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Q.Text: Type of instruction for 8085 ----------A Data transfer B arithmetic C logical D A,B,C all Q.Text: Addressing mode --------for 8085 A register B Register indirect C direct D A,B,C all Q.Text: Valid Illustration of data transfer instruction for 8085 A ADD B B MOV A,B C MVI D LXI H Q.Text Illustration of arithmetic instruction for 8085 A ADI 05 B ORA B C ADD B,A D DAD Q.Text Illustration of logical instruction for 8085 A XCHG B ORA L C ORI D XOR A Q.Text Illustration of branching instruction of 8085 A JMP 3050 B JUMP C JMP 50 D JUMP 60 Q.Text Illustration of conditional jump instruction for 8085 A JMP 5000 B JNZ 6000 C JCN 3000 D JOP 3100 Q.Text ---------- instruction of 8085 rotates accumulator data through carry bit A RLC B RRC C RAL D RLA Q.Text ---------- instruction of 8085 does not rotate accumulator data through carry bit A RAL B RAR C RCR D RLC Q.Text -------- is not valid instruction of 8085 A MOV A,o5 B MOV A,B C MOV B,C D MOV L,H Q.Text ------- valid data transfer instruction of 8085 A MOV A,B B MOV D,A C MOV D,E D A,B,C all

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Q.Text ------------Valid arithmetic instruction for 8085 A ADD 0510 B SUB HL C ADC C D ADI,3020 Q.Text-------------:invalid arithmetic instruction for 8085 A SUB A B SUB 59 C SBB B D SBI 95 Q.Text -------- valid data transfer instruction for 8085 A LHLD 4020 B LHLD 50 C SHLD 60 D LHLD A,B Q.Text Valid logical instruction for8085 ---------A ORA 15 B ORI 51 C ORI 1234 D ORI H Q.Text ------- invalid logical instruction for 8085 A ORA M B ORA B C ORA HL D ORI 15 Q.Text---------valid data transfer instruction for 8085 A MVI A, 00 B MVI 00,A C MVI A,H D XCHANG Q.Text-------- valid instruction for 8085 A LXI HL B LXI H 4567 C LXI BE D LXI H 32H1 Q.Text------- invalid instruction for 8085 A DAD AB B DAD B C DAD H D DAD D Q.Text -------- valid direct addressing instruction for 8085 A LDA 50 B LDA 3050 C LDA,B D LDA, HL Q.Text------- invalid data transfer by direct addressing in 8085 A SHLD 5090 B SHLD HL C SHLD ABCD D SHLD AB00 Q.Text ------- valid instruction to add with carry for 8085 A ADD C B ADI 50 C ADC HL D ADC B Q.Text --------- invalid instruction of 8085 to add with carry A ADC B B ADC M C ACI H D ACI 45 Q.Text----------valid comparision instruction of 8085 A CMP B B CMP 09 C CMP A,B D CMP 3060 Q.Text -------- invalid comparision instruction of 8085 A CPI 10 B CMP D C CMP M D CPI H Q.Text--------- valid instruction for complement of register A of 8085 A CMB B CMA C CMD D CME

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Q.Text -------- invalid instruction to get complement of A with 8085 A CMB B --------C CMA D --------Q.Text -------valid instruction of 8085 to get complement of CY A CMA B CMB C CCY D CMC Q.Text 8085 instruction to set carry bit -----A CMC B STC C STCY D CMA Q.Text 8085 MP has set of ------- instructions A 64 B 128 C 250 D 256 Q.Text ------- instruction is one byte A NOP B MVIA,05 C LXI H,1234 D STA 6000 Q.Text -------- instruction has two bytes A XCHG B LHLD 1500 C MVI A,15 D CMA Q.Text ------instruction has three bytes A RLC B STA 8090 C DAD H D MVI A, AB Q.Text 8085 program is terminated by ------instrucion A STOP B END C GO D HLT Q.Text ------- is not a valid register pair of 8085 A AB B BC C DE D HL Q.Text XCHG instruction of 8085 interchanges data -----------register pairs A BC & DE B AB & BC C HL & DE D BC & HL Q.Text ------- instruction of 8085 does not handle two byte data A XCHG B DAD D C MVI A,50 D SHLD 1500 Q.Text Minimum T states required to execute 8085 instruction:------A 8 B 4 C 2 D 0 Q.Text --------- instruction of 8085 affect carry bit A RAL B RAR C RLC D A,B,C all Q.Text Carry is affected by --------- instruction of 8085 A RLC B RAL C RRC D A,B,C all Q.Text -------is not stack related instruction of 8085 A PUSH H B PUSH PSW C POP D D SIM

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Q.Text -------- register pair data can be stored to stack in 8085 A HL B BC C DE D HL,BC,& DE Q.Text-------- is not stack related instruction of 8085 A POP H B POP B C POP D D RIM Q.Text PUSH & POP instructions of 8085 store & retrieve data pairs in the same sequence.True/false A true B ------C false D -------Q.Text PUSH instruction of 8085 transfers -------byte data A one B two C three D four Q.Text By PUSH PSW of 8085 accumulator content and flag conditions can not be saved. True / false A False B -----C true D -----Q.Text----------: interrupt control instruction of 8085 A SIM B RIM C DI D A,B,C all Q.Text ADI 01 & INR has the same effect. True/false A -------B false C ------D true Q.Text------ is a single byte instruction of 8085 operating on two byte data A INR A B INX A C INX B D DCX A Q.Text If HL & DE pairs of 8085 contain addresses XY & PQ having data 0A & 0B, by XCHG instruction , the location of data 0A & 0B will be interchanged. True/false! A -------B True C false D -----Q.Text 8085MP has ----- general purpose registers A 3 B 5 C 7 D 9 Q.Text on 8085 MP register pair----- is not used for two byte addition A AB B BC C DE D HL Q.Text The maximum number stored by 8085 register is -------A 64 B 126 C 255 D 256 Q.Text Internal working of microprocessor is controlled by ------code A Hex B octal C ternary D binary Q.Text 8085 MP has ------- lines for address & data

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A 8 B 16 C 24 D 32 Q.Text 8085 MP has ----- flags A 5 B 3 C 7 D 8 Q.Text -------- of 8085 keeps track of program execution A stack B flags C PC D clock Q.Text ------- bus of 8085 used for communication of various signals A data B address C control D A,B,C all Q.Text Maximum memory size possible with 8085 MP is ------bytes A 8k B 16k C 64k D 128k Q.Text Stack pointer is a----------- register A 16bit B 8bit C not D ALU Q.Text Stack is part of -------- in 8085 A register B memory C ALU D PC Q.Text Memory of 8085 consists of ----------A RAM B ROM C STACK D A,B,C all Q.Text ------- is also called read/write memory A ROM B PC C RAM D SP Q.Text User program of 8085 goes to ------- part of memory A ROM B RAM C stack D PC Q.Text Monitor routines of 8085 are stored at--------A ROM B RAM C stack D PC Q.Text Speed of processor is controlled by-------A Registers B PC C stack D Clock f Q.Text 8085 MP has ------pins for various signals A 16 B 32 C 40 D 64 Q.Text Clock frequency with 8085 MP is ----A 1MHZ B 3MHZ C 10MHZ D 3KHZ Q.Text 8085 MP requires ------- supply A +5V B Minus 5V C 5V AC D 10V DC Q.Text Incoming,out going,high & low signals are indicated by -------A Inward arrows B Outward arrows

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C Bars at top D A, B, C all Q.Text Interrupt --------of 8085 is non maskable A RST5.5 B RST6.5 C RST7.5 D TRAP Q.Text------- interrupt of 8085 has highest priority A TRAP B RST7.5 C RST6.5 D RST5.5 Q.Text --------- is not a soft ware vector call of 8085 A RST0 B RST3 C TRAP D RST7 Q.Text-------- is not a hardware vector call of 8085 A TRAP B RST7.5 C RST6.5 D RST0 Q.Text Programming of 8085 MP is done in --------language A C B Assembly C basic D Fortran Q.Text TRAP vector call directs the 8085 program to ---------location A 0024H B 0030H C 0020H D 0000H Q.Text Interrupts o f 8085 can be enabled by -------- instruction A SIM B RIM C EI D DI Q.Text Which interrupt of 8085 can not be masked by DI A RST7.5 B RST6.5 C RST5.5 D TRAP Q.Text Ascending order of priority of 8085 interrupts is: TRAP,RST7.5,RST6.5,RST5.5. TRUE/FALSE! A True B -----C false D -----Q.Text Interrupt system can be extended by --------A INTR B RST7.5 C RST6.5 D RST5.5 Q.Text High speed I/O is possible with8085 by---------A TRAP B INTR C DMA D RST Q.Text -------- is not a known manufacturer of microprocessor chips A Intel B Motorola C Zylog D Wipro Q.Text Serial input of data is allowed by ------- in 8085 A SIM B SID C RIM D INTR Q.Text Serial output of data is allowed by-------- for 8085 A SOD B SIM C RIM D INTR Q.Text ALU of 8085 is connected to --------- on input side A Accumulator B Temporary register

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C Flag flip flops D A,B,C all Q.Text From address bus the instruction code goes to --------register in 8085 MP A Increment B Interrupt C Instruction D incoming Q.Text 8 bit internal data bus of 8085 is connected to --------A Interrupt control B Serial I/O control C Accumulator D A,B,C all Q.Text Increment/decrement address latch is connected to -------A PC B Address Buffer C Data/Address Buffer D A,B,C all Q.Text ----------- address lines of 8085 are used for address & data both A Lower B all C higher D -----Q.Text Signals ---------of 8085 are used as status signals A INTR& INTRA B S0 & S1 C HLD & HLDA D X1 &X2 Q.Text Memory read & write operations can be done simultaneously for 8085. False/True A False B TRUE C No idea D yes Q.Text During memory related operation of 8085 the address is managed by--------A SID B SOD C ALE D HOLD Q.Text---------- signal is necessary inDMA operation of 8085 A RESET B HOLD C RST7.5 D TRAP Q.Text ------- signal is used to mach the speed of 8085 with peripheral devices A INTR B INTRA C HOLD D READY Q.Text Processing of 8085 starts after --------- signal goes low A RESET OUT B RESET IN C INTR D INTRA Q.Text Oscillator circuit of 8085 is connected to -------- signal pins A S0,s1 B X1,x2 C SOD,SID D AD0,AD1 Q.Text Timing and control block of 8085 contains --------A Clock generator B Read/Write control C Status signals D A,B,C all Q.Text --------- is not an incoming signal for interrupt circuit A INTR B INTA C TRAP D RST7.5 Q.Text MOV B,A of 8085 has ------- T-states.

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A 4 B 7 C 10 D 6 Q.Text MVI M,19 of 8085 has ------- T-states

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A 7 B 10 C 4 D 6 Q.Text Resolution of 8 bit ADC is ----% A 1 B 4 C 2.5 D 0.4 Q.Text IC chip ------ is for key board interface A 8085 B 8279 C 8051 D 8237 Q.Text Chip-------- is a programmable peripheral interface A 8255 B 8259 C 8237 D IC741 Q.Text 8255 has ------ I/O pins A 16 B 32 C 24 D 40 Q.Text 8255 can not be operated in -----A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 Q.Text In mode0 of 8255 A&B are two 8 bit I/O &CU & CL 4bit I/O True/false! A false B -----C true D -----Q.Text For 8255 in mode0 which is not applicable! A Output latched B Input not latched C Interrupt facility D No handshake Q.Text For 8255 control register address is --------A 80H B 81H C 82H D 83H Q.Text For 8255 ------ is not valid chip select signal A 83H B 82H C 81H D 80H Q.Text For 8255 bit set/reset is permitted for --------port A A B B C C D A,B,C all Q.Text In the bit set/reset mode of port C of 8255------ bit should be zeo A D4 B D5 C D6 D D7 Q.Text In memory mapped I/O scheme of 8085 memory & I/O are assigned specific address from memory. True / false! A false B -----C true D ------

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Q.Text In memory mapped I/O scheme of 8085 chip select signal at bit 10 is active high. True/false A false B true C -----D ------Q.Text In memory mapped I/O scheme of 8085 input device can be selected by--------- at A15 & A14 bits A 0,1 B 1,0 C 0,0 D 1,1 Q.Text In memory mapped I/O scheme of 8085 input device can be selected by --------- at A15,A14 bits A 0,1 B 1,0 C 0,0 D 1,1 Q.Text Chip ------ is programmable interrupt controller A 8155 B 8255 C 8259 D 8279 Q.Text In interrupt controller RD,WR,CS (all active low) &A0 are applied to-------A Data bus buffer B Read/Write logic C Cascade buffer D comparator Q.Text Interrupt controller 8259A has -----interrupt request registers A 2 B 4 C 6 D 8 Q.Text Interrupt controller 8259A has ------A ISR B PR C IRR D A,B,C all Q.Text Chip ------- is DMA controller A 8257 B 8259 C 8155 D 8255 Q.Text By HOLD instruction for DMA operation all buses are -----A Active high B Active low C tristated D ------Q.Text HLDA of 8085 is active high output signal .true/false! A ------B true C false D -----Q.Text ------- chip is D to A converter A 1410 B 1608 C 1408 D 1480 Q.Text AD558 converter includes ---------A latch B D/A converter C Control logic D A,B,C all Q.Text Successive approximation IC has ---------A comparator B DAC C SAR D A,B,C all Q.Text clock signal used to generate T-states has ------- waveform A Sinusoidal B square C triangular D cosine

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Q.Text FETCH cycle of 8085 MP fetches -----A data B program C Instruction D result Q.Text During FETCH cycle of 8085 the instruction address is taken from --------A PC B Stack C memory D register Q.Text In 8085 address of instruction is taken during ------- state A T4 B T3 C T2 D T1 Q.Text Program counter of 8085 is incremented during ------ state A T1 B T2 C T3 D T4 Q.Text Addressed instruction of 8085 is transferred during ------- state A T4 B T3 C T2 D T1 Q.Text Fetch cycle of 8085 includes ---------- cycle A address B increment C memory D A,B,C all Q.Text By Fetch cycle of 8085 addressed instruction goes to -------A Accumulator B PC C stack D Instruction register Q.Text Execution cycle of 8085 involves --------A Instruction decoder B accumulator C Control lines D A,B,C all Q.Text During execution of program instruction comes from------A RAM B ROM C EPROM D PC Q.Text In MOV A,M instruction of 8085 memory address is given by ----------- register pair A AB B BC C DE D HL Q.Text To make HL pair free , sometimes --------- register pair of 8085 can be used to store memory address A AB B BC C DE D HL Q.Text While writing program of 8085 Op codes are represented in ------------form A binary B octal C HEx D ternary Q.Text Memory address of 8085 has ------ binary bits A 4 B 8 C 12 D 16 Q.Text -------- represent number system A binary B hexadecimal C decimal D A,B,C all

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Q.Text Binary 11001011 is equal to hex --------A CB B BC C AB D AC Q.Text Binary 11001011 is equal decimal ----------A 200 B 203 C 195 D 250 Q.Text -------- represent hex number AB in binary form A 10111010 B 11001001 C 10011100 D 10101011 Q.Text Represent hex number 9F in decimal form A 155 B 99 C 159 D 199 Q.Text Represent BCD number 85 in binary form A 10000101 B 10001010 C 10101110 D 01011000 Q.Text 8085 memory address is represented in -------- in programs A binary B hex C Decimal D octal Q.Text Represent decimal number 108 in binary form A 11011000 B 10011110 C 11101001 D 01101100 Q.Text Up counter for 8085 is formed using instruction ----------A DCR B DCX HL C INR A D JZ Q.Text Down counter of 8085 is formed using --------- instruction A INR B DCX H C INX D DAA Q.Text MVI A 0A loop DCR A JNZ loop will generate delay of T-states A 244 B 100 C 200 D 144 Q.Text Compared to single register, register pair used in delay routine can generate delay-------times more A 256 B 128 C 64 D 32 Q.Text Seven bit ASCII code of 5 is ------A 25 B 35 C 53 D A5 Q.Text Seven bit ASCII code of A is -----hex A 41H B 31H C 21H D 51H Q.Text Seven bit ASCII code 48H represents-------A A B E C H D F

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Q.Text Seven bit ASCII code 39H corresponds to -------A 00 B 09 C 05 D 0A Q.Text Seven segment display code of digit 8 is --------A AB B 5F C 7B D 7F Q.Text Seven segment display code of digit 0 is -------A 3F B 5F C 7F D 3A Q.Text 7D represents seven segment display code of digit -----A 3 B 5 C 6 D 9 Q.Text 5Brepresents seven segment code of digit -----A 1 B 2 C 0 D 5 Q.Text Instruction DAA of 8085 is used with -------- arithmetic programs A Binary B hex C decimal D BCD Q.Text Hex (3A + 16) =Hex --------A 40 B 56 C 50 D 80 Q.Text HEX (3A16) =Hex ---------A 24 B 26 C 20 D 22 Q.Text Binary 11100101 =decimal minus--------A 72 B 27 C 39 D 49 Q.Text Minus 30(decimal) is represented as binary -----------A 01110010 B 11111011 C 10101010 D 11100010 Q.Text with 8085 Accumulator data can be divided by 16 by executing ------times A RRA B RAL C RLC D RRC Q.Text In 8085 Mp small Accumulator data can be multiplied by 16 by executing ---------- times A RAR B RAL C RLC D RRC Q.Text In 8085 for negative number in Accumulator will -------- carry A set B reset C No idea D No effect Q.Text Maximum negative number stored by accumulator is --------(decimal) A 256 B 128

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C 255 D 127 Q.Text Double byte addition in 8085 is made possible by register pair A BC B DE C HL D BC,DE & HL Q.Text Chip allows programmable communication interface A 8251 B 8279 C 8155 D 8255 Q.Text Programmable communication interface 8251 has ----- pins A 16 B 28 C 32 D 40 Q.Text 8251 communication interface has --------A Transmit buffer B Transmit control C Modem control D A,B,C all Q.Text 8051 MC has -------- serial ports A 1 B 2 C 4 D 8 Q.Text Manufacturer of microcontroller:-------A Intel B Motorola C Rockwell D A,B,C all Q.Text 16 bit microcontroller manufacturer : -----------A Hitachi B Intel C National D A,B,C all Q.Text 8051 MC has ------------A Internal RAM B Internal ROM C Interrupt circuits D A,B,C all Q.Text Maximum frequency of 8051 MC is ---------MHZ A 32 B 16 C 8 D 4 Q.Text CPU registers of 8051 MC :---------A A,B B B,C C C,D D D,E Q.Text For 8251 communication interface ------- checks readiness of peripheral device A Status register B Control register C Data buffer D clock Q.Text Peripheral device for 8051 Mp:----------A memory B keyboard C ADC/DAC D A,B,C all Q.Text In R & S Latch for 8085 MP -------- at R&S are used for set command A 0&0 B 0&1 C 1&0 D 1&1 Q.Text 8051 MC has -------- address & data pins A 4+4 B 8+4 C 16+8 D 24+8 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------ I/O pins

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A 8 B 16 C 24 D 32 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------ eight bit registers A 8 B 16 C 34 D 64 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------16 bit registers A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Q.Text 8051 MC has internal ROM size of --------A 4k B 3k C 2k D 1k Q.Text 8051 MC has internal RAM size -------A 16 B 32 C 64 D 128 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------ flags A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------timers A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 Q.Text 8051 MC has ------- parallel ports A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16 Q.Text Data pointer of 8051 MC is -----bit A 4 B 8 C 16 D 32 Q.Text 8051 MC has full duplex data receiver/transmitter. True/false! A ------B true C -------D false Q.Text -------- is interrupt control register of 8051 MC A TCN B TMOD C SCON D IP Q.Text 8051 MC has ----math flags A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Q.Text 8051 MC has ----- general purpose user flags A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 Q.Text ------ flag of 8051 MC is not available with 8085 A C B AC C OV D P Q.Text ------- flag of 8051 MC is not a user flag A OV B FO C GFO D GF1 Q.Text -------- is not a math Flag of 8051 MC A C B AC

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C OV D FO Q.Text With 8051 MC external memory is addressed by-------A DP B A C B D IE/P Q.Text For 8051 MC I/O port latch is done by register ------A P1 B P2 C P3 D P0-P3 Q.Text Power control in 8051 MC is done by -------register A P0 B PCON C P2 D P3 Q.Text Serial port control of 8051 MC is done by register --------A P0 B SCON C PCON D P3 Q.Text Timer mode in 8051 MC is controlled by ---------- register A TL0 B THO C TL1 D TMOD Q.Text 8051 MC requires -------- supply A +5V B Minus 5V C 5V AC D 10V DC Q.Text All addressing modes of 8051MC are same as 8085 MP true/false! A -----B true C ------D false Q.Text --------- instruction of 8051 MC is three byte A MOV A, n B MOV A,Rr C MOV Rr, A D MOV DPTR,nn Q.Text -------- instruction is invalid for 8051 MC A MOV A,n B MOV Rr,A C MOV A,Rr D MVI A,n Q.Text MOV A, R0 in 8051 MC has --------addressing mode A immediate B register C indirect D direct Q.Text MOV add, Rr corresponds to -------- addressing mode of 8051 A immediate B register C indirect D direct Q.Text In direct addressing mode of 8051 MC the address should not be more than -------A 7F H B 9F H C 5F H D FF H Q.Text MOV @ Rp,n in 8051MC corresponds to --------addressing mode A immediate B register C indirect D direct Q.Text MOV A,n for 8051 MC corresponds to ------addressing mode A immediate B direct C register D indirect

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Q.Text -------- for 8051MC is example of register to register data transfer A XCHA,add B XCHA, @ Rp C XCHA, Rr D XCHD A,@Rp Q.Text instruction of 8051 complements content of register A A ORL A,Rr B XRL A,Rr C XRL add,A D CPL A Q.Text --------- instruction of 8051 MC corresponds to simple addition A ADD A,n B ADD A,Rr C ADD A, add D A,B,C all Q.Text -------- is not valid add with carry instruction of 8051MC A ADC A,n B ADDC A,n C ADDC A,add D ADDC A,Rr Q.Text ------is not valid subtract with borrow instruction of 8051 A SuBB A,n B SUBB A,add C SBB A,N D SUBB A,Rr Q.Text MUL AB is valid multiplication instruction of 8051 MC A false B -------C -------D true Q.Text To divide B by A the valid 8051 MC is DIV AB A false B true C -----D ---Q.Text RET with 8051 POPS 2 byte address from stack to PC A ------B true C false D -----Q.Text ------ is not unconditional jump instruction for 8051MC A AJMP sadd B LJ MPladd C JZradd D NOP Q.Text For 8051MC all jump address should be less than +------A 255d B 64d C 7Fd D 127d Q.Text JNZ is not valid for 8051MC A false B ------C true D ------Q.Text RETI --------interrupt enables flip flops in 8051 A set B reset C Do not affect D ----Q.Text In case of tie of interrupts for 8051 highest priority is given to -----------A Timer0 B Serial port C External Iinterrupt0 D Timer1 overflow Q.Text In case of Timer0 overflow in 8051the handler subroutine starts at ---------A 0003h B 000Bh C 0013h D 001B h Q.Text With 8051 programmer can set higher priority to an interrupt

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by setting priority bit to -------A 1 B 0 C 01 D 10 Q.Text To reset 8051MC active ------- reset pin is used A ------B low C ------D high Q.Text External memory is connected to 8051MC using port ----------for data/address buses A 0&1 B 0 &2 C 1& 2 D 2 &3 Q.Text Control signal -------- is used for ROM with 8051MC A PSEN bar B WR bar C RD bar D A,B,C all Q.Text Control signal ------- is used for RAM with 8051MC A PSEN bar B WR bar& RD bar C WR bar or RD bar D A,B,C all Q.Text Expansion of I/O, small control & bidirectional data buses for 8051MC can be made by ports -------A 0&1 B 1&2 C 0&2 D 1&3 Q.Text Programmable interface adopter for 8051 is provided by------A 8279 B 8255 C 8237 D 8251 Q.Text I/O port expansion of 8051 permits use of entire range of instructions A true B ----C false D -----Q.Text 32K memory chip at the port of 8051 can be addressed by A15 ---------A low B ----C high D No idea Q.Text Design testing of 8051 MC involves -------- test A crystal B ROM C RAM D A,B,C all Q.Text In crystal test for8051MC the ALE frequency should be--------of crystal frequency A 1/2 B 1/6 C 1/3 D 1/10 Q.Text If ROM test for 8051MC is successful the program stops at the---------- ROM address A highest B lowest C middle D No idea Q.Text For RAM test of 8051MC alternating pattern of 1&0 is written in RAM A -----B false C true D -------

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Q.Text For 8051MC time delay routine is generated by programmable time delay or timer with interrupt A ---------B false C --------D true Q.Text Software time delay for 8051MC uses -------A Register R7 B Register A C Register B D A,B, C all Q.Text UARTS of 8051MC permits serial 8bit --------coded characters at predefined rates A binary B ASCII C hex D octal Q.Text Asynchronous serial data transmission is not suitable for--------messages A long B short C -------D intermittent Q.Text SENDCHAR program of data transmission working: A Takes character B transmits C delay D A,B,C all in sequence Q.Text Serial character transmission mode for 8051: A Using delay B By polling C Interrupt driven D A,B,C all Q.Text For receiving serial data for 8051MC-------- method is not suitable A delay B polling C Interrupt driven D A,B,C all Q.Text Common application for microcontroller: A Key board interface B display C ADC/DAC D A,B,C all Q.Text Human factors in key board interface:-------------A Multiple key press B Held pressed C Rapid press/release D A,B,C all Q.Text Non human problems of key board interface A Key bounce B Multiple press C Held pressed D Rapid press/release Q.Text Scanning program with 8051MC for small key board-----------A GET KEY B IN KEY C CODEKEY D A,B,C all Q.Text Visible display group for 8051MC A Single light B Single character C Intelligent alpha numeric D A,B,C all Q.Text Single light displays are possible with LEDs true /false! A ------B true C -----D false Q.Text TIMERS T0&T1 of 8051MC can be used to measure frequency. True/false! A true B ----------

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C false D -------Q.Text To measure frequency with 8051MC T0 can be made counter and T1 can be made timer. True/false! A -------B -------C true D false Q.Text With 8051MC unknown f=-----------A Timer/counter B Counter/timer C Timer x counter D A,B,C all Q.Text With 12MHZ crystal of 8051MC the maximum measurable by timer & counter =--------A 500KHZ B 100KHZ C 12MHZ D 6MHZ Q.Text With 12 MHZ crystal of 8051MC the minimum measurable frequency =----------A 1KHZ B 100 KHZ C 0 D 10 HZ Q.Text With 8051MC with perfect square wave input pulse if Th =200 microsecond, unknown frequency =--------A 250KHZ B 500 KHZ C 5000HZ D 2500 HZ Q.Text With 8051 MC having 12 MHZ crystal, measurable maximum pulse width=---------milliseconds A 50 B 65.54 C 100 D 200 Q.Text R/2R DAC used with 8051MC give Vout=plus/minus --------V A 10 B 6 C 25 D 50 Q.Text R/2R DAC used with 8051 MC has conversion time of ---------microsecond A 1 B 5 C 10 D 100 Q.Text The control sequence used by R/2R type DAC with 8051MC is ----------A High CS then high WR B Low WR then low CS C High WR then high CS D Low CS then low WR Q.Text With R/2R DAC with 8051MC frequency generated using S sample points is independent of conversion time. True / false! A true B ----C false D ------Q.Text The DAC does not require OPAM on output side true/false! A false B ---------C true D --------Q.Text Flash type ADC with 8051MC has conversion time ------microsecond A 5 B 4

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C 2 D 1 Q.Text Flash ADC requires OPAM on output side. True / false! A ------B true C false D -----Q.Text 8051 has ------- external interrupt input pins A 1 B 2 C 0 D 4 Q.Text External interrupt inputs to 8051MC are active -------A low B ----C high D ----Q.Text One external interrupt pin of 8051MC can be expanded to attend --------- interrupts A 2 B 4 C 8 D 6 Q.Text Shift register mode is --------- mode of 8051MC A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 Q.Text Standard 8 bit UART mode is --------mode of 8051MC A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 Q.Text Multiprocessor is possible in -------- mode of 8051MC A 0 B 1 C 2 D 4 Q.Text In mode 3 of 8051 MC serial data communication maximum baud rate is ---------A 20 B 40 C 60 D 80k Q.Text In mode2 serial data communication of 8051MC when SMOD is cleared ,with 12 MHZ clock the baud rate is--------A 375K B 1000K C 100K D 200K Q.Text In mode2 serial data communication of 8051MC when SMOD is set, with 12MHZ clock the baud rate is -------A 100k B 150K C 187.5K D 250K Q.Text In mode 2&3 serial data communication with 8051MC,-----bit is a stop bit A Eighth B eleventh C fourth D fifth Q.Text In mode 2& 3 serial data communication with 8051MC --------bits define the character A 2-9 B 1-8 C 3-9 D 4-11 Q.Text In mode 2&3 serial data communication with 8051 MC bit is a start bit A 4th B 3rd

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C 2nd D 1st Q.Text In mode 2& 3 serial data communication with 8051MC -------bit is programmable A 1st B 3rd C 10th D 11th Q.Text Value of tenth bit in serial data communication with 8051MC is same as-------A SBUF B SCON3 C SCON2 D SCON1 Q.Text The character data for mode 2&3 of serial data communication with 8051MC comes from --------A SBUF B SCON1 C SCON2 D SCON3 Q.Text Mode0 of serial data communication with 8051MC uses ------as shift register A SCON1 B SCON2 C SCON3 D SBUF Q.Text Mode 0 of serial data communication is not suitable for interchange of data between 8051 microcontrollers. True / false! A -------B true C ------D false Q.Text Only mode ------ of serial data communication with 8051MC, controls when reception can take place A 1 B 2 C 0 D 3 Q.Text In mode 1 UART of serial communication with 8051MC ------bit is used for parity check A 9th B 1st C 2nd D 10th Q.Text Baud rates for mode 1&3 of serial data communication with 8051MC by overflow of timer 1 .true/false! A false B --------C true D -----Q.Text Mode1 serial data communication of 8051MC is interrupt driven. True / false! A true B -------C false D ------Q.Text --------- is not valid instruction for AND operation with 8051MC A ANL A,addr B ANA A,Rr C ANL A @ Rp D ANL A,n Q.Text -------- is not valid OR instruction for 8051MC A ORL A,Rr B ORL A @Rp C ORAL,n D ORL add,n Q.Text Is not valid move instruction for 8051MC A MOV A,Rr B MOV A,addr

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C MOV A,RP D MOV A,n Q.Text DC motor can be controlled using ---------motor driver with 8051MC A 8259 B 741 C 8155 D L293 Q.Text The direction of rotation of DC motor can be changed by swapping logic of P1.0 & P1.1 in 8051 MC. True / false! A true B ----C false D ----Q.Text For stepper motor control by 8051MC necessary pulses are developed through -------- network at XTAL1 & XTAL2 and RST A Resistances + switch B R-L +switch C L-C + switch D RC N/W + relay switch Q.Text Relays can be connected to 8051MC through ports -----A P0.4&P0.5 B P1.4&P1.5 C P2,4&P2.5 D Any of A,B,C Q.Text For PWM implementation on 8051MC TIMER0 is used in --------- mode A 0 B 1 C 2 D 3 Q.Text For PWM implementation on 8051MC, in mode0 total delay is kept same. True / false! A false B -----C true D -----Q.Text RTC chip DS12887 has nonvolatile capability due to internal --------- battery A lead B lithium C phosphate D mercury Q.Text Chip select signal of RTC DS12887 is active A high B positive C negative D low Q.Text Three alarm bytes matching with time generate alarm by -------A SET B PIE C AIE D UIE

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The Bio signal frequencies from various sections of the human body are in the A RF frequency range B Microwave range C 0 to few KHz D Few KHz to few MHz The EEG signals are originated from the A Glia cells B Motor units C Sino atrial node D Acetylcholine The ranges of frequency and voltage related to EEG are A 0.5 Hz to 100 Hz and 10 V to 100 V B DC to 10 kHz and 10 V to 1000 V C 0 to 100kHz and 0.1mV to few mV D 20 Hz to 100 Hz and 0 to few mV The bundle of muscle fibers in a muscle supplied by a single motor nerve fiber is called a A Motor unit B Purkinje fiber system C Bundle of His D Muscle spindle The bio electric generator of heart is situated at A Aortic valve B SA node C AY node D The brain The most abundant negative ions in our body are A sulphates B borates C chlorides D chlorates Among the following electrodes, which have high Zi? A Surface electrodes B Needle electrodes C Micro electrodes D Disc electrodes Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is from A Strain gauge transducer only B Strain gauge or capacitive transducer C Resistive transducer D Fiber optic sensor Among the contact media like Alcohol, Electrode pastes, Saline and multipoint electrode, which has the lowest impedance at 1 Hz? A Alcohol B Electrode paste C Saline D Multipoint electrode To obtain good contact between the electrode and the skin the gap is filled with an electrode paste containing A electrolytes B wax C glycerin D iodine The improper response time of the amplifier in the biomedical recorders A affects the gain of the amplifier B delays the signals C changes the shape of the waveform of the signal D attenuates the signals To reduce common mode interference during recording of bio signals one can use A buffer amplifier B differential amplifier C single ended amplifier D chopper amplifier EMG deals with the A Study of brain activity B Study of Myocardial activity C Study of Muscular activity D Study of Central nervous system The roof "cardi(o)" denotes heart. The heart muscle is therefore called the ------- cardium.

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A cyto B endo C myo D intra The heart sounds are recorded by A Electro cardiography B Phono cardiography C Endoscope D Angio cardiography The heart's dipole field is measured by lead system called A Wilson lead system B Vector lead system C orthogonal lead system D 32 electrode system Arrhythmia can be diagnosed by A EEG B Phono cardiography C Vector cardiogram D ECG Adams stokes attacks can be successfully treated with a A Defibrillator B Nerve stimulator C Pacemaker D Artificial heart valve A high school student began to smoke more heavily. He felt on occassions that his heart "stopped". No treatment was given but the student was advised to give up smoking. The above kind of heart defect is due to A atrial fibrillation B ventricular fibrillation C defect in the heart valve D improper working of SA node The T wave is produced during A atrial depolarisation B repolarisation of the ventricles C atrial repolarisation D depolarisation of the ventricles For faithful reproduction of QRS complex of ECG signal, an amplifier band width should be A 0-2000 Hz B 0.05-100 Hz C d.c. to few kHz D 0.05-1 Hz In ECG, the calibration signal amplitude is A 1 mV B 1V C 1 V D 0.5 mV The resting potential of the inside of the neuron is about A 100 V B 1 mV C -70 mV D few mV EEG waves include frequency content ranging from A less than 1 Hz to 50 Hz B dc to 2000 Hz C 10 Hz to 1000 Hz D 0.05Hz to 2 kHz The brain waves with frequencies between 8 and 13Hz and a mean amplitude of 50 V are called A Spike and waves due to Epilepsy B Delta waves C Theta waves D Alpha waves An epileptic attack can be induced in a normal person by means of A exposing bright light B Walking along the road during sunny day C an electric shock D hearing thunder Recording of the peripheral nerves action potentials is called A Electromyography B Electro corticography

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C Electro neurography D Electro nervegraphy In contraction of a skeletal muscle, action potentials are generated in the A Motor units B Nerve lesion C Skeletal muscle D Brain The frequency of the action potential in the relaxed muscle is A 20-5000 Hz B 60 Hz C 0 Hz D 50 Hz The level of consciousness can be followed by means of the A EEG B ECG C EMG D ERG During Myocardial Infarction, one can use A Pacemaker B Heart lung machine C Nerve stimulator D Kidney Machine "Heart Lung Machine" can be used for a longer time for a patient. A Yes B No C It depends upon the condition of the patient D When there is no power failure, the statement is true Inflammation of the kidneys is called A otitis B hepatitis C rephritis D Toxemia In the case of defibrillator, a double square pulse type is used A restart the heart rhythm after the open heart B arrest ventricular fibrillation surgery C arrest leakage of blood from the heart D arrest the reverse flow of blood from ventricle to atrium In direct current defibrillator, a pulse with a duration of about 5 ms is generated by means of a A Astable multivibrator B monostable multivibrator C clock IC 555 D capacitor discharge To produce ventricular contraction with an electric pulse, the minimum energy required is A 10J B 10 mW C 1W D 1J Suppose the pacemaker pulse has high energy and occurs during the vulnerable part of the T wave then the heart is in A normal state B atrial fibrillation C ventricular fibrillation D low pressure The commonest source of energy for pacemaker is the A mercury battery B ordinary dry cell C nuclear battery D solar cell Because of the risk of electromagnetic interference, pacemaker patients should not be given A cancer treatment B diathermy treatment C saline water D the rooms with fans In the case of stable total AV block, a pacemaker is chosen A with constant frequency B that is atrial synchronous

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with variable frequency and synchronization with ventricular action After the chest operation, the patient feels difficult to breathe. Then the patient is connected to a A pacemaker B defibrillator C ventilator D heart lung machine The apparatus used for extra corporeal circulation of blood is called A heart lung machine B ventilator C dialyser D pacemaker Most blood pumps use the principle of A normal acceleration B centrifug C compression D peristaltic compression The obstruction of blood flow is known as A cyanosis B stasis C hyperemia D edema Among the following things which have the highest attenuation of ultrasound? A Blood B Fat C Bone D Muscle Too low blood pressure is known as A hypertension B hypothalamus C hypotension D vasodilation The normal pH of the blood is A 7 B 7.4 C 6.6 D 7.8 Blood flow can be measured using the electromagnetic principle because blood has a high A magnetic induction B electrical resistivity C electrical conductivity D impedance To avoid electrode polarisation and bio-potential artifacts, electromagnetic blood flow meters are using A AC magnetic fields B DC magnetic fields C d.c. current D circular magnets The average values of systolic and diastolic pressures of normal adult are A 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg B 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg C 70 mm Hg and 140 mm Hg D 140 mm Hg and 60 mm Hg Fluoroscopic observation of cardiac catheterization is made by A Fiber Endoscope B Echo cardiography C Electrocardiograms D X-ray imaging The concentration of sodium, potassium and calcium ions in blood is determined by A Flame photometry B pH meter C Blood gas analyser D Ultrasonic Doppler Velocity meter Chromatography is based on A colour of the chemical substances B migration velocity of the substances between a stationary phase and a mobile phase

that is ventricular synchronous

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C diffusion D osmosis The radio activity taken up is measured by means of A PIN diode detector B Thermal detector C Scintillation detector D IR detector In dialysis the waste products are transferred to the dialysate by A surface tension B diffusion C viscosity variation D centrifuge The radiocapsules are A some kind of treatment to reduce brain activity B drugs to reduce ventricular fibrillation C biotelemetry transmitter D used for animals to cure tumors Micro shocks may occur A due to flow of l A current flow across the body B due to 5 amp current flow across the surface body for 1 minutes C due to shortening of electrical leads in the D due to flow of few rnA current across pacemaker the cardiac muscl In the case of an electrical shock, in which current passes from one arm to another in the chest, a current of 50 rnA can be fatal. Assume that this current is distributed uniformly over a 20 x 20 cm2 cross section of the chest in the sagittal plane, and that the same current density in a catheter tip 3 mm thin diameter could cause ventricular fibrillation, if the tip were in direct contact with a sensitive part of the heart muscle. Under this condition calculate the current in a cardiac catheter that could produce ventricular fibrillation. A about 90 A B about 9 A C 5 mA D about 5 A Let-go currents are A same for men and women B same for all frequencies C higher for men than women D higher for persons having enormous weight An endoscope is an instrument for examining A a body cavity B the cancer cells C blood flow rates D the head surfaces With a proctoscope the rectum A can be viewed B can not be viewed C can be viewed provided, with some D can be treated therapeutically modifications as such as condition monoculas, etc., Otoscope is an instrument which is used to A inspect the stomach B inspect the ear drum C inspect the thorax D inspect the abdominal cavity Thermography is the display of A skin surfaces using photography B thermal images of the internal organs like heart C thermal images of the skin surfaces D skin temperatures using fiber optic sensor The efficiency of X-rays machines is about A 80% B 50% C 20% D about 1%

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The detailed X-ray images of the slices of the body is obtained by means of A computerized axial tomography B fluoroscopy C MRI D scintillation detector arrays The Argon ion laser is mainly used in coagulation because A it gives necessary power for coagulation B it gives necessary monochromacity in wavelength which is highly absorbed by red blood cells and hemoglobin C it is harmless D its energy can be easily delivered to the spot where coagulation takes place The use of superconducting magnets in MRI is to obtain A signals from surface tissues B high R.E field C high strength gradient fields D high strength magnetic field The term biofeedback means A The science of monitoring electronic equipment B The science that includes the measurement of physiological variables C The bioelectronic systems D Self control or the indirect controlling of the activity of the autonomic nervous system Computer interpretation of __________ uses algorithm to determine whether a patient is normal or abnormal. A 8 lead ECG B 3 lead ECG C 12 lead ECG D 21 lead ECG The first step in ECG waveform recognition is to identify all the beats using a ___________ detection algorithm. A R wave B P wave C QRS wave D S wave S1: ECG interpretation is a frequency of interpretation process S2: ECG interpretation is a waveform recognition process A Both S1 and S2 are false B S1 is true and S2 is false C Both S1 and S2 are true D S1 is false and S2 is true The R wave duration is A 71 ms B 70 ms C 80 ms D 1.14 ms Which segment represents the period of ECG just after depolarization. A PQ B RS C QS D ST Which device is used for determining the potential cardiac problem of an ambulatory patient? A ECG B VCG C Holter recorder D PCG Changes in the ST segment of ECG indicates that there is a deficiency in A Blood supply to heart muscles B Blood supply to lungs C Oxygen supply to lungs D Blood supply to veins The R wave amplitude is A 1.04 mV B 1.24 mV

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C 1.14 mV D 1.01 mV The iso electric line is located on the ECG between P and Q wave for a ______ milli second interval of near zero slope. A 35 B 25 C 20 D 30 Ultrasonic blood flow meter is based on the principle of A Transmission B Conductivity C Induction D Transit time Ultrasonic blood flow meter uses an ultrasound signal of frequencies A 10 MHz B 2 MHz C 3 MHz D 5 MHz For theta=0 degree, V=100mm/s , C =1500m/s, a 2MHz ultrasonic beam is shifted in frequencies by about A 300 Hz B 267 Hz C 500 Hz D 290 Hz Device used for measuring pulsatile blood flow is A Electromagnetic flow meter B Sphygmomanometer C Spiro meter D Myograph Plethysmograph for measuring total lung capacity is based on A Electromagnetic conduction B Faradays law of induced emf C Boyles law D Flemings right hand rule The maximum field strength used in MRI is A 1.3 B 0.3 C 1.0 D 1.5 A plethysmograph measures .changes in the limb A Frequency B Volume C Pressure D Time Cardiac output is the amount of blood delivered by the heart to the aorta per A Minute B Second C Hour D Cycle In dye dilution method the concentration of dye is measured with the help of A Ultra violet photo cell B Infra red photo cell C Photo voltaic cell D photo conductive cell In Doppler effect based ultrasonic meter, the velocity of blood flow is proportional to A Difference in frequency B Difference in ultra sound velocity C Difference in velocity of blood flow D Direction of ultrasonic beam The Non- invasive method of Blood flow measurement A Angiogram B C Electromagnetic blood flow meter D Electromagnetic blood flow probe operates as a result of A Faradays laws of electromagnetic induction B C Right hand rule D Cardiac output is measured in .. Coulter counter Pneumotachograph Faradays laws of induced emf Thumb rule

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A Mm /min B Litres/ hour C Mg /min D Litres / min _____________ is called more powerful chamber of the heart. B Left auricle 91 A Right auricle C Right ventricle D Left ventricle _________ occurs due to the turbulent flow of blood. B Heart sounds 92 A Murmurs C Regurgitation D Aortic regurgitation Cardiac output of a normal adult ranges from litres /min B 4-6 93 A 2-3 C 8-9 D 14-15 In __________ the cardiac vector is displayed along with magnitude and spatial orientation. B Ballisto cardiography 94 A Phono cardiography C Electro cardiography D Vector cardiography TLC refers to B Tri length carrier 95 A Twin lungs capacity C Total lung capacity D Total laser capacity In vector cardiograph the cardiac vector is S1: Displayed along with magnitude and spatial orientation 96 S2: Three dimensional vectors A S1 is true B S2 is true C S1 and S2 are true D S1 and S2 are false Heart sounds are due to B Closing and opening of valves 97 A Turbulent blood flow C Backward flow of blood D Forward flow of blood Match the following: (A) 1st heart sound (1) Beginning of systole (B) 2nd heart sound (2) Beginning of diastole 98 (C) 3rd heart sound (3) Rapid villing of ventricles A A-1, B-2, C-3 B A-2,B-3,C-1 C A-3,B-1,C-2 D A-2,B-1,C-3 The instrument for administering the electric shock is called 99 A Ventillators B Defibrillators C Pace maker D Stimulators Ventricular asynchronous pacemaker is also called as B Demand pace maker 100 A Fixed rate pace maker C Internal pace maker D Inhibited pace maker MATCH : (A) Controlled breathing (1) Patient initiated breathing (B) Assisted breathing (2) Automatically timed breathing 101 (C)Assist control mode (3) Servo controlled ventillators A A-1, B-2, C-3 B A-2,B-3,C-1 C A-3,B-1,C-2 D A-2,B-1,C-3 The most commonly used anesthetic is 102

A Nitrous oxide in combination with fluorocarbons C Nitrous oxide in combination with hydrocarbons 103

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Hydrous oxide in combination with fluorocarbons Nitrous oxide

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In biotelemetry, the type of modulation employed is A Amplitude modulation B Frequency modulation C Pulse modulation D Phase modulation In biotelemetry ..cannot be employed A Frequency modulation B Pulse modulation C Amplitude modulation D Phase modulation During population inversion, the number of atoms in the higher level is_______ the number of atoms in the ground level. A Twice B Equal to C Less than D More than In addition to measuring mean flow speed of the blood, the pulsed Doppler ultrasonic blood flow meter also displays A Size of blood vessel B No. of red cells per unit volume C Electrical conductivity of the blood D Velocity profile Electromagnetic coupling is represented by A Capacitor and resistor B inductor C Mutual Inductance D Capacitor and Mutual Inductance Which instrument is working on the basis of Hagen-poiseuille equation? A Fleisch pneumotachometer B Plethysmograph C Thermal Flow meter D Spectrophotometer Example for motion in transverse plane around vertical axis: A Flexion, extension of elbow B Adduction, abduction of shoulder C Rotation of head D MCP flexion, extension The sectional ultrasonic images are known as A ultrasonic tomograms B ultrasonic echograms C ultrasonic nomograms D ultrasonic tomography In Biotelemetry, FDM refers to A Frequency Division Modulation B Fourier Domain Modulation C Frequency Division Multiplexing D Fesimle Distance Modulation The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum occurs between ___ nm and ___ nm. A 1, 10 B 10, 300 C 400, 740 D 800, 1200 Basically, what is the path of light through a spectrophotometer? A An increase in transmittance usually results in B A decrease in transmittance usually an increase in absorbance results in a decrease in absorbance C A decrease in transmittance usually results in an D Transmittance and absorbance should increase in absorbance remain equal Which of the following indicates a normal white blood cell count? A 1 million per mm3 B 15,000 per cm3 C 10,000 per mm3 D 3,000 per mm3

Coulter determined that ________ could be used to determine the size and number of microscopic particles in a solution. 115 A Electric charge B Electromagnetism C Electric current What does the retention factor, k', describe? A The distribution of an analyte between the 116 stationary and the mobile phase C The velocity of the mobile phase HPLC stands for A High Pressure Liquid Chromatography 117 C Highly Placed Liquid Chromatography D D B D Magnetic field The migration rate of an analyte through a column The distribution of an analyte of the stationary phase High Performance Liquid Chromatography High Penetration Liquid Chromatography Identify DNA fragments. Both A and C m2. joules.

Electrophoresis is used to B 118 A Separate DNA fragments. C Purify DNA fragments. D The units of refractive power are 119 A watts. B C m1. D The magnification of a microscope is increased when A the focal length of the objective lens is B increased. 120 C the focal length of the eyepiece is increased. D

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the focal length of the objective lens is decreased. the distance between the objective lens and eyepiece is decreased. An optical instrument either processes ________ to enhance an image for viewing, or analyzes light waves (or photons) to determine one of a number of characteristic properties. A Sun B Light C Optics D Alhazen Amnioscope is used to examine A Used to examine the fetus through the cervical B Used to examine the interior of blood canal prior to membrane breakage. vessels. C Used to examine intra-articular surfaces of D None of the all joints The largest operating channel in a flexible endoscope is the A Water channel B Air channel C Suction channel D Instrument channel Which of the following is used to visualize the urethra and bladder? A Colonoscope B Cystoscope C sigmoidoscope D bronchoscope The pulse oximeter measures: A Haemoglobin level in blood B The amount of oxygen contained in the blood C Percentage of haemoglobin saturated with D Cardiac output oxygen Which of the following (if any) statements is true about oximeter probes?

A Ear probes tend to read higher than finger B Probes are expensive probes C If a signal is not present, the probe is always D Nail varnish does not affect probe faulty function Which of the following can cause false readings on a pulse oximeter? A Oxygen treatment B Fast pulse rates with normal blood 127 pressures C Dark skinned patients D Carbon monoxide poisoning Flame photometer is used to analyse B Na, K, Ca, 128 A P,Cl C Fe, Zn D All of the above A pH meter is an electronic instrument used to measure the pH (________ or alkalinity) of a liquid (though special probes are sometimes used to measure the pH of semi-solid substances). B Oxygen 129 A Acidity C Acid dissociation constant D Acidbase reaction The movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of lower concentration. 130 A Osmosis B Diffusion C Absorption D Penetration What does pH stand for? 131 A potential Hydrogen C Possible hydrogen Diaphragm in microscope function as.. A supports the body tube 132 C supports the microscope D B D B Probable hydrogen None of the above holds the high and low power objective lenses, allows them to rotate for viewing controls the amount of light passing through the opening of the stage

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(ELISA) stands for A Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay B Enzyme-linked immune assay C Enzyme-live immune assay D None of the above ELISA is a test that uses ---------and color change to identify a substance. A antibodies B antigens C enzymes D proteins Certain ultrasound machines are capable of Doppler Ultrasound, a special ultrasound technique that evaluates blood flow through a blood vessel, including the patient's major arteries and veins. Which of the following is NOT a type of Doppler Ultrasound? A Color Doppler B Phase Doppler C Spectral Doppler D Power Doppler Typical diagnostic sonographic scanners operate in the frequency range of 1 to 18.....? A hertz B kilohertz C megahertz D None of the above Ultrasound Imaging, which involves exposing part of the body to high-frequency sound waves to produce pictures of the inside of the body, is also known as what?

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A intonography B resonography C sonography D harmonography The "positive" structure in the X-ray tube is called the ______________. A Cathode B anode C Grid D filament Generalized composition of diagnostic instrument is A Measurand-sensor-signal processing-output B Sensor-measurand-signal processingdisplay output display C Signal processing-measurand-sensor-output D Mesurand-sensor-output display-signal display processing Ophthalmoscopy may also be done in various medical conditions like hypertension, ________, or other diseases that affect the blood vessels. A Diabetes mellitus type 1 B Diabetic ketoacidosis C Diabetes mellitus D Diabetic retinopathy Tonometry is an important test in the evaluation of patient with________. A Glaucoma B Keratoconus C Miosis D Myopia A refractometer is a laboratory or field device for the measurement of _______. A Index of refraction B density C Surface tension D dispersion In spirometer the volume of air present after forceful expiration is called_____. A Tidal volume B Residual volume C Expiratory reserve volume D None of the above You exhale normally and then start to breathe into a spirometer containing 6-L of helium. After several minutes, the helium concentration in the spirometer falls to 4%. Your FRC is approximately: A 1.8L B 2.4L C 3.0L D 4.5L What is spirometry about? A Measuring how the volume in the lung empties B Ventilating the lungs C Measuring the movement of the lungs. D Measuring the amount of waste gasses excreted by the lungs. Which two types of disease are lung diseases grouped into? A Obstructive and normal B Normal and restrictive C Obstructive and restrictive D Obstructive and abnormal What color is laser light? A Always red B Red or green C any color depending on what type of medium is D None of the above used When a pulse is generated in a Q-switched solid-state laser, at which level does gain saturation become strong? A when the intensity reaches the saturation B when the temporally integrated intensity intracavity power reaches the saturation energy C when the temporally integrated intracavity D None of the above power reaches the stored energy

Amplified spontaneous emission (ASE) is usually not strong in a Nd:YAG laser, as compared to a fiber laser, A since there is no waveguide to confine the B because most Nd:YAG lasers have a 149 randomly emitted fluorescence low gain because the emission bandwidth of Nd:YAG is D because Nd:YAG is a four-level laser small medium A common symptom in patients with cardiac compromise is an abnormal heart beat. A heart rate that is too slow is called 150 A palpitation B bradycardia C hypotensionn D Tachycardia A malfunction of the heart's electrical system will generally result in a(n) B thrombus 151 A aneurysm C occlusion D arrhythmia What are the two main types of dialysis? A Continuous renal replacement therapy and B Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis peritoneal dialysis 152 C Hemofiltration and peritoneal dialysis D Hemodialysis and continuous renal replacement therapy 153 The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that does the work, is? A Medulla B Cortex C Calyx D Nephron What are the two types of ultrafiltration systems? A Volumetric UF control and flow control B Flow rate and UFR C TMP and UFR D Proportioning system and flow control ___________ovarian drilling is a surgical treatment that can trigger ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). A cartograpic B Laparoscopic C endoscopic D Colonoscopic When would a prognosis be given? A after a disease diagnosis B during an operatic performance C after a horse race D during a guided meditation A major advantage of MRI is: A the ease with which equipment is updated or B its relatively low cost, compared to CT replaced. scans. C dose not require specialized room D the ability to reposition the 'crosssection' through the body without repositioning the patient. In an ultrasound imaging system: A Sector width, sector depth and frame rate can B Frame rate falls as sector width all be controlled independently increases C Using a lower frequency transducer improves the frame rate D The frame rate increases as sector depth increases C

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To reduce electrical resistance between the skin and electrode, use of __________ between the 159 electrode surface and skin is recommended. A Saline soaked felt pads B Non inverting electrode terminals

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C Inverting electrode terminals D Earth ring EMG is an instrument used for measuring electrical activity of ________________ A Skin B Brain C Muscles D Heart A typical EMG signal ranges from.. A 0.1 to 0.5 mV B 0.1 to 5 mV C 1 to 5 mV D 1 to 0.5 mV What is the use of high frequency and low frequency filters in EMG machine? S1: To select pass band of incoming signal S2: To modify progressive reduction in voltage output, this occurs at end of frequency spectrum. A S1& S2 are false B S1 true, S2 false C S1 false, S2 true D S1& S2 are true In EEG pre amplifier ionic current from _____________ is transformed into electrical currents. A Dula Oblongata B Brain stem C Cerebral tissue D Surface of cerebrum Which of the following is incorporated in EMG machine for providing a single or double or train pulses? A Stimulators B Integrators C Filters D Triggering unit What is the cause for light or dark recording of EEG? A Pen is not touching properly B Ink tubes are clogged C Incorrectly loaded paper D Lead connection problem What is the solution for noisy or poor recording due to EEG machine problems? A Calibration of machine B Ground all EEG leads C Proper placement of electrodes D Internal repair EEG electrodes are in size than ECG electrodes A Smaller B Larger C Equal D Twice For a optimised quality of EEG, electrode impedance should be below A 50 Ohms B 5 Kohms C 500 ohms D 10 Kohms In mono polar EEG recording, the voltage difference between active electrode on scalp with respect to reference electrode on ___________ is recorded

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A Cerebellum B Ear lobe C Cerebrum D Medulla In 10 -20 lead system EEG signals are transmitted from electrodes to B Filter 170 A Montage selector C Pre amplifier D Head box The over all sensitivity of the EEG machine is A Gain of the amplifier+ sensitivity of the writer B Gain of the amplifier/ sensitivity of the 171 writer C Gain of the amplifier- sensitivity of the writer D Gain of the amplifier* sensitivity of the writer 172 EEG machines have notch filters to eliminate

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A Muscle artifacts B Noise C Frequency interference D Un damped oscillations How many channels a commercial EEG machine can have? A 16 B 32 C 8 D 4 An ECG machine takes leads to give a physician different views of hearts activity. A 10 B 12 C 16 D 20 Diagnostic ECG recording requires a band width of _______________ A 0.05 to 100 Hz B 50 to 60 Hz C 5 to 40 Hz D 5 to 100 Hz What is the cause for smeared trace of ECG machine? A Incorrect placement of pen tip B Incorrectly loaded paper C Incorrect placement of lead selector D Incorrect pressure on the paper ECG strip chart recorders must present both forward and reverse tension on paper, so that it is stretched across A Read edge B Write edge C Write and read edge D Write / read edge Which statement is related to all or nothing law? S1: Action potential is always the same for any given cell S2: Intensity of stimulus is assumed to be greater than threshold of stimulus A S1 true, S2 false B S1 and S2 true C S1 and S2 false D S1 false, S2 true Pick the correct statements regarding the characteristics of resting potential S1: Value reminds constant until some disturbance is upsets the equilibrium S2: It is temperature independent A S1 true, S2 false B S1and S2 false C S1and S2 true D S1 falls, S2 true Which term indicates the process of changing from the resting potential state to action potential state? A Transmition B De polarization C Propagation rate D Polarization The skeletal bones are completely enclosed by a membrane called A Cranium B Pericardium C Periostuem D Luminal Wax coated graph sheets are used for recording. Why? A To write easily B To avoid spreading of ink C To improve the contrast D To make good appearance The heart sounds are recorder by A Electro cardiograph B Endoscope C Phono cardiograph D Angio cardiograph The T wave is produced during A Atrial depolarization B Atrial repolarization

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C Repolarization of the ventricles D Depolarization of the ventricles In order to ground the patient more effectively during recording off ECG, an auxiliary amplifier is connected in a ___________ circuit so that the patient is actively driven to ground potential and drives the to zero common mode voltage A Positive feedback B Clipping C Differentiator D Negative feedback Artifacts are A Skin impedence B Time varying half cell potential C Radio capsules D Radio noises EMG waveform appears very much like A Triangular wave B Random noise signal C Irregular wave D Saw tooth wave The systolic or maximum blood pressure range is A 95 to 140 mmhg B 120 to 140 mmhg C 90 to 140 mmhg D 100 to 140 mmhg Which of the following acts as a pacemaker for heart? A AV bundle B AV node C SA node D SA bundle Match the different type of brain waves with their corresponding frequency ranges (i) Alpha wave (A) 4 8 Hz (ii) Beta wave (B) 0.5 4 Hz (iii) Theta wave (C) 8 13 Hz (iv) Delta wave (D) 13 30 Hz A (i) B, (ii) A, (iii) C, (iv) D B (i) D, (ii) B, (iii) C ,(iv) A C (i) C, (ii) B, (iii) A ,(iv) D D (i) C, (ii) D, (iii) A, (iv) B The conduction of pulse from SA node to AV node takes A 0.03 seconds B 0.09 seconds C 0.04 seconds D 0.05 seconds A needle electrode contains both active reference electrode with in the same structure A Earth ring B Hypodermic C Paddle D Concentric core What type of electrodes is more often employed in EMG work? A Needle electrodes B Surface electrodes C Floating electrodes D Limb electrodes A physician generally measures pulserate by placing fingers on _____________ on wrist A Brachial Artery B Radial Artery C Ischemic Artery D Coronary Artery Which technique is best suited for pulse pick-up? A ECG method B PCG method C Photoelectric method D Crystal microphone method Which is not the method used for the detection of volume (Pulse) changes due to blod flow? A Electrical Impedence Changes B Pyroelectric C Strain gauge / microphone D Optical changes Which is the frequency range of the signal that is applied in order to prevent polarization of the

electrodes? A 1 to 10 Hz B 100 to 500 Hz C 10 to 100 kHz D 1 to 3 MHz Typical haemodynamic pressure value for arterial system is B 6 to 25 mmhg 198 A 5 to 15 nmmhg C 50 to 500 mmhg D 30 to 300 mmhg Typical haemodynamic pressure value for venous system is B 6 to 25 mmhg 199 A 5 to 15 nmmhg C 50 to 500 mmhg D 30 to 300 mmhg Typical haemodynamic pressure value for pulmonary system is B 6 to 25 mmhg 200 A 5 to 15 nmmhg C 50 to 500 mmhg D 30 to 300 mmhg If mercury-manometer reading is taken at h mm below heart level and densities of mercury and blood are 13.6 & 1.055 g/cm3, the compration factor is.. 201 A 12.545 B 14.348 C 14.655 D 12.900 Before inserting the catheters into the blood vessel.. A The catheter needs to be maintained at 37 B The fluid filled system should be 202 degree Celcius thoroughly flushed C The patient must be anaesthetized first D The power of the system must be turned off The frequency range of cardioscopes are generally A Gretaer in "Monitor mode" then in "Diagnostic B Same for both "Monitor mode" & mode" "Diagnostic mode" 203 C Smaller in "Monitor mode" then in "Diagnostic D Independent to the mode selection mode" What advantages does a Moving display holds over Conventional display A Better resolution of High frequency signal B No data loss occur due to roll mode C Selection of multiple data channels D All of above For ECG signal analysis a physician will use A Time domain analysis B Frequency Domain analysis C Temporal analysis D Morphological analysis Ventricular Fibrilation is having a low frequency signal with energy concentrated in a band around A 2-3 Hz B 5-6 Hz C 10-12 Hz D 15-20 Hz The Balke-Ware & Bruce Protocols are A Running Test Protocols B Bicycle Test Protocols C Treadmill Test Protocols D Swimming Test Protocols Featal Heart Rate is ____________ then the Maternal Heart Rate. A Half B Double C Same D Inaccoradable Tocodynamometer is used for A Measuring speed of walking /Running B Monitoring and recording uterine

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Monitoring the heart wall deflections during D cardiac cycle What is used as a sensor unit in pure-tone audiometer? A Piezoelectric crystals B Capacitive sensor montage C Electromagnatic Sensor arrays D None of above The white noise used for masking the other ear in audiomerty have frequency of A 100 Hz B 100 kHz C 100 MHz D None of the above The nerve impulses initiated are propagated along the acoustic nerve fibers to the brain with speed of A 100 mm/s B 1000 mm/s C 10000 mm/s D 100000 mm/s Anatomical Programmed Radiography (APR) is used for A Maximum illuminance power B Frame rate adjustment C Automatic Exposure Control D For programming manualy by operator X-ray image intensifier A Converts X-ray image into light image B Amplifies X-ray energy by applying voltage C Capture image & Increase brightness D Apply contrast mismatching phenomenon Modern X-ray image intensifiers uses A Zinc-cadmium sulphide B Cesium iodide C Phosporus iodide D Boron sulphide The current of portable X-ray units is limited to A 1A B 15A C 20A D 30A The mobile X-ray unit, with radiographic output upto 300 mA & maximum of 125 kV, is having main supply current A 1A B 15A C 20A D 30A DQE for X-ray means A Direct Quantum Excitation B Detector Quantum Efficiency C Diverge Quality Ensurance D Dopped Quiescent Enlargement MTF means A Mean Time Function B Modulation Transfer Function C Mass Transfer Function D Minimum Time Function The energy of alpha particles generally lies in the range of A 1 to 100 eV B 100 to 15000 eV C 2 to 10 MeV D 10 to 300 MeV Beta emission have an energy range of A 0 to 3 MeV B 5 to 15 MeV C 17 to 31 MeV D 120 to 300 MeV The unit of radioactivity is

contractions Measuring muscular muvement due to respiration

A Curie C Robinson Hounsfield unit is used for 223 A X-ray C CT-scan The compton effect is responsible for A emission of low energy beta rays 224 C generation of highly unsustainable x-rays

B D B D B D

Bankman Joul MRI PET-scan absorption of relatively energetic gamma rays production of pair of positron & electrons

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Which instrument is not for measurement of radio activity? A Geiger-Muller Counter B Semiconductor detectors C ionization chamber D Pellet gas sensor array A scintillator produces minute flashes of light in A Near infrared range B Far infrared range C Visible or near ultraviolet range D Far ultraviolet range Anti coincident circuit provides output pulse when A both channels are having input signals B an impulse in only one of the input channels C a sweep signal is provided as the input pulse D none of the channels are having inputs In the the case of defibrillator, a double square pulse type is used to A restart the heart rhythm after the open heart B arrest ventricular fibrillation surgery C arrest leakage of blood from the heart D arrest the reverse flow of blood from ventricle to atrium In direct current defibrillator, a pulse with a duration of about 5 ms is generated by means of a A astable multivibrator B monostable multivibrator C clock IC 555 D capacitor discharge The energy produced by defibrillator is A 400 J B 0 .1 J C 10,000 J D 100,000 J Let-go currents for defibrillator are A same for men and women B same for all frequencies C higher for men than women D higher for persons having enormous weight One of the following properties is the characteristic of metals when they are used as implant materials. What is it? A high impact tensile strength B corrosion resistance C inert to body fluids D easy to fabricate The frequency of the action potential in the relaxed muscle is A 0 Hz B 50 Hz C 60 Hz D 20-5000 Hz In contraction of a skeletal muscle, action potentials are generated in the A Motor units B Nerve lesion

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C Skeletal muscle D Brain The conduction velocity in a motor nerve is normally A 100 m/s B 50 m/s C below 40 m/s D 1550 m/s A continuous signal analysis over long periods of time can be performed by frequency analysis with the aid of A fourier auto correlation B band pass filters C chopper amplifier D memory storage devices The resting potential of the inside of the neuron is about A 100 V B 1 mV C -70 mV D few mV The approximate electrode size with ohmic resistance 50 to 100 ohm is A 80 sq cm B 10000 sq cm C 4500 sq cm D None of the above In the defibrillator, the energy stored in capacitor depends on A Voltage & current B Capacitance & Voltage C Current & Capacitance D None of above The electrodes required in case of defibrillator are A Posterior B anterior C anterior and posterior D None of above Sound Pressure level is measured in A Dyne/m2 B Decibel C Pascal D All of above pH of normal adult in Arterial /arterialized capillary blood is around A 7.40 B 9.25 C 5.45 D 12.75 NMR blood flowmeter is A Partialy non invasive B Invasive C non invasive D None of above The ultrasonic frequency for blood flow-velocity ranges A 2 to 8 MHz B 3 to 15 MHz C below 4 MHz D Above 3 MHz The application of zero crossing detector in blood flow measurement is A to measure the gain bandwidth by applying a B to convert audio frequency amplifier rigid threshold at low frequencies output to a propotional analog output signal C to enhance the power limiting charectoristics D to modulate the discriminated signal for high frequency audio signal from spectrum analyzer and measure its partial voltage The depth at which the doppler signal is sensed within the blood vessel and tissue depends on A the reflectivity of the interaacting blood vessels B the pentration velocity of ultrasonic & tissue signal C the constant of specific density of the D the delay interval between the interaacting blood vessels & tissue transmitted burst& sample gate

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PRF in oscillator means A Pulse Repetition Frequency B Pulse Requiered Frequency C Pulse Replication Frequency D Pulse Restistive Frequency In doppler shift flow velocity meters, due to the seperation of the transmitter & receiver, the doppler shift frequencies are A Maximum B Minimum C Zero D Infinite In electromagnatic Blood flowmeters, the interference from mains voltage at the electrodes results in A Baseline drifts & poor signal-to-noise ratio B Low input impedance & High output impedance C A very low Common mode rejection ration D High frequency line noise in range of some hertz Indicator Dilution method is used for A Blood pH measurement B Cardiac Output measurement C Cancer/Trauma diagnosis D Bone/Cartilage imaging Hot-wire anemometer is used to measure A Muscle reflexes B volume flow of respired gases C Nuero-muscluler activities D Alchohol concentration in respired gas Which of the below given methods were used for measurement of respiration rate? A Displacement method B Thermistor method C impedance Pneumography D All of above Differential Auscultatory technique is use to measure A Cardiac output B Stroke Volume C Blood Pressure D none of above Muscle tremor can cause A irregular trembling of ECG B Sinusodial patern due to respiratory movements C Slowly drifting ECG baseline D High frequency noise typically in range of 3 kHz The bloch equation gives A Flow resistance due to impedance of vessel wall B Time dependence of nuclear magnetization C Gravitational resistance in sphygmomanometer D Concentration of hydrogen ions for measurement of pH B D marginal stability for image processing algorithm time-varying magnetic fields of controlled spatial non-uniformity

A gradient system produces A modulation angle for 3-phase modulation system 256 C spatial coherence for X-ray image on a contrast medium of barium sulphate

Diagnostic ultrasound uses A low frequency comparing to therapeutic B Same frequency as therapeutic 257 ultrasound ultrasound C high frequency comparing to therapeutic D none of above ultrasound Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications 258

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P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement A P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W B P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W C P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X D P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be obtained from controlled experiments. Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 W. Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 W. Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 W. The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is A 12.50 B 31.66 C 33.33 D 94.98 An LED emitting at 1 m with a spectral width of 50 nm is used in a Michelson interferometer. To obtain a sustained interference, the maximum optical path difference between the two arms of the interferometer is A 200 m B 1m C 20 m D 50 nm Light of wavelength 630 nm in vacuum, falling normally on a biological specimen of thickness 10 m, splits into two beams that are polarized at right angles. The refractive index of the tissue for the two polarizations are 1.32 and 1.333. When the two beams emerge, they are out of phase by A 0.13 B 74.3 C 90.0 D 128.6 Which LASER having a Wavelength Range in Visible Region Of EM Spectrum? A Nd-YAG LASER B Co2 LASER C Argon LASER D Excimer Laser Atherosclerotic Plaque can be remove using __________ LASER. A XeCl B Nd-YAG C ArF D CO2 Which Instrument is use for Pain Relief through Electrical Stimulation? A MEMS B Defibrillator C Microwave diathermy D TENS Cirrhosis is a condition involving _____________. A Degeneration of the liver B Abnormal out pocketing of the large intestine C Inflammation of the small intestine D Constriction of the esophagus with a tumor Dysphagia is a term describing difficult, painful or abnormal___________. A passing of stool B emptying of the stomach C swallowing D passing gas (flatulence) Haemodialysis Machine is used for ____________ A Purification Of Blood B Diagnosis of Stomach C To check the Lung Capacity D Diagnosis of Heart The Instrument Used for administring Shock during Ventricular Fibrillation is Called as __________

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A Pacemaker B Defibrillator C Heart Lung Machine D Diathermy Machine During Surgical Diathermy, Superficial Tissue destruction without affecting deep seated Tissues is refers as ____________. A Dessication B Coagulation C Cutting D Fulguration The Frequency of Currents used in Surgical Diathermy unit is in the range of __________. A 20-30 Mhz B 1-3 Mhz C 300-30000Mhz D 100-500Khz The Most Commonly used Microwave frequency for therapeutic heating is ________. A 300Mhz B 27 Mhz C 2450Mhz. D 3MHz For Electrotherapy, __________ current having a sequence of pulses with a defined shape and Current Intensity. A Faradic B Galvanic C Biphasic Stimulation D Surge Current For Electrotherapy, If peak current intesity applied to the patient increses ad decreases rhythmically,resulting shape of current waveform is called as ________. A Faradic B Galvanic C Biphasic Stimulation D Surge Current The treatment that removes Waste from the body when Kidneys Fail is called ______. A Graft B Dialysis C Fitsula D Analysis A Vascular access in Dialysis is a __________. A Piece of the dialysis machine B Medication taken by people with kidney failure C Medical condition needing treatment D Special blood vessel used for Haemodialysis In Peritoneal dialysis (PD), draining out the dirty fluid and putting in the clean fluid is called ___________. A A replacement B A hemo cleaning C An exchange D A dialysate Most Commonly Used Disposable Dialyser is _______________. A Hollow Fibre Haemodialyzer B Coil Haemodialyzer C KIIL Dialyzers D Serial Flow Dialyzers ___________ is the Commonly used Membrane for Haemodialysis. A Cuprafan B Cellofan C Polypropelene D Cellulose Urinary Stone can be remove by ______________. A Haemodialysis Machine B Colonoscope C CO2 LASER D Lithotriptor ___________ gas is not used as Anesthetist Agent. A Cyclopropane B Diethyle Ether C Halothane D Diemethyle Ether The Gas exchange process Carried out within the Lungs is referred as ____________.

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A Gas Transporation B External Respiration C Internal Respiratipon D Volumetric Exchange _______Instrument is used as One of the Radiotherapy Instrument. A CT Scan B Linear Accelerator C MRI Machine D Lithotriptor _______ is Used for Automatic Drug Delivery within the Body. A Nebulizer B Suction Pump C Infusion Pump D None of These The Hydrogen ion Concentration of the blood is most easily determined with a ___________ A Surface Electrode B Glass Elecrode C Needle Electrode D Differential Amplifier Mingographs are Connected with A EEG B ERG C ECG D EMG __________ is used to Measure Intraocular Pressure. A Tonometer B Sphygmomanometer C Spirometer D pH Meter ___________ is used to Measure Lung Volume and Capacity. A Sphygmomanometer B Spirometer C Tonometer D pH Meter ___________ is used to Measure Blood Pressure A Spirometer B Bourdon Gauge C Sphygmomanometer D Thermocouple __________ is not among the Tonometry Technique. A Goldmann B Applation C Electronic Identation D Absorption Inflamation of the Kidneys is called as __________. A Otitis B nephritis C Hepatitis D Toxemia Effect of Oxytocin hormone is A Milk production in mammary glands B

Release of digestive enzymes from pancreas C Uterine contraction D Stimulate adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) release from anterior pituitary The main purpose of the X-ray generator controls on the equipments is A To maintain the direction and width of the XB To enable to operate to obtain the ray beam. intensity, quality and duration of 292 exposure desired C To allow operator to adjust film focal distance D To change alternating current to remotely increase X-ray intensity Photo conductive cell consists of a thin film of B Lithium sulphate 293 A Quartz C Barium titanate D Selenium 294 The heart works as _______chambers pump. 291

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A One B Two C Three D Four The process of gaining an action potential on excitation is called A polarisation B depolarisation C repolarisation D NONE SA node is also called A Pulse generator B Pacemaker C Defibrillator D ventillator The flow of the air in the respiratory system is usually A turbulent B random C laminar D none X-rays that pass through body and reach a detector as an image is called A radiograph B electrograph C Monograph D X-Graph Wavelength of X-rays is A Longer than visible light B Shorter than visible light C Equal to visible light D None On computed tomography, bone is displayed as A Black B White C Gray D Not displayed at all

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Which organelle is described as the power house of the cell? A Mitochondria B Nucleus C Endoplasmic Reticulum D Ribosomes The life span of erythrocytes is about A 80 days B 90 days C 110 days D 120 days The other name for white blood cells is A Erythrocytes B Leukocytes C Thrombocytes D Albumins The process of blood cell formation is called A Erythropoeisis B Haemopoiesis C Haemolysis D Epiphyses The system consisting of the heart and blood vessels is called A Endocrine system B Lymphatic system C Circulatory system D Nervous system The pacemaker of the heart is A AV node B Bundle of His C SA node D Purkinje fibres Blood pressure is determined by two factors, which are A Heart rate & peripheral B Cardiac output & peripheral resistance resistance C Heart rate & cardiac output D Peripheral resistance & venous return How is arterial blood pressure expressed? A 120/80 mmHg B 11/16 KPa C 80/120 mmHg D None of the above What are chemoreceptors? A Nerve endings sensitive to B Hormones increasing heart pressure changes rate C Hormones causing sodium D Nerve endings involved in and water loss from the control of respiration kidney What is aneurysm? A Loss of elasticity in veins B Abnormal local dilatations of arteries C Patchy changes that D Progressive degeneration of develop in arteries arterial walls

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The physiological units of the nervous system are A Nerve impulses B Neurons C Axon D Dendrites The pair of principal ions involved in an action potential are A Sodium and calcium B Potassium and calcium C Calcium and chloride D None of the above Histology would be best defined as a study of

A C

Cells Cell chemistry

B D

Tissues The gross structures of the body

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Average body temperature is A 98C B 68C C 47C D 37C What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback? A to control all body system B to maintain homeostasis tissues C to keep the bodys sugar D to regulate excretion high An oblique cut is one that is cut ________ A horizontal right and left B diagonally between the vertical and horizontal C vertical right and left D perpendicular to vertical and horizontal The heart lies in the ________ cavity A superior mediastinal B pleural C dorsal D pericardial The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities A frontal B cranial C nasal D orbital ________ cavities are spaces within joints A Nasal B Synovial C Orbital D Oral Which of the following would notbe a functional characteristic of life? A Movement B responsiveness to external stimuli C maintenance of boundaries D Decay Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind? A anterior B Lateral C Distal D Dorsal The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________ A Oxygen B Protein C Water D Hydrogen Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli? A Muscular B Lymphatic C Immune D Nervous Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is notcorrectly matched A Gross anatomy: study of B Microscopic anatomy: study structures visible to the eye of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye C Cytology: study of the D Embryology: study of the structures in a particular changes in an individual from region conception to birth

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Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________ A the lowest possible energy B a relatively stable internal usage environment, within limits C a static state with no D a dynamic state within an deviation from preset unlimited range points Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. organ A 1-2-3-4-5 B 2-1-4-3-5 C 2-1-3-4-5 D 1-2-4-3-5 Select the most correct statement A The immune system is B Organ systems operate closely associated with the independently of each other to lymphatic system maintain life C The endocrine system is D Organ systems can be not a true structural organ composed of cells or tissues, system but not both One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________ A indigestible food residues B sensing changes in the stimulating the excretory environment and then system reacting or responding to them C the nervous system causing D the necessity for all organisms all living things to to reproduce sometimes experience anger Which of the following are survival needs of the body? A nutrients, water, B nutrients, water, growth, and movement, and reproduction reproduction C water, atmospheric D nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and pressure, and oxygen movement What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? A Frontal B Regional C Sagittal D Transverse What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A Frontal B Median C Sagittal D Transverse

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The most abundant substance in blood is A Erythrocytes B Neutrophils C Lymphocytes D Platelets Oxygen binds to the ___________of a haemoglobin molecule A Valine B Iron C Globin D Beta chain Which of the following is not an example of active transport? A movement of sodium ions B glucose absorption from the across the cell membrane gut C water reabsorption from D potassium excretion in the the proximal convoluted distal convoluted tubule tubule Which of the following is NOT a function of skin? A Respiration B Excretion C Sensation D Thermoregulation Which pigment is responsible for a tan's brown color? A Melanin B Carotene C Haemoglobin D Bile the epidermis is _________ to the dermis A Superficial B Deep C Lateral D Medial Which bone forms the back & parts of the base of the skull? A Parietal bone B Temporal bone C Occipital bone D Sphenoid bone What kind of synovial joint is the hip? A Gliding B Hinge C Pivot D Ball and socket There are ____________cervical vertebrae in the vertebral column A 7 B 9 C 5 D 6 Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms? A Positive feedback B Negative feedback mechanisms always result mechanisms tend to increase in excessive damage to the the original stimulus. host. C Negative feedback D Blood glucose levels are mechanisms work to regulated by positive feedback prevent sudden severe mechanisms. changes within the body. Which bone contains the mastoid process? A Occipital bone B Femur C Temporal bone D Humerus The 2 filaments that form cross-bridges are A actin & troponin B tropomyosin& myosin

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C actin & myosin D troponin &tropomyosin Where do new epidermal cells come from? A subcutaneous layer B Germinative layer C stratum corneum D dermis In which abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located? A Right upper B Right lower C Left upper D Left lower Which of the following produce antibodies? A Neutrophils B Eosinophils C Thrombocytes D Lymphocytes The membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the A pleura B peritoneum C meninges D pericardium Hyaline cartilage is found in the A ear lobe B epiglottis C tracheal rings D intervertebral disk The number of thoracic vertebrae is A 12 B 11 C 10 D 13 The contractile unit of a skeletal muscle is called a A sarcomere B actin filament C sarcolemma D myoneural junction Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? A Appendix B Stomach C Liver D Intestines In which cavities are the lungs located? A pleural, ventral, and B mediastinum, thoracic, and thoracic ventral C pleural, dorsal, and D pericardial, ventral, and abdominal thoracic Which protein makes up a major component of bone matrix? A Keratin B Collagen C Melanin D Calcium Which of the following bones is found in the shoulder girdle? A Sternum B Humerus C Scapula D Ulna Severe itching of the skin is called A pruritis B shingles C psoriasis D eczema A rounded bony projection is called A foramen B Fossa C sinus D Condyle Chronic skin disease characterized by red flat areas covered with silvery scales is called

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A C

urticaria shingles

B D

pruritis Psoriasis

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Where does bone growth occur in children? A center of bone shafts B epiphyseal plates C medullary cavities D epiphyseal lines Which muscle cell compound stores oxygen? A Creatine phosphate B Glycogen C Haemoglobin D Myoglobin From superficial to deep, the correct order of muscle structure is A deep fascia, epimysium, B epimysium, perimysium, perimysium, &endomysium endomysium& deep fascia C deep fascia, endomysium, D endomysium, perimysium, perimysium, &epimysium epimysium& deep fascia The Organ of Corti is found in the A Outer ear B Inner ear C Eustachian tube D Middle ear Which division of the nervous system is concerned with "fight or flight"? A Central B Parasympathetic C Peripheral D Sympathetic The blood vessels having the most elastic tissue are A Capillaries B Veins C Lymphatics D Arteries An active enzyme responsible for protein digestion in the duodenum is A Trypsin B Pepsin C chymotrypsinogen D Insulin The structure that secretes progesterone is the A anterior pituitary gland B Graafian follicle C corpus luteum D primordial follicle Blood pressure is highest in A Veins B Arteries C Capillaries D Lymphatics The round window in the ear is associated with the A scala tympani B scalavestibuli C scala media D cochlear duct Obligatory reabsorption of water is most closely associated with A proximal convoluted tubule B descending loop of Henle C collecting ducts D distal convoluted tubule Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? A a transverse cut just above B two cuts dividing the body into the knees left and right halves C any sagittal plane except D any cut dividing the body into the median anterior and posterior Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A It is considered the cause B The internal environment is

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of most diseases becoming more stable Positive feedback D Negative feedback mechanisms are mechanisms are functioning overwhelmed normally A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________ A body temperature B regulating glucose levels in the regulation blood C enhancement of labor D blood calcium level regulation contractions Choose the following statement that is NOT completely correct regarding serous membranes A Serosa are very thin, B Serous membranes are divided double-layered structures into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two C Serous membranes secrete D Visceral pericardium covers a watery lubricating fluid the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart The term pollex refers to the ________ A Great toe B Calf C Fingers D Thumb Select the most correct statement A The immune system is B Organ systems operate closely associated with the independently of each other to lymphatic system maintain life C The endocrine system is D Organ systems can be not a true structural organ composed of cells or tissues, system but not both Which body cavity protects the nervous system? A Cranial B Dorsal C Vertebral D Thoracic The "portahepatis" of the liver transmits all of the following EXCEPT the A Hepatic arteries B Hepatic ducts C Hepatic veins D Portal vein The artery that supplies most of the small intestine is the A Coeliac B Gastroduodenal C Inferior mesenteric D Superior mesenteric One of the following is a branch of the hepatic artery A Cystic B Splenic C Gastrohepatic D Oesophageal The normal number of segments in the kidney is A 3 B 5 C 4 D 6 The branch of splenic artery is A Left gastric B Right gastric C

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C Hepatic D Short gastric The arterial supply to the duodenum includes A Branches from the B The supraduodenal artery gastroduodenal artery C The first jejunal branch D All of the above from the superior mesenteric artery The ureters A Are muscular tubes that B Are connective tubes that transport urine from the transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder kidneys to the bladder C Are continuous superiorly D Are continuous superiorly with with a funnel-shaped the renal pelvis structure The muscle which flexes the hip and the knee is called A Sartorius B Rectus femoris C Semitendinosus D Biceps femoris Which muscle is not a flexor of the thigh? A Iliopsoas B Rectus femoris C Sartorius D Adductor magnum Convective heat loss occurs when _________ A water evaporates from the B heat rises off of the bodys skins surface surface C blood flows faster under D a fan is blowing on the body the skin For simple reflex loops, which is true? A Thesensory receptor or B The effector is supplied by an afferent neuron leads efferent neuron from the brain away fromthe brain or or spinal cord spinal cord C The reflexes are under D The reflexes take minutesto voluntary control occur Response to light leading to vision is initiated inwhich of the following cells? A retinal pigment epithelial B rod cells cells C both rods and cones D Cone cells Why is colorblindness mostly found in men? A Males inherit B Males rarely notice different colorblindness from their shades of colors mothers C Colorblindness is linked to D Testosterone destroys cones the Y chromosome Presbyopia or old eyes is caused by A cataracts clouding the B lens becoming less flexible cornea

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C retinal detachment D destruction of eye muscles Which statement is truefor smooth muscle? A It looks striatedunder the B It is under voluntary control microscope C Calcium is not involved in D It can vary its force of its contraction contraction between full and empty The pH of bile is A 7 B 8 C 9 D 10 Which of the following terms describes the effects of coal dust in the lung? A Pneumoconiosis B Silicosis C Asbestosis D Byssinosis What does the term strabismus indicate? A Hypofunction of the B Hypersensitivity to foreign anterior pituatory gland protein C Inability of the eyes to D Chronic inflammatory move together condition of the alimentary tract What are end-arteries? A Blood vessels that return B Blood vessels that transport blood at low pressure to blood away from the heart the heart C Arteries that form a link D Arteries with no anastomoses between main arteries An example of a vasodilator is A Nitric oxide B Carbon dioxide C Oxygen D Water What is the medical term for baldness? A alopecia B pemphigus C verruca D dermatitis Acne is an infection of which type of gland? A sudoriferous B sebaceous C ceruminous D meibomian Brocas Area is associated with which lobe of the cerebral cortex? A Frontal B Parietal C Temporal D Occipital Which of the following describes the inverse relationship between blood pressure and heart rate? A Starlings Law B The Bainbridge Reflex C Mareys Law D The Valsalva Maneuver Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue? A Facial B Trigeminal C Hypoglossal D Glossopharyngeal What type of joint to the tibia, fibula and talus bones form?

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A Gliding B C Pivot D What is the function of the bronchioles? A To prevent friction B between the membranes of the lungs C To take air to the alveoli of D the lungs What is the function of a synapse? A To insulate and protect B axons C To help insulate the axon D

Ball and socket Hinge To act as an air passage between the larynx and the bronchi To act as an air passage that warms and moistens the air To speed up the passage of nerve impulses along the fibre To enable a nerve impulse to be transmitted from one neuron to another

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The urinary system A regulates plasma B regulates blood volume by concentrations of removing RBCs from electrolytes circulation C contributes to stabilizing D A and C only blood pH Organs of the urinary system that are involved with urine transport are the A urethra and ureters B kidneys and bladder C ureters and kidneys D urethra and bladder Which of the following carries urine from the kidney to the bladder? A prostate B liver C ureter D urethra The glomerular capsule and glomerulus make up the A renal pyramid B loop of Henle C renal corpuscle D collecting system The expanded end of a nephron is the A glomerulus B glomerular capsule C proximal convoluted tubule D loop of Henle Which one of the following is NOT one of the major processes controlled by hormones A body coordination B mobilizing body defenses against stressors C maintaining electrolyte D growth and development balance The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are known as A effectors B hormones C neurons D stimuli When one compares and contrasts physiology and an anatomy, which is true? A Anatomy concentrates on B Physiology concentrates on

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the structure of an how the various systems in the organism organism work C Both anatomy and D All of the above are correct physiology investigate the organism at multiple levels The ovary is part of which of the following two systems? A Digestive and endocrine B Reproductive and endocrine C Reproductive and D Digestive and respiratory respiratory The plasma membrane A Is the gene-containing B Defines the limits of the control centre nucleus C Is the site of most cellular D Regulates the entry and exit of activities cell material Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings? A Lateral and distal B Medial and distal C Superficial and deep D Superficial and proximal The muscle tissue that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with very obvious striations is A Skeletal muscle only B Smooth muscle only C Cardiac muscle only D Cardiac and skeletal muscle 96% of the human body is composed of the elements A Carbon, oxygen, calcium, B Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, sodium nitrogen C Carbon, oxygen, iron, D Sodium, potassium, hydrogen, potassium sulphur The building up of larger molecules or structures from smaller ones is called A Anabolism B Glycolysis C Metabolism D Catabolism Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A Support B Protection C Storage of minerals D Movement The structural and functional unit of life is A A molecule B An organ C A tissue D A cell The kidneys are aided in excretion by the A lungs B Lungs and skin C skin D hair The region that contains the navel is the A carpal region B orbital region C umbilical region D inguinal region Muscle tissue that is involuntary A cardiac muscle and smooth B smooth muscle only muscle C skeletal muscle only D cardiac muscle only

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Which of the following solutions is the weakest acid A a solution with a pH of 10.1 B a solution with a pH of 6.4 C a solution with a pH of 2.4 D a solution with a pH of 8.6 The most abundant element in the human body is A Nitrogen B Hydrogen C Carbon D Oxygen Transport of digested end products from the GI tract to the blood or lymph is called A Digestion B Defecation C Absorption D Propulsion Which of the following areas receives blood directly from the four pulmonary veins A Left atrium B Right atrium C Left ventricle D Right ventricle Which of the following is NOT connective tissue A Blood B skeletal muscle C bone D cartilage The number of permanent teeth in the adult dentition is A 30 B 31 C 32 D 33 Which of the following is NOT involved in the swallowing reflex A Tongue B esophagus C pharynx D larynx Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning A anterior and dorsal B inferior and cephalad C anterior and ventral D inferior and cranial Which of the following activities represents physiological studies A drawing blood from B observing the parts of a laboratory animals to reproducing cell determine their blood sugar levels C making a section through D viewing muscle tissue through the heart to observe its a microscope interior The sequence of steps in which large food molecules are broken down to their building blocks by enzymes iscalled A ingestion B Chemical digestion C propulsion D absorption A sarcomere is A the wavy lines on the cell, B the area between two as seen in a microscope intercalated discs C the nonfunctional unit of D the area between two Z lines skeletal muscle Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the A urinary system B lymphatic system

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C endocrine system D nervous system The part of the neuron that normally receives stimuli is called a(n) A axon B Schwann cell C dendrite D neurolemma Which of the following is a compound A hydrogen gas B sodium chloride C chlorine gas D oxygen gas The lymphatic system A responds to internal and B produces heat external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands C secretes hormones that D picks up fluid leaked from blood regulate processes such as vessels and returns it to the growth, reproduction, and blood nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells Which of the following is NOT a structural feature of a neuron A synaptic cleft B Axon C dendrites D Cell body The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the cytoplasm is the A chromatin B Nuclear membrane C nucleolus D Plasma membrane Which of the following is continuous with the esophagus A oropharynx B linguopharynx C nasopharynx D laryngopharynx The tissue that is found lining body organs, covering the body surface, and in glandular tissue is A Connective tissue B Epithelial tissue C Muscle tissue D Nervous tissue The sternum A Forms a synovial joint with B Contains red marrow only at its the clavicle upper end C Gives origin to the D Articulates with the upper ten pectoralis minor costal cartilages The number of pairs of costal cartilages usually attached to the sternum is A 7 B 8 C 10 D 6 The femoral artery A Its branches supply most of B Is the major artery supplying the thigh and all of the leg the lower limb and foot C Is the continuation of the D All of the above external iliac artery in the

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abdomen Which one of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone A follicle-stimulating B adrenocorticotropic hormone hormone C antidiuretic hormone D prolactin The hormone that triggers ovulation of an egg from the female ovary is A Prolactin B luteinizing hormone C follicle-stimulating D progesterone hormone Hypersecretion of growth hormone after long bone growth has ended (as an adult) is called A myxedema B Cushing's disease C gigantism D pituitary dwarfism The hypothalamus is most closely associated with the A pituitary gland B thymus gland C pancreas D thyroid gland An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called A Cretinism B exophthalmos C myxedema D goiter Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of A antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B growth hormone C prolactin (PRL) D parathyroid hormone (PTH) Which one of the following hormones exerts its primary effects on the reproductive organs A adrenocorticotropic B follicle-stimulating hormone hormone C prolactin D thyroid-stimulating hormone The body's major metabolic hormone is called A adrenaline B growth hormone C thyroid hormone D prolactin Hyposecretion of thyroxine in early childhood leads to A Dwarfism B cretinism C myxedema D exophthalmos The pineal gland produces A Thymosin B insulin C estrogen D melatonin The hormone responsible for the maturation of white blood cells known as T lymphocytes is A thymosin B Melatonin C progesterone D aldosterone Which of these hormones does NOT play a role in reproduction A antidiuretic hormone B follicle-stimulating hormone C testosterone D luteinizing hormone

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Which one of the following hormones is NOT produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland A prolactin B growth hormone C oxytocin D luteinizing hormone The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called A interstitial cells B alpha cells C pancreatic islet cells D beta cells Fertilization of the ovum usually occurs A within one hour of B as much as three to four days ovulation following ovulation C in the ovary D in the upper 1/3 of the uterine tube The period of gestation that is characterized by rapid fetal growth is the ________ trimester(s) A first B Second C third D First and second Which of the following cannot be a factor in the production and maintenance of blood pressure? A Cardiac output B Total blood volume C Viscosity of blood D Elasticity of vein walls What hinders the flow of lymph? A Peristaltic action B Arterial pulsation C Muscular activity D Infection Where would you find white fibrous tissue? A In the wall of the large B In the appendix intestine C In the fascia of muscles and D In the lymph nodes tendons Which endocrine gland is known as the 'master gland'? A Thyroid B Pituitary C Adrenal D Thymus Which of the following is correct about the location of the kidney? A There is one kidney deep to B The kidneys are bilateral and the liver retroperitoneal C The left kidney is lower D The kidneys are in the anterior than the right abdominal wall A pyelogram, an X-ray of the urinary system in which radio-opaque dye is injected into the urinary pathways, can be used to detect A kidney stones B structural abnormalities of the kidney C obstruction of the ureters D all of the above A renal corpuscle includes the A glomerulus and glomerular B glomerulus and renal tubule capsule C glomerular capsule and D renal tubule and collecting renal tubule tubule

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Major calyces are A large branches of the renal B expanded ends of nephrons pelvis C basic functional layers of D the expanded ends of renal the kidney pyramids Which statement is truefor breathing air at high altitude? A Oxygen is a lower B Oxygen becomes much denser percentage of the air at at high altitude high altitude C Carbon dioxide is easy to D Oxygen in the atmosphere of get rid of at high altitude this planet is never too low for air -breathing organisms Which of the following is NOT a subdivision of the large intestine? A Colon B Rectum C Appendix D Duodenum Which set of terms best describes an electron A Neutral, 1 amu, located in B Neutral, 1 amu, located in the the nucleus orbitals C Positive charge, 1 amu, D negative charge, 0 amu, located in the nucleus located in the orbitals Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system? A Generating heat B Hematopoiesis C Producing movement D Stabilizing joints Intercalated disks are found in A Cardiac muscle tissue only B Smooth muscle tissue only C Skeletal muscle tissue only D Both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue A neuron whose primary function is connecting other neurons is called a(n) A afferent neuron B efferent neuron C Glial cell D association neuron The movement of ions across cell membranes is an example of A mechanical energy B chemical energy C electrical energy D potential energy The triangular regions of the kidneys that are separated by the renal columns are the A renal cortex B medullary pyramids C renal medulla D renal pelvis Which of the following is NOT one of the carbohydrates that our digestive system breaks down to simplesugars A Cellulose B Starch C Sucrose D Maltose Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the kidneys A manufacture urine B produce hormones that aid in digestion

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convert vitamin D to its D regulate blood volume active form Which of the following is NOT true of the sensors involved in digestive reflexes A they start reflexes that B they respond to pH of the activate or inhibit digestive organ contents glands C they respond to the D they activate or inhibit lacteal presence of breakdown absorption products of digestion A prominent narrow ridge on a bone is a A spine B tuberosity C crest D tubercle Which of the following does NOT describe the bladder A anterior to the pubic B smooth symphysis C muscular D collapsible The umbilical vein carries A metabolic wastes and B oxygen and foods from the carbon dioxide from the placenta to the fetus fetus to the placenta C metabolic wastes and D oxygen and foods from the carbon dioxide from the fetus to the placenta placenta to the fetus Vertebrae are considered _________ bones, whereas ankle bones are considered___________ A Short; irregular B Compact; spongy C Flat; short D Irregular; short In anatomical position A the body is erect with the B the body is laying face up with feet parallel and the arms the feet parallel and the arms at hanging at the sides with the sides with the palms facing the palms facing backward forward C the body is erect with the D the body is laying face up with feet parallel and the arms the feet parallel and the arms at hanging at the sides with the sides with the palms facing the palms facing forward backward When a pair of electrons is shared unequally between two atoms, the bond formed is called a(n) A polar covalent bond B Ionic bond C Hydrogen bond D Carbon bond Homeostasis in the human body is controlled primarily by which two organ systems A nervous and skeletal B nervous and endocrine systems systems C skeletal and endocrine D cardiovascular and respiratory

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systems systems The primary lipids found in the cell membrane are A neutral lipids and B fat-soluble vitamins and phospholipids neutral lipids C phospholipids and D neutral lipids and cholesterol cholesterol Varicose veins are caused by A a loss of elasticity in blood B incompetent valves vessels C orthostatic hypotension D excessive production of the enzyme renin The three major components of the cytoplasm are the A cytosol, organelles, and B organelles, inclusions, and inclusions ribosomes C organelles, inclusions, and D cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli nucleoli Tendons are A osseous tissue B loose connective tissue C areolar tissue D dense connective tissue The brachiocephalic trunk divides into two arteries A Right and left common B Right common carotid and carotid right subclavian C Left common carotid and D Right and left subclavian left subclavian The femoral canal contains A The lymphatics B The ilioinguinal nerve C The femoral artery D The femoral vein The quadriceps femoris muscle A Rotates the knee B Extends the hip C Extends the knee D Flexes the knee The muscles arising from the clavicle include the A Deltoid B Subclavius C Pectoralis minor D Trapezius The carpal bones articulating with the radius are A Lunate and pisiform B Lunate and trapezium C Lunate and scaphoid D Scaphoid and capitate Which of the following muscles is attached to the coracoid process of the scapula? A Triceps B Biceps C Pectoralis major D Deltoid The ischial tuberosity A Provides attachment for B Provides attachment for many many of the muscles in the of the muscles in the anterior posterior compartment of compartment of the thigh the thigh C Provides attachment for D Provides insertions for many of

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many of the ligaments in the muscles in the superior the posterior compartment compartment of the thigh of the thigh Tropic hormones A stimulate the thymus gland B stimulate other endocrine to secrete hormones glands to secrete hormones C stimulate the pineal gland D stimulate nervous tissue to secrete hormones Which one of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin A stimulation of uterine B stimulation of breast milk contractions ejection C postpartum bleeding D stimulation of menstruation control Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body A calcitonin and parathyroid B oxytocin and prolactin hormone C melatonin and D insulin and glucagon glucocorticoids Which one of the following hormones is NOT produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland A Prolactin B oxytocin C growth hormone D luteinizing hormone The countercurrent mechanism functions in the A glomerulus B renal corpuscle C loop of Henle D nephron Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to A reabsorb sodium B reabsorb potassium C reabsorb calcium D reabsorb iodine Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the A Thymus B parathyroid glands C pineal gland D adrenal cortex The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone, is called A cortisol B Vasopressin C renin D angiotensin Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT A help resist long-term stress B increase blood glucose levels C decrease edema D regulate salt content of the blood Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing's syndrome A buffalo hump B high blood pressure C water retention D bronze skin tones The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of A epinephrine B growth hormone C ADH D prolactin

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Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic islets called A Alpha cells B Beta cells C Delta cells D Gamma cells Insulin works as an antagonist to A thyroid hormone B Oxytocin C glucagon D testosterone Insulin causes A a decrease in the B an increase in the concentration of blood concentration of blood glucose glucose C an increase in the D an increase in blood pressure production of glucagon Which one of the following is NOT a sign of diabetes mellitus A Polydipsia B polyphagia C polyuria D moon face The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-awake cycles is A Progesterone B melatonin C glucagon D thyroxine Estrogens do all of the following EXCEPT A stimulate menstruation B help maintain pregnancy C stimulate growth of facial D prepare the uterus to receive a hair fertilized egg The juxtaglomerular apparatus regulates the filtration rate by A vasoconstriction of the B vasodilation of the afferent afferent arteriole arteriole C vasoconstriction of the D vasodilation of the efferent peritubular capillaries arteriole The hormone ADH A stimulates the kidneys to B causes the kidneys to produce retain sodium ions a large volume of urine C stimulates water D All of the above conservation at the kidneys The amount of potassium secreted by the kidneys is regulated by A Parathormone B aldosterone C atrial natriuretic peptide D cortisol Factors that increase the secretion of ADH include A decreased renal blood flow B increased osmolarity of the ECF C water deprivation D all of the above If the afferent arteriole becomes constricted A blood flow into the efferent B GFR will decrease arteriole will increase C GFR will increase D hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus will increase

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If, through injury, the blood flow to the kidneys decreases, which of the following will occur? A The renin-angiotensin B Sodium reabsorption will be system will be activated inhibited C Obligatory water D There will be systemic reabsorption will decrease vasodilation Where is the origin of the pectoralis major? A Clavicle, sternum and B Lateral epicondyle of humerus cartilages of true ribs C Axillary process of scapula D Coracoid process of scapula How would you recogniseurticaria? A Elevated wheals on the skin B Pustules C Crusted scabs D Silvery scales on the skin The renal pyramid is A the innermost layer of B a conical-shaped structure that kidney tissue is located in the renal medulla C a large branch of the renal D a knot of capillaries that lies pelvis within the renal corpuscle The innermost layer of kidney tissue is the A renal cortex B renal medulla C major calyx D minor calyx A DCT is A the expanded end of a B a knot of capillaries that lies nephron within the renal corpuscle C the portion of the nephron D the portion of the nephron that closest to the renal attaches to the collecting duct corpuscle Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT A diffuse through the plasma B enter the nucleus membranes of target cells C catalyze cyclic AMP D bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus Tropic hormones A stimulate other endocrine B stimulate the pineal gland to glands to secrete hormones secrete hormones C stimulate the thymus gland D stimulate nervous tissue to secrete hormones Which statement is true for cardiac muscle? A All cardiac musclecells have B Cardiac muscle cells are linked pacemaker potentials together by gap junctions as a functional syncytium C Cardiac muscle is controlled D Cardiac muscle cells look voluntarily smooth under the microscope Control of breathing is primarily controlled by which of the following?

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carbon dioxide B chemoreceptors that set the rate of breathing C blood chemoreceptors that D mostly sense oxygen levels Swallowing and peristalsis both assist in A Propulsion B C Chemical digestion D

brain chemoreceptors that mostly sense oxygen levels water sensors that increase breathing to blow off water Absorption Ingestion

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Which of the following categories of bones is generally cube-shaped? A Flat bone B Irregular bone C Long bone D Short bone Which of the following groupings is INCORRECT? A Skeletal muscle, B Striated muscle, cylindrical arrhythmic, variable cells, attached to the skeleton, contraction speed, involuntary multinucleated C Striated muscle, D Cardiac muscle, slow intercalated discs, contraction speed, rhythmic, branching cells, heart uninucleated Which of the following is NOT true of the stomach? A Its mucosa is simple B Its chief cells produce columnar epithelium numerous protein-digesting enzymes C It contains longitudinal and D Starch digestion begins here circular muscle layers In describing the relationship of the lungs to the heart A The lungs are lateral to the B The lungs are intermediate to heart the heart C The lungs are superficial to D The lungs are caudal to the the heart heart Intrinsic factor is a stomach secretion needed for the absorption of A Vitamin D B Vitamin C C Vitamin B12 D Vitamin A The part of the cell (mostly cytoplasm) that is external to the myelin sheath A Neurilemma B Axolemma C Gray matter D White matter The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are A synovial, mucous, and B synovial, cutaneous, and serous cutaneous membranes membranes C synovial, cutaneous, and D mucous, cutaneous, and serous mucous membranes membranes Which of the following is a dorsal body landmark A patellar region B scapular region

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C thoracic region D pubic region When relaxed, the alimentary canal is approximately A 30 feet long B 28 feet long C 32 feet long D 25 feet long Nutrients detour through the liver via A glycogenesis B the electron transport chain C hepatic portal circulation D the circle of Willis Digestion is primarily controlled by A the autonomic nervous B the fight-or-flight mechanism system C the somatic nervous system D the central nervous system Muscles and glands are A part of the peripheral B receptors nervous system C myelinated D effectors The deltoid region is the A shoulder blade region B curve of the shoulder C posterior knee area D area of the spine Compact bone is characterized by______ , whereas spongy bone is characterized by ________ A dense tissue that looks B having epiphyses; having smooth and homogenous; diaphyses small needlelike pieces of bone and lots of open space C having red marrow; having D its internal location in bones; osteons its external location in bones A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a A Tract B Furrow C Sulcus D Fissure The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from A The anal canal B The vagina C The rectum D All of the above The skin of the palm is supplied by the A Ulnar and median nerves B Radial and median nerves C Ulnar nerve alone D Radial and ulnar nerves In the hand, the median nerve supplies A Adductor pollicis B Abductor pollicis brevis C Abductor pollicis longus D Extensor indicis The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from which nerve? A Median B Radial C Ulnar D Musculocutaneous Which of the following muscles is NOT a lateral rotator of the thigh? A Gemellus B Obturator externus C Tensor fasciae latae D Obturator internus The saphenous nerve A Is closely related to the B Gives off a branch to the

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great saphenous vein in the scrotum upper thigh C Is cutaneous to the medial D Is a branch of the obturator side of the foot Which one of the following is NOT typical of the changes that follow the binding of a hormone to its target cells A cellular mutations occur B plasma membrane permeability changes C mitosis is stimulated D enzymes are activated or inactivated Prostaglandins are A steroid hormones B amino acid-based hormones C lipid hormones D glycerol hormones manufactured in cell plasma membranes Alcohol inhibits the secretion of A parathyroid hormone (PTH) B Glucagon C oxytocin D antidiuretic hormone (ADH) The secondary sex characteristics brought about by testosterone secretion do NOT include A development of heavy B development of breasts bones C growth of facial hair D lowering the voice Which of the following are too large to be filtered? A proteins B Lipids C Amino acids D glucose The ability to form a concentrated urine depends on the regulation of the A proximal convoluted tubule B collecting duct C distal convoluted tubule D loop of Henle General characteristics of normal urine include A specific gravity B bacteria C pH D A and C only Which of the following is aldosterone able to affect? A regulation of body fluid B removal of wastes volume C regulation of body fluid D pH regulation concentration When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) increases A less water is reabsorbed by B the specific gravity of the urine the nephron and collecting decreases duct C more salt is secreted by the D less urine is produced nephron Where is the insertion of the gluteus maximus? A The iliotibial tract and the B The head of the fibula and the

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gluteal tuberosity of the lateral condyle of the femur tibia C The medial condyle of the D The pubis tibia Cortical tissue located between renal pyramids is called A Medulla B Renal columns C Renal pelvises D Nephrons The visceral epithelium of the glomerular capsule is the A capillary endothelium B lamina densa C podocytes D capsular space Prostaglandins are A amino acid-based B steroid hormones hormones C lipid hormones D glycerol hormones manufactured in cell plasma membranes All of the following statements are true about brown fat (specialized adipose tissue ) EXCEPT A It has numerous B It produces heat without mitochondria and a rich producing ATP blood supply C It is abundantly found in D It is important for heat newborn mammals production i n adult humans Which statement is true for the synapses between neurons? A The postsynaptic neuron B Excitatory synapses usually integrates excitatory and hyperpolarize the postsynaptic inhibitory input neuron C Inhibitory synapses usually D Spatial summation is when depolarize the postsynaptic postsynaptic potentials created neuron in rapid succession are summed All of the following statements describe skeletal systems EXCEPT A Hydrostatic skeletons are B Exoskeletons grow slowly with found in soft-bodied the organism invertebrates and use water pressure for support C Skeletal systems provide D Endoskeletons include bones, rigid supports for muscles tendons, ligaments, and joints to pull against Cellular energy (ATP) is directly involved in all of the following in skeletal muscle EXCEPT A allowing myosin to unbind B sequestering calcium in the from its actin binding site sarcoplasmic reticulum C opening the gates on the D pumping sodium out of the cell sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium

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To initiate and accomplish inspiration in humans, which of the following occurs? A Pacemaker cells in the B Muscles cause the ribs to move lungs are activated closer to the spinal cord C Lungs and chest wall pull D The diaphragm contracts and apart from each other moves into the abdominal cavity Pulmonary surfactant has what function? A It speeds up the movement B It decreases the surface of oxygen across the bloodtension at the air gas barrier waterinterface in the alveoli C It decreases the diameter D It fills the alveoli with of the bronchioles pulmonary edema fluid A decrease in venous return to the heart causes A An increase in stroke B A decrease in stroke volume volume and cardiac output and an increase in cardiac output C A decrease in stroke D Anincrease in stroke volume volume and cardiac output and a decrease in cardiac output The amount of gastric juice produced every day is A 2-3 liters B 1-2 liters C 1-2 gallons D 2-3 gallons Which of the following is not a serous membrane? A the parietal B the cutaneous membrane C the visceral pericardium D the parietal peritoneum In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities A the thoracic cavity is medial B the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity to the spinal cavity C the thoracic cavity is D the thoracic cavity is ventral to superior to the spinal cavity the spinal cavity Which of the following is NOT a modification of the small intestine, designed to increase surface area for absorption A circular folds B plicae circulares C Peyer's patches D microvilli The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive intercellular matrix is called A muscle tissue B connective tissue C nervous tissue D brain tissue In describing the relationship between the patellar and femoral regions A the patellar region is distal B the patellar region is superior to the femoral region to the femoral region C the patellar region is dorsal D the patellar region is lateral to to the femoral region the femoral region Which of the following are touch receptors A Pacinian corpuscles B Meissner's corpuscles

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Q.280

C Golgi tendon organs D naked nerve endings The inguinal canal A Normally contains a B Is more oblique in the adult peritoneal diverticulum in than in the newborn adults C Its superficial ring is D Contains the spermatic cord in protected by the the male and the round pyramidalis muscle ligament in the female The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the A External oblique B Internal oblique C Transversalis fascia D peritonuem

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