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FOUNDATION CERTIFICATE IN
IT SERVICE MANAGEMENT
SAMPLE 4 – 2003
Lecturer Copy with Answers and Guidelines
If you make a mistake, erase your first mark and put a mark
in your new chosen answer column for that question.
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QUESTION 2.
QUESTION 3.
A Market rate
B The going rate that is agreed with Customers
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
QUESTION 4.
A Verification
B Security
C Reliability
D Maintainability
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QUESTION 5.
QUESTION 6.
QUESTION 7.
QUESTION 8.
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QUESTION 9.
1. Options
2. Management summary
3. Business workload forecasts
4. Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 10.
QUESTION 11.
Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8 hours
QUESTION 12.
Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
1 Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A All them
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
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QUESTION 13.
A 1, 2 and 4
B 2 and 3
C All of them
D None of them
QUESTION 14.
The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation
resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
QUESTION 15.
QUESTION 16.
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components
operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for
parts of the IT infrastructure
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QUESTION 17.
QUESTION 18.
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
QUESTION 19.
A DSL
B AMDB
C CMDB
D CDB
QUESTION 20.
A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the
network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management
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QUESTION 21.
1 Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
A 4–2–1–3
B 4–3–2–1
C 2–1–4–3
D 2–1–3–4
QUESTION 22.
QUESTION 23.
QUESTION 24.
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QUESTION 25.
A 1&2
B All four
C 3&4
D 1, 2 & 3
QUESTION 26.
A 1 Only
B 2 Only
C 1&3
D 1, 2 & 3
QUESTION 27.
QUESTION 28.
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QUESTION 29.
1 Modelling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity
Management?
A 1&2
B 3&4
C 2&4
D 1&3
QUESTION 30.
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
QUESTION 31.
QUESTION 32.
A Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC
being raised
B Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
A Chairing the CAB
C Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
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QUESTION 33.
Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the
information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of
CIs
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about components that are
not currently under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control, the main objective is to
get the database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
QUESTION 34.
1 Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A 1, 3 and 5
B 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 5
D All of them
QUESTION 35.
Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and
Problems?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D All of them
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QUESTION 36.
Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by
Problem Management to the Service Desk?
QUESTION 37.
Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
QUESTION 38.
QUESTION 39.
QUESTION 40.
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
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Question 1
A – Fairly obvious as the question is about “customer- based” and this option is the
only one referring to a customer (albeit a group).
Question 2
B – Incident volumes will not be reduced directly using an Incident Management
process. There is an argument to say numbers may well increase as customers gain
confidence in the desks’ ability to handle incidents.
Question 3
A – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 48.
Question 4
A – Verification is a responsibility of Configuration Management
Question 5
C – This option in fact encompasses the other three available. It directly refers to the
need to satisfy organisational requirements for effective management.
Question 6
B – The operative phrase here is “managing the request”, which is clearly a
Change Management responsibility. Raising the request could be seen as a
Capacity Management responsibility.
Question 7
D – Fairly obvious as Configuration/Change/Release all deal directly with
Configuration Items and their management.
Question 8
A – This is the only non-benefit option available, so is really a give away if delegates
read the question.
Question 9
D – A Capacity Plan would not require a back out plan itself. Each accepted option
within the Capacity Plan will require a Change to be put in place and each Change
will require a back out plan.
Question 10
A – By definition Operational Management is the final stage, whereas Develop
Procedures and Initial Testing is the first stage(s).
Question 11
C – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 61.
Question 12
A – The key word here is “likely”. This means that all may participate or only
subsets. Depends on the organisation and Change Management requirements.
Question 13
A – Definition of processes must take place prior to implementing a software tool.
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Question 14
C – A fairly obvious answer. Option A is clearly Problem, Option B & D are
Availability.
Question 15
D – SOA is not mentioned in the Pocket Guide (shown on slide as Service Outage
Analysis) and in the Delivery book has various options attributed to it. However it
seems apparent that the examiners have decided that Service Outage Analysis is the
way to go.
Question 16
D – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 65.
Question 17
A – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 49.
Question 18
C – Purchase Order is an item that would fall under the main type Documentation.
Question 19
C – This refers to the “Release Record” holding a number of components which is
stored on the CMDB. The DSL holds the individual component(s).
Question 20
B – The Service Desk is the first and single point of contact. This event can be
regarded as an Incident and Incidents are reported to the Service Desk.
Question 21
B – This starts with the “what do we want”, design how to do it, specify tool to assist
and then select appropriate tool.
Question 22
D – This is straight from the slide set. However logically, how can customers decide
what they want, if they do not know what is available to begin with.
Question 23
D – Straight from the Pocket Guide, page 36.
Question 24
D – This is the best description as it brings in “cost effective”, apart from anything
else A & C are clearly nonsense and B is extremely difficult to achieve.
Question 25
B – Straightforward answer as all these items would enhance the operation of the
Service Desk.
Question 26
D – Key word here is “can”, they may not always do it, but they can.
Question 27
A – No brainer really.
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Question 28
C – Option A more likely to be OLA, Option B & D more likely Underpinning Contract.
Option C covers both SLA and OLA.
Question 29
D – DSL is clearly Config/Change/ Release and Risk could be
Change/Availability/Continuity
Question 30
D – An incident can lead to a Problem Record being raised, but an Incident itself will
never become a Problem.
Question 31
C – A badly worded question. Investigation and diagnosis of long term problems can
be undertaken even without Incident Management being in place. The key word is
“Entirely” – Incident Management is not the only source of Problem data.
Question 32
C - Option A is Problem, Option B is Change Builder, Option D is Release
Management
Question 33
B – Option A would apply once scope etc. has been agreed, Option C is clearly
nonsense. Option D why only IT staff, you must include the business. Option B is the
most logical answer of the provided set.
Question 34
D – SLM is the co-ordinating discipline within the ITIL set.
Question 35
C – Category 2 is the least likely to occur.
Question 36
B – By definition a Known error will have a work round/ permanent solution identified
which can be used to resolve incidents at first contact. This will lead to improved
levels of customer satisfaction.
Question 37
A – Derived from the Pocket Guide, page 41. Options B & D refer to lowest cost,
which is not always achievable. Option C leaves no room for improvement if
maximum availability is already achieved.
Question 38
B – Option A is SLM, Option C is Change Management, Option D is Configuration
Management.
Question 39
A – A release is made up of a number of changes, these changes have been
requested using RFC’s.
Question 40
C – Another badly worded question. However Options A, B and D are clearly wrong
which means that C being the only one left, must be the answer.
Question Summary.
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The following is a list of the questions that may be applied after covering each discipline. The
list is cumulative and is compiled to enable you to use particular sets of questions at various
stages throughout the course.
Discipline Questions
Configuration Management 5, 18
Service Desk 27
Incident Management 2
Problem Management 30, 31, 35
Change Management 8, 12, 25, 26, 32, 33, 36
Release Management 23, 39
SLM 1, 22, 28, 37, 38
Financial Management 3, 17, 40
Availability Management 4, 15, 16,
Capacity Management 6, 9,19, 20, 24, 29
ITSCM 7, 10, 11, 14
All Subjects Covered 13, 21, 34,
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