JPT 3 DLPD JEE Adv 26 05 2013 P 1 C 0 English

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 228

PAPER - 1
CODE
0
JEE PREPARATORY TEST (JPT) (JEE ADVANCED)
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 60 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :
Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
9. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
11. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/her marks will not be
displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
12. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremely careful while
darken the bubble corresponding to your answer.
13. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not
scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics). Each part consists of Five Sections.
16. For each question in SectionI, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
17. For each question in SectionII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.
18. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of
incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
19. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.
20. For each question in SectionV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer in this section.
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CLASS-XII/XIII | TARGET : JEE (ADVANCED) 2013 | COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-1
PHYSICS
Space for Rough Work
PART- I - PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In the formulae
2
hc
x
0
A A e
= ; where h is the plancks constant and c is the speed of light then dimensional
formulae of x is
(A) ML
3
T
3
(B) MLT
1
(C) ML
4
T
3
(D) M
0
L
0
T
0
2. A particle of mass m moves from A to C under the action of force
j
y i
xy 2 F
2
+ =
along different paths as shown in the figure ; then : Select

the correct options
(A) force is conservative
(B) work done in path ABC is
8
5
Joule
(C) force is non-conservative and work done along path AC is 1 Joule
(D) work done in ADC is
14
5
Joule
3. A uniform solid sphere of radius r is spinned with angular velocity
e
rad/s
and placed at a corner wall as shown in the figure. If the coeffiecent of friction
at the wall as well as floor is then the number of turns after which the
sphere stops is
(A)
) 1 ( g 10
) 1 ( R
2 2
+ t
+ e
(B)
) 1 ( g 10
R
2
+ t
e
(C)
) 1 ( R
) 1 ( g
2 2
+
+ e
(D)
) 1 ( g 5
) 1 ( R
2 2
+
+ e
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-2
PHYSICS
4. A person is standing in a field at a perpendicular distance of D from a road adjoining the field. A car travelling
with a constant speed u is sounding a horn of frequency f
0
continuously. The frequency of the horn heard by
the person when the car is at closest distance from him would be : (velocity of sound is v )
(A) f
0
(B)
2 2
2
0
u v
v
f
(C)
2 2
2
0
u v
v
f
+
(D)
( )
2
2 2
0
v
u v
f
+
5. A small dipole of dipole moment p is placed parallel to y axis at a point ( )
0 0
x ; y in a non uniform electric
field varying as E y i = o
where o is a constant. The magnitude of torque acting on dipole with respect to

origin would be :
(A)
0
2 y p o (B)
0
y p o (C) 2 p o (D) Zero
6. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and B in the following circiut is :
(A)
3
C 4
(B)
3
C 8
(C) 12C (D)
12
C 5
7. The state (principle quantum number n) of a triply ionised Berilium atom whose orbital radius is same as that
of ground state of hydrogen is
(A) n = 1 (B) n = 2 (C) n = 3 (D) None of these
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-3
PHYSICS
8. In a YDSE experiment with d = 2mm = 600 nm and D = 1m. The position of the point on the screen from
the centre whose intensity is 75% of the maximum is : (Assume the intensity at the screen due to each slit
is same)
(A) 0.01 mm (B)
4
13 10 mm
(C) 0.05 mm (D)

4
1.5 10 mm
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answers Type
This section contains 6 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
9. If a sphere of mass m moving with a velocity u collides with another identical sphere at rest on a frictionless
surface, then which of the following is/are correct :
(A) angle between their final velocities may be 90 (B) loss in kinetic energy lies between 0 and
2
mu
2
1
(C) colliding sphere may return back. (D) the final kinetic energy may be less than
2
mu
2
1
10. For a moving particle, the position vector at any time is given as ( ) 0
r i 2j sin = + e

t, then the motion of the
particle is
(A) elliptical (B) along a straight line (C) periodic (D) Simple harmonic
11. A uniform solid cylinder is rotating about its axis with an angular velocity
0
e and kept on a rough horizontal
surface with coeffcient of friction . After some time t it starts pure rolling with angular velocity
e
and
centre of mass velocity v then. Choose the correct options :
(A)
0
R
t
3 g
e
=
(B)
0
3
e
e =
(C) energy lost
2 2
0
3
mR
4
= e (D) Work done by friction during this time =
6
R m
2 2
0
e
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-4
PHYSICS
12. In a youngs double slit experiment with white light with slit separation d and scrren slit ditance D(>>d)
certain wavelengths are missing in front of the slits. The missing wavelengths are
(A)
2
d
2D
(B)
2
d
4D
(C)
2
d
3D
(D)
2
d
5D
13. The force acting on a 1kg particle initially at rest is given by
F a bv =
where
a 6N =
and
1
b 2Nsm
= then
(A) the particle will attain a terminal speed of 2ms
1
(B) the particle will attain a terminal speed of 3ms
1
(C) the speed of the particle is
1
1.5ms
when the accleration is half of its initial value.

(D) the speed of the particle varies as
( )
t
V 3 1 e
=
14. In the system as shown in the figure
1 2
m m > the system initally is at rest and in
equillibirum. Just after breaking the thread AB, pickup correct options
(A) accelerations of m
2
is zero
(B) accelerations of m
1
is zero
(C) magnitudes of accelerations of both the blocks is unequal
(D) magnitudes of accelerations of both the blocks is equal
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-5
PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17
A charge q of mass m is thrown with a velocity u
0
in a region containing a uniform magnetic field B
0
as shown
in the figure. The magnitic field is present only in a region
0
0
mu
d d
qB
| |
<
|
\ .
15. The angle of deviation surffered by the particle coming out of the magnetic field is
(A)
1 0
0
qB d
sin
mu
| |
u =
|
\ .
(B)
1 0
0
qB
cos
mu d
| |
u =
|
\ .
(C)
1 0
2 2
0 0
qB d
tan
q B mu
| |
u = |
|
+
\ .
(D)
1 0
0
mu d
cot
qB
| |
u =
|
\ .
16. The time spent by the particle in magnetic fild is
(A)
|
|
.
|
\
|
d mu
qB
cos
qB
m
0
0 1
0
(B)
|
|
.
|
\
|
0
0 1
0
mu
d qB
sin
qB
m
(C)
|
|
.
|
\
|
+
0
2
0
2
0 1
0
mu B q
d qB
tan
qB
m
(D)
|
|
.
|
\
|
0
0 1
0
qB
d mu
cot
qB
m
17. If
0
0
3mu
d
2qB
=
then the magnitude of average impulse acted on the particle while it moves through the field
is
(A)
2
mu
0
(B)
2
3 mu
0
(C)
0
mu (D)
2
3 mu
2
mu
0 0
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-6
PHYSICS
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
This section contains 2 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
18. STATEMENT-1 :- When an object moves towards a plane mirror with a certian speed, its image will also
move with the same speed.
STATEMENT-2 : - The perpendicular distance from mirror to image is equal to perpendicular distance of
object from mirror
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
19. STATEMENT-1 :If the turn ratio in a transfromer is 200 then the secondary voltage would be 2000V if primary
voltage applied is 10V.
STATEMENT-2 :- If the ratio of secondary to primary voltage in transormer is 200 then the ratio of secondary
to primary coil current must be
200
1
.
SECTION - V
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 1 questions. Each question contains statements given in two
columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled
A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any
given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example.
If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of
bubbles will look like the following :
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-7
PHYSICS
20. Match the column :
Column I Column II
(A)
1/v
P
P versus
V
1
diagram for an ideal gas (p) Specific Heat = 0
(B)
V
P
P versus V diagram for an ideal gas (q) Specific Heat
=
0
(C)
V
P
P versus V diagram for an ideal gas (r) U 0 A =
(D)
V
P P versus V diagram for an ideal gas (s) U 0 A =
(t) W = 0 by the gas
RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-8
PART- II - CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
This section contains 8 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
21. 1mol of an ideal gas is heated at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from 300K to 400K
if
( )
3
,
21.686 10 /
= +
v m
C T J molK the H A for the process is :
(A) 3000 (B) 3035 (C) 3350 (D) 30350
22. The ratio of time intervals t
1
; t
2
is 1:0.602 where t
1
& t
2
are the time period for
1 3
4 4
th th
and
| | | |
| |
\ . \ .
completion of
first order reactions. Find the ratio of their half-lives :
(A) 4:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 8:1 (D) 1:4
23. An aqueous solution boils at 374K. What is the freezing point of same solution ?
(Given k
f
= 1.86C/m and k
b
= 0.51C/m)
(A) 3.647C (B) -3.647C (C) 2.647C (D) -2.647C
24. The distance between the centre of octahedral and tetrahedral void in FCC lattice is
(A)
3
2
a
(B)
3
4
a
(C)
3a
(D)
3
3
a
25. Mercury is a liquid metal because
(A) it has a completely filled s-orbital
(B) it has a small atomic size
(C) it has a completely filled d-orbital that prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals
(D) it has a completely filled d-orbital that causes d-d overlapping
RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-9
26. Final major product of reaction is :
( )
3
3
2
) .
) / A

i O dil NaOH
ii Zn CH S
X Y
(A) (B)
O
(C)
O
(D)
O
O
27. Which isomer of C
4
H
8
is more stable ?
(A)
3 2 2
CH CH CH CH = (B)

(C)

(D)

RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-10
28. and are :
(A) Enantiomers (B) Geometrical isomers
(C) Position isomers (D) Conformers
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
29. The smelting of Fe in a blast furnace involves, which of the following process/(es) ?
(A) Combustion (B) Reduction (C) Slag formation (D) Sublimation
30. The HCP & CCP structure for a given element would be expected to have
(A) same coordination number (B) same density
(C) same packing fraction (D) same number of atoms in single unit cell
31. When a lead storage battery is discharged than :
(A) SO
2
is evolved
(B) lead sulphate is produced at both electrodes
(C) sulphuric acid is consumed
(D) water is formed
32. The compound in which all atoms are in one plane in all the possible conformation (if any) is %
(A) HC C CH = CH
2
(B)
HC C C CH
(C)
2 2
CH CH CH CH = = (D)
HC CH
RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-11
33. Which of the following as a compound have suffix as onium is/are correct in their nomenclature?
(A)
4
NH
(B)
3
H O (C)
2
H F
(D)
3
CH
34. Which is/are ambident nucleophile ?

(A)
2
NO (B)
CN
(C)
3
NaHSO (D)
Cl
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 3 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos.35 & 37
Electrophile are electron deficient species which have either positive charge, vacant orbital or atom with
incomplete octet. Greater the amount of deficiency of electron more easily a nucleophile will attack over it
and these electron deficiency is a obtained by electronic factors such as Resonance, Hyperconjugation &
inductive Effects
35. Which species will not be considered as an electrophile ?
(A) NH
3
(B) AlCl
3
(C)
3 2
CH CH
(D) SO
3
36. The site in the given molecule where nucleophile attacks fastest is

Br
O O
H
Br
I
II
III
IV
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) V I
RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-12
37. Which species has most electrophilic site for nucleophilic attack?
(A)
Cl
NO
2
NO
2
(B)
Cl
NO
2
NO
2
(C)
Cl
NO
2
NO
2
(D)
Cl
NO
2
O
2
N
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
This section contains 2 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
38. Statement-1 : In acid base titration involving weak base & strong acid, methyl red can be
used as an indicator
Statement-2 : Methyl red changes its colour in pH range approximately from 4.2 to 6.3
39. Statement-1 : E
cell
= 0 for a chloride ion concentration cell
Statement-2 : For this concentration cell
| | (

|
=
| (

\ .
LHS
cell
RHS
Cl
RT
E n
nF Cl
RESONANCE
CHEMISTRY
P1JPT3260513C0-13
SECTION - V
Matrix - Match Type
to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example.
40. Column - I Column - II
(A)
Ph
CH
3
N
OH
+
H
CH
3
C N Ph
H
O
(p) Rearrangement reaction
(B)
OH

OH

H
+

O

(q) Isomerization reaction
(C)
O

H
+

OH
(r) Elimination reaction
(D)

( )
2 2
4
) /
)
i Hg OAc H O
ii NaBH

OH
(s) Addition reaction
(t) Carbocation formation
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-14
MATHEMATICS
PART- III - MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
41. Number of integers a for which roots of the equation
2
x 5x a 0 + + =
are such that one is rational and
other irrational is
(A) 1 (B) No such a exists (C) more than one, but finite (D) infinitely many
42. If 2x + y - 1 = 0, 3x - y + 2 = 0 and x + 2y + 1 = 0 are sides of a triangle, then largest internal angle of triangle
is
(A) tan
-1
7 (B)
1
3
tan
4
(C)
3
4
t
(D) none of these
43. Let A (3,5),B (9,5) . If radius of circle given by locus of point P at which chord AB subtend an angle
12
t
is R, [R] = ( where [.] for greater integer function)
(A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D)13
44. P is the center of variable circle that touches both the circles
2 2
x y 25 + = and
2 2
x y 2x 0 + = internally..
Locus of P is a conic whose eccentricity is
(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/4
45. a,b,c

are three unit vectors. If
a,b, c 1
(
=

and a x(b c) y(c a) z(a b) = + +

then,x + y + z is
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 0
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-15
MATHEMATICS
46. If a, b, c, d, e are in HP, then
a b c d e
, , , ,
b c d e c d e a d e a b e a b c a b c d + + + + + + + + + + + + + + +
are in
(A) G.P. (B) H.P. (C) A.P. (D) none of these
47.
3 4 5
r s k
r , s,k W,r s k 3
C . C . C
e + + =
equals
(A) 66 (B) 220 (C) 450 (D) none of these
48. Five persons ,sitting in a row, decided to reoccupy their seats arbitrarily. What is the probability that each of
them either occupied their own seat or exchanged with their neighbour ?
(A) 1/15 (B) 1/5 (C) 1/8 (D) none of these
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
49. If in triangle ABC, A is the largest angle and
2 2 2
sin A sin B sin C 2 + + = , then which of the following is correct
(symbols have usual meanings)
(A) circumradius = 2a
(B) inradius =
b c 2R
2
+
(C) distance between circumcenter and orthocenter is a/2
(D) probability that the triangle is obtuse angled is less than 3/4
50. If
t
=
2
i
3
w e and
2
2
iw iw
A
iw iw
(

= (
(

, then AA
2
+ 2 I =
(A) + I (2 w) (B) ( )
2
1 2w I (C) + I (2 i 3) (D) + I
2
(2 iw )
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-16
MATHEMATICS
51. Let ) (x A =
x x
x x x
x ec x x x x
2 2
2 2 2
2
cos cos 1
cot 1 cos cos
cos cot tan 1 cos sec
+
+ +
then the general solution of the equation
5
1
(x) cos x
4
A + = is/are
(A)
n
n ( 1) ,n I
6
t
t + e
(B)
I n ,
6
17
n e
t
t
(C)
t
t e
5
n ,n I
6
(D)
I n ,
6
13
n e
t
t
52. Let
tanx cot x
2 2
0 0
dt tdt
f(x)
t(1 t ) 1 t
= +
+ +
} }
, then
(A) f(x) is periodic with fundamental period
2
t
(B) f(x) is periodic but have no fundamental period
(C) f(1) = 1
(D) Rolles theorem can be applied to f(x) for the interval
(
4
5
,
4

53.
( )
dx
x
x x
}
+
+ +
2
2
3 sec 2
tan 3 sec 2 3
=
(A)
cosx
C
3 2sec x
+
+
(B)
cosx 2 3sinx
C
2 3cosx
+ +
+
+
(C)
sinx 4 6cosx
C
3cosx 2

+
+
(D)
sinx 2 3cos x
C
2 3cos x
+ +
+
+
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-17
MATHEMATICS
54. Let f(t) = t where
2
tx x + + is a quadratic expression having vertex at (1, -2) then
(A) f is a differentiable function t R e
(B) f is a nonmonotonic function on R
(C) f has one maxima and one minima
(D) f has a local maxima but has no absolute maxima.
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 55 to 57
Let f(x) and g(x) be real valued differentiable functions so that ( ) f x 0 x R > e and R x 0 ) x ( g e < . Also
let ( ) ( ) ( ) h x f x ig x = + ,where i 1 =
55. If h(1), 0, h(2) are collinear in the complex plane, then to which of the following functions Rolles theorem is
applicable ?
(A) f(x) + g(x) (B) f(x) - g(x) (C) f(x) g(x) (D)
( )
( )
f x
g x
56. Let f(x) f ''(x) + g(x)g''(x) + (f '(x))
2
+ (g'(x))
2
| | 0 x 1, 2 < e ,
h(1) 1
arg
h(1) i 4
| | + t
=
|
\ .
and
h(2) 2
arg
h(2) 2i 4
| | + t
=
|
\ .
. Then
the number of solutions to the equation f(x) f '(x) + g(x) g'(x) = 3/2 in the interval (1, 2) is
(A) exactly 1 (B) more than 1 (C) less than 1 (D) exactly 2
57. Let ( ) ( )
1
h x f x ix = and ( )
3
2
h x 16 x i, x R = + + e . If triangle ABC with complex affixes
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
1 2
A h x , B h x , C 0, 0 is right angled at C, for all x ,then the function f(x) has
(A) exactly one maxima and no minima
(B) exactly one minima and no maxima
(C) exactly one maxima and exactly one minima
(D) no critical point
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-18
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Reasoning Type
This section contains 2 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
58. Statement 1 : If
2 2 2
a b c 1,a b c 9 + + = + + = and
3 3 3
a b c 1 + + = , then
1 1 1
1
a b c
+ + =
Statement 2 : ( )
( )
3 3 3 2 2 2
a b c 3abc a b c a b c ab bc ca + + = + + + +
59. Let
2013
2011 ) ( ) (
2013
b y f x f y x
f
+ +
=
|
.
|
\
| +
x, y and f ' (0) = a .
Statement 1 : If f is differentiable at 0, then ( ) (0) f x f x ' ' = and f(x) = ax + b .
Statement 2 : If f is differentiable, then f(2013) = 2013 f(1) - 2012b .
RESONANCE
P1JPT3260513C0-19
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - V
Matrix - Match Type
to these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example.
60. Consider the planes 0
1
= + + z y x P and 2
2
= + z y x P and the point Q(1,1,1)
Column I Column II
(A) Plane through line of intersection of P
1
,P
2
(p)
x z 1 0 + =
and at maximum distance from Q is
(B) Plane through Q making equal angles with P
1
,P
2
is (q)
x z 2 0 + =
(C) If plane P
2
is rotated by an angle 90 about its (r) x + 4y + z + 3 = 0
intersection with P
1
, then its new position is
given by
(D) Bisector plane of P
1
,P
2
, of the angle containing (s) x + 2y + z +1 = 0
Q is
(t) x + 2y + z - 4 =0
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JPT 3 DLPD JEE Adv 26 05 2013 P 1 C 0 English

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