ALL-Mech 45223106

Automobile Engineering 1. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is A. B. C. D.
overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period an excessively high engine speed on a downhill road Answer: Option A
7. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to A. B. C. D. supply electric power convert mechanical energy into electrical energy continually recharge the battery partly convert engine power into electric power
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 8. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is 2. The portion of a crankshaft which rests on cylinder block is called main journal. A. Yes B. No A. B. C. D. 3. A baffle plate is fitted inside the oil pan to prevent the oil from splashing when it is subjected to vibration and other movement during vehicle operation. A. True B. False equal to the maximum engine torque 80 per cent of the maximum engine torque 150 per cent of the maximum engine torque none of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
9. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and connecting rod bearings ? A. B. C. D. Ballbearings Plain bearings Needle roller bearing Taper roller bearing
Answer: Option A
4. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through A. B. C. D. pistons rocker arms camshaft pulley valve stems
Answer: Option B
10. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they A. B. C. D. reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs between the cam and the tappet allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of combustion increase the speed at which the valves move up and down make the crankshaft turn smoothly
Answer: Option B
5. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of brake disc run out ? A. B. C. D. Ineffectiveness of the brakes Judder during braking Localized wearing of the brake pads Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
11. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes A. tendency to assume toe-out orientation generation of a braking effect at tight corners poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turn the vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
6. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil A. B. C. D. appears milky becomes foamy turns black none of these
B. C. D.
Answer: Option C
12. In a unit type body (frameless body) design, the sheet metal parts are welded together, forming a frame work to which outer skin is attached. A. True B. False
18. The flywheel and the pressure plate bind the clutch disc between them so that the engine and the transmission can be engaged. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 13. The torque available at the contact between driving wheels and road is known as A. B. C. D. brake effort tractive effort clutch effort none of these 19. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if A. B. C. D. Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 14. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the A. B. C. D. vibrations on the steering wheel engine power during acceleration torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface stopping distance in case of emergency unsprung mass is kept minimum sprang mass is kept minimum vehicle mass is kept minimum all of these
20. The main function of intake manifold is that it A. B. C. D. promotes the mixture of air and fuel reduces intake noise cools the intake air to a suitable temperature distributes intake air equally to the cylinders
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
15. In radial tyres A. B. C. D. one ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs diagonally the other way all plies run parallel to one another and vertical to tyre bead inner tubes are always used none of these
21. Positive camber is used to compensate for wheels tilting inward due to the weight of the vehicle. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A
22. In automobiles G.V.W. refers to A. B. C. gross vehicle width gross vehicle weight gross vehicle wheel base gross vehicle wheel track
Answer: Option B
16. The oil pump is driven by the A. B. C. D. camshaft alternator shaft crankshaft via drive belt crankshaft directly
D.
Answer: Option B
23. The firing order for an in-line four cylinder I.C. engine is A. C. 1-2-3-4 1-2-4-3 B. D. 1-3-4-2 1-3-2-4
Answer: Option D
17. In a spark plug, when the temperature of the central electrode exceeds a certain temperature, any carbon that has adhered will be burnt off, and the temperature at which this burning off carbon starts is referred to as the self cleaning temperature. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
24. In a ventilated disc brake, A. B. a duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving caliper is covered with cooling fins
Answer: Option A
C. D.
disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling performance
Answer: Option C
31. The information provided by the oxygen (O2) sensor to the feedback control system is about the A. B. air-fuel ratio air temperature air flow speed exhaust gas volume
Answer: Option D
25. The effect of having excess camber is A. B. C. D. excessive steering alignment torque hard steering too much traction uneven tyre wear
C. D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
32. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions corresponding to the opening and closing of the valves, is known as A. indicator diagram axial force diagram valve timing diagram none of these
26. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about A. C. 17:1 13:1 B. D. 15:1 10:1
B. C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
27. The advantage of double-wishbone suspension design is that a large amount of freedom is available for setting geometry and precise settings can be made for driving comfort and steerability, A. Correct B. Incorrect
33. The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is A. B. DOT 4 fluid has a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid DOT 4 fluid has a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4 fluid has a longer service life DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer: Option A C. 28. The co-efficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing 63 500 N is 0.018. The rolling resistance to the truck is A. B. C. D. 1.143 N 11.43 N 114.3 N 1143 N D.
Answer: Option A
34. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery A. B. C. makes chemicals by mechanical means uses chemical action to provide electricity has curved plates instead of flat plates does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option D
29. If the level of tension in the belt is too high, it can result in a loss of power or in bending of the rotating shaft or crankshaft. A. Correct B. Incorrect
D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
35. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic braking system is known as A. C. trapping bleeding B. D. tapping cleaning
30. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at spark plug, the condition is called A. C. detonation pre-ignition B. D. ignition rumble
Answer: Option C
36. The aluminium alloy is used in cylinder blocks because A. B. C. D. it is lighter and have good heat dissipation characteristics material cost is low it does not require any cylinder liners the piston is also made of aluminium alloy
A. B. C. D.
seat belt brake airbag steering
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
42. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a pressure of A. B. C. D. 200 bar 220 bar 250 bar 300 bar
37. In a fuel injection system, the electronic control module (ECM) calculates the optimum fuel-injection volume for the engine condition based on the data received from the sensors, and injects this volume of fuel into the intake manifold at the optimum timing. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
38. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical, when viewed from the front of the car, is called A. C. camber toe-in B. D. caster toe-out
43. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of A. C. 25 70 B. D. 45 90
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
39. The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that A. the tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road surface, thereby preventing tyre from overheating the crests between the tread grooves absorb road noise in wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn between the tyre and road surface the tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass from small stones and pieces of glass
44. The air gap between the central electrode and ground (or side) electrode of a spark plug is around A. B. C. D. 0.2 mm 0.5 mm 1 mm 1.5 mm
B.
C.
Answer: Option C
D.
45. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of A. volatility viscosity ignition quality delay peirod
Answer: Option C
B. C. D.
40. The compression ratio in petrol engine is kept less than in Diesel engine because A. B. C. D. it makes petrol engines lighter higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol engines is not possible due to pre-ignition less compression ratio gives better performance it is just customary to have less compression ratio in petrol engines
Answer: Option D
46. The valve overlap in four stroke petrol engines is approximately A. C. 30 90 B. D. 60 120
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 41. The most commonly used supplementary restraint system (SRS) component is
47. The petrol engines are also known as
A. B. C. D.
spark ignition (S.I.) engines compression ignition (C.I.) engines steam engines none of these
Answer: Option D
3. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air-craft velocity is __________ the jet velocity. A. B. C. equal to one-half double
Answer: Option A
48. Which of the following indicates a multigrade oil ? A. B. C. D. SAE 30 API SF SAE 20 W-50 API 50 Answer: Option B
4. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about A. B. 10 to 40% 40 to 60% 60 to 70% 70 to 90%
Answer: Option C
C. D.
49. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately A. C. 0.1 0.8 B. D. 0.4 1.2
Answer: Option D
5. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is A. C. 200C 700C B. D. 500C 1000C
Answer: Option B
50. The component that connects the steering rack to the knuckles is A. B. C. D. tie-rod sector gear pivot spline
Answer: Option C
6. The rotary compressors are suitable for large discharge of air at low pressure. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A and Gas Turbines Compressors, Gas Dynamics
Answer: Option A
1. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar and 16 bar, then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be A. B. C. D. 1 bar 16 bar 64 bar 256 bar
7. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes place A. B. C. D. in the diffuser only in the impeller only in the diffuser and impeller in the inlet guide vanes only
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C 8. The total heat rejected in a reciprocating air compressor is equal to the sum of the heat rejected during polytropic compression per kg of air and heat rejected in the intercooler per kg of air. A. True B. False
2. The compressed air may be used A. B. C. D. in gas turbine plants for operating pneumatic drills in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines all of the above
Answer: Option A
9. In a jet propulsion A. the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body its functioning does not depend upon presence of air none of the above
compressor is A. B. C. D. 10 bar 20 bar 30 bar 50 bar
B.
C. D.
Answer: Option A
15. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in Answer: Option B A. C. 10. An open cycle gas turbine works on the same cycle as that of a closed cycle gas turbine. A. Yes B. No 16. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done Answer: Option A A. B. 11. Which of the following statement is wrong? A. In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling, maximum work is saved. The minimum work required for a two stage reciprocating air compressor is double the work required for each stage. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston is called volumetric efficiency. none of the above C. D. to cool the air during compression to cool the air at delivery to enable compression in two stages to minimise the work of compression kg/m2 m3/min B. D. kg/m3 m3/kg
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
B.
C.
17. For a two stage reciprocating compressor, compression from p1 to p3 is with perfect intercooling and no pressure losses. If compression in both the cylinders follows the same polytropic process and the atmospheric pressure is pa, then the intermediate pressure p2 is given by A. B. C. p2 = (p1 + p3)/2 p2 = p1.p3 P2 = Pa x p3/p1 p2 = pa p3/p1
D.
Answer: Option D
D.
12. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and delivery of air takes place in __________ of the piston. A. B. C. D. one stroke two strokes three strokes four strokes
Answer: Option B
18. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the compressor is known as A. B. C. D. compressor capacity compression ratio compressor efficiency mean effective pressure
Answer: Option B
13. The increase in pressure in a vane blower takes place first due to compression and then due to back flow of air. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option D
19. The clearance volume in the compressor is kept minimum because it effects on volumetric efficiency. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A 14. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air
20. The inlet pressure is always __________ the discharge pressure. A. B. C. equal to less than more than
A. B. C. D.
low speeds high speeds low altitudes high altitudes
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
21. Which of the following statement is correct? A. B. C. D. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called compressor efficiency. The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than unity. The compressor capacity is the ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume. During isothermal compression of air, the workdone in a compressor is maximum.
26. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade angle is a function of A. B. C. D. blade camber blade camber and incidence angle space-chord ratio blade camber and space-chord ratio
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
27. Rotary compressors are used for delivering A. small quantities of air at high pressures large quantities of air at high pressures small quantities of air at low pressures large quantities of air at low pressures
22. In the aircraft propellers A. B. C. D. the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body its functioning does not depend upon the presence of air none of the above
B. C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
28. Workdone by a two-stage reciprocating air compressor per cycle is equal to the workdone in LP. cylinder and H.P. cylinder. A. True B. False
23. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of A. B. C. D. centrifugal type axial flow type radial flow type none of these
Answer: Option A
29. A rotary compressor is driven by an A. B. C. D. electric motor engine either (a) or (b) none of these
Answer: Option B
24. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called A. B. C. D. free air delivery compressor capacity swept volume none of these
Answer: Option C
30. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given pressure ratio causes A. B. C. increase in flow decrease in flow increase in efficiency increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
Answer: Option B
D.
Answer: Option D 25. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at
31. A large clearance Volume in a reciprocating compressor results in A. B. C. D. reduced volume flow rate increased volume flow rate lower suction pressure lower delivery pressure
Answer: Option B
37. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is A. C. 4 9 B. D. 1 12
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 38. Intercooling in compressors results in saving of power in compressing given volume of air to a given pressure. A. Correct B. Incorrect
32. A closed cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine. A. C. same higher B. lower
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
39. Only rocket engines can be propelled to space because A. they can generate very high thrust they have high propulsion efficiency these engines can work on several fuels they are not air-breathing engines
33. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine A. B. C. D. requires less space for installation has compressor and combustion chamber has less efficiency all of these
B. C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
40. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is __________ as compared to I.C. engine. A. more B. less
34. Intercooling in gas turbines A. B. C. D. decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency decreases net output and thermal efficiency both increases net output and thermal efficiency both Answer: Option B
41. An aftercooler is used to A. B. C. D. remove impurities from air reduce volume of air cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out cool the air
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C 35. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression with intercooler, is __________ the original atmospheric air temperature, then the intercooling is known as perfect or complete intercooling. A. B. C. equal to less than more than
42. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines A. B. C. D. increases power output improves thermal efficiency reduces exhaust temperature do not damage turbine blades
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
36. The actual volume of air delivered by a compressor, When reduced to the normal temperature and pressure conditions is called compressor capacity. A. Yes B. No
43. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston, is known as A. B. compressor efficiency volumetric efficiency
C. D.
isothermal efficiency mechanical efficiency
49. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression work per kg of air A. B. C. increases as clearance volume increases decreases as clearance volume increases is independent of clearance volume increases as clearance volume decreases
Answer: Option B
44. If p1, is the pressure of air entering the L.P. cylinder and p2 is the pressure of air leaving the L.P. cylinder (or intercooler pressure), then the ratio of cylinder diameters for a single acting, two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling is given by (where D1 = Dia. of L.P. cylinder, and D2 = Dia. of H.P. cylinder) A. B. C. D. D1/D2 = p1p2 D1/D2 = p1/p2 D1/D2 = p2/p1 none of these
D.
Answer: Option C
50. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as the ratio of static enthalpy rise in the A. B. C. D. rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
Engineering Materials 1. Specify the sequence correctly 45. The ratio of the indicated power to the shaft power or brake power of the motor or engine required to drive the compressor, is called A. B. C. D. compressor efficiency volumetric efficiency isothermal efficiency mechanical efficiency Answer: Option C Answer: Option D No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum A. B. C. D. Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress relief Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallisation Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain growth Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallisation
46. The increase in pressure in a roots blower is entirely due to back flow of air. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A 2. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which 47. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of A. B. C. D. centrifugal type axial flow type radial flow type none of these C. D. A. B. are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard product do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes
Answer: Option B
48. An axial compressor gives optimum performance at high speeds and large volume flows. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
No description available for this question. Let us discuss.
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Answer: Option C
3. Which of the following material has maximum ductility? A. B. C. D. Mild steel Copper Nickel Aluminium
No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
7. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it Answer: Option A A. B. C. No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum Answer: Option C 4. An eutectoid steel consists of A. B. C. D. wholly pearlite wholly austenite pearlite and ferrite pearlite and cementite 8. Malleable cast iron is produced Answer: Option A A. B. C. No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum Answer: Option C 5. Shock resisting steels should have A. B. C. D. low wear resistance low hardness low tensile strength toughness 9. Smelting is the process of Answer: Option D 6. Cast iron is a A. B. C. D. ductile material malleable material brittle material tough material C. D. A. removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by washing with water expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow kilns reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux all of the above No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum D. by adding magnesium to molten cast iron by quick cooling of molten cast iron from white cast iron by annealing process none of these No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum D. can be drawn into wires breaks with little permanent distortion can cut another metal can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
B.
Answer: Option C
B. C.
atoms distributed in random pattern different crystal structures at different temperatures any one of the above
D.
Answer: Option C
10. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from A. B. C. D. 0.1 to 0.5 0.5 to 1 1 to 1.7 1.7 to 4.5 14. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in Answer: Option D 11. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is called A. B. C. D. resilience creep fatigue strength toughness Answer: Option A Answer: Option A A. B. C. D. zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum none of the above View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum No description available for this question. Let us discuss.
12. Brass is an alloy of A. B. C. D. copper and zinc copper and tin copper, tin and zinc none of these
15. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by A. B. C. D. hardening and cold working normalising martempering full annealing
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 16. The quenching of steel from the upper critical point results in a fine grained structure. A. Agree B. Disagree
No description available for this question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option A View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
13. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has A. fixed structure at all temperatures
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A.
Yes
B.
No
17. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel excavators and other earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and A. C. chromium manganese B. D. silicon magnesium
Answer: Option A 21. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate A. B. C. D. core defects surface defects superficial defects temporary defects
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum 18. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery? A. B. C. D. Silicon bronze Aluminium bronze Gun metal Babbit metal Answer: Option B Answer: Option B No description available for this question. Let us discuss. No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum 23. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to 19. When the steel is normalised, its A. B. C. D. yield point increases ductility decreases ultimate tensile strength increases all of these Answer: Option A Answer: Option D A. B. C. D. increase hardenability reduce machinability increase wear resistance increase endurance strength View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum 22. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the A. C. stack bosh B. D. throat tuyers
20. White cast iron has a high tensile strength and a low compressive strength.
24. Which of the following process of steel making is in operation at Tata Iron and Steel Works, Jamshedpur?
A. B. C. D.
Bessemer process Open hearth process Duplex process Electric process View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum No description available for this question. Let us discuss.
Answer: Option C
28. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and coercive magnetic force in steel for magnets is A. chromium vanadium B. D. nickel cobalt
C.
Answer: Option D
25. The unit cells A. contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals of the particular metal have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel may be defined as the smallest parallelopiped which could be transposed in three coordinate directions to build up the space lattice all of the above No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
B.
C. D.
29. Cast iron is manufactured in A. B. C. blast furnace cupola open hearth furnace bessemer converter
Answer: Option D 26. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical temperature. A. B. C. does not effect lowers raises
D.
Answer: Option B
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30. The lower critical point for all steels is A. C. 600C 723C B. D. 700C 913C
27. Silicon when added to copper improves A. B. C. D. machinability hardness hardness and strength strength and ductility
Answer: Option C 31. Haematite iron ore contains iron about A. C. 30% 55% B. D. 45% 70%
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C No description available for this question. Let us
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carbon are known as A. B. C. eutectic cast irons hypo-eutectic cast irons hyper-eutectic cast irons none of these
32. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called A. B. C. D. amorphous material mesomorphous material crystalline material none of these
D.
Answer: Option B 36. The coke in the charge of blast furnace A. B. C. D. controls the grade of pig iron acts as an iron-bearing mineral supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron forms a slag by combining with impurities
Answer: Option B
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33. The steel produced by bessemer or open hearth process is __________ to that produced by L-D process. A. superior B. inferior
Answer: Option B
37. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of Inconel. A. same more B. less
C.
Answer: Option A
34. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by A. B. C. D. naked eye optical microscope metallurgical microscope X-ray techniques
38. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is Answer: Option D A. C. No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum No description available for this 35. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carburising annealing B. D. normalising tempering
Answer: Option D
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum 43. In full annealing, the hypo-eutectoid steel is heated from 30 C to 50 C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled A. 39. The dieing down of a white flame during the operation of a bessemer converter indicates that the air is burning out silicon and manganese. A. Yes B. No B. C. D. in still air slowly in the furnace suddenly in a suitable cooling medium any one of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
40. The electric process of steel making is especially adopted to A. B. C. D. alloy and carbon tool steel magnet steel high speed tool steel all of these
44. Ferrite and pearlite makes the steel soft and ductile. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
45. The lower critical temperature A. decreases as the carbon content in steel increases increases as the carbon content in steel increases is same for all steels depends upon the rate of heating
41.
Answer: Option D Iron ore is, usually, found in the form of A. B. C. D. oxides carbonates sulphides all of these
B. C. D.
Answer: Option C 46. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding __________ to the molten cast iron. A. C. nickel copper B. D. chromium magnesium
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
No description available for this question. Let us discuss. 42. The hardness of steel increases if it contains A. C. pearlite cementite B. D. ferrite martensite 47. Free carbon in iron makes the metal Answer: Option C A. B. No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum C. D. soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum
A. Answer: Option A
True
B.
False
Answer Answer: Option B
2. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as A. B. C. rolling friction dynamic friction limiting friction static friction
48. The cupola is used to manufacture A. B. C. D. pig iron cast iron wrought iron steel
D.
Answer: Option B
3. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after imp A. v v/4 B. D. v/2 v/8
Answer: Option B
C.
Answer: Option B
4. The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or tend destroy motion. A. Agree B. Disagree
49. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is A. B. C. D. face centred cubic space lattice body centred cubic space lattice close packed hexagonal space lattice none of these Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 5. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one. A. Correct B. Incorrect Answer: Option A
6. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle to t pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is No description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Workspace Report Discuss in Forum A. B. C. D. 50. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little permanent distortion, is called A. C. brittleness malleability B. D. ductility plasticity Answer: Option A sin cos tan cosec
7. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range on upward inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection. A. B. less than more than
Answer: Option A
Engineering Mechanics
C. of equal to of masses in any 1. According to principle of conservation of energy, the total momentum a system direction remains constant unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
8. The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along a circular path __________ upon its mass. A. B. depends does not depend
14. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is(where u = Velocity of projection, = Angle of projection, and = Inclination of the plane with the horizontal.) A.
Answer B. Answer: Option B C.
9. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the horizontal is . The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by(where = tan = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.) A. B. C. D. P = W tan
D. Answer
P = W tan( + ) P = W (sin + cos) P = W (cos + sin) Answer: Option B
15. The unit of angular acceleration is A. N-m m/s2 B. D. m/s rad/s2
Answer: Option C
C.
10. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the angle between the two forces is A. C. 30 90 B. D. 60 120
Answer: Option D
16. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is A. bh3/4 bh3/12 B. D. bh3/8 bh3/36
Answer: Option D
C.
Answer 11. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in __________ equilibrium. A. C. stable neutral B. unstable 17. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50 percent, then tension in the string will be Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
12. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction between the two bodies. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A A. 13. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is A. C. d3/16 d4/32 B. D. d3/32 d4/64 C. same double B. half
22. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased, then acceleration of the system will 18. Which of the following is an equation of linear motion?(where, u and v = Initial and final velocity of the body, a = Acceleration of the body, and s = Displacement of the body in time t seconds.) A. B. C. D. v = u + a.t s = u.t + 1/2 a.t2 v2 = u2+2a.s all of these A. B. C. increase decrease remain the same
Answer Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
19. If a number of forces are acting at a point, theirresultant will be inclined at an angle with the horizontal, such that A. B. C. D. tan = H/V tan = V/H tan = VxH
23. The total time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height and to return back to the ground, is known as time of flight. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A
24. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is A.
Answer: Option B
20.
B.
C. The above figure shows the two equal forces at right angles acting at a point. The value of force R acting along their bisector and in opposite direction is A. B. C. D. P/2 2P Answer: Option D
D.
25. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of projection is A. 30 60 B. D. 45 90
Answer: Option C
C.
21. The force required to move the body up the plane will be minimum if it makes an angle with the inclined plane __________ the angle of friction. A. B. C. equal to less than greater than
Answer: Option B
26. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio of A. B. distance moved by effort to the distance moved by load load lifted to the effort applied
Answer: Option A
C. D.
output to the input all of the above
Answer: Option C
32. The centre of gravity of an equilateral triangle with each side a, is __________ from any of the three sides. A. B. C. D. 3a/2 23a a/23 32a
Answer: Option B
27. Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction. A. B. C. equal to less than greater than
Answer Answer: Option C
28. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the angle of inclination of the plane is __________ the angle of friction. A. B. C. equal to less than greater than
33. The distance, between the point of projection and the point where the projectile strikes the ground, is known as range. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
34. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is known as A. B. C. D. principle of independence of forces principle of resolution of forces principle of transmissibility of forces none of these
29. When a particle moves along a circular path with uniform velocity, there will be no tangential acceleration. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B 30. The bodies which rebound after impact are called A. B. C. D. inelastic bodies elastic bodies neither elastic nor inelastic bodies none of these
35. The triangle law of forces states that if two forces acting simultaneously on a particle, be represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides of a triangle taken in order, then their resultant may be represented in magnitude and direction by the third side of a triangle, taken in opposite order. A. True B. False
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 31. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body, is known as A. B. C. D. static friction dynamic friction limiting friction coefficient of friction
36.
The angle between two forces when the resultant is maximum and minimum respectively are A. B. C. D. 0 and 180 180 and 0 90 and 180 90 and 0
Answer: Option A
A.
True
B.
False
37. The path of the projectile is a parabola. A. True B. False Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
42. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is known as A. simple pendulum compound pendulum torsional pendulum second's pendulum
38. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which gives the same frequency as compound pendulum is A.
B. C. D.
B. Answer: Option B
C.
43. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about X-axis, is
D.
Answer: Option B
39. A redundant frame is also called __________ frame. A. B. C. perfect imperfect deficient B. A.
40. Mass moment of inertia of a uni form thin rod of mass M and length (l) about its mid-point and perpendicular to its length is A.
C.
D.
B.
Answer: Option D
C.
D.
44. If two blocks of equal mass are attached to the two ends of a light string and one of the blocks is placed over a smooth horizontal plane while the other is hung freely after passing over a smooth pulley, then the two blocks will have some motion. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
41. A resultant force is a single force which produces the same effect as produced by all the given forces acting on a body.
45. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after impact is __________ the relative velocity of the two bodies before impact.
A. B. C. D.
equal to equal and opposite to less than greater than
A. B. C.
equal to less than greater than
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B Heat Transfer, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 46. Work done is said to be zero, when A. B. C. D. some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero no force acts on a body but some displacement takes place either (a) or (b) none of the above Answer: Option B 1. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air A. B. C. remains constant increases decreases
Answer: Option C
2. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T1 = working substance receives heat, T2 = Temperature of cooling wate temperature) A.
47. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and directed away from the centre of the circle is called centrifugal force. A. Agree B. Disagree
B.
Answer: Option A
C.
48. One watt is equal to A. B. C. D. 0.1 joule/s 1 joule/s 10 joules/s 100 joules/s 3. Which of the following statement is wrong? A. Answer: Option B B. C. D. Answer: Option B D.
The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to
The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon th
49. two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart and their resultant is 20 N. It the line of action of the resultant is 6 mm from any given force, the two forces are A. B. C. D. 15 N and 5 N 20 N and 5 N 15 N and 15 N none of these
The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in
Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the a difference.
Answer: Option C
4. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to turbulent value of the A. B. Reynold's number Grashoff's number Reynold's number, Grashoff's number Prandtl number, Grashoff's number
Answer: Option A
C. D.
50. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal kinetic energies, the momentum of body having mass m1 is __________ the momentum of body having mass m2.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 5. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is __________ heat absorbed. A. B. C. equal to less than greater than 11. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures, (where pb = Barometric pressure, pa = Partial pressure of dry air, and pv = Partial pressure of water vapour) A. B. C. Pb = pa - pv Pb = pa + pv Pb = pa x pv
Answer: Option C
6. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in= p /p D. Pb a v 3 A. 1 m of wet air B. C. D. 1 m3 of dry air 1 kg of wet air 1 kg of dry air Answer: Option B
12. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by A.
Answer: Option D
7. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator A. B. C. D. increases heat transfer improves C.O.P. of the system increases power consumption reduces power consumption
B.
C.
D. Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
8. The by-pass factor for a cooling coil A. B. C. increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it may increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending upon the condition of air entering
13. The relative humidity is defined as A. B. the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure. the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
D.
C.
Answer: Option A D.
9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called A. B. C. D. dry bulb depression wet bulb depression dew point depression degree of saturation
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
14. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount of heat flow through the body in unit time, A = Surface area of heat flow, taken at right angles to the direction of heat flow, dT = Temperature difference on the two faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body, through which the heat flows, taken along the direction of heat flow, and k = Thermal conductivity of the body) A.
10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the compressor for a short period. A. Correct B. Incorrect
B.
C.
C.
D.
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
20. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is A. B. C. D. higher in winter than in summer lower in winter than in summer same in winter and summer not dependent on season
15. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is same as through a thick cylinder. A. True B. False
Answer: Option B
16. In aqua-ammonia and Lithium-bromide water absorption refrigeration systems, the refrigerants are respectively A. B. C. D. water and water water and lithium bromide ammonia and lithium bromide ammonia and water
Answer: Option B
21. The wet bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart, are curved lines. A. True B. False
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
17. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be __________ wet bulb temperature. A. B. C. same as lower than higher man
22. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given by (where h1 = Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h2 = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process) A.
B.
Answer: Option B
C.
18. The process of heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening medium, is called radiation. A. True B. False
D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
19. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film coefficient, l = Linear dimension, V= Velocity of fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t = Temperature, = Density of fluid, cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, and = Coefficient of absolute viscosity) A.
23. Thermal diffusivity is a A. B. C. function of temperature physical property of a substance dimensionless parameter all of these
B.
D.
Answer: Option B
24. The condition of refrigerant after leaving the compressor and before entering the condenser is superheated vapour. A. Yes B. No
30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be A. C. 0.3 0.67 B. D. 0.6 1.5
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B 25. The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is __________ fourth power of the absolute temperature. This statement is known as StefanBoltzmann law. A. B. C. equal to directly proportional to inversely proportional to
28. The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the A. B. C. D. nature of the body temperature of the body type of surface of the body all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
26. Which of the following represents a heat pump?
29. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of A. C. copper steel B. D. aluminium brass
A.
Answer: Option C
30. The highest thermal diffusivity is of A. C. iron concrete B. D. lead wood
Answer: Option B B. 31. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime consideration is that the A. B. C. C. D. system has high C.O.P. power per TR is low mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
Answer: Option D
32. The heat transfer takes place according to A. B. D. C. D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics First law of thermodynamics Second law of thermodynamics Kirchhoff's law
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
33. An electrolux refrigerator is called a __________ absorption system. A. single fluid
27. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is
B.
two fluids
A. B.
the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air the mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure. the ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Answer: Option C
34. The heat transfer by radiation __________ a medium. A. B. requires does not require C.
Answer: Option B
D.
35. Thermal conductivity of water __________ with rise in temperature. A. B. C. D. remains same decreases increases may increase or decrease depending upon temperature
Answer: Option C
40. The coefficient of performance is always __________ one. A. B. C. equal to less than greater than
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C 36. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant. A. B. C. D. relative humidity dew point temperature dry bulb temperature wet bulb temperature 41. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a A. B. C. D. compressor condenser evaporator expansion valve
Answer: Option D
37. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal if Prandtl number is A. B. C. D. equal to one greater than one less than one equal to Nusselt number
Answer: Option B
42. A refrigeration system A. B. C. removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body rejects energy to a low temperature body none of the above
Answer: Option A
D.
38. A perfect black body is one which A. B. C. D. is black in colour absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it reflects all the heat radiations transmits the heat radiations
Answer: Option A
43. The subcooling in a refrigeration cycle A. B. C. D. does not alter C.O.P. increases C.O.P. decreases C.O.P. none of these
Answer: Option B
39. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
Answer: Option B
44. Nusselt number (NN) is given by A.
B. C. D.
50 to 70 C 70 to 110 C none of these
B. Answer: Option C C.
Hydraulic Machines 1. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to __________ of its impeller.
D.
A. B.
diameter square of diameter cube of diameter fourth power of diameter
Answer: Option A
C. D.
45. During sensible cooling of air __________ decreases. A. B. C. D. wet bulb temperature relative humidity dry bulb temperature specific humidity
Answer: Option D
2. The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is A. B. C. D. ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel ratio of the Work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet none of the above
Answer: Option C
46. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance to heat flow is A. B. C. D. maximum minimum zero none of these
Answer: Option B
3. The overshot water wheels are those in which the wheel runs entirely by the __________ of water. A. weight B. impulse
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A 47. In case of solids, the heat transfer takes place according to radiation. A. Correct B. Incorrect
4. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between A. 2 to 4 4 to 8 8 to l6 16 to 24
Answer: Option B
B. C. D.
48. A water cooled condenser operates at a __________ condensing temperature than an air-cooled condenser. A. higher B. lower
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
49. The relative humidity decreases as air gets wet. A. True B. False
5. If Hg is the gross or total head and hf is the head lost due to friction, then net or effective head (H) is given by A. B. C. H = Hg/hf H = Hg x hf H = Hg + hf H = Hg - hf
Answer: Option A
50. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression system is A. 20 to 50 C
D.
Answer: Option D
B. C.
inversely proportional to H1/2 directly proportional to H3/2 inversely proportional to H3/2
6. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is A. B. C. D. directly proportional to diameter of its impeller inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller directly proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
12. A ship with jet propulsion draws water through inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of its motion. The propelling force of the jet is (where a = Area of the jet, Vr= Relative velocity of the jet and ship = V + v, v = Velocity of the ship, and V = Velocity of the jet issuing from the ship) A.
7. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 metres while running at 200 r.p.m. and discharging 2500 litres of water per second. The unit power of the wheel is A. B. C. D. 0.25 kW 0.75 kW 1.75 kW 3.75 kW
B.
C.
Answer: Option C
D.
8. The static head of a centrifugal pump is equal to the __________ of suction head and delivery head. A. C. product sum B. difference
Answer: Option B
13. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is (where N = Speed of the pump impeller) A. B. directly proportional to N inversely proportional to N directly proportional to N2 inversely proportional to N2
Answer: Option C
9. The ratio of actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel is known as __________ efficiency. A. C. hydraulic overall B. mechanical
C. D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
14. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used A. B. to run the turbine full to prevent air to enter the turbine to increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of the runner outlet above the tail race to transport water to downstream
10. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them A. B. C. D. have identical velocities are equal in size and shape are identical in shape, but differ only in size have identical forces
C.
D.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C 11. The speed of a turbine runner is A. directly proportional to H1/2
15. The power produced by the reaction turbine is __________ to the head of water.
A. B.
directly proportional inversely proportional
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
21. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood control and irrigation applications? A. Centrifugal pump Axial flow pump Mixed flow pump Reciprocating pump
16. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the A. B. C. D. ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge sum of actual discharge and the theoretical discharge difference of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge product of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
B. C. D.
Answer: Option B
22. The efficiency of a Pelton wheel working under constant head __________ with the increase in power. A. B. C. remains same increases decreases
Answer: Option C
17. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump will be maximum when the blades are bent backward. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
23. The discharge of a centrifugal pump working under constant head __________ with the speed. A. increases B. decreases
18. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to A. B. C. D. give high discharge produce high heads pump viscous fluids all of these 24. The unit discharge through the turbine is A. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
B.
19. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering 750 litres of water per second against a head of 15 metres at 725 r.p.m., is A. B. C. D. 24.8 r.p.m. 48.2 r.p.m 82.4 r.p.m. 248 r.p.m
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
25. Delivery head of water of a centrifugal pump is inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller. A. Yes B. No
20. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a reciprocating pump is (where w = Specific weight of liquid to be pumped in N/m3, Q = Discharge of the pump in m3/s, Hs= Suction head in metres, and Hd = Delivery head in metres) A. B. C. D. wQHs wQHd wQ(Hs - Hd) wQ(Hs + Hd)
Answer: Option B
26. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is (where L = Length of stroke, A= Cross-sectional area of piston, and N = Speed of crank in r.p.m.) A. B. L.A.N 2 L.A.N
pipe close to the cylinder of the pump. C. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A D. 33. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is given by (where D = Diameter of impeller at inlet, b = Width of impeller at inlet, and Vf = Velocity of flow at inlet) A. B. C. D. Q = .D.Vf Q = .b.Vf Q = .D.b.Vf Q = D.b.Vf
Answer: Option D
27. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water? A. B. C. D. Pelton wheel Kaplan turbine Francis turbine none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 34. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller is equal to the A. B. C. D. 29. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of A. B. C. D. power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine none of the above kinetic head velocity head manometric head static head
28. The speed ratio of a Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the theoretical jet velocity to the peripheral speed at inlet. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
35. When the speed of the pump increases, its net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement decreases. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
36. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is A. 0 to 25 m 25 m to 250 m above 250 m none of these
30. Work done by a turbine __________ upon the weight of water flowing per second. A. B. depends does not depend
B. C. D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
31. The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet interference are A. C. two six B. D. four eight
37. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump indicates that the pump is A. B. C. slow speed with radial flow at outlet medium speed with radial flow at outlet high speed with radial flow at outlet high speed with axial flow at outlet
Answer: Option C
D.
32. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are fitted to the suction pipe and delivery
Answer: Option D
38. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of A. B. C. D. power absorbing machines power developing machines energy transfer machines energy generating machines C. D. Answer: Option C B.
friction + Velocity head in the delivery pipe Workdone per kN of water - Losses within the impeller Energy per kN at outlet of impeller Energy per kN at inlet of impeller all of the above
Answer: Option D 39. The principle of jet propulsion is used in driving the ships and aeroplanes. A. Correct B. Incorrect
45. The force exerted by a jet of water (in a direction normal to flow) impinging on a fixed plate inclined at an angle with the jet is A.
Answer: Option A
40. In the casing of a centrifugal pump, the kinetic energy of the water is converted into pressure energy before the water leaves the casing. A. True B. False
B.
Answer: Option A
C.
41. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine, which will develop a unit power under a unit head, is known as A. B. C. D. normal speed unit speed specific speed none of these
D.
Answer: Option C
46. In an impulse turbine, the jet of water impinges on the bucket with a low velocity and after flowing over the vanes, leaves with a high velocity. A. True B. False
Answer: Option C
42. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane exit angle is A. B. C. D. 10 to 15 15 to 20 20 to 25 25 to 30
Answer: Option B
47. The capacity of a hydraulic accumulator is generally specified as the maximum amount of energy stored. A. True B. False
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
43. In a reaction turbine, the pressure head of water, while flowing over the vanes, is converted into kinetic head before leaving the wheel. A. Agree B. Disagree
48. The maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of motion of ship, is A. C. 40% 60% B. D. 50% 80%
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 44. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump, is equal to A. Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe due to friction + Delivery lift + Loss of head in delivery pipe due to
49. The breast water wheels are those in which the wheel runs partly by the weight of water and partly by the impulse of water.
A.
True
B.
False
D.
takes place in one direction
Answer Answer: Option A Answer: Option B 50. The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the pump to the quantity of liquid passing per second through the impeller is known as A. B. C. D. manometric efficiency mechanical efficiency overall efficiency volumetric efficiency C. D.
5.
The kinematic viscosity is the A. B. ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
Answer: Option D
Answer Answer: Option A
Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics 1. One litre of water occupies a volume of A. B. C. D. 100 cm3 250 cm3 500 cm3 1000 cm3
6. The diameter of the nozzle (d) for maximum transmission of power is given by (whereD = Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy 's coefficient of friction for pipe, and l = Length of pipe ) A.
Answer Answer: Option D
B.
2. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine A. B. C. D. Reynold's number Froude's number Mach number Euler's number
C.
D.
Answer Answer: Option C Answer: Option C 7. The discharge over a right angled notch is (where H = Height of liquid above the apex of notch) A.
3. In a depressed nappe A. B. C. D. the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric the pressure below the nappe is negative the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric the pressure above the nappe is negative
Cd 2g x H
B.
Cd 2g x H3/2
Answer Answer: Option B C. Cd 2g x H2
4. In one dimensional flow, the flow A. B. C. is steady and uniform takes place in straight line takes place in curve
D.
Cd 2g x H5/2
Answer: Option D
theoretical velocity 8. A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________ half the height of water above the weir crest. A. B. C. equal to. less than more than B. C. D. loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
Answer: Option C 13. In a free nappe, 9. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of liquid) A. C. wH wH2/2 B. D. wH/2 wH2/3 Answer: Option A Answer: Option C 14. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length. A. B. directly proportional inversely proportional A. B. C. D. the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric the pressure below the nappe is negative the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric the pressure above the nappe is negative
10. An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an error of __________ in discharge over a triangular notch. A. C. 1% 2% B. D. 1.5% 2.5%
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
15. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube due to viscosity of water. A. True B. False
11.
The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden enlargement is A.
Answer: Option B
16. According to equation of continuity, A. B. B. C. D. C. w1a1 = w2a2 w1v1 = w2v2 a1v1 = a2v2 a1/v1 = a2/v2
D. Answer Answer: Option C
17. Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of A. B. C. actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
12. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of A. actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the
D.
actual discharge through an orifice to the dieoretical discharge
B.
Cd x b2g x H
Answer: Option C
C.
Cd x b2g x H3/2
18. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by A.
D. Answer
Cd x b2g x H2
Answer: Option C B.
22. The discharge through a siphon spillway is A. Cd x a2gH Cd x a2g x H3/2 Cd x a2g x H2 Cd x a2g x H5/2 .dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0 .dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0
C. D.
B. C. D.
19. In order to measure the flow with a venturimeter, it is installed in A. B. C. D. horizontal line inclined line with flow upwards inclined line with flow downwards any direction and in any location
23. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is A. B. C. D. 0.384 Cd x L x H1/2 0.384 Cd x L x H3/2 1.71 Cd x L x H1/2 1.71 Cd x L x H3/2
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D 20. The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of the liquid above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of the liquid above the bottom of the orifice, b = Breadth of the orifice, and Cd = Coefficient of discharge) A.
24. In a venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is __________ than at inlet. A. higher B. lower
Q=
Cd x b2g(H2 - H1) Answer: Option A
B.
Q=
Cd x b2g(H21/2 - H11/2)
C.
Q=
Cd x b2g(H23/2 - H13/2)
25. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is taking place, is (where RN = Reynold number) A. C. 1/RN 16/RN B. D. 4/RN 64/RN
D.
Q=
Cd x b2g(H22 - H12)
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
21. The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b = Width of notch, and H = Height of liquid, above the sill of the notch) A.
26. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow? A. B. C. D. Under ground flow Flow past tiny bodies Flow of oil in measuring instruments all of these
Cd x b2gH
A. Answer: Option D B. C. 27. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as A. B. C. D. suction pressure vacuum pressure negative gauge pressure all of these D.
tension at the base overturning of the wall or dam sliding of the wall or dam all of these
33. An ideal fluid is frictionless and incompressible. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A 28. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to the A. B. C. D. pressure head velocity head pressure head + velocity head pressure head - velocity head 34. A manometer is used to measure A. B. C. D. Answer: Option B Answer: Option C 29. A structure whose width is __________ the width of the channel, is called a flumed structure. A. B. less than more than low pressure moderate pressure high pressure atomospheric pressure
Answer
35. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called A. B. centre of pressure centre of buoyancy metacentre none of these
Answer: Option A
C. D.
30. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is A. C. 50% 66.67% B. D. 56.7% 76.66%
36.
The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is A. C. 0.375 0.707 B. D. 0.5 0.855
Answer: Option C
31. The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by A. B. C. D. capillary tube method orifice type viscometer rotating cylinder method all of these
37. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be A.
32. The stability of a dam is checked for
B.
A. C. B. C. D. Answer Answer: Option A D.
N/mm2 N/m2 head of liquid all of these
Answer: Option C
38. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different levels intervened by a high ridge. A. True B. False
44. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and Q = Discharge in m3/s) A. B. wxQxH w x Q x hf w x Q (H - hf) w x Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option A
C. D.
39. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not change during the flow is called __________ flow. A. incompressible B. compressible
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
45. In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to 0.89 times the height of the liquid, above the vena contracta. A. B. less than more than
40. The loss of head due to an obstruction in a pipe is twice the loss of head at its entrance. A. Agree B. Disagree Answer
Answer: Option A 46. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called A. B. C. D. specific weight mass density specific gravity none of these
41. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid displaced. A. B. C. equal to less than more than
42. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in A. B. C. D. neutral equilibrium stable equilibrium unstable equilibrium none of these
47. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
48. The metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively. Select the correct statement. A. B. C. The bodies A and B have equal stability The body A is more stable than body B The body B is more stable than body A
Answer: Option B
43. The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer tube is in
D.
The bodies A and B are unstable
D.
end of exhaust stroke
Answer Answer: Option A Answer: Option C 4. In hit and miss governing, the fuel supply is cut-off completely during one or more number of cycles. A. Yes B. No
49. In open channels, the specific energy is the A. B. total energy per unit discharge total energy measured with respect to the datum passing through the bottom of the channel total energy measured above the horizontal datum kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of water
Answer: Option A
C. D.
5. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be A. C. 25% 70% B. D. 50% 100%
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
50. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that A. B. C. D. there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing the velocity of flow is uniform across any crosssection of the pipe no force except gravity acts on the fluid all of the above
6. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called A. B. C. D. mechanical efficiency overall efficiency volumetric efficiency relative efficiency
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
7. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine A. B. C. D. opens at 50 before bottom dead centre and closes at 15 after top dead centre opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre opens at 50 after bottom dead centre and closes at 15 before top dead centre may open and close anywhere
IC Engines and Nuclear Power Plants 1. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include A. B. C. D. iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene normal octane and aniline iso-octane and normal hexane normal heptane and iso-octane
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 8. Nuclear reactors are used 2. The diesel engines are also known as __________ engines. A. B. compression ignition C. spark ignition D. Answer: Option A Answer: Option D 3. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the A. B. C. beginning of suction stroke end of suction stroke beginning of exhaust stroke all of these to propel ships, submarines, aircrafts A. B. to produce heat for thermoelectric power to produce fissionable material
9. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is A. B. C. graphite heavy water concrete
D.
graphite and concrete
A. B. C.
to reduce mass ofthe engine per brake power to reduce space occupied by the engine to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required all ofthe above
Answer: Option D
10. The predominent isotope of the naturally occuring element is A. C. U235 Pu233 B. D. U238 Pu239
D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
16. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines, the shape and layout of the piston crown, the inlet port and the valve produce the turbulent effect of fuel mixture. A. True B. False
11. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by A. B. C. D. decreasing the density of intake air increasing the temperature of intake air increasing the pressure of intake air decreasing the pressure of intake air
Answer: Option A
17. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at A. B. 30 before top dead centre 30 after top dead centre 30 before bottom dead centre 30 after bottom dead centre
Answer: Option C
C. D.
12. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of very fine spray, into the engine cylinder, which gets ignited due to high temperature of the compressed air. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
18. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to A. slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons control the reaction reduce the temperature extract heat from nuclear reaction
13. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontantaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the compression stroke, and is due to A. B. C. D. cylinder walls being too hot overheated spark plug points red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls any one of these
B. C. D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
19. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly enriched fuel, the moderator used is A. heavy water graphite carbon dioxide no moderator is needed
14. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine A. B. C. D. starts at 15 before top dead centre and ends at 30 after top dead centre starts at top dead centre and ends at 30 after top dead centre starts at 15 after top dead centre and ends at 30 before bottom dead centre may start and end anywhere
B. C. D.
Answer: Option D
20. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as A. B. pre-ignition period delay period period of ignition
Answer: Option C
15. The object of supercharging the engine is
C.
D.
burning period
B. C. D.
the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
Answer: Option B
21. The detonating tendency in petrol engines increases with increase of compression ratio. A. True B. False
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A 28. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is 22. Each fission of U235 produces on the average __________ fast neutrons as a product of reaction. A. C. 2.46 246 B. D. 24.6 2460 A. B. C. D. Answer: Option A Answer: Option B 23. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for A. B. C. D. any form of uranium natura uranium enriched uranium plutonium C. Answer: Option C D. 24. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is A. C. U235 Pu239 B. D. U238 Pu233 Answer: Option D 29. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is A. B. to determine the information, which can not be obtained by calculations to conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful to satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine all of the above alcohol water lead none of these
30. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about A. C. 15% 50% B. D. 30% 70%
Answer: Option A
25. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging will __________ the knocking tendency. A. B. C. not effect
Answer: Option D
31. A diesel engine has decrease increase A. B. C. D. 26. Ordinary water is sometimes used as moderator when enriched uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear power plants. A. Yes B. No one valve two valves three valves four valves
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
32. The self ignition temperature of petrol is __________ as compared to diesel oil. A. C. same higher B. lower
Answer: Option A
27. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the A. jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
Answer: Option C
33. The pressure inside the cylinder is __________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust stroke. A. B. C. equal to below above
produced whereas detonation develops after the introduction of spark. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
40. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium - 235 in million electron volts is about A. C. 100 300 B. D. 200 400
34. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will __________ the knocking tendency. A. B. C. not effect decrease increase 41. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Morse test can be conducted for A. B. petrol engines diesel engines multi-cylinder engines all of these
35.
A carburettor is used to supply A. B. C. D. petrol, air and lubricating oil air and diesel petrol and lubricating oil petrol and air
C. D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
42. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is A. B. C. D. minimum turbulence low compression ratio high thermal efficiency and power output low volumetric efficiency
36. U233 is produced A. B. C. D. artificially as basic raw material when thorium is irradiated by neutrons by fission of U238
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
43. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is compressed when both the valves (i.e. inlet valve and exit valve) are closed, A. Agree B. Disagree
37. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately A. B. C. D. 10 bar 20 bar 25 bar 35 bar
Answer: Option A
44. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is A. B. C. D. unaffected lower higher dependent on other factors
Answer: Option D
38. The detonation is also called knocking or pinking. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
45. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about A. B. 10 bar 100 bar
39. The pre-ignition occurs before the spark is
C. D.
150 bar 500 bar
1. The aim of value engineering is to A. B. C. D. find the depreciation value of a machine determine the selling price of a product minimise the cost without change in quality of the product all of the above
Answer: Option B
46. High speed compression engines operate on A. B. C. D. Otto cycle Diesel cycle Dual-combustion cycle all of these
Answer: Option C
2. In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine A. B. standard time of a job merit rating of the worker fixation of incentive rate normal time of a worker
Answer: Option C
C. D.
47. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve A. B. opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre opens at 20 before top dead centre and closes at 40 after bottom dead centre opens at 20 after top dead centre and closes at 20 before bottom dead centre id) may open or close anywhere
Answer: Option C
3. Gantt chart is used for A. B. C. inventory control material handling production schedule machine repair schedules
C.
Answer: Option B
D.
48. The nuclear power station at Tarapur has the reactor of the __________ type. A. B. C. D. pressurized water boiling water gas cooled liquid metal cooled
Answer: Option C
4. The main object of scientific layout is A. B. C. D. to produce better quality of product to utilise maximum floor area to minimise production delays all of these
Answer: Option B
49. In nuclear power plants, due to reflector, less fuel is needed to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option D
5. The probabilistic time is given by (where to = Optimistic time, tp = Pessimistic time, and tn = Most likely time) A.
Answer: Option A
50. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is A. B. C. D. U213 and Pu239 U235 and Th232 U235 and Pu238 U233 and Pu238
B.
C.
D. Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
Industrial Engineering and Production Management
6. In value engineering, the term value refers to A. B. C. D. manufacturing cost of the product selling price of the product total cost of the product utility of the product
B. C. D.
functional organisation line and staff organisation line, staff and functional organisation
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
12. When slack of an activity is negative A. it represents a situation where extra resources are available and the completion of project is not delayed it represents that a programme falls behind schedule and additional resources are required to complete the project in time the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the completion of whole project all of the above
7. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity is A. B. C. D. average level of inventory optimum lot size capacity of a warehouse lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
B.
C. D.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 8. Production cost refers to prime cost plus A. B. C. D. factory overheads factory and administration overheads factory, administration and sales overheads factory, administration, sales overheads and profit 13. The procedure of modifying work content to give more meaning and enjoyment to the job by involving employees in planning, organisation and control of their work, is termed as A. B. C. Answer: Option A D. job enlargement job enrichment job rotation job evaluation
9. A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of A. B. C. D. motion study time study job enrichment all of these
Answer: Option A
14. Fixed position layout is also known as A. B. C. analytical layout synthetic layout static product layout none of these
Answer: Option D
D.
10. Work sampling is applied for A. B. estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job activities finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive and where time study by stop watch method is not possible all of the above
Answer: Option C
15. In a network shown in the below figure, the critical path is along
C. D.
A. Answer: Option D C.
1-2-3-4-8-9 1-2-3-4-7-8-9
B. D.
1-2-3-5-6-7-8-9 1-2-5-6-7-8-9
11. Military type of organisation is known as A. line organisation
Answer: Option A
16. Bar chart is suitable for A. B. C. D. large project major work minor work all of these
D.
operation chart
Answer: Option C
23. The type of organisation preferred for a steel industry, is A. line organisation functional organisation line and staff organisation line, staff and functional organisation
Answer: Option C
B. C. D.
17. Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information about the progress of work and machine loading? A. B. C. D. Process chart Machine load chart Man-machine chart Gantt chart
Answer: Option D
24. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a hook at the end of retractable chains or cable is called A. hoist jib crane portable elevator chain conveyor
Answer: Option C
B. C. D.
18. Probabilistic time for completion of any activity can be found out from A. B. C. D. optimistic time pessimistic time most likely time all of these
Answer: Option A
25. A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing a task is known as A. string diagram flow process chart travel chart flow diagram
Answer: Option D
B. C. D.
19. Line organisation is suitable for a big organisation. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
20. PERT is an event oriented technique. A. Correct B. Incorrect
26. The determination of standard time in a complex job system is best done through A. stop watch time study analysis of micromotions grouping timing technique analysis of standard data system
Answer: Option A
B. C.
21. Linear programming model can be applied to line balancing problem and transportation problem. A. True B. False
D.
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A 27. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by 22. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of materials handling between various work stations is known as A. B. C. flow chart process chart travel chart B. A.
A. C. B. C. D. D.
CPM PERT inventory control all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
28. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the standard time for the job and (T) is the actual time, then according to Rowan plan, wages for the job will be A. B. C. D. TR + (S - T)R TR
33. PERT analysis is based upon A. B. C. D. optimistic time pessimistic time most likely time all of these
Answer: Option D
34. In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout preferred is Answer: Option D A. B. 29. In a line organisation A. B. C. D. responsibility of each individual is fixed discipline is strong quick decisions are taken all of these 35. In A-B-C analysis, which class of items are generally large in number? A. B. C. D. A B C none of these C. D. product layout process layout group layout static layout
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
30. Which of the following are the guidelines for the construction of a network diagram? A. B. C. D. Each activity is represented by one and only one arrow in the network. Dangling must be avoided in a network diagram. Dummy activity consumes no time or resource. all of the above
Answer: Option C
36. Simplex method is the method used for A. B. C. value analysis network analysis linear programming queuing theory
Answer: Option D
31. Work study involues A. B. C. D. only method study only work measurement method study and work measurement only motion study
D.
Answer: Option C
37. Dispatching A. prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed determines the programme for the operations is concerned with the starting of processes
Answer: Option C
B. C.
32. A-B-C analysis is used in
D.
regulates the progress of job through various processes
A. B. C.
for checking the relative values of various layouts when a group of workers are working at a place where processes require the operator to be moved from one work place to another all of the above
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following wage incentive plan guarantees minimum wage to a worker and bonus is paid for the fixed percentage of time saved? A. B. C. D. Halsey plan Gantt plan Rowan plan Emerson's efficiency plan
D.
Answer: Option D
44. Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile manufacturing concern? A. B. C. product layout process layout fixed position layout combination layout
Answer: Option A
39. Job evaluation is the method of determining the A. B. C. D. relative values of a job worker's performance on a job worth of the machine value of overall production
D.
Answer: Option A
45. Representative time is the average of times recorded by work study man for an operation. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
40. The routing function in a production system design is concerned with A. B. C. D. manpower utilisation quality assurance of the product machine utilisation optimising material flow through the plant
46. Queuing theory is associated with A. B. C. D. inventory sales waiting time production time
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
41. In big automobile repair shop, for elevating and moving the heavy parts such as complete engine assembly, gear box etc., an overhead crane and a fork lift truck is used. A. Yes B. No
47. PERT requires A. B. C. D. single time estimate double time estimate triple time estimate none of these
Answer: Option A
42. Direct expenses include A. B. C. D. factory expenses selling expenses administrative expenses none of these
Answer: Option C
48. Which of the following statement is correct? A. B. C. A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle. Simulation can be used for inventory control. Economic order quantity formula ignores variations in demand pattern all of the above
Answer: Option D
D.
43. String diagram is used
Answer: Option A
49. The product layout is more amenable to automation than process layout. A. True B. False
C. D.
internal bevel gears mitre gears
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
50. In break even analysis, total cost consists of A. B. C. D. fixed cost + sales revenue variable cost + sales revenue fixed cost + variable cost fixed cost + variable cost + profit
6. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated. A. B. C. increases decreases does not change
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Machine Design 1. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a A. B. C. D. dun cylinder thick cylinder solid shaft hollow shaft
7. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is A. C. 2 6 B. D. 4 8
Answer: Option C
8. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is A. B. less than 50% more than 50% equal to 50% none of these
Answer: Option D
2. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are completely separated from each other by lubricant is called zero film bearing. A. True B. False
C. D.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 9. The application of third type levers is found in 3. Screws used for power transmission should have A. B. C. D. Sow efficiency high efficiency very fine threads strong teeth Answer: Option D Answer: Option B 10. For unequal width of butt straps, the thickness of butt straps are A. B. C. D. 0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on the outside 0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside 0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside A. B. C. D. handle of a hand pump hand wheel of a punching press lever of a loaded safety valve a pair of tongs
4. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the number of rivets in crushing. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
5. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90, then they are known as A. B. angular bevel gears crown bevel gears
Answer: Option A
11. In second type of levers, A. B. C. D. load is in between the fulcrum and effort effort is in between the fulcrum and load fulcrum is in between the load and effort none of these
16. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called A. B. C. D. castle nut jam nut ring nut sawn nut
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 12. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material whereas all other failure relation for dynamic loading are based on ultimate strength of the material. A. B. C. elastic strength yield strength shear strength C. Answer: Option B D. 13. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of A. B. C. D. bolts and nuts studs headless taper bolts none of these
17. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of A. B. maximum size of column to minimum size of column width of column to depth of column effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column effective length of column to width of column
Answer: Option C
18. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft. A. transmission B. machine
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 19. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the 14. A transmission shaft includes A. B. C. D. counter shaft line shaft over head shaft all of these C. D. A. B. actual size is 100 mm basic size is 100 mm difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm none of the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
15. According to I.B.R., shearing resistance required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (in double shear) is (where n = Number of rivets per pitch length) A. d2 x x n
20. A plate with an elliptical hole in the centre, with semi-major axis (a) perpendicular to the direction of loading and semi-minor axis (b) along the direction of loading, is subjected to a pull P. The maximum stress induced at the edge of the hole is equal to (where = Stress for a plate with no hole i.e. nominal stress) A.
B.
1.875 x
d2 x x n
C.
2x
d2 x x n
B.
D.
3x
d2x x n C.
Answer: Option B
D.
A. B.
in a direction perpendicular to the cam axis in a direction parallel to the cam axis in any direction irrespective of cam axis along the cam axis
Answer: Option B
C. D.
21. The velocity of sliding __________ the distance of the point of contact from the pitch point. A. B. C. D. is directly proportional to is inversely proportional to is equal to cos multiplied by does not depend upon
Answer: Option A
27. The square threads are not so strong as V-threads but they offer less frictional resistance to motion than Whitworth threads. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
22. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is A. C. 40 70 B. D. 50 100
28. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter of rivet hole (d) and the thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm) A. B. d=t d = 1.6 t d=2t d=6t
Answer: Option D
C. D.
23. Circumferential joint in boilers is used to get the required length of a boiler. A. True B. False
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
24. The ball bearings are provided with a cage A. B. C. D. to reduce friction to facilitate slipping of balls to prevent the lubricant from flowing out to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart
29. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole) A. B. C. D. d 1.5 d 2d 2.5 d
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
30. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon A. B. C. D. material of the part geometry of the part material and geometry of the part none of these
25. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is being transmitted in one direction only, then the screw threads suitable for this will be A. B. C. D. square threads acme threads knuckle threads buttress threads
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
31. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility? A. B. Mild steel Copper
26. In radial cams, the follower moves
C. D.
Zinc Aluminium
B. C. D.
nipple joint union joint spigot and socket joint
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 32. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered in order to prevent breakage at the A. C. head thread B. D. shank middle
38. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the maximum shear stress in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple tension test. A. True B. False
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
33. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is drilled through the head as far as the threaded portion such that the area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the thread. A. True B. False
39. For maximum power, the velocity of the belt will be A.
Answer: Option A
B.
34. An open belt drive is used when A. B. C. shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interferring with the driving shaft
C. D. none of these
Answer: Option C
D.
40. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its A. B. C. elastic strength yield strength brinell hardness number toughness
Answer: Option B
35. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on A. B. C. D. one side of the actual size one side of the nominal size both sides of the actual size both sides of the nominal size
D.
Answer: Option C
41. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing A. B. C. there is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing there is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing there is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing the lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing, by external pressure
Answer: Option B
36. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred numbers is A. C. 1.06 1.26 B. D. 1.12 1.58
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
37. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low pressures is A. socket joint
42. Which of the following statement is correct for gears? A. The addendum is less than dedendum
B. C. D.
The pitch circle diameter is equal to the product of module and number of teeth The pitch circle is always greater than the base circle all of the above
shaft A is solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that A. B. C. shaft B is better than shaft A shaft A is better than shaft B both the shafts are equally good
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
43. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak-proof joint, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is (where d = Diameter of bolt hole) A. B. C. D. less than 20 d greater than 30 d between 20 d and 30 d equal to inside diameter of pipe
48. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal to A.
B.
C. Answer: Option C D.
44. Stress concentration is caused due to A. B. C. D. variations in load acting on a member variations in properties of materials in a member abrupt change of cross-section all of these
Answer: Option A
49. Which of the following statement is wrong ? A. The power transmitted by V-belts is less than flat belts for the same coefficient of friction, arc of contact and allowable tension in the belts The V-belt drive is used with large centre distance The V-belt may be operated in either direction with tight side of the belt at the top or bottom The ratio of driving tensions in Vbelt drive is more than flat belt drives
Answer: Option C B. 45. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by A. B. C. D. elastic limit Young's modulus ultimate tensile strength endurance limit D.
C.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D 50. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half the diameter of shaft. A. Agree B. Disagree
46. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of the spindle to A. B. C. D. enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load
Answer: Option A
Production Engineering prevent the rotation of load being lifted reduce the value of frictional torque 1. Segmental chips are formed during machining A. B. C. D. 47. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and identical weight and are made of the same material. The mild steel cast iron high speed steel high carbon steel
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
A. 2. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy. A. True B. False B. C. D.
orthogonal cutting oblique cutting simple cutting uniform cutting
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B and fixtures, 3. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation, then for locating in jigs the pressure type of locator used is A. B. C. D. conical locator cylindrical locator diamond pin locator vee locator Answer: Option A 9. A round nose tool may be fed eitner from left to right end or from right to left end of the lathe bed. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A
10. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining A. B. C. continuous chips are formed discontinuous chips are formed continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
4. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle A. B. C. D. by which the face of the tool is inclined towards back by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
D. a no chips formed between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and plane at are right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool between the surface of the flank immediately below the point Answer: and a lineOption drawn C from the point perpendicular to the base 11. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind hard materials. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
5. Internal gears can be made by A. B. C. D. hobbing shaping with pinion cutter shaping with rack cutter milling 12. Cast iron during machining produces A. B. C. D. continuous chips discontinuous chips continuous chips with built-up-edge none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
6. In order to prevent tool from rubbing the work __________ on tools are provided. A. B. rake angles relief angles Answer: Option B
13. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally have A. B. zero rake angle positive rake angle negative rake angle point angle
Answer: Option B
7. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding A. B. C. D. cemented carbide ceramic cast iron all of these
C. D.
Answer: Option A
14. The work or surface speed for cylindrical grinding varies from A. B. 5 to 10 m/min 10 to 20 m/min
Answer: Option D
8. Drilling is an example of
C. D.
20 to 30 m/min 40 to 60 m/min
brass by high speed steel tool is A. C. 0 20 B. D. 10 -10
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
15. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted on A. C. spindle column B. D. arbor knee
21. The lip angle of a single point tool is usually A. B. 20 to 40 40 to 60 60 to 80 none of these
Answer: Option B
C. D.
16. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at A. B. C. D. slow speeds medium speeds fast speeds very fast speeds
Answer: Option C
22. The average cutting speed for turning brass with a high speed steel tool is A. B. C. D. 15 to 19 m/min 25 to 31 m/min 60 to 90 m/min 90 to 120 m/min
Answer: Option A
17. A push broach as compared to pull broach A. B. C. D. has less number of teeth is short and stocky removes less material for each pass of the tool all of the above
Answer: Option C
23. The maximum production of small and slender parts is done by A. B. C. D. watch maker's lathe sliding head stock automatic lathe multispindle automatic lathe capastan lathe
Answer: Option D
18. Twist drills are made of A. B. C. D. high speed steel carbon steel stainless steel either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option C
24. Side rake angle on tools is provided to control chip flow. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D 25. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered surface on a workpiece, is A. B. C. D. internal cylindrical grinding form grinding external cylindrical grinding surface grinding
19. A twist drill is a A. B. C. D. side cutting tool front cutting tool end cutting tool none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
20. The rake angle required to machine
26. A fixture does not guide the tool.
A.
Correct
B.
Incorrect
D.
tapered shank twist drill
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
27. Crater wear occurs mainly on the A. B. C. D. nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only cutting edge only front face only
32. Which of the following statement is wrong about ultra-sonic machining? A. B. C. D. It is best suited for machining hard and brittle materials. It cuts materials at very slow speeds. It removes large amount of material. It produces good surface finish.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C 28. Gear lapping is an operation A. B. C. D. after heat treatment prior to heat treatment for gear reconditioning none of these 33. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs at the middle. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
34. Larger end cutting edge angle __________ tool life. A. B. C. increases decreases does not effect
29. The facing is an operation of A. B. C. D. bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis
Answer: Option A
35. The lead screw of a lathe has __________ threads. A. B. single start double start multi-start any one of these
Answer: Option D
30. A fixture is defined as a device which A. holds and locates a workpiece and guides and controls one or more cutting tools holds and locates a workpiece during an inspection or for a manufacturing operation is used to check the accuracy of workpiece all of the above
C. D.
B.
Answer: Option A
C. D.
36.
A left hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently when it travels A. B. C. D. from left to right end of the lathe bed from right to left end of the lathe bed with the help of a compound slide across the bed
Answer: Option B
31. A drill considered as a cutting tool having zero rake, is known as a A. B. C. flat drill straight fluted drill parallel shank twist drill
Answer: Option A
37. The correct sequence of tool materials in increasing
order of their ability to retain their hot hardness is A. B. C. D. carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet 42. In orthogonal cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs at the middle. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 43. Lapping is an operation of 38. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference of lathe cutting tools? A. B. C. The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces below and adjacent to the cutting edges The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining the side cutting and the end cutting edges The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped to produce the cutting edges and face The base is that surface of the shank which bears against the support and takes tangent pressure of the cut A. B. C. making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole sizing and finishing a small diameter hole producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollow cutting tool
D.
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
44. The different spindle speeds on a lathe form A. B. C. D. arithmetical progression geometrical progression harmonical progression any one of these
39. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools is A. B. C. D. 0.1 to 0.2 0.20 to 0.25 0.25 to 0.40 0.40 to 0.55
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
40. In up milling, the thickness of chip is A. B. C. D. minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut uniform throughout the cut none of these
45. If the helix angle of the drill is made __________ 30, then the torque required to drive the drill at a given feed will be more. A. B. C. equal to less than more than
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
46.
The angle included between the two lips projected upon a plane parallel to the drill axis and paralled to the two cutting lips, is called helix angle. A. Correct B. Incorrect
41. The machining of titanium is difficult due to A. B. C. D. high thermal conductivity of titanium chemical reaction between tool and work low tool-chip contact area none of these
Answer: Option B
47. In hot machining, tool is made of A. B. C. tungsten carbide brass or copper diamond
Answer: Option C
D.
stainless steel
3. In water tube boilers A. water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water forced circulation takes place none of these
Answer: Option A B. 48. In ultra-sonic machining, the metal is removed by A. B. C. D. using abrasive slurry between the tool and work direct contact of tool with the work maintaining an electrolyte between the work and tool in a very small gap between the two erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the tool and work C. D.
Answer: Option A
4. Which of the following statement is wrong ? A. B. C. Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler. Water tube boilers are internally fired. La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler. all of the above
Answer: Option A
49. The velocity of tool relative to the workpiece is known as cutting velocity. A. True B. False
D.
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A 5. A grate, in a boiler, is a place in the combustion chamber upon which fuel (wood or coal) is burnt. A. True B. False
50. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance A. B. C. D. only at the time of manufacture before starting the grinding operation at the end of grinding operation occasionally
Answer: Option A
6. Loeffler boiler is a water tube boiler using a forced circulation of water. A. True B. False
Answer: Option D
Steam Boilers and Engines 1. The object of producing draught in a boiler is A. B. C. D. to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney all of the above
Answer: Option A
7. La-mont boiler, is a high pressure water tube steam boiler working on forced circulation. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
8. The function of a connecting rod is not to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion. A. True B. False
Answer: Option D
2. In a glass rube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to A. B. C. D. water space also chimney steam space superheater
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine ? A. The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple steam engine. The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more parts.
Answer: Option C
B.
C.
The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke. The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in condensation.
15. Which of the following statement is correct ? A. A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power. Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler. A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube. all of the above
D.
B. C.
Answer: Option C
D.
10. When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m., the engine said to be a A. B. C. D. slow speed engine medium speed steam engine high speed steam engine none of these
Answer: Option C
16. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is called A. B. C. D. blow off cock fusible plug superheater stop valve
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C 11. The natural draught is produced by A. B. C. D. steam jet centrifugal fan chimney both (a) and (b) 17. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is __________ that of the shell. A. C. one-fourth two-fifth B. D. one-third three-fifth
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
12. Willian's line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam consumption per hour and A. B. C. D. indicated power brake power efficiency pressure of steam
18. An economiser __________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler. A. B. C. increases decreases has no effect on
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
19. Fire tube boilers are A. B. C. D. internally fired externally fired internally as well as externally fired none of these
13. The temperature of condensate is __________ on leaving the condenser than that of circulating water at inlet. A. higher B. lower
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
14. A draught produced by a chimney due to the difference of densities between the hot gases inside the chimney and cold atmospheric air outside it, is called natural draught. A. Yes B. No
20. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers is A. B. C. D. lever safety valve dead weight safety valve high steam and low water safety valve all of these
Answer: Option A
cross head Answer: Option D C. 21. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the fire grate of the furnace is called A. B. C. D. induced steam jet draught chimney draught forced steam jet draught none of these 26. An air preheater is installed A. B. Answer: Option C C. 22. Which of the following statement is wrong ? A. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always greater than unity. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100 C. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is called boiler efficiency. none of the above D. before the economiser before the superheater between the economiser and chimney none of these D. to convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work to exhust steam from the cylinder at proper moment
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
B.
27. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is A. B. C. D. 1m 2m 3m 4m
C. D.
Answer: Option D
23. The function of a crosshead is to guide motion of the __________ and to prevent it from bending. A. B. C. D. piston rod connecting rod eccentric rod valve rod
Answer: Option D
28. The effect of wire drawing is to decrease the area of indicator diagram and thus work done by the engine is reduced. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
29. In a uniflow engine A. B. C. D. steam enters and exhausts through the same port steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end none of the above
24. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be designed on the basis of A. equal power developed in each cylinder for uniform turning moment equal initial piston loads on all pistons for obtaining same size of piston rod, connecting rod etc. for all cylinders equal temperature drop in each cylinder for economy of steam all of the above
B.
C. D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
30. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is A. 1m 1.5 m 2m 2.5 m
25. The function of a piston rod is A. B. to guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending to transfer motion from the piston to the
B. C. D.
Answer: Option B
C.
inclined
Answer: Option A 31. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are A. C. horizontal inclined B. vertical
37. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190 mm and a stroke of 300 mm has a cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly A. C. 1.05 6.65 B. D. 2.86 10.05
Answer: Option A
32. In a reciprocating steam engine, the heat energy in the steam is converted into mechanical work by the to and fro motion of the piston. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option B
38. The aim of a compound steam engine is A. to reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder to reduce the length of stroke to reduce the temperature range in each cylinder all of the above
Answer: Option A
B. C. D.
33. The power of a boiler may be defined as A. B. C. D. the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 C into dry and saturated steam the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100 C
Answer: Option D
39. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is A. B. C. D. 100 bar 150 bar 200 bar 250 bar
Answer: Option B
34. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as A. B. C. D. internally fired boiler externally fired boiler natural circulation boiler forced circulation boiler
Answer: Option D
40. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from A. B. C. 0.5 to 1 m 1 to 2 m 1.25 to 2.5 m 2 to 3 m
Answer: Option D D. 35. The function of a safety valve is A. B. C. D. to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler none of the above
Answer: Option B
41. A single acting steam engine produces __________ power than that of double acting steam engine. A. B. C. D. equal half double four times
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B 36. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are A. horizontal B. vertical 42. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the beginning of the stroke is __________ the boiler
pressure. A. B. C. equal to less than higher than
48. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is A. B. C. D. lever safety valve dead weight safety valve high steam and low water safety valve spring loaded safety valve
Answer: Option B
43. The function of a flywheel is A. B. C. D. to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion. to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod to prevent fluctuation of speed to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
Answer: Option D
49. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ? A. B. C. D. Locomotive boiler Lancashire boiler Cornish boiler Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A 44. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is A. B. C. D. 100 tonnes/h 135 tonnes/h 175 tonnes/h 250 tonnes/h 50. Which of the following statement is correct ? A. B. C. D. Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler. Fire tube boilers are internally fired. Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler. all of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 45. In natural circulation steam boilers, the circulation of water is by convection currents which are set up during the heating of water. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Steam Nozzles and Turbines 1. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle A. B. when the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit when the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit when the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its throat to exit none of the above
Answer: Option A
46. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying A. B. C. D. volume of intake steam pressure of intake steam temperature of intake steam all of these C. D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
2. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at __________ to the direction of the blade motion. A. C. 60 180 B. D. 90 270
47. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg while coal fired per hour is 23 kg. The net enthalpy rise per kg of water is 145 kJ. If the calorific valve of the coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then the boiler efficiency will be A. C. 56% 74% B. D. 63% 78%
Answer: Option A
3. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as Answer: Option B A. constant volume flow
B. C. D.
constant pressure flow isothermal flow isentropic flow
between A. B. C. D. inlet and thoroat inlet and outlet throat and exit all of these
Answer: Option D
4. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called A. B. C. D. stage efficiency internal efficiency Rankine efficiency none of these
Answer: Option C
10. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is A. C. 0.546 0.582 B. D. 0.577 0.601
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is twothird of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be A. C. Answer: Option A Answer: Option C 6. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the divergent portion of the nozzle) A. B. C. remains constant decreases increases 0.4 0.67 B. D. 0.56 1.67
5. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back pressure. A. Correct B. Incorrect
12. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force A. B. C. D. as an impulsive force as a reaction force partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force none of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 7. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually reduced. A. B. C. remains same decreases increases 13. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where = Angle made by the absolute velocity (V) at inlet) A. B. C. D. 8. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle) A. B. C. D. V = 44.72 hd K V = 44.72 K hd V = 44.72 K hd V = 44.72 K hd Vb = 0.5 V cos Vb = V cos Vb = 0.5 V2 cos Vb = V2 cos
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
14. A regenerative steam cycle renders A. B. C. D. increased work output per unit mass of steam decreased work output per unit mass of steam increased thermal efficiency decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: Option C
9. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur
Answer: Option D
15. De-Laval turbine is a A. B. C. D. single rotor impulse turbine multi-rotor impulse turbine impulse reaction turbine none of these 22. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called A. B. Answer: Option A C. D. blading efficiency nozzle efficiency gross or stage efficiency mechanical efficiency Answer: Option B
16. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is parallel to the turbine axis, is called axial flow turbines A. True B. False
Answer: Option A
23. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure. Answer: Option A A. C. zero maximum B. minimum
17. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
24. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available heat drop A. B. C. D. remains the same increases decreases is unpredictable
18. The reheat factor is the ratio of the A. B. C. D. cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop none of the above
Answer: Option C
25. The steam leaves the nozzle at a Answer: Option A A. B. C. D. high pressure and a low velocity high pressure and a high velocity low pressure and a low velocity low pressure and a high velocity
19. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle. A. True B. False
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
20. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is A. C. isothermal hyperbolic B. D. isentropic polytropic 26. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat A. B. C. 21. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be A. B. C. D. choked underdamping overdamping none of these D. equal to the velocity of sound less than the velocity of sound more than the velocity of sound none of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
27. The Parsons' reaction turbine has A. B. only moving blades only fixed blades
C. D.
identical fixed and moving blades fixed and moving blades of different shape
C. D.
both (a) and (b) none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
28. The action of steam in a steam turbine is A. B. C. D. static dynamic static and dynamic neither static nor dynamic
33. Which of the following statement is correct? A. B. C. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle. The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam. The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure. all of the above
Answer: Option B D. 29. The blade velocity coefficient is ratio of relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade to the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade. A. True B. False
Answer: Option D
34. A binary vapour plant consists of A. B. steam turbine steam condenser mercury boiler all of these
Answer: Option A
30.
Multi-stage steam turbines are of the A. B. C. D. velocity compounded type reaction type pressure compounded type all of these
C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
35. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p2) will be A. 3.3 bar 5.46 bar 8.2 bar 9.9 bar
31. The critical pressure ratio (p2/p1) is given by A.
B. C. D.
Answer: Option B B. 36. C. The stage efficiency (S) is given by (where B = Blading efficiency, and N = Nozzle efficiency) A. B. D. C. D. Answer: Option B S = B x N S = B/N S = N/B none of these
Answer: Option A
32. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to A. B. pressure drop across the rotor change in axial velocity
37. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more as compared to initially wet steam. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option B
44. The value of the reheat factor varies from 38. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge depends upon the initial conditions of steam and the area of nozzle at throat. A. Correct B. Incorrect A. B. C. D. 1.02 to 1.06 1.08 to 1.l0 1.2 to 1.6 1.6 to 2
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 39. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine. A. B. C. D. 40 percent 50 percent 60 percent 70 percent
45. The steam enters the nozzle at a A. B. C. D. high pressure and a low velocity high pressure and a high velocity low pressure and a low velocity low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
40. The turbine blades are A. C. straight curved B. circular 46. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is called A. B. C. 41. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon A. B. C. D. velocity of steam specific volume of steam dryness fraction of steam all of these 47. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is A. D. degree of supersaturation degree of superheat degree of undercooling none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D B. 42. Steam turbines are used for A. B. C. D. large marine propulsion electric power generation direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps all of these Answer: Option B D. C.
Answer: Option D
43. Parson's turbine is a A. B. C. D. simple impulse turbine simple reaction turbine impulse-reaction turbine none of these
48. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called A. B. C. D. condenser efficiency nozzle efficiency boiler efficiency vacuum efficiency
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
49. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by A. B. C. D. reheating of steam regenerative feed heating binary vapour plant any one of these
C. D.
both short and long columns weak columns
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
5. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint A. B. C. D. free from corrosion stronger in tension free from stresses leak-proof
50. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades, A. B. C. D. pressure increases while velocity decreases pressure decreases while velocity increases pressure and velocity both decreases pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
6. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15 C to 40 C and it is free to expand. The bar Will induce A. no stress shear stress tensile stress compressive stress
Strength of Materials 1. Strain energy is the A. B. C. D. energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of a specimen maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body proof resilience per unit volume of a material
B. C. D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
7. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be A. B. C. D. 400 MPa 500 MPa 900 MPa 1400 MPa
2. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle in the direction of the A. B. C. D. axis of load perpendicular to the axis of load maximum moment of inertia minimum moment of inertia
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
8. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft 'A' is 250 r.p.m. and that of shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the greater diameter. A. True B. False
3. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is A. C. zero maximum B. D. minimum infinity
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
9. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is A.
4. Euler's formula holds good only for A. B. short columns long columns
B.
the base of the dam, the maximum stress should be __________ the permissible stress of the soil. A. equal to less than more than
C.
B. C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
15. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which the body tends to reduce its length, the stress and strain induced is compressive. A. True B. False
10. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually. A. B. C. D. equal to one-half twice four times
Answer: Option A
16. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the moments on either side of the point. A. sum B. difference
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
11. For a beam, as shown in the below figure,
the maximum deflection is
17. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the plate) A. C. t 4t B. D. 2t 8t
Answer: Option C A. True B. False 18. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is A. C. 1/8 1/2 B. D. 1/4 2
Answer: Option B
12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a __________ column. A. C. long short B. medium
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
19. The deformation per unit length is called A. tensile stress compressive stress shear stress strain
13. A masonry dam may fail due to A. B. C. D. tension in the masonry of the dam and its base overturning of the dam crushing of masonry at the base of the dam any one of the above
B. C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
20. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
14. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at
A.
C. D.
neutral axis every cross-section
B.
Answer: Option B
C.
25. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum deflection is
D.
Answer: Option D A. 21. In the torsion equation term J/R is called A. B. C. D. shear modulus section modulus polar modulus none of these D. C. the B.
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A 22. Strain resetters are used to A. B. C. D. measure shear strain measure linear strain measure volumetric strain relieve strain 26. The point of contraflexure is a point where A. B. C. D. Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 23. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where = Maximum allowable shear stress) A. shear force changes sign bending moment changes sign shear force is maximum bending moment is maximum
x x D3
B.
27. The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam 'B' is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is A. C. 5/8 5/4 B. D. 8/5 4/5
x x D3
C.
xxD
Answer: Option B D. x x D3 28. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at A. B. C. D. smaller end larger end middle anywhere
Answer: Option B
24. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed on the A. B. top layer bottom layer
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
29. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as A. B. C. D. resilience proof resilience strain energy impact energy
34. When a bar is cooled to - 5C, it will develop A. B. C. D. no stress shear stress tensile stress compressive stress
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
30. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along A. B. C. D. the axis of load an oblique plane at right angles to the axis of specimen would not occur
35. The limit of eccentricity is based upon no tension condition. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A
36. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its slenderness ratio. A. True B. False
Answer: Option B
31. The bending stress in a beam is __________ section modulus. A. B. directly proportional to inversely proportional to
Answer: Option A
37. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants k1 andk2 is held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is A.
Answer: Option B
32. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is __________ at that point. A. C. zero maximum B. D. minimum infinity
B.
C. Answer: Option C D. 33. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of __________ from the end B. k1k2
Answer: Option D
38. Resilience is the A. B. C. D. energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body none of the above
A. B.
l/2 l/3
C.
Answer: Option D D. 39. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in proportional to
(where M = Bending moment) A. B. C. D. M M M2 M3
takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called A. B. C. D. elastic limit yield point ultimate point breaking point
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
40. A concentrated load is one which A. B. C. D. acts at a point on a beam spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam 46. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress () is (where C = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material) A.
x Volume of shaft
B. x Volume of shaft
Answer: Option A
C.
x Volume of shaft
41. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is A. C. 0.20 0.50 B. D. 0.30 0.60
D. x Volume of shaft Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
42. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same length and depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be __________ as compared to beam A. A. B. C. D. same double four times six times
47. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover plate on both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as __________ double cover butt joint. A. B. single riveted double riveted
Answer: Option B
48. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain. A. B. C. equal to directly proportional to inversely proportional to
Answer: Option B
43. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies A. C. linearly hyperbolically B. D. parabolically elliptically
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
44. A beam supported at its both ends is not a simply supported beam. A. True B. False
49. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it varies uniformly over the whole length of abeam is called uniformly __________ load. A. distributed B. varying
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B 50. Which of the following statement is correct?
45.
The stress at which the extension of the material
A.
The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy. The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience. The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience. all of the above
6. An adiabatic process is one in which A. B. C. D. no heat enters or leaves the gas the temperature of the gas changes
B.
the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work all of the above
C. D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
7. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam o 650C. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B 1. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural petroleum (or crude oil). A. True B. False
Thermodynamics
8. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature - entro
Answer: Option A
2. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is known as A. A. Carnot cycle B. C. D. Stirling cycle Otto cycle Diesel cycle
Answer: Option D
3. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are A. B. C. D. low very low high very high
B.
Answer: Option B
4. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass C. of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called A. B. C. D. specific heat at constant volume specific heat at constant pressure kilo Joule none of these
Answer: Option A D. B. False
5. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process. A. True
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
B. C.
5 to 8 15 to 20
9. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied increases D. the 20internal to 30 energy of the gas. A. True B. False Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
16. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by A.
10. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel? A. B. C. Gasoline Kerosene Fuel oil C. B.
Answer: Option A
D.
11.
The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system, are known as Answer: Option B A. flow processes B. C. non-flow processes adiabatic processes 17. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when A. B. C. D. cut-off is increased cut-off is decreased cut-off is zero cut-off is constant
D. none of these Answer: Option A
12. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass? A. C. Oxygen Nitrogen B. D. Sulphur Carbon 18. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process. A. B. C. remains constant decreases increases Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
13. Workdone in a free expansion process is A. C. zero maximum B. D. minimum positive
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 19. The atomic mass of oxygen is 14. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas. A. C. one-half two-third B. D. one-third Answer: Option C three-fourth 20. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is A. 15. The compression ratio for petrol engines is A. 3 to 6 B. equal to one less than one Answer: Option C A. C. 12 16 B. D. 14 32
C. D.
greater than one none of these
A. B. C.
less than equal to more than
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 21. Carbonisation of coal consists of A. drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280C none of the above 27. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel, the process is known as __________ of fuel. A. atomisation B. carbonisation
B.
Answer: Option B
C. D.
28. Which of the following is correct? A. B. C. D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option D
22. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle. A. B. C. greater than less than equal to
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
23. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, p/T = constant, if v is kept constant. A. True B. False
29. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first evaporated and recondensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and recondensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a process is called A. cracking carbonisation fractional distillation full distillation
Answer: Option A
B. C. D.
24. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
25. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called A. B. C. D. constant volume process adiabatic process constant pressure process isothermal process
30. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. B. C. D. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels. A good fuel should have low ignition point.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
26.
The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________ that of at constant volume (cv).
31. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and heating? A. Producer gas
B. C. D.
Coal gas Mond gas Coke oven gas
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
38. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas. A. C. All 11/4 B. D. 7/4 9/7
32. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is A. B. C. D. 0.287 J/kgK 2.87 J/kgK 28.7 J/kgK 287 J/kgK
Answer: Option A
39. The absolute zero temperature is taken as A. C. -273C 237C B. D. 273C -237C
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A 33. In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of the system remains constant. A. True B. False
40. The specific heat of water is A. B. C. 1.817 2512 4.187 none of these
Answer: Option A
34. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with A. B. C. D. decrease in cut-off increase in cut-off constant cut-off none of these
D.
Answer: Option C
41. The constant pressure, constant volume and constant pvn processes are regarded as irreversible process. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A
35.
Coal gas is obtained by mixing coal and gas at ambient conditions. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option A
42. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are Answer: Option B A. B. 36. According to Avogadro's law, the density of any two gases is __________ their molecular masses, if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure. A. B. C. equal to directly proportional to inversely proportional to 43. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency. A. Answer: Option B C. zero 4/5 B. D. 1/5 1 C. D. reversible cycles irreversible cycles semi-reversible cycles quasi-static cycles
Answer: Option A
37. The kinetic energy of molecules of a gas becomes zero at absolute zero temperature. A. Agree B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
44. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as
A. B. C. D.
reversible cycle irreversible cycle thermodynamic cycle none of these
D.
all of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
50. The universal gas constant of a gas is the product of molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant. A. Correct B. Incorrect
45.
An isothermal process is governed by A. B. C. D. Boyle's law Charles' law Gay-Lussac law Avogadro's law
Answer: Option A
Workshop Technology 1. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat surfaces. A. True B. False
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
46. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as A. B. C. D. workdone entropy enthalpy none of these
2. A zinc diffusion process is called A. C. galvanising parkerising B. D. anodising sheradising
Answer: Option D
3. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be checked by a A. B. feeler gauge slip gauge ring gauge plug gauge
Answer: Option C
47. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to A. B. C. D. 1.333 N/m 13.33 N/m

2
C. D.
133.3 N/m2 1333 N/m2
Answer: Option B
4. The type of file used for a wood work is A. B. single-cut file double cut file rasp-cut file any one of these
Answer: Option C
48. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon monoxide gas. A. C. 8/3 11/7 B. D. 11/3 1/3
C. D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
5. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawl from the mould is known as A. B. C. D. machining allowance draft allowance shrinkage allowance distortion allowance
49. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical properties, is governed by A. B. C. Boyle's law Charles' law Gay-Lussac law
Answer: Option B
6. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the work and the electrode by A. B. C. D. voltage flow of current contact resistance all of these
temperature are casted B. C. D. ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted non-ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted non-ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C 12. The chisel used for cutting key ways is 7. In a centrifugal casting method A. B. C. D. core is made of sand core is made of ferrous metal core is made of non-ferrous metal no core is used A. B. C. D. flat chisel cape chisel round nose chisel diamond pointed chisel
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
13. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called A. B. C. D. lower critical temperature upper critical temperature eutectic temperature recrystallisation temperature
8. The draft or taper allowance on casting is generally A. B. C. D. 1 to 2 mm/m 2 to 5 mm/m 5 to 10 mm/m 10 to 15 mm/m
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
14. Thread rolling is restricted to A. B. C. D. ferrous materials ductile materials hard materials none of these
9. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrodes? A. B. C. D. TIG welding MIG welding Manual arc welding Submerged arc welding
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
15. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that A. B. C. D. press load is reduced good cut edge is obtained warping of sheet is minimised cut blanks are straight
10. In a bilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on A. B. C. D. one side of the actual size one side of the nominal size both sides of the actual size both sides of the nominal size
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
16. In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding A. direct current with straight polarity is used direct current with reversed polarity is used
11. In a hot chamber die casting machine A. ferrous alloys with low melting
B.
C. D.
alternating current is used any one of these
D.
to finish the punched hole
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 23. The cold chisels are made by 17. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic size is called A. B. C. D. actual deviation upper deviation lower deviation fundamental deviation 24. The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gases is called A. Answer: Option C C. collapsibility cohesiveness B. D. permeability adhesiveness A. C. drawing piercing B. D. rolling forging
Answer: Option D
18. The temperature of oxy-hydrogen flame is __________ oxy-acetylene flame. A. B. C. same as less than more than
Answer: Option B
25. The centrifugal casting method, is used for casting articles of A. B. symmetrical shape about vertical axis symmetrical shape about horizontal axis irregular shape non-ferrous metal only
Answer: Option B
C. D.
19. Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 2 metre long seamless metallic tubes? A. B. C. D. Drawing Extrusion Rolling Extrusion and rolling
Answer: Option B
26. Metal patterns are used for A. B. C. D. small castings large castings complicated castings large scale production of castings
Answer: Option D
20. A saw which cuts wood during the return stroke of the saw is known as A. B. push saw pull saw or draw saw
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
27. The instrument which has all the features of try-square, bevel protractor, rule and scriber, is A. outside micrometer inside micrometer depth gauge micrometer combination set
21. The low pressure acetylene is produced at the welding site by the chemical reaction between water and calcium carbonate. A. Correct B. Incorrect
B. C. D.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D 22. The fullers are used A. B. C. for finishing flat surfaces for necking down a piece of work for punching a hole 28. When a hole or cavity to be cored is not in line with the parting surface, then a __________ is used. A. horizontal core
B. C. D.
vertical core drop core balanced core
34. A plug gauge is used to check the diameter of shafts and studs. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C 35. In back-hand welding, the angle between the welding torch and the work is kept as 29. The bloom is smaller than a billet. A. True B. False A. C. 30-40 50-60 B. D. 40-50 60-70
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
30. In average work, the tolerance produced by investment casting method is A. B. C. D. 0.05 mm +0.2 mm +05 mm +1 mm
36. The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon A. B. C. D. type of casting metal size and shape of casting method of casting used all of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
31.
The purpose of a riser is to A. B. deliver molten metal into the mould cavity act as a reservoir for the molten metal feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
37. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a A. B. C. D. carbon electrode and the work metal electrode and the work bare metal electrode and the work two tungsten electrodes and the work
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
38. In shielded arc welding A. B. C. D. large electrode is used welding rod coated with slag is used welding rod coated with fluxing material is used none of the above
32. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be A. B. C. D. equal to minor diameter of the thread equal to pitch diameter of the thread a little larger than the minor diameter of the thread a little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Answer: Option C
39. In a die casting method, the molten metal is forced into mould under high pressure. A. Correct B. Incorrect
Answer: Option C
33. The cross-section of a chisel is usually A. C. rectangular hexagonal B. D. square octagonal
Answer: Option A
40. In a centrifugal casting method, the impurities are collected in the centre of the casting. A. Yes B. No
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
41. In a hot chamber die casting machine A. B. C. D. melting pot is separate from the machine melting pot is an integral part of the machine melting pot may have any location high temperature and pressure is used
A. B. C. D.
zinc diffusion process process of coating zinc by hot dipping process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel none of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
47. The ferrous metals require more machining allowance than non-ferrous metals. A. True B. False
42. The electrodes used in spot welding have a tip of A. B. C. D. stainless steel aluminium copper brass
Answer: Option A
48. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which A. B. C. one is working roll and three are backing up rolls two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls three are working rolls and one is backing up roll all of the four are working rolls
Answer: Option C
43. Blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in a A. B. C. D. simple die progressive die compound die combination die
D.
Answer: Option B
49. When a pattern is made in three parts, the bottom part is known as a cope. A. True B. False
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B 44. A pattern maker's shrinkage rule considers A. B. C. D. all pattern allowances only shrinkage allowance all materials to be cast all materials of the pattern
50. In __________ welding, the weld may be made either from left to right or from right to left. A. C. fore-hand vertical B. back-hand
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
45. The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is A. B. C. D. +0.05 mm 0.2 mm +0.5 mm 1 mm
Answer: Option B
46. Galvanising is a

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Automobile Engineering 1. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is A. B. C. D.

seat belt brake airbag steering

43. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of A. C. 25 70 B. D. 45 90

47. The petrol engines are also known as

5. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is A. C. 200C 700C B. D. 500C 1000C

Answer: Option A and Gas Turbines Compressors, Gas Dynamics

compressor is A. B. C. D. 10 bar 20 bar 30 bar 50 bar

low speeds high speeds low altitudes high altitudes

Answer: Option D 25. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at

37. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is A. C. 4 9 B. D. 1 12

isothermal efficiency mechanical efficiency

Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

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13. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has A. fixed structure at all temperatures

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Answer Answer: Option B

Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

Answer B. Answer: Option B C.

P = W tan( + ) P = W (sin + cos) P = W (cos + sin) Answer: Option B

15. The unit of angular acceleration is A. N-m m/s2 B. D. m/s rad/s2

Answer Answer: Option B

Answer Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

24. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is A.

25. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of projection is A. 30 60 B. D. 45 90

output to the input all of the above

Answer Answer: Option C

Answer Answer: Option C

Answer Answer: Option B

equal to equal and opposite to less than greater than

equal to less than greater than

The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to

The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon th

The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in

Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the a difference.

12. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by A.

D. Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

26. Which of the following represents a heat pump?

30. The highest thermal diffusivity is of A. C. iron concrete B. D. lead wood

33. An electrolux refrigerator is called a __________ absorption system. A. single fluid

27. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is

39. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is

44. Nusselt number (NN) is given by A.

50 to 70 C 70 to 110 C none of these

diameter square of diameter cube of diameter fourth power of diameter

4. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between A. 2 to 4 4 to 8 8 to l6 16 to 24

50. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression system is A. 20 to 50 C

inversely proportional to H1/2 directly proportional to H3/2 inversely proportional to H3/2

directly proportional inversely proportional

pipe close to the cylinder of the pump. C. A. True B. False

takes place in one direction

Answer Answer: Option A

Answer Answer: Option D

Answer Answer: Option B C. Cd 2g x H2

Answer Answer: Option D

Answer Answer: Option C

D. Answer Answer: Option C

actual discharge through an orifice to the dieoretical discharge

Answer Answer: Option A

Answer Answer: Option A

Cd x b2g(H2 - H1) Answer: Option A