06/05/2013

IIT-JEE-2014
CODE
PAPER 1
Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 160

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page of this
booklet.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets are
NOT allowed.
4. Write your name and registration number in the space provided on the back page of this booklet.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
8. This question Paper contains 36 6 pages having 69 46 questions.
9. On breaking the seals, please check that all the questions are legible.
B. Filling the Right Part of the ORS:
10. The ORS also has a CODE printed on its Left and Right parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the codes do not match ask for a change
of the booklet.
12. Write your Name, Registration No. and the name of centre and sign with pen in the boxes provided. Do not
write them anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration No. with a
good quality HB pencil.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
13. The question paper consists of 3 2 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part consists of four
sections.
14. In Section I (Total Marks: 21), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
mark will be awarded.
15. In Section II (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this
section.
16. In Section III (Total Marks: 15), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
mark will be awarded.
17. In Section IV (Total Marks: 28), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ONLY the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.

K. Nayak
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PART–I: CHEMISTRY
SECTION – I (Total Marks: 21)
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

Q1. In the diagram given below X, Y, Z may be respectively

(a) α, β, γ (b) ∝, γ, β
AK
(c) γ, β, α (d) None
AY
Q2. According to Bohr, the orbit is

(a) both circular and elliptical (b) only elliptical (c) only circular (d) None

Q3. In Rutherford’s alpha-ray scattering experiment, the use of gold as target may be possibly due to its
N

(a) high at. No.(Z=79) (b) high at. Wt. (c) high malleability (d) both (a) & (c)

Q4. According to Bohr, the angular momentum of 3rd orbit of hydrogen is

K.

h h 
(a) 3mvr (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 3
 4 2h

Q5. An ion A 4 has 20 electrons and (Z+4) neutrons. Then the atomic number of A is

(a) 44 (b) 48 (c) 52 (d) none

Q6. The α-line of Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum may correspond to wave length of

(a) UV region (b) IR region (c) red (d) violet

Q7. In a hydrogen like atom electron makes transition from an energy level with quantum number n to another with

quantum number (n–1). If n>>1, the frequency of radiation emitted is proportional to :

(a) 1/n (b) 1/n2 (c) 1/ n3/2 (d) 1 / n3

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SECTION – II (Total Marks: 16)

(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

Q8. The mass of photon with wave length 3.6 A0 is

(a) 6.135 1033 kg (b) 1.67 1027 kg (c) 6.135 1029 kg (d) 3.6 1033 kg
Q9. The KE of electron in the 2nd excited state of hydrogen is
(a) 1.5 eV (b) -1.5 eV (c) 3 eV (d) 0.75 eV
Q10. No. of spectral lines produced when electrons jump from 4th orbit of hydrogen to 1st orbit are
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 4
40 2 40
Q11. Ca & Ar are
20 18
(a) isotonic (b) isodiaphoric (c) isoelectronic (d) isobaric

SECTION – III (Total Marks: 15)

(Paragraph Type)

AK
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
AY
Paragraph for Questions 12 to 14

Q12. The value of Planck’s constant in terms of l and m is given by

(a) l / m (b) m / l (c) me / l (d) None
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Q13. Stopping potential is

(a) me / h (b) m (c) l (d) mh / e
Q14. Which of the following is correct about photoelectric
K.

effect
(a) photocurrent is directly proportional to frequency of
incident radiation
(b) photocurrent is directly proportional to intensity of
incident radiation
(c) stopping potential is independent of frequency
(d) None

Paragraph for Questions 15 to 16

Q15. Which of the following phenomena explain the transverse wave character of radiation
(a) blackbody radiation (b) polarisation (c) diffraction (d) photoelectric effect
Q16. The quantum of light is called
(a) proton (b) positron (c) photon (d) neutron
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SECTION – IV (Total Marks: 28)

(Integer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a Single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

Q17. An electron in an unexcited hydrogen atom acquired an energy of 12.1 eV. To what energy level did it
jump?
Q18. The ratio of radius of singly ionised helium in its 1st excited state to the Bohr orbit of hydrogen is
Q19. What is the work function of a metal in eV if a radiation of wavelength 6200 A0 just sufficient to ionise it.
Q20. The wave length of a photon having momentum 1.32 1022 kgm / s in Pico meter is

6200 0
Q21. Find the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron ejected when light of wavelength A is
3
incident on a caesium surface. Work function of cesium = l.9eV.
Q22. Th e human eye can respond to as little as 1.8 × 10-18 J of light energy. For a wavelength at the peak of

AK
visual sensitivity, 550 nm, how many photons lead to an observable flash?
Q23. Orbit of radius 4.24A0 corresponds to which orbit of He .

PART–II: PHYSICS
AY
SECTION – I (Total Marks: 21)
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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Q24. The resultant of two vectors A and B is zero. Then

(a) A = B (b) A = B (c) A = - B (d) A  B

K.

Q25. Which is a vector quantity

(a) Pressure (b) Surface tension (c) Small angular displacement d (d) Kinetic energy
Q26. Direction of null vector is
(a) Along x-axis (b) Along y-axis (c) Along z-axis (d) None
Q27. Which is not false
(a) A  0  A (b) i  k  0 (c) i  i  0 (d) 3i  4 j  32  42 k
Q28. Two forces of magnitude 7 newton and 5 newton act on a particle at an angle θ to each other
which can have any value. The minimum magnitude of the resultant force is :
(a) 5 newtons (b) 8 newtons (c) 12newtons (d) 2 newtons
Q29. Two non-collinear forces, one of 10 N and another of 6 N act upon a body. The directions of
the forces are unknown: The resultant force on the body is :
(a) between 6 and 10 N (b) between 4 and 16 N (c) more than 6 N (d) more than 10 N
Q30. If A  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ & B  3iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ . Then the angle between them is
(a) π (b) π/3 (c) π/6 (d) 2 π/3
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SECTION – II (Total Marks: 16)

(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.

Q31. What is the maximum number of rectangular components into which a vector can be split in
space?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 100 (d) ∞
Q32.

Q33.

Q34.

AK
AY
SECTION – III (Total Marks: 15)
(Paragraph Type)
N

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
K.

Paragraph for Questions 58 to 60

Q35. The component of 𝐴⃗ along X’ is

(a) 3/2 (b) √3 (c) √3/2 (d) 1/√3
⃗
Q36. The component of 𝐴 along Z’ is
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) √3 (d) 9
Q37. The cosine of the angle that 𝐴⃗ makes with X-axis is
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/√3 (c) 1/9 (d) 2/9
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Paragraph for Questions 61 to 62

Q38. What is the area of the parallelogram

(a) √19 (b) √17 (c) √10 (d) 3
Q39. What is the vector projection of diagonal OP on 2iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ
2 5
(a) 2iˆ  5 ˆj (b) iˆ  ˆj  7kˆ (c) iˆ  ˆj  7kˆ (d) Name
3 9

AK
SECTION – IV (Total Marks: 28)
(Integer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a Single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
AY
Q40. A plane is inclined at an angle 600 with horizontal. Find the component of A  10kˆ perpendicular to the

plane. (Here z-direction is vertically upward)

N

Q41. Find the distance of the point (2m, 3m, 4m) from X-axis.


Q42. If A  B  A  B then the angle between A & B is n . Find the value of n.
3
K.

Q43. If 2iˆ  3 ˆj  k and 8iˆ  12 ˆj  akˆ are parallel to each other, find the

value of a.

Q44. A room has dimensions 3m × 4m × 5m. A fly starting at one corner

ends up at the diametrically opposite corner. The magnitude of its

displacement rounded up to the nearest integer is --------------.

Q45. A block of weight 100 N is suspended as shown with the help of three strings. Find the tension in the string

OA.

Q46. If 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ is perpendicular to aiˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ , then find the value of ‘a’.

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