MANAGE National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.

Special GK inputs
MANAGE National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.
(An organisation of Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India) The National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management, popularly known as MANAGE, is an apex national institute set up in 1987 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India. MANAGE is the Indian response to the challenges of management in a rapidly growing agricultural sector. The institute is located on a 16 hectare campus in the serene rural surroundings of Rajendranagar, 15 km away from Hyderabad city. Courses offered : 2-year PGPABM (Post-Graduate Programme in Agri-business Management): Open only to the graduates in agricultural and allied technology areas. The programme aims at enabling meritorious agricultural graduates to acquire the critical competencies to function as effective Agri-Business managers. The programme, launched in 1996, is recognised by the All India Council for Technical Education. . On completion of the programme, successful candidates are awarded with the Post Graduate Diploma in Agri-Business Management. Notification and Entrance Procedure: The notification for the course will be in the newspapers like Employment News, in some more days. The written test is normally conducted in January/February. There will be a computer based objective type written test conducted by MANAGE followed by GD/Extempore and a Personal Interview with Psychological Test. The written test seen last year, had the following pattern: Section I Agriculture (questions upto graduation level) 120 questions. Section II Mathematical Aptitude (Basic Maths) 30 questions Section III Statistics 30 questions Section IV General English 60 questions There was no negative marking for the test till the last year. DAESI (Diploma in Agricultural Extension Services for Input Dealers) Eligibility: Dealers/Candidates sponsored by companies and prospective dealers with 10+2 standard qualification. Duration: One year Course Fee: Rs.27,000/- in lump sum at a time of admission

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There are no written test for the admission in this course till last year, but the Personal Interview is conducted. AWASCM (Post Graduate Programme in Agri-ware-housing and Cool Chain Management) is the first of its kind in India. This course has been specially designed to fabricate students by explicitly training them in both managerial and technical field along with other accommodating courses so as to make them equipped in the highly shifting scenario of agriculture commerce. PGP AJMC (Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture Journalism and Mass Communication): A one year Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture and Journalism and Mass Communication has been launched by MANAGE from 2003. CONTACT: National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500 030 Phones: General: +91 - 40 - 24016702 to 706 Fax: +91 - 40 - 24015388 Email: vedini@manage.gov.in

Best of Luck !
Academic Team - PT

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Sample questions for your reference

1. The years of Green Revolution was (1) fifties (2) late sixties and seventies (3) late fifties and early sixties (4) early fifties The Yellow Revolution resulted in (1) increase in flower production (2) increase in oil production (3) increase in gold production (4) increase in wheat production In early fifties the per capita availability of foodgrains was (1) 395 g (2) 425 g (3) 295 g (4) 500 g In world, pulse crops are grown in largest area in (1) India (2) India and USA (3) India and China (4) USA, India and China Main traditional crops, are (1) moong, soybean, summer sunflower (2) soybean, groundnut, sugarcane (3) sugarcane, cotton (4) (1) and (3) Cropping pattern is changing due to (1) domestic demands (2) export requirement (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Short duration varieties were introduced to (1) utilize residual moisture after post- kharif and post-rabi season (2) avoid land-wastage (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Residual moisture after post-kharif and post-rabi season can be utilized by (1) growing short-duration varieties (2) inter-cropping (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Which organization was the fore-runner to the World Trade Organisation? (1) The World Bank (2) General Agreement on Tariff and Trade (3) The United Nations Development Fund (4) The League of Nations 10. Foodgrain production was quite low after independence because of after partition (1) law and order problems (2) drought (3) high-yielding areas and Punjab went to Pakistan (4) (1) and (3) In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was .. million tonnes (1) 51 (2) 100 (3) 30 (4) 70 In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was 51 million tonnes but in 1994-95 it was 1901 million tonnes resulting in a buffer stock of 35 million tones. (1) The statement is true (2) Buffer stock was 37 million tonnes, rest of the statistics is correct. (3) The statement is false. (4) 51 million tonnes is wrong, it was 61 million tones. The forest area increased form 404.8 million ha in 1950-51 to 682.8 lakh has in 1992-93. (1) Area increased, but from 404.8 to 700 million ha (2) Area decreased to nearly two-third (3) The statement is correct (4) Correct estimated is not available From 1950-51 to 1993-94 gross cropped area under (1) non-food grains increased (2) foodgrains increased (3) non-foodgrains decreased (4) remained same On June 2000, the production of rice and wheat was (1) 15.2 and 27.76 million tones (2) 27.6 and 15.12 million tones (3) 152 and 277.6 million tones (4) None of the above

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groundnut,

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The relative share of foodgrains and nonfoodgrains in gross cropped area in 1993-94 is (1) 66.9% (2) 70% (3) 72% (4) 75% The main crop seasons are (1) three (2) four (3) two (4) five

17.

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18.

The main crop seasons are (1) Kharif, rabi, jayad (2) Kharif (3) Kharif and rabi (4) Rabi The main crops of Kharif are (1) rice, jowar, bajra (2) maize, cotton, sugarcane (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above The main crops of rabi are (1) wheat, jowar, barley (2) gram, linseed, rapeseed, mustard (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above The summer crops are (1) rice, maize (2) groundnut (3) (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Rice is a (1) summer and kharif crop (2) monsoon crop (3) rabi crop (4) None of the above Wheat is a (1) rabi crop (3) kharif crop Sugarcane is a (1) kharif crop (3) jayad crop

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Indian seed programme includes (1) central and state government (2) ICAR, SAUs (3) Public, Private and co-operative sectors (4) All of the above Indian Seed Sector consists of (1) NSC, SFCI, SSCs (2) Private seed companies (3) None of the above (4) All of the above A new variety has to be notified. (1) Not necessarily (2) True (3) Only food grain crops (4) Only cash crops Seed is an essential commodity. (1) Yes (2) No (3) In some states (4) During drought lines only The seed was declared essential under (1) Essential Commodity Act, 1955 (2) Seed Act, 1971 (3) Essential Commodity Act, 1971 (4) None of these Seed production and distribution is controlled under (1) The Seed (Control) Order, 1983 (2) The Essential Commodity Act, 1995 (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above The seed (control) order was promulgated in (1) 1983 (2) 1971 (3) 1982 (4) 1973 New Seed policy is in operation since (1) 1988 (2) 1990 (3) 1993 (4) 1989 Main aim of New Seed Policy is to make available to Indian farmers (1) Best quality seed material available anywhere in world (2) Best quality plant material available anywhere in world (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above The plant quarantine clearance is requested under (1) Plant, Fruit and Seed (Regulation of import in India) Order, 1989 (2) Plant (Regulation of import in India) Order, 1989 (3) Seed Act, 1989 (4) None of the above

19.

30.

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31.

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32.

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34. (2) summer crop (4) winter crop

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(2) summer crop (4) rabi crop 35.

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Maize Zea mays (1) Kharif and summer crop (2) Rabi crop (3) Winter crop (4) Monsoon crop Groundnut is a (1) Kharif crop (2) Summer crop (3) Rabi crop (4) Kharif and summer crop Where are the headquarters of NATO (1) Brussels (2) London (3) Washington DC (4) Paris The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is related to (1) Asian Trade Development (2) International Cyber Crime (3) International Drug Trafficking (4) Global Climate Change

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39.

Export of seed is allowed (1) liberally except a few which needs licence (2) liberally allowed (3) licences is required (4) not allowed Overall improvement in seed quality was the aim of: (1) National Seed Project III (SNP III) (2) National Agriculture Control Board (3) National Seed Board (4) None of the above

(2) preventing export of infectious material (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above 49. Plant quarantine activities also work for (1) controlling / containing exotic plant diseases already introducing in the country (2) controlling / containing exotic pests already introduced in the country (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Plant activities are implemented through (1) Destructive Insects and Pests Act (2) Plants, Fruits and Seeds Order 1989 (3) Insecticide and Biogas Act, 1989 (4) Both (1) and (2) Technology missions were started on (1) oilseeds, pulses (2) maize (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above From 1987-88 to 1996-97 the oilseed production was (1) doubled (2) tripled (3) quadrupled (4) None of the above Oilseeds production in 1996-97 was (1) 24.4 million tones (2) 24.8 million tones (3) 30 million tones (4) 30.3 million tonnes The loan given for purchasing of seeds and fertilizers is called as (1) Long term (2) Short term (3) Medium (4) All of these Which of the following holding is smaller than economic holding and may be able to provide a reasonable standard of leaving to the cultivator, but not sufficient for the purpose of agricultural operation is known as? (1) Economic holding (2) Operational holding (3) Basic holding (4) Optimum holding The law of diminishing retime applies more generally to which of the following industry (1) Chemical (2) Film (3) Agriculture (4) Cloths In India which of the following state has maximum number of tube-wells and pumpsets? (1) Uttarranchal (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh

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50. 41. Central committee has notified following total varieties of agricultural and horticultural crops (1) 2,385 (2) 3,000 (3) 2.000 (4) 3,157 NSP-III stands for (1) National Seed Project III (2) National Security Programme III (3) National Seed Programme III (4) National Safety Plan III During 1996-97, the fertilizer consumption was (1) 14.93 million tones (2) 15.83 million tones (3) 18.23 million tones (4) 16.00 million tonnes The lower consumption of fertilizers is mainly due to (1) sharp price rise (2) drought (3) more farmers are depending upon manure (4) None of the above Centrally sponsored scheme of Balanced and Integrated use of fertilizer aims (1) to popularize the use of organic source of nutrients (2) to produce organic manure (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above Scheme on conducting studies and formulating long-term mechanization strategies for each agroclimatic zone started under (1) Five-Year 9th Plan (2) Five-Year 6th Plan (3) Five-Year 8th Plan (4) Five-Year 4th Plan Scheme on popularization of Agricultural equipment in North-Eastern states was started in (1) Five-Year 9th Plan (2) Five-Year 8th Plan (3) Five-Year 6th Plan (4) Five-Year 5th Plan The Plant quarantine activities aims at (1) preventing introduction of exotic pests and diseases into the country 56. 51.

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(4) Madhya Pradesh 58. A farmer having less than one hectare irrigated land is known as (1) Big farmers (2) Small farmers (3) Marginal farmers (4) None of these In which of the following farming land is owned by Government and workers work as employers getting their wages regularly. (1) Peasant farming (2) Collective fanning (3) Co-operative farming (4) State fanning Which of the following is a major objective of planning commission? (1) Increase agricultural production (2) Increase employment opportunities (3) Reduce the pressure of population on land (4) All of the above The Food Corporation of India was established in January .. to supply grains at reasonable prices to the consumers. (1) 1945 (2) 1955 (3) 1965 (4) 1975 The Food Corporation of India was stated initially with the purpose of purchasing......... crop only. (1) Rice (2) Wheat (3) Maize (4) Gram

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In which of the following farming the owner of land is farmer (1) Pleasant (2) Mixed (3) Diversified (4) Specialized In which of the following farming, large number of farmers own and they manage the farm is called as (1) State farming (2) Co-operative farming (3) Collective farming (4) None of the above Medium term loan are repayable up to .........years. (1) Three (2) Five (3) Two (4) None Short term laon is given for a period of ...............year. (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Long term loan is given for the period of ...........year. (1) 5 to 15 (2) 25 to 35 (3) 45 to 55 (4) 65 to 75 In Mahalwari system of land tenure, revenue was collected by (1) District Collector (2) BDO (3) Village Panchayat (4) None of the above Which of the following holding is smaller than economic holding and may be able to provide a reasonable standard or living to the cultivator but not sufficient for the purpose of Agricultural operations is known as (1) Multiple farming (2) Co-operative farming (3) Specialized farming (4) Irrigated farming A farming system in which more than 50% receipts are derived from one sources: (1) Collective farming (2) Co-operative farming (3) Specialized farming (4) Irrigation farming The best use of limited resources is studied under which of the following law: (1) Law of substation (2) Diminishing return (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above In India, Agricultural Price Commission was established during the year. (1) 1945 (2) 1955 (3) 1965 (4) 1975

67.

59.

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72. 63. The breach of Agricultural economics which deals with the principles and practices of farming with an object of obtaining the maximum possible return from the land as a unit under a sound farming programme is known as (1) Farm management (2) Agricultural finance (3) Agricultural marching (4) Agricultural Prices Which of the following is the economic process by which goods and services are exchanged and their values determined in term of money prices? (1) Credit (2) Marketing (3) Budgeting (4) Consumer surplus Which of the following principle is very useful in determining the best use of limited resources? (1) Law of diminishing regime (2) Law substitution (3) Law of equimarginal returns (4) Law of opportunity cost

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76.

Reserve Bank of India was established during the year (1) 1925 (2) 1923 (3) 1935 (4) 1940 In India, Agricultural Refinance Corporation was established during the year; (1) 1962 (2) 1965 (3) 1968 (4) 1978 Which of the following is main function of NABARD, established in 1982? (1) NABARD (2) Financing the weaker section (3) Refinancing the Bank (4) Financing the Agricultural Universities Which of the following is broad leaved species? (1) Teak (2) Sal (3) Sterculea (4) All of the above Which of the following is shade bearer tree? (1) Magnifera indica (2) Mimosopa elengi (3) Delinea indica (4) All of the above Which of the following tree is suitable for sport industry? (1) Morus Alba (2) Silver fir (3) Spruce (4) Ailanthus Forest area in India is (1) 45 million hectare (2) 52 million hectare (3) 73 million hectare (4) 62 million hectare U.P. Private Forest Act was passed in (1) 1947 (2) 1948 (3) 1945 (4) 1955 Himachal Pradesh Forest Act was passed in (1) 1948 (2) 1958 (3) 1968 (4) 1978 Which of the following is best grazing season in forest? (1) Pre monsoon (2) During monsoon (3) Post-monsoon (4) Around the year Rangers training first started during the year of (1) 1971 (2) 1978 (3) 1988 (4) 1989 Ranger training first started at (1) Bhopal

(2) Dehra Dun (3) Moussurrc (4) Calcutta (Kolkata) 88. Indian Forest Act 1927, as amended up to date, with short notes, in year (1) 1971 (2) 1987 (3) 1991 (4) 2001 First Van Mahotsava was organized in India on (1) 1 July, 1946 (2) 1 July, 1947 (3) 1 Aug. 1948 (4) 1 July, 1950 Sore forestry is the part of (1) Farm forestry (2) Social forestry (3) Recreation forestry (4) Protected forestry Indian forests are a source of (1) Pulp wood (2) Gums (3) Lac (4) All of the above National Forest Policy was passed in (1) 1948 (2) 1952 (3) 1965 (4) None of the above The aim(s) of social forestry was (1) to provide fuel, fodder and small timber for the community (2) to generate income and employment in rural areas (3) to help maintain environmental stability (4) All of the above Under man-made forestry programme, which of the following important scheme have been undertaken (1) Plantation of quick growing species (2) Plantation of economic species (3) Plantation to rehabilitate degraded forests (4) All of the above Headquarters of World Trade Organisation (WTO) is located in (1) New York (2) Tokyo (3) Geneva (4) Berlin Van Mahotsav was inaugurated in (1) 1950 (2) 1951 (3) 1952 (4) 1935 Central Rice Research Institute is located at (1) Port Blair (2) Cuttack (3) Manila (4) Bangalore

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98.

Which variety of rice is suitable for both rabi and kharif in Andhra Pardesh and eastern states? (1) VL Dhan 81 (2) Neerja (3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103 Janaki and Ravana are recently released varieties of (1) Wheat (2) Maize (3) Rice (4) None of these

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110. Consider the following statements: In paddy, fertilizer application should be directed to the I. oxidised zone II. reduced zone III. surface of these statements Choose the correct combination (1) I is correct (2) II and III are correct (3) II is correct (4) I and II are correct 111. The growth period, crop performance and productivity are determined by the combination of (1) temperature (2) photoperiod (3) light intensity (4) All of the above 112. The rice crop tolerates submergence because (1) the plant does not need oxygen (2) the plant has mechanism to transport oxygen through leaves (3) bacteria keep the rhizosphere oxidized (4) oxygen penetrating the root zone through air movement is sufficient 113. Rice is grown in (1) riverine alluvium (2) red-yellow (3) red loamy (4) terai 114. Rice production is the highest in areas having: I. high rainfall II. canal irrigated lands III. sunny days during and after mid June Choose the correct combination using the codes given below (1) I is correct (2) II and III are correct (3) II is correct (4) I and II are correct 115. Laterite, coastal alluvium, red, sandy, mixed red and black, and medium and shallow black soils are suitable for the (1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Maize (4) Barley 116. Total number of cropping patterns involving paddy and jowar is (1) 10 (2) 29 (3) 30 (4) 60 117. Which type of days require for tuberization in sweet potato (1) Short days (2) Long days (3) Day neutral (4) All types 118. Yield of Sree Bhadra, cultivar of sweet potato is (1) 10-15 q/ha (2) 15-20 q/ha (3) 20-25 q/ha (4) 30-35 q/ha

100. Which variety of rice is grown in shallow lowland areas of eastern India? (1) VL Dhan (2) Neerja (3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103 101. In rainfed upland, rice ecosystems gave higher returns with intercropping of (1) Pigeon pea (2) Soybean (3) Groundnut (4) All of the above 102. International Rice Research Institute is located at (1) Mexico (2) Cuttack (3) Manila (4) Florida 103. Most of the varieties of rice have .. of chromosomes (1) 10 pairs (2) 11 pairs (3) 12 pairs (4) 13 pairs 104. The rice grain is a (1) Caryopsis (2) Psoropsis (3) Both of the above (4) None of these 105. How many amino acids are normally present in rice? (1) 15 (2) 17 (3) 19 (4) 21 106. Rice is crop, cultivated purely in rainfed upland in (1) West Bengal (2) Bihar (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) All of these 107. Directorate of Rice Research is located at (1) Haryana (2) Patna (3) Cuttack (4) Hyderabad 108. Rice is a (1) short day plant (2) long day plant (3) both of the above (4) None of the above 109. The red or purple colour of rice is owing to (1) anthocyanin (2) non-anthocyanin (3) plastids (4) None of these

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(4) None of these 119. Which variety is resistant to spidermite? (1) S-856 (2) S-850 (3) H-95 (4) H-110 120. Sugarbeet is a (1) Tetraplarid (2) Hexaploid (3) Octaploid (4) All of the above 121. Aster yellow is disease of following plant (1) Daucus carda (2) Aster (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 122. Toxic gases from brick kilns are the main cause of (1) Die back (2) Black top (3) Twig die back (4) Stem canker 123. Which are self pollinated vegetable crops? (1) Carrot, Garlic, Okra, Tomato (2) Onion, Date Palm, Sweet Potato (3) Pea, Okra, Potato, Chilli (4) Brinjal, Lettuce, Garlic 124. Carrot is a rich source of: (1) Carotene (2) Cynacobalamine (3) Pyridnme (4) All of the above 125. Pusa Yamdagni is variety of (1) Radish (2) Potato (3) Carrot (4) Spinach 126. Forking of carrot is owing to (1) Excess of P (2) Compact soil (3) Excess of N (4) None of these 127. Average seed yield/ha of Asian carrots is (1) 2-3 q (2) 5-6 q (3) Compact soil (4) All of these 128. Local red round golden ball is a cross of (1) Pusa Sadabahar (2) Pusa Kanchan (3) Pusa Yamdagini (4) Pusa Rakshak 129. Pusa Meghali carrot is developed by the crossing of (1) Pusa Yamdagni, HC-1 (2) Pusa Yamdagni, Nantes (3) Nantes, HC-1 (4) Pusa Keser, Nantes 130. Black rot of carrot is caused by (1) Botrytis cinaria (2) Alternaria radicina (3) Erwinia carotovaro 131. Cavity spot in carrot is caused by (1) Deficiency of calcium (2) High potassium (3) Both of the above (4) None of these 132. Radish scab is caused by (1) Pythium aphamidermatu (2) Pythium ultimatum (3) Streptomyces sp. (4) None of the above 133. Powdery mildew of cucurbits is caused by: (1) Altemaria brassicicola (2) Pythium ultimatium (3) Sphacrotheca fuliginea (4) None of the above 134. Clubrot and Black rot diseases are found in (1) Chilli (2) Turnip (3) Pea (4) Cabbage 135. In upper hills potato is sown in (1) January (2) May (3) September (4) December 136. The average yield of potato in the world is around (1) 15 tonnes/ha (2) 16 tonnes/ha (3) 17 tonnes/ha (4) 18 tonnes/ha 137. What is the rank of India in potato production in the world? (1) First (2) Third (3) Fifth (4) Seventh 138. Black heart of potato is owing to (1) Efficiently of CO2 (2) Lack of O2 (3) Efficiency of micronutrient (4) All of the above 139. Temperature and relative humidity for storage of potato is (1) 3.1C and 60-70% RH (2) 3.3C and 80-85% RH (3) 3.5C and 75-80% RH (4) 3.7C and 90-95% RH 140. Dormancy of Solanum tuberosum tuber can be broken through the use of (1) IAA(1%) (2) Cholorohydrine (3%) (3) Gibberellic acid (5%) (4) Etherel (0.5%) 141. Tristiza virus is transmitted by (1) Insects (2) Aphid (3) Pests (4) All of the above

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142. Farming System is (1) Crop System (2) Cropping System (3) Crop Rotation (4) All of the above 143. The principle of crop rotation is (1) The crops with tap with roots should be followed by those which have a fibrous root system (2) The leguminous crops should be grown after non-leguminous crops (3) More exhaustive crops should be following by less exhaustive crops (4) Selection of the crops should be demandbased (5) All of the above 144. The crop of the same family ........ in succession because they act like alternate hosts for many insects, pests and diseases (1) should be grown (2) should not be grown (3) both of the above on 50% basis (4) None of the above 145. In crop rotation crops should be grown (1) On slopy lands which are prove to erosion (2) Under dry farming the crop should be such which can tolerate the draught (3) In low lying and flood prone areas the crops should be such which can tolerate water stagnation (4) The selection of crops should be economical (5) The crops selective should suit to the soil and climate condition (6) All of the above 146. Crop rotation is essential because (1) Agricultural operations can be done timely for all the crops (2) Soil fertility is restored (3) Maintains physical properties of the soil (4) Helps in controlling insects, pests, and diseases (5) Controls the weeds in the fields (6) All of the above 147. Which of the following(s) is true for crop rotation? (1) It helps for proper utilization of all the resources and inputs (2) Farmers can get better price for his produces because of higher demands in the market (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 148. Rotational Intensity is found out by (1) Calculation of the number of crops grown in a rotation (2) Multiplication of 100

(3) Division of the duration of that rotation (4) All of the above 149. Suppose if maize-barley-late potato-green gram are grown in first year and moong-potato-maize are grown in second year. What will be its Rotation Intensity? (1) 350% (2) 300% (3) 250% (4) 400% 150. An example of relay cropping is (1) Maize-wheat (2) Maize-wheat-chari (3) Maize-potato-wheat-lobia (4) Paddy-wheat-sugarcane 151. Alley cropping means (1) Growing of pastures in between two widely spaced rows of fast growing trees (2) Growing of field crops in between two widely spaced rows of fast growing trees (3) Growing of only short duration crops in between two widely spaced of fast growing trees (4) Growing of only fodder crops in between two widely spaced rows of fast growing trees 152. Maize-potato-wheat greengram is an example of (1) Double cropping (2) Multistoried cropping (3) Relay cropping (4) Intercropping 153. Specialized farming is an example of (1) Type of farming (2) System of farming (3) Capitalistic farming (4) None of the above 154. Which Mexican wheat came in India? (1) Lermareja (2) Sonara - 63 (3) Sonara - 64 (4) All of the above 155. Sustainable agriculture yield can be obtained through (1) More resources (2) More subsidies (3) More technological support (4) Better prices of the produce 156. Which of the following is not a system of farming? (1) State farming (2) Collective farming (3) Co-operative farming (4) Dry farming

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157. Rotation of crops means? (1) Different crops are grown on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession to maintain soil fertility besides higher crop production (2) Growing two crops at the same time on a piece of land in either different row ratio or mixed together (3) Growing crops on a piece of land over a fixed period and their interaction with farm resources and other farm enterprises with available technology (4) All of the above 158. Why do we use intercropping? (1) Suppression of weed (2) Reduction in plant and disease (3) Stability in more yield (4) All of the above 159. Which of the following is / are the advantages of intercropping? (1) Improvement of soil health (2) Improve agro eco-system (3) Better use of growth resources including light, nutrient and water (4) All of the above

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Rice-Linseed Corn-Safflower Both of the above None of the above

165. In Bundelkhand region of Uttaranchal an efficient double cropping system is (1) Rice-Wheat (2) Rice-Chickpea (3) Sorghum-Chickpea (4) Moongbean-Wheat (5) All of the above 166. In submontane soils of north-east Punjab an efficient double cropping system is (1) Corn-mustard (2) Maize-wheat (3) Paddy-wheat (4) Cotton-wheat (5) All of the above 167. Paddy-Transplanted Gobhi sarson and cottontransplanted Gobhi sarson are efficient double cropping system in (1) Vidarbha region (2) Bundelkhand region (3) Submontane soils of the north-cast Punjab (4) Malwa Plateau 168. In submontane soils of Jammu an efficient crop rotation takes place as (1) Corn-Mustard (2) Corn-Safflower (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 169. Moong bean-Safflower crop rotation suits to (1) Vidarbha region (2) Malwa Plateau (3) Bundelkhand region (4) None of the above 170. In Malwa plateau the famous crop rotation is (1) Sorghum-Safflower (2) Sorghum-Chickpea (3) Soybcan-Safflower (4) All of the above 171. If the yield of each crop is greater than the expected yield, it is called (1) Mutual inhibition (2) Inter co-operation (3) Compensation (4) None of the above 172. The Components of soil are (1) Mineral material (2) Organic matter (3) Water and air (4) All of the above 173. How many kinds of main rocks are there? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

160. What are disadvantages of intercropping? (1) Labour intensive (2) Control of pests and diseases or chemical weed control (3) Mechanisation is difficult (4) Adverse competitive effect by allelopathy (5) All of the above 161. The direct or indirect harmful effect on one plant or another through the production of chemical substances that escape into the environment (1) Main crop (2) Component crop (3) Completion crop (4) Allelopathy 162. In submontane north-west region an efficient double cropping system has following crops rotation (1) Rice-Wheat (2) Rice-Chickpea (3) Corn-Chickpea (4) Soybean-Wheat (5) All of the above 163. Who is associated with Andolan? (1) A. B. Vajpayee (2) Medha Patkar (3) Mamata Bannerjee (4) Sunder Lal Bahuguna Narmada Bachao

164. In plains of eastern Uttar Pradesh an efficient double cropping system is

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174. Igneous rocks are formed by the (1) Cooling, hardening and crystallizing of various kinds of lavas (2) Consolidation of fragmentary rock materials and the products of their decomposition by water (3) Action of intense heat and high pressure or both resulting in considerable change the texture and mineral composition (4) Weathering 175. The common sedimentary rocks are (1) conglomerate (2) sandstone (3) shale and limestone (4) All of the above 176. The common igneous rocks found in India are (1) granites (acidic) (2) basalts or the deccan trap (basic) (3) Both (1) and (b) (4) None of the above 177. Unconsolidated sedimentary rocks are the forms of (1) alluvial deposits (2) aeolian deposits (3) glacial deposits (4) All of the above 178. The principal agents of physical weathering are (1) Temperature (2) Wind and Water (3) Plants and Animals (4) All of the above 179. The Chemical decomposition of rocks is brought about by (1) Solution (2) Hydration (3) Hydrolysis (4) Carbonation (5) Oxidation and Reduction (6) All of the above (7) None of the above 180. Phosphorus fixation refers to the phenomenon of (1) absorption of P2O5 by the plant and synthesis of biological compounds (2) leaching of from soil by percolating waters (3) conversion of soluble phosphorus into plant unavailable forms (4) anion exchange with colloidal constituents of soil 181. The ratio of organic carbon to organic matter in soils is (1) 1.0 1.7 (2) 1.0 2.0 (3) 1.7 1.0 (4) 20.0 1.0

182. The process of soil formation include (1) the addition of organic and mineral materials (2) the loss of these materials from the soil (3) the translation of materials from one point to another within the soil callus (4) the transformation of mineral and organic substances (5) None of the above (6) All of the above 183. Pedology means (1) a study of soil profile important both from standpont of soil formation and soil development (2) a study of crop husbandry (3) a coarse grained soil (4) None of the above 184. Shamrock is the emblem of which country? (1) Denmark (2) Ireland (3) Spain (4) Italy 185. A unit of Kaolinte crystal lattice consists of silica and aluminium in the ratio of (1) 1 2 (2) 2 1 (3) 1 1 (4) 1 3 186. A unit of Montmorillonite crystal lattice consists of silica and alumina in the ratio of (1) 1:2 (b) 2 1 (3) 2 3 (d) 3 2 187. A unit of illite consists of (1) silica (2) alumina (3) potassium (4) All of the above 188. The CEC value of kaolinite is .. me / 100 g. (1) 3-10 (2) 10-30 (3) 80-150 (4) None of these 189. The CEC value of illite is ..... me/100 g. (1) 10-20 (2) 10-40 (3) 20-30 (4) 10-30 190. The CEC value of montmorillonite ..... is me/ 100 g. (1) 80-140 (2) 80-150 (3) 80-160 (4) 80-170 191. If a soil has more than 15% exchangeable sodium it is considered to be (1) acidic (2) alkali (3) neutral (4) None of the above

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192. Humus soil contains carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen and ash in the ratio of: (1) 10 7 1 1 1 (2) 7 10 1 1 1 (3) 1 7 10 1 1 (4) None of the above 193. Organic carbon is found .................. % in deep black soil. (1) 0.28 - 1.10 (2) 0.68 - 6.53 (3) 0.34 - 0.77 (4) None of the above 194. Humus soil contains carbon..............%. (1) 35 (2) 50 (3) 5 (4) 5 195. There is a net increase in the mineralization of organic nitrogen in soil when (1) C N = 20 - 30 1 (2) C N = 20 1 (3) C N = 30 1 (4) nitrogen is taken up by the crops 196. Soils with high pH are generally deficient in (1) Zn and Mn (2) B and Fe (3) Cu and Mo (4) Ca and Mg 197. Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering is located at (1) Baroda (2) Mumbai (3) Bhopal (4) Barrackpore 198. A power-tiller operated multi-crop planter is developed by (1) CIHPET, Ludhiana (2) HPKV, Palampur (3) MPKV, Rahuri (4) None of the above 199. The seed planters are available in different sizes viz single row, two row and............ according to the source of power. (1) Four rows (2) Five rows (3) Six rows (4) Seven rows 200. A vertical conveyor reaper windrower is designed for harvest crop at (1) CIRCOT, Mumbai (2) MPKV, Rahuri (3) PAU, Ludhiana (4) CIAE, Bhopal 201. The labour requirements potato planters are reduced to..........to man/hrs than 100 to 120 man/hr used in manual planting of potatoes. (1) 30 to 40 (2) 40 to 50 (3) 50 to 60 (4) 60 to 70

202. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana has developed mounted type semiautomatic drip type sugarcane planter. A tractor of 25 or more horse power can be used for operating this machine. The field capacity of this machine is ha/day. (1) 2.43 (2) 2.02 (3) 1.62 (4) 0.81 203. A power tiller operated orchard sprayer is developed by ......................... centre of AICRP on power tillers (1) HPKV, Shimla (2) MPKV, Rahuri (3) CIPHET, Ludhiana (4) All of the above 204. One can plant ..................... of potato in a way with a tractor mounted row and space maker cum fertilizer applicator and a 3 bottom ridger. (1) 4.05-4.86 ha (2) 5.67-6.48 ha (3) 2.43-3.24 ha (4) 1.62-2.43 ha 205. The planter is suitable for sowing .. using appropriate seed plates. (1) small and bold seeds (2) large and bold seeds (3) only large seeds (4) None of the above 206. In a semi-automatic plants with audible timing device, the row width, plant spacing and depth can be adjusted and controlled. Row spacing can be controlled from 45 to 75 cm. A team of 4 to 5 person can plant .. to .. ha/day. (1) 2.43-2.83 (2) 2.02-2.43 (3) 1.62-2.43 (4) 1.21-2.43 207. Central Institute of Post-harvest Engineering and Technology is located at (1) Lalitpur (2) Ludhiana (3) Delhi (4) Dehradun 208. Tractor mounted ring fed potato planter can plant.......... to ...........ha 8 hr/day. (1) 0.60-0.81 (2) 0.81-1.01 (3) 1.01-1.21 (4) 1.21-1.62 209. A power-litter-operated Potato planter-cumfertilizer applicator is developed by (1) CIAE, Bhopal (2) MPKV, Rahuri (3) HPKV, Palampur (4) All of these 210. The population of draft is..............millions. (1) 80 (2) 70 (3) 60 (4) 50 animal in India

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211. A pair of bullocks has about............ hp for usual farm work. (1) 1.0 (2) 2.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 4.0 212. In which type of engine liquid fuel under high pressure of 105 kg. per sq. cm or above at the right moment directly into the combustion chamber which contain highly compressed air. (1) Carbucrator (2) Diesel (3) Duel fuel (4) All of these 213. Which of the following device is used for changing the voltage from one value to another without a change in frequency? (1) Fuel Nozzles (2) Piston (3) Transformer (4) Power Station 214. The desi wooden plough is the most commonly used implement of puddling on small farms of India. It is also used for dry land tillage. Output of this plough is usually-ha/day (1) 0.2 to 0.3 (2) 0.5 to 0.8 (3) 0.6 to 0.8 (4) 1.62 to 2.43 215. The field capacity of the planter was ........... for different crops with field efficiency from 71.5 to 75%. (1) 0.50-0.58 ha/hr (2) 0.20 - 0.28 ha/hr (3) 0.40 - 0.48 ha/hr (4) None of the above 216. The strole-Bore - Ratio of tractor engine is about (1) 1.0 (2) 2.00 (3) 1.50 (4) 1.25 217. A 6 - row tractor mounted inclined plate planter is designed and developed by (1) CIAE, Bhopal (2) PAU, Ludhiana (3) CIPHET, Ludhiana (4) All of the above 218. Piston speed of the high speed tractor engine range between ........... m/min. (1) 100 to 500 (2) 200 to 500 (3) 300 to 500 (4) 400 to 500 219. A wide swath high clearance tractor sprayer has been developed by ........ its effective field capacity is about 3 ha/hr. (1) CCSHAU, Hisar (2) PAU, Ludhiana (3) HSR, Lucknow (4) SBI, Coitnbatore 220. ..................is a special system of leveling chiefly employed for establishing bench marks with high precision at widely distributed point. (1) Precise leveling (2) Transverse levelling

(3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 221. There are.......... types of tractors. (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 4 222. Total breeds of Cattle in India are (1) 28 (2) 27 (3) 10 (4) 30 223. Total number of breeds of buffalo is (1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 8 224. Famous cattle breeds of Gujarat are (1) Kankrej and Gir (2) Hariana (3) Sahiwal (4) Sindhi 225. Kankrej is a (1) draught (2) dual purpose (3) milch (4) None of the above 226. Gujarat is name of Kankrej in (1) Gujarat (2) Brazil (3) USA (4) UK 227. Female Tharparker is a (1) good draught animal (2) excellent milk breed (3) poor draught animal (4) None of the above 228. Male Tharparker is a (1) good draught animal (2) excellent meat breed (3) poor draught animal (4) None of the above 229. Most popular dual-purpose cattle breed of Indogangetic plains is (1) Hariana (2) Surti (3) Meharana (4) None of the above 230. Krishna valley cattle breed is native of: (1) along the river Krshna and adjoining are areas of Karnatan. . (2) Karnataka (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Gujarat 231. Male Krishna valley were used to (1) carry military equipment (2) loads (3) meat (4) None of the above

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232. Ongole breed is suitable for (1) heavey draught work (2) light agricultural work (3) meat (4) None of the above 233. Ongole is found in (1) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh (2) Karnataka (3) Maharashtra (4) Gujarat 234. Santa-Gertrudis breed of texas has inheritance of (1) Ongole (2) Hariana (3) Tharparker (4) Sahiwal 235. Rathi is found in (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Assam (4) Rajasthan 236. Gir is native of (1) Punjab (2) Gujarat (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar 237. Most popular export cattle is (1) Gir (2) Hariana (3) Sahiwal (4) Rathi 238. In Brazil Gyr is name of (1) Gir (2) Rathi (3) Surti (4) Mehsana 239. Indo-Brazil cattle has been developed by: (1) India (2) Brazil (3) South America (4) None of the above 240. Hometract of famous Red Sindhi cattle is: (1) Karanchi, Hyderabad of Pakistan (2) Pakistan (3) Punjab (4) Gujarat 241. Red Sindhi was used to develop Karan Swiss (2) Frieswal (3) Sunnandini (4) None of the above 242. Sahiwal cattle is native of:. (1) Punjab (2) Haryana (3) Gujarat (4) Pakistan 243. Best breed of Asian continent is (1) Sahiwal (2) Hariana (3) Rathi (4) None of the above (1)

244. In West Indies new breed was developed by crossing Jersey M/F (1) Sahiwal (2) Rathi (3) Gir (4) None of the above 245. At Vijayanajram State breed developed was (1) Hallikar (2) Krishna Valley (3) Rathi (4) None of the above 246. Hallikar was used by Tipu Sultan for (1) Carrying cannons (2) Draught (3) Milk (4) Meat 247. West Bengal University of Agriculture and Fisheries Science is located at (1) Kolkata (2) Barrackpore (3) Kalyani (4) None of the above 248. Fish production during 2000 was............. million Tonnes India. (1) 55.81 (2) 0.5581 (3) 5.581 (4) 558.1 249. During 2000-2001 subsidies to fish farmers increased for (1) Construction of ponds and tanks (2) Input for fish cultures (3) Building of houses (4) All of the above 250. Mariculture technologies are developed for (1) Green mussel (2) Pearl oysters (3) Clams and sea weed (4) All of the above 251. PUFA stands for (1) Poly unsaturated Fatty Acid (2) Poly urinary follicle agency (3) Polymerase unsaturated fatty acid (4) None of the above 252. The fish export has crossed the value of in 19992000 (1) more than Rs 35010 millions (2) Rs 35010 millions (3) Less than Rs 35010 millions (4) None of the above 253. What is the position of India in inland fish production in world ? (1) First (2) Second (3) Third (4) Fourth

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254. Central Institute of Fisheries Education is located at (1) Solan (2) Kochi(Cochin) (3) Mumbai (4) None of these 255. WSSV stands for (1) Waste Soil Salinity Virus (2) White Spot Syndrome Virus (3) White Spot Syndrome Vessel (4) None of the above 256. What is the position of India in fish production in the world ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 257. In India, Integrated Rural Development Programme was adopted in which of the Five Year Plan? (1) First (2) Third (3) Sixth (4) Eight 258. Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labours Agencies were set up on the recommendation made by ............ during 1969. (1) NABARD (2) CDP (3) NDRP (4) Rural Credit Review Committee 259. The Drought Prone Area Programme was initiated in Maharashtra during the Fourth Plan period in (1) 1970-71 (2) 1980-81 (3) 1990-91 (4) 2000-01 260. Anyodya Yojana Programme was launched on 2 October, ............ for upliftment of the poorest of the poor families in every village of Rajasthan. (1) 1978 (2) 1976 (3) 1977 (4) 1989 261. The National Scheme of Training of Rural Youth for SelfEmployment was initiated from August 1979 with the principle objectives of (1) Provide employment of the poorest (2) Removal of unemployment among youth (3) Study of tribal areas (4) Systematic training of backward youth 262. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was announced and implemented on 28th April ............ by Village Panchayat all over the country. (1) 1958 (2) 1968 (3) 1989 (4) 1993 263. Firka Development Project was started for the Rural Development in India during 1947 by which of the State Government. (1) Maharashtra (2) Punjab (3) Haryana (4) Tamil Nadu

264. Shriniketan project was developed by Shri Rabindranath Tagore in collaboration with ........... in 1921 at Shriniketan in Bengal for the uplift of the villagers. (1) Spencer Hatch (2) W S Wiser (3) L K Elmhirst (4) Albert Mayer 265. Which of the following project was started by Mr. Specher Hatch in Travancore State under the auspices of YMCA in 1921? (1) Sahibabad (2) Etawah (3) Delhi (4) Marthandam 266. Which of the following project was originally started to rehabilitate the displaced person from Pakistan? (1) Etawah (2) Nilokheri (3) IVS (4) Sevagram 267. In training and visit system each sub-divisions extension officer supervises and provides technical support to the eight........... under this jurisdiction. (1) PAU (2) TNAU (3) AEO (4) KAU 268. Subdivisional extension officers has a team of subject matter specialists, each team has three specialist from which of the following discipline (1) Agronommy,Plant-Proteetion, Extension (2) Botany, Horticulture, Agronomy (3) Agricultural Extension, Economics, Agronomy (4) None of the above 269. Which of the following officer is responsible for arranging forthrightly training session to all staff in T & V system. (1) CSAUA & T (2) GBPUA & T (3) GAU (4) SMS 270. Which of the following authority is responsible for the smooth operation of all extension activities in the district that comprise the zone? (1) PAO (2) SDEO (3) JDA (4) AEO 271. In India Panchayati Raj system was introudced by the recommendation of committee (1) Basant Rao Patil (2) Indira Gandhi (3) Ashoka Mehata (4) Balawantrai Mehta 272. Which of the following is the major characteristic of good extension programme? (1) Awarenso (2) Adoption (3) Flexible (4) None of the above

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273. The degree to which an individualis relatively earlier in adopting new ideas than other member of his social system is known as (1) Canmumcation (2) Adoption (3) Innovativeness (4) Laggards 274. The first farmers who adopt a new idea before anyone else in their community are called as (1) Awareners (2) Innovators (3) Evaluation (4) All of the above 275. When compared with the average farmer which of the farmers have slightly higher education, are little younger in age and participate more in formal organization ? (1) Awareners (2) Adoption (3) Early adopters (4) All of the above 276. Which of the following farmers are last adopt new ideas, have the least education, few social contact and low participation in formal organization? (1) Laggards (2) Early majority (3) Adopter id All of the above 277. A continuous series of activities or Co-operation leader leading to the development of a definite plan of action to accomplish particular objective is known as (1) Training and Visit (2) Programme Planning (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 278. Evaluation is an essential step in the extension educational process and is an integral part of: (1) Programme Planning (2) Adoption (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 279. In extension programme planning plan of work refers to description of (1) Awareness (2) Innovators (3) Rural Sociology (4) Situation and problems 280. The impact of Green Revolution in India has been more spectacular on the production of: (1) Cereals (2) Vegetables (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above

281. Which of the following is opulent for the extension workers and the people to follow in moving forward ? (1) Innovators (2) Adoption (3) Develop plan of work (4) None of the above 282. In extension programme planning the process of determining the extent to which objective have been attained is known as; (1) Evaluation (2) Laggards (3) Early Majority (4) None of the above 283. In Programme planning assembling of facts pertaining to (1) Awareness (2) Innovations (3) Keeping the record up-to-date (4) None of the above 284. In Extension programme planning analysis or interpretation of situation means (1) NDP (2) Translation of facts into familiar language (3) KVK (4) None of the above 285. In extension programme planning the valuation of all stages should be done at: (1) The beginning of programme year (2) The end of programme year (3) Before implementation of programme (4) None of the above 286. The guidance, leadership and corneal of the efforts of a group of individuals toward some common goal is known as (1) Administration (2) Extension education (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 287. The assembling of two or more integrating human being collectively seeking to attain some common goal is known as (1) NDP (2) KVK (3) ORP (4) Extension organization 288. As an extension teaching method television can be grouped under (1) Group contact (2) Visual (3) Individual contact (4) Audio-visual

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289. Which of the following is the major principle of method demonstration? (1) Seeing is believing (2) Learning by doing (3) To develop leadership (4) None of the above 290. Reserve Bank of India was established in year (1) 1910 (2) 1923 (3) 1946 (4) 1929 291. The unit of development Development programme was (1) Tahsil (2) State (3) Village (4) District community

299. A body of general principles or laws of a field of knowledge activity is known as: (1) Education (2) Extension (3) Amplification (4) None of the above 300. A process by which a person becomes changed in his behaviour through self activity is known as (1) Teaching (2) Learning (3) Amplification (4) Education 301. Which of the following Extension teaching method is face to face type of individual contact by the extension worker with the farmer at his home? (1) Farm and Home visit (2) Office call (3) Result demonstration (4) None of the above 302. Farm and Home visit method is more advantageous toward (1) Quick communication (2) Gaining confidence of farmers (3) Crediting general awareness among farmers (4) None of the above 303. Which of the following is fundamental objective of method demonstration conducted by the extension worker? (1) Show worth of a practice to the farmer (2) Teach a skill to the farmer (3) Influence the farmer (4) Influence the authority 304. What is the important advantage of suing farm publications? (1) Useful for developing new techniques (2) Can reach a large number of people quickly and simultaneously (3) Reach people directly (4) Arouse and sustain interest 305. Which of the following is a medium for mass communication and tool for giving information and entertainment? (1) Circular letter (2) Office call (3) Telephone call (4) None of the above 306. Which of the following is an instructional communicating device in which the message can be heard as well as seen? (1) Visual (2) Audio (3) Audio-visual (4) Mass contact

292. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established in (1) 1909 (2) 1923 (3) 1946 (4) 1929 293. Which of the following is the principle objective of extension education? (1) Teaching of Rural People (2) Development of Leadership (3) Development of Rural people (4) None of the above 294. Which of the following is the extension teaching methods it includes posters, photographs, film strips, black boards, etc. (1) Audio-visual (2) Visual (3) Written (4) Spoken 295. Indian Agricultural Research established at Pusa in Bihar in (1) 1901 (2) 1910 (3) 1905 (4) 1925 Institute was

296. The basic idea of community development programme was (1) Building of School (2) Building of Roads (3) Building of Human being (4) None of the above 297. The process of teaching rural people, how to live better by learning ways that improve their form, home and community institution (1) Extension Work (2) Extension Programme (3) Extension Education (4) None of the above 298. Which of the following step of Extension education process consist of review of previous efforts and results which reveal a new situation? (1) Reconsideration (2) Evaluation (3) Analysis of situation (4) Deciding upon objectives

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307. Which of the following is an instructional or communicating device can be used as audiovisual aids? (1) Television (2) Dramas and Puppet shows (3) Sound films (4) All of the above 308. Which of the following is a process of change from the traditional way of living to progressive way of living? (1) Motivation (2) Communication (3) Rural development (4) Extension education 309. The art and science of helping adult to learn is known as (1) Sociology (2) Psychology (3) Dendrology (4) All of the above 310. National Extension Service Programme was stated in India during (1) 1965 (2) 1948 (3) 1953 {d) 1955 311. In India the Pilot Project for Rural Development was started in (1) 1971 (2) 1980 (3) 1981 (4) 1979 312. In India the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Scheme was started during (1) 1971 (2) 1980 (3) 1981 (4) 1979 313. The Eight Five Year plan was started during the year (1) 1990-91 (2) 1992-93 (3) 1993-94 (4) 1994-95 314. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Scheme was started in (1) 1957 (2) 1978 (3) 1967 (4) 1970 315. In India the use of television was started in (1) 1962 (2) 1967 (3) 1982 (4) 1976 316. In India NABARD was established in year (1) July 1981 (2) July 1982 (3) October 1983 (4) July 1984 317. Command Area Development Programme was lauuched in (1) 1971 (2) 1972 (3) 1973 (4) 1974

318. The art of directing the efforts or harnessing the energy of human being to the attainment of organization needs and objectives is known (1) Administration (2) Supervision (3) Community development (4) Evaluation 319. Which of the following is the key person or the pivot of the Community Development Programme, helping the village people in improving all phases of village life? (1) Dirtrict Magistrate (2) Gramsevak (3) Basic Siksha Adhikari (4) Block Development Officer 320. Which of the following authority attending the administrative duties in community development programme? (1) Gramsevak (2) BDO (3) Village Extension Worker (4) Tahsildar 321. A group of people in more or less permanent association who are organized for their collection activities and who feel that they belong together is known as (1) Family (2) House (3) Society (4) Community 322. Which of the following is social and cultural unit possesses a basically uniform organization ? (1) Family (h) Village (3) Society (4) Block 323. The role and status of one or more individuals in the structure and functioning of group organizations which enable these group to meet a need is known as (1) Personality (2) Leadership (3) Organization (4) Society 324. The degree to which an innovation is consistent with existing values and past experience of the adopters known as (1) Computability (2) Divisibility (3) Communicability (4) None of the above 325. Which of the following is one of the important function of extension workers? (1) To teach discipline to farmers (2) To diffuse new ideas and practices (3) To implement demonstration in the field (4) None of the above

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326. Which of the following is the fundamental objective of Community Development in India? (1) Destination man (2) Development of people (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 327. Which of the following bank does not provide finance to the farmer for capital working? (1) Nationalized Bank (2) Regional Rural Bank (3) Primary Credit Society (4) Primary Land Development Bank 328. Regional Rural Bank was established under the sponsorship of nationalized bank (1) 1964 (2) 1974 (3) 1954 (4) 1984 329. In India Panchayati Raj System was started first in which of the following state (1) Rajasthan (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Karnataka 330. Which of the following is national level body for policy formulation of rural development programme in India? (1) Community Development Programme (2) Election Commission (3) Planning Commission (4) National Development Council 331. Average product is equal to marginal product when (1) Average product is minimum (2) Average product is maximum (3) Marginal product is zero (4) None of the above 332. When we study a problem from particular to general, the method is known as (1) Inductive method (2) Deductive method (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above 333. When marginal product is zero, the total product is (1) Minimum (2) Maximum (3) Zero (4) None of the above 334. The economics of farming is dependent upon (1) Farm size (2) Agri. price (3) Av. yield and cost of production (4) All of these

335. The cost which is not paid to others, is called (1) Implicit cost (2) Explicit cost (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 336. Extension in demand means (1) Change in demand due to change in Income (2) Change in demand due to change in price (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these 337. The cost incurred by a firm in purchasing any factor of production is referred to as (1) Implicit cost (2) Variable cost (3) Explicit cost 338. At equilibrium, the slope of the indifference curve is. (1) Greater than the slope of the budget line (2) Smaller than the slope of the budget line (3) Equal to the slope of the budget line (4) None of these 339. When total utility increases marginal utility is (1) Positive (2) Negative (3) Zero (4) None of these 340. If the quantity of a commodity demanded does not change when its price changes, the demand curve is (1) Positive slope (2) Vertical (3) Negative slope (4) None of these 341. The meaning of word Economics is most closely associated with the word (1) Free (2) Scarce (3) Unlimited (4) None of these 342. A Market structure with large number of firms selling homogeneous product is known as (1) Prefect Competition (2) Monopoly market (3) Monopolistic Competition (4) None of these 343. The canons of taxation were given by (1) Robbin (2) Pigou (3) Adam Smith (4) None of these 344. The want satisfying power of a commodity is called (1) Consumption (2) Utility (3) Production (4) Demand 345. Sun light is (1) Economic good (2) Free good (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these

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346. The demand for common salt is (1) Inelastic (2) Prefectly elastic (3) highly in elastic (4) None of these 347. Supply for perishables in very short run. (1) can be decreased (2) can be increased (3) remains constant (4) None of these 348. The total fixed cost curve (1) decreases as output increases (2) increases with the level of output (3) remains constant at all the output levels (4) None of these 349. Diversified farming is a (1) Type of farming (2) System of farming (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 350. Enterprise budgeting deals with input output relationship of (1) A single enterprise of the farm (2) A set of different enterprises (3) Both of the above (4) None of the above 351. If substitution ratio is equal to price ratio then cost will be (1) Increasing (2) Decreasing (3) Minimum (4) Maximum 352. If change in price is 1% and charge in demand is 1% then demand will be called (1) Inelastic (2) Elastic (3) Proportionate elastic (4) None of the above 353. The amount added to total cost for producing additional unit of output is known as (1) Average cost (2) Total cost (3) Marginal cost (4) None of them 354. The return from best alternate use of that input forgone by putting it to the present use is known as (1) Total cost (2) Marginal cost (3) Opportunity cost (4) Average cost 355. The law which is very useful in determining the best use of limited resources is (1) Law of substitution (2) Law of opportunity cost (3) Law of diminishing return (4) None of these

356. If two items are complementary then demand of one item will increase for ...........in price of another item (1) Decrease (2) Increase (3) No effect (4) Not known 357. Which of the following is not component of farm business (1) Land (2) Capital (3) Management (4) Environment 358. Which of the following contributes Rob-bins more to national income and stand next to agriculture (1) Transportation (2) Mining and Manufactures (3) Forestry (4) Animal husbandry 359. Gross return + change in inventory total cost is equal to (1) Tax (2) Farm Income (3) Family Income (4) None of the above 360. Opportunity cost is (1) Cost of cultivation (2) Cost of next best alternative Foregone (3) Cost of production (4) Cost of supplementary enterprise. 401. What is the average population of Indias villages (1) Less than 1000 (2) More than 1000 (3) More than 1500 (4) Less than 500 362. Economics is primarily a study of (1) Wealth (2) Wants (3) Man (4) None of these 363. Mans wants are (1) Unlimited (3) Scarce

(2) Limited (4) Countable

364. Means to satisfy human wants are (1) Limited (2) Unlimited (3) 1 and 2 both (4) None of the above 365. Marshalls definition of Economics has been criticised by (1) Robbins (2) Carlyle (3) Ricardo (4) Ruskin 366. The author of the Wealth of Nations was (1) Ricardo (2) Adam Smith (3) Marshall (4) Robbins

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367. Economics is a.....Science (1) Political (2) Natural (3) Social (4) None of these 368. Economics is an............ (1) Art (2) Art and Science both (3) Science (4) None of these 369. Laws of Economics are not as certain as (1) Moral laws (2) Government laws (3) Physical laws (4) All above 370. Goodwill of a business is a (1) Non-material good (2) Material and non-material (3) Material goods (4) None of the above 371. Free goods have a great (1) Value in exchange (2) Transferability (3) Value in use (4) 1 and 2 both 372. Patents and copy-rights are (1) Non-material goods (2) Transferable goods (3) Material goods (4) Scarce goods 373. A table is a (1) Non-material good (2) Material good (3) Free good (4) None of the above 374. Tulsidass works are (1) International wealth (2) Social wealth (3) Personal wealth (4) None of the above 375. Wealth is a (1) Flow (3) Capital

378. The more we have of things, the desire for additional units of it will be (1) More (2) Less (3) Remains the same (4) None of the above 379. A consumer spends his income according to the law of (1) Increasing cost (2) Least cost (3) diminishing marginal utility (4) Equi-marginal utility 380. We get maximum satisfaction when (1) Average utility is decrease (2) Marginal utility is the same (3) Total utility is decrease (4) Total utility is the same 381. During the period of economic depression which sector provides more stability to the economy (1) Industries (2) Agriculture (3) Transport (4) Service sector 382. Utility of the last unit is called as (1) Initial utility (2) Zero utility (3) Marginal utility (4) Total utility 383. A holding which allows a man a chance of producing sufficient to support himself and his family in reasonable comfort after paying his necessary expenses is called (1) Economic holding (2) Basic holding (3) Optimum holding (4) Operational holding 384. When price rises, demand (1) Contracts (2) Increases (3) Decreases (4) Remains the same 385. If more is demanded at the same price, it is a case of (1) Increase in demand (2) Extension in demand (3) Decrease in demand (4) Contraction in demand 386. Creation of utility by way of marketing is known as (1) Production (2) Exchange (3) Consumption (4) Distribution

(2) Fund (4) Income

376. As income increases the expenditure on light, fuel and rent generally (1) Decreases (2) Increases (3) Remains the same (4) None of the above 377. The expenditure on .... increase as increases (1) Luxuries (2) Necessaries (3) Comfort (4) AU of these income

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387. If more and more capital and labour are applied to a fixed piece of land, the system of cultivation of farming is known as (1) Extensive cultivation (2) Large scale farming (3) Intensive cultivation (4) Large scale farming 388. The modern theory of population is called as (1) Demand and supply theory of population (2) Classical theory of population (3) Optimum theory fo population (4) None of the above 389. Which one of the following is not capital (1) Skill of a doctor (2) Cloth in a shop (3) Goodwill of business (4) Furniture in a house 390. Mines and Fisheries are subject of the law of (1) Constant return (2) Diminishing return (3) Increasing return (4) None of the above 391. In a manufacturing industry generally applies the law of (1) Increasing return (2) Decreasing return (3) Constant return (4) All of the above 392. Rent arises under (1) Intensive cultivation (2) Extensive cultivation (3) Both intensive cultivation and Extensive cultivation (4) None of the above 393. The theory of rent is associated with the name of (1) Marshall (2) Pigou (3) Malthus (4) Ricardo 394. Quasi-rent rises in (1) Capital (2) Management

(3) Law (4) Labour 395. The classical theory of interest is also called as (1) Lonable funds theory (2) Real theory of interest (3) Liquidity prefrence theory (4) Monetary theory of interest 396. Marshall defines Economics as (1) The study of human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses (2) Fundamentally a science of scarcity (3) The study of mankind in the ordinary business of life (4) An enquiry into the nature and causes of the wealth of nation 397. Utility in Economics means (1) Satisfaction (2) Pleasure (3) Usefulness (4) Want satisfying power of an commodity. 398. Marginal utility of a commodity is the utility derived from the purchase of (1) Any extra unit (2) The first unit (3) The last one unit (4) All the units 399. Marginal cost is equal to (1) The difference between average cost and the cost of the last unit produced (2) The extra cost of an additional unit produced (3) The average cost of the total output produced. (4) The cost of the last but one unit produced. 400. Which one of the following is correct statement for market (1) Potential buyers and sellers of the product. (2) An organization which provides facilities for exchange of commodities (3) A place where commodities are bought and sold. (4) All of these

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Answers Key
1.(2) 11.(1) 21.(3) 31.(2) 41.(1) 51.(3) 61.(3) 71.(3) 81.(2) 91.(4) 101.(4) 111.(4) 121.(1) 131.(3) 141.(1) 151.(2) 161.(4) 171.(2) 181.(1) 191.(2) 201.(4) 211.(1) 221.(3) 231.(1) 241.(1) 251.(1) 261.(2) 271.(4) 281.(3) 291.(3) 301.(3) 311.(4) 321.(3) 331.(2) 341.(2) 351.(3) 361.(1) 371.(3) 381.(2) 391.(3) 2.(2) 12.(1) 22.(1) 32.(1) 42.(1) 52.(1) 62.(1) 72.(4) 82.(3) 92.(2) 102.(3) 112.(2) 122.(3) 132.(3) 142.(4) 152.(3) 162.(5) 172.(4) 182.(f) 192.(1) 202.(3) 212.(2) 222.(1) 232.(1) 242.(2) 252.(1) 262.(3) 272.(3) 282.(1) 292.(4) 302.(2) 312.(2) 322.(2) 332.(1) 342.(3) 352.(1) 362.(3) 372.(1) 382.(3) 392.(2) 3.(1) 13.(3) 23.(1) 33.(1) 43.(1) 53.(1) 63.(1) 73.(2) 83.(3) 93.(4) 103.(3) 113.(3) 123.(1) 133.(1) 143.(5) 153.(1) 163.(2) 173.(4) 183.(1) 193.(2) 203.(2) 213.(3) 223.(1) 233.(1) 243.(1) 253.(2) 263.(4) 273.(3) 283.(3) 293.(3) 303.(2) 313.(2) 323.(2) 333.(2) 343.(3) 353.(3) 363.(1) 373.(2) 383.(1) 393.(4) 4.(1) 14.(1) 24.(1) 34.(1) 44.(1) 54.(2) 64.(2) 74.(3) 84.(3) 94.(4) 104.(1) 114.(4) 124.(2) 134.(3) 144.(2) 154.(4) 164.(3) 174.(1) 184.(2) 194.(2) 204.(3) 214.(1) 224.(1) 234.(1) 244.(1) 254.(4) 264.(3) 274.(2) 284.(4) 294.(1) 304.(4) 314.(2) 324.(1) 334.(3) 344.(2) 354.(3) 364.(1) 374.(2) 384.(3) 394.(1) 5.(1) 15.(1) 25.(1) 35.(3) 45.(1) 55.(3) 65.(4) 75.(3) 85.(2) 95.(1) 105.(2) 115.(2) 125.(2) 135.(2) 145.(6) 155.(3) 165.(5) 175.(4) 185.(3) 195.(1) 205.(1) 215.(1) 225.(1) 235.(4) 245.(1) 255.(2) 265.(4) 275.(3) 285.(4) 295.(3) 305.(3) 315.(2) 325.(2) 335.(1) 345.(2) 355.(2) 365.(1) 375.(2) 385.(1) 395.(2) 6.(3) 16.(1) 26.(4) 36.(1) 46.(1) 56.(3) 66.(1) 76.(3) 86.(1) 96.(3) 106.(4) 116.(4) 126.(1) 136.(4) 146.(6) 156.(4) 166.(5) 176.(3) 186.(2) 196.(4) 206.(4) 216.(4) 226.(2) 236.(2) 246.(1) 256.(3) 266.(2) 276.(1) 286.(1) 296.(3) 306.(4) 316.(2) 326.(3) 336.(2) 346.(1) 356.(2) 366.(2) 376.(2) 386.(1) 396.(3) 7.(1) 17.(1) 27.(1) 37.(3) 47.(1) 57.(3) 67.(3) 77.(3) 87.(2) 97.(2) 107.(4) 117.(1) 127.(3) 137.(4) 147.(3) 157.(1) 167.(3) 177.(4) 187.(4) 197.(3) 207.(2) 217.(1) 227.(2) 237.(1) 247.(1) 257.(3) 267.(3) 277.(2) 287.(4) 297.(3) 307.(3) 317.(4) 327.(1) 337.(1) 347.(3) 357.(4) 367.(3) 377.(3) 387.(3) 397.(4) 8.(1) 18.(1) 28.(4) 38.(1) 48.(1) 58.(3) 68.(3) 78.(3) 88.(2) 98.(4) 108.(1) 118.(4) 128.(1) 138.(3) 148.(4) 158.(4) 168.(4) 178.(4) 188.(1) 198.(3) 208.(3) 218.(3) 228.(1) 238.(1) 248.(2) 258.(4) 268.(1) 278.(1) 288.(4) 298.(1) 308.(4) 318.(4) 328.(2) 338.(3) 348.(3) 358.(2) 368.(2) 378.(2) 388.(1) 398.(1) 9.(2) 19.(3) 29.(4) 39.(1) 49.(3) 59.(4) 69.(1) 79.(3) 89.(2) 99.(3) 109.(1) 119.(2) 129.(2) 139.(1) 149.(1) 159.(4) 169.(1) 179.(f) 189.(4) 199.(3) 209.(3) 219.(2) 229.(1) 239.(2) 249.(4) 259.(1) 269.(4) 279.(4) 289.(2) 299.(3) 309.(3) 319.(2) 329.(1) 339.(1) 349.(3) 359.(2) 369.(3) 379.(4) 389.(4) 399.(2) 10.(3) 20.(3) 30.(4) 40.(1) 50.(4) 60.(4) 70.(1) 80.(2) 90.(4) 100.(3) 110.(2) 120.(3) 130.(1) 140.(4) 150.(3) 160.(5) 170.(4) 180.(3) 190.(2) 200.(1) 210.(1) 220.(1) 230.(1) 240.(1) 250.(4) 260.(3) 270.(3) 280.(3) 290.(4) 300.(4) 310.(3) 320.(2) 330.(4) 340.(2) 350.(1) 360.(2) 370.(1) 380.(3) 390.(2) 400.(4)

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