic accident motor vehicle non-traffic accident

d. motor vehicle traffic accident 83. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him. b. traffic request d. traffic violation

a. traffic citation c. traffic warrant 84.

The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard. b. secondary contact d. initial contact

a. primary contact c. disengagement 85.

The following are the three Es of Traffic Management and Operation except one: b. Education

a. Engineering

c. Enforcement 86.

d. Evaluation

The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002. b. RA 9165 d. RA 6195

a. RA 9870 c. RA 1017

87. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego distortion. a. tranquillisers c. stimulants 88. b. hallucinogens d. depressants

Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions. b. narcotics d. hallucinogens

a. stimulants c. depressants 89.

The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit. b. prostitution d. sex business

a. gynaecology b. pornography 90.

The scientific name of marijuana. b. pappaver somniferum d. methamphetamine

a. cannabis sativa L c. deoxyribonucleic acid 91.

The original components of heroin and morphine. b. caffeine d. methamphethamine

a. codeine c. opium 92.

An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs. b. Bureau of Drugs d. Food and Drug Administration

a. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency c. Dangerous Drug Board

93. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body. a. c. 94. a. heroin c. morphine 95. vice addiction The most common form of stimulant. b. codeine d. shabu b. abuse d. virtue

It is scientifically known as methamphethamine hydrochloride. b. codeine d. shabu

a. heroin c. morphine

96.

A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever. b. heroin d. caffeine

a. codeine c. morphine 97.

Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the seeds. b. marijuana d. codeine

a. opium poppy c. caffeine 98.

Another term for drug addiction. b. drug net d. drug dependence

a. drug use c. drug pushing 99.

Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a physicians order. b. prohibited drugs d. prescription drugs

a. illegal drugs c. regulated drugs

100. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning of living organism. a. alcohol c. drug d. vice b. poison